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Nursing Physiology is a foundational course that explores the normal functioning of the human body, with a focus on the physiological processes that underpin health and wellness. Emphasizing the relevance to nursing practice, the course covers major body systems including cardiovascular, respiratory, nervous, endocrine, digestive, and renal systems highlighting how these systems interact to maintain homeostasis. Through an understanding of cellular function, tissue dynamics, and organ system integration, students gain essential knowledge to assess patient conditions and support clinical decision-making, preparing them to recognize deviations from normal physiology that may indicate illness.
Recommended Textbook
Human Physiology From Cells to Systems 8th Edition by Lauralee Sherwood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evaporation of sweat cooling the body is an example of
A)negative feedback
B)positive feedback
C)a feedforward mechanism
D)an intrinsic (local) control mechanism
E)autoregulation
Answer: A
Q2) Glands are formed during embryonic development by pockets of epithelial tissue that dip inward from the surface.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Includes cells that form glands
Answer: B
Q4) ____________________ are composed of two or more types of primary tissue organized to perform a particular function or functions.
Answer: Organs
Q5) ____________________ cells are specialized to send electrical signals.
Answer: Nerve
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secretory vesicles are about 200 times larger than transport vesicles.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) All of a muscle cell's lactate is synthesized
A)in Krebs cycle reactions
B)from acetyl CoA
C)directly from glucose
D)from pyruvate
E)in chemiosmosis
Answer: D
Q3) The chemiosmotic mechanism involves the transport of ____________________ ions across the inner membrane of the ____________________.
Answer: hydrogen, mitochondrion
Q4) Moves toward the centriole along tubulin protein
Answer: F
Q5) All cell organelles are renewable.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

Page 4
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osmosis is a type of
A)carrier-mediated transport
B)diffusion
C)exocytosis
D)pinocytosis
E)primary active transport
Answer: B
Q2) Important in cell aggregation to form tissues
Answer: B
Q3) Ion that has the predominant influence on the resting membrane potential
Answer: B
Q4) According to Fick's law of diffusion, which of the following changes would decrease the rate of net diffusion of "X" across a membrane?
A)An increase in the X's concentration gradient
B)An increase in the permeability of the membrane to X
C)An increase in the surface area of the membrane
D)An increase in the thickness of the membrane
E)A decrease in the size of X
Answer: D
To


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Sample Questions
Q1) When EPSPs occurring simultaneously from two different presynaptic inputs add together or sum to bring the postsynaptic cell to threshold, it is called ____________________ summation.
Q2) Concentration gradient for K at the end of an action potential
Q3) Myelin
Q4) Released into blood for delivery to target
Q5) During the resting potential, the membrane is more permeable to potassium ions than to sodium ions.
A)True
B)False
Q6) During the falling phase of an action potential
Q7) Action potentials can be summed.
A)True
B)False
Q8) An action potential in a presynaptic neuron induces opening of voltage-gated ____________________ channels in the synaptic knob, which triggers exocytosis of synaptic vesicles.
Page 6
Q9) A plasma membrane is polarized if it separates particles with an opposite
Q10) Increased PN and increased PK of the subsynaptic membrane
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ____________________ association cortex is located at the interface of three lobes of the brain.
Q2) The ____________________, which is part of the ____________________ that forms the walls of the third ventricle, serves as a relay station and synaptic integrating center for preliminary processing of all sensory input on its way to the cortex.
Q3) Located on the sides of the brain
Q4) Conducts impulses to efferent somatic neurons for the conscious voluntary control of skeletal muscles
Q5) The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are part of the
A)central nervous system
B)somatic nervous system
C)autonomic nervous system
D)afferent division
E)autonomic nervous system and afferent division
Q6) Form the insulative myelin sheaths around axons in the CNS
Q7) Responsible for comprehension and formulation of coherent patterns of speech
Q8) Contains centers for respiration, heart and blood vessel function, and many digestive activities
Q9) Carry information from the brain to neurons in the spinal cord
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sites are located within the central nervous system?
A)sites 2 and 3 only
B)sites 1 and 5
C)site 2 only
D)sites 2, 3, and 4
E)all sites labeled except 5
Q2) Retinal is derived from vitamin A and is found in rods but not the cones.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ____________________ is the layer of the eye that contains the photoreceptor cells.
Q4) The utricle is
A)an otolith organ
B)activated when a person bends the head to look down at the ground
C)activated when a person starts to walk
D)within the vestibule
E)has all of the above characteristics
Q5) Proprioception is the awareness of the body's position in space.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acetylcholine
A)opens voltage-gated Na+ channels in skeletal muscle fibers, which causes depolarization of the muscle fibers
B)may decrease the permeability of the motor end plate to Na+ and K+ when combined with the receptor sites on the motor end plate
C)always depolarizes skeletal muscle fibers and postganglionic neurons
D)does both a and b
E)does both b and c
Q2) Predominates in fight-or-flight situations
Q3) Adrenergic receptor found primarily in the heart
Q4) Nicotinic receptors
A)bind with acetylcholine released from parasympathetic postganglionic fibers
B)respond to acetylcholine released from sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic fibers
C)are found primarily in the heart
D)bind with norepinephrine released from sympathetic postganglionic fibers
E)are found on certain effectors of the parasympathetic nervous system
Q5) Most sympathetic postganglionic fibers have cell bodies in a sympathetic ganglion ____________________, also called the sympathetic _________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Flaccid paralysis in a condition in which skeletal muscles receive an increase in inhibitory input from higher brain centers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Is self-excitable
Q3) Muscles that have a fine degree of control have small motor units.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The functional unit of skeletal muscle
A)is the smallest contractile component of a muscle fiber
B)is the area between two Z lines
C)is the sarcomere
D)contains only one A band
E)exhibits all of the above characteristics
Q5) Which of the following does not directly influence motor neurons?
A)primary motor cortex
B)cerebellum
C)brain stem
D)afferent neurons (through intervening interneurons)
E)None of the above
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Q1) High blood pressure decreases the afterload and increases the preload.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An increase in venous return ____________________ the end-diastolic volume.
Q3) Time during which ventricles are filling
Q4) A heart valve opens and closes due to
A)being pulled by the heart muscle
B)pressure differences on the valve's two sides
C)Na+ and K+ fluxes during ventricular depolarization
D)turbulent flow in the atria and ventricles
E)none of the above
Q5) The primary function of the pericardial sac is to
A)prevent excessive expansion of the heart as it fills with blood
B)secrete a fluid that reduces friction as the heart beats
C)serve as a reservoir for blood to be used during strenuous exercise
D)provide oxygen and nutrients to the heart muscle
E)catch and kill any bacteria in the blood flowing through the heart chambers
Q6) The ____________________ extracts cholesterol from the blood and converts it into ____________________, which are secreted into the bile.
Q7) An increase in stroke volume ____________________ ESV.
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the pulse pressure is 44 mm Hg and the diastolic pressure is 68 mm Hg, the systolic pressure is ____ mm Hg.
A)22
B)24
C)66
D)112
E)145
Q2) What are the four roles of the lymphatic system in relation to the cardiovascular system?
Q3) Edema, venous pooling, and a reduction in cardiac output are consequences of standing still for a long time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A local increase in potassium increases the vasodilation of arterioles.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Increased venous return ____ the end-diastolic volume and ____ the stroke volume.
Q6) Serve as low-resistance passageways from the tissues to the heart
Q7) Increasing the number of circulating red blood cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The extrinsic clotting pathway
A)is initiated by platelet factor
B)is primarily responsible for clotting in tissues
C)has more steps than the intrinsic pathway
D)is set off when Hageman factor comes into contact with collagen in an injured vessel
E)has none of the above characteristics
Q2) Type AB blood has both A and B antigens and no anti-A or anti-B antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Agranulocytes lack hemoglobin, whereas granulocytes contain small amounts of globin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Detail the life cycle of an erythrocyte, including: (1) specific cells from which they are derived, (2) site of development, (3) name and source of chemicals that stimulate their production, and (4) length of life span and why this life span is limited.
Q5) Associated with prolonged exposure to low oxygen, such as at high altitude or with chronic lung disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which occurrence is not characteristic of the inflammation response?
A)Increased capillary permeability
B)Increased macrophage activity
C)Localized vasodilation
D)Localized edema
E)Decreased phagocytic activity
Q2) Called regulatory T cells
Q3) ____________________ immunity is not self-generated compared to active immunity.
Q4) Which of the following is not attributable to complement activity?
A)Acting as opsonins
B)Walling-off the inflamed area
C)Serving as chemotaxins
D)Stimulating the release of histamine
E)Forming a membrane attack complex
Q5) Which of the following does not apply to neutrophils?
A)Produced only in lymph nodes
B)Perform phagocytosis
C)Perform diapedesis
D)Exhibit amoeboid movement
E)Attracted by chemotaxis

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Sample Questions
Q1) Stimulates peripheral chemoreceptors and is important in the regulation of acid-base balance
Q2) ______(Hypo or Hyper?)ventilation would ______ (increase or decrease?) the level of carbon dioxide in the blood, and this would decrease the activity of the carotid bodies.
Q3) Which number(s) relate(s) only to an amount of air inhaled?
Q4) The primary factor that determines the percent Hb saturation is the ____________________.
Q5) Effect of reduced systemic venous \(\mathrm { P } _ { \mathrm { O } _ { 2 } }\) on O exchange within the lungs
Q6) The quantity of O that will diffuse between the alveolar air and pulmonary blood depends solely on the partial pressure gradients that exist between the alveoli and blood.
A)True B)False
Q7) Contraction of the ____________________ intercostal muscles elevates the ribs.
Q8) The structure labeled 3 is the right ________.
Page 16
Q9) The extra volume of air that can be maximally inspired over and above the tidal volume
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Bowman's capsule hydrostatic pressure opposes filtration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Vasopressin is also known as ____________________, indicative of its effect on the kidneys.
Q3) The distal and collecting tubules in the absence of vasopressin are ______ to H O.
Q4) Filtered and actively reabsorbed but not secreted
Q5) The clearance rate for inulin is greater than the GFR.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Nephron
Q7) Describe how renin can ultimately increase the kidney's ability to conserve water in the distal tubule.Include the following in your answer: blood pressure, aldosterone, lungs, angiotensinogen, angiotensin I and II, and JGA.
Q8) The presence of vasopressin acts to prevent the reabsorption of water from the distal and collecting tubules.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) Water enters the cells by osmosis.
Q2) An absence of the hormone ____________________ leads to the formation of keto acids in the body.
Q3) Extracellular fluid
A)includes plasma
B)includes interstitial fluid
C)constitutes a smaller percentage of total body water than does intracellular fluid
D)includes lymph
E)has all of the above characteristics
Q4) Buffer systems contain strong acids such as HCl.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the means by which the body regulates water content.
Q6) The percentage of body water varies from person to person.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Depends primarily on H O balance
Q8) Primary ECF buffer for noncarbonic acids
Q9) This occurs as a consequence of diabetes insipidus.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The defecation reflex
A)is initiated when mass movements force fecal material into the rectum, stimulating stretch receptors in the rectal wall
B)involves relaxation of the internal anal sphincter
C)involves contraction of the sigmoid colon and rectum
D)can be overridden by voluntary contraction of the external anal sphincter
E)has all of the above characteristics
Q2) The epiglottis opens the glottis during the swallowing reflex.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Respiration is inhibited throughout the entire time that swallowing is taking place. A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe factors within the stomach and duodenum, and those outside the digestive system that affect gastric motility and emptying.
Q5) ____________ cells, located with the crypts of Lieberkuhn, produce _________, which is able to lyse bacteria, and _____________, which are small proteins with antimicrobial power.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a means of increasing or conserving heat production?
A)shivering
B)skin vasodilation
C)nonshivering thermogenesis
D)increased muscle tone
E)increased exercise
Q2) Leptin is a hormone released from adipose tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Excessive fat content in adipose tissue stores
Q4) An elevated body temperature is always indicative of an infection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Psychosocial influences can lead to obesity.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A fever augments the inflammatory response and therefore inhibits the multiplication of __________________.
Q7) Amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of H O 1 C
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Q1) Identify all correct statements about lipophilic hormones.
A)They include steroids and thyroid hormone
B)They bind with receptors located inside their target cells
C)They activate second-messenger systems within their target cells
D)Both a and b
E)Both a and c
Q2) Which statement regarding endocrine glands is incorrect?
A)They produce hormones.
B)They secrete their products into the blood.
C)They are comprised of epithelial tissue.
D)They are all controlled by the nervous system.
E)They are ductless.
Q3) Acromegaly develops from a deficiency of the growth hormone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ____________________ hormones are derived from tyrosine.
Q5) IGF-1 stimulates cartilage growth at the ______________ of a long bone, causing the bone to become longer.
Q7) Bone cells that are entombed in bone Page 22
Q6) Antidiuretic hormone is also called ____________________.
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Q1) Which of the following factors increases insulin but not glucagon secretion?
A)Increased blood glucose levels
B)Increased amino acids (especially during a protein-rich meal)
C)An anticipatory response mediated through an increase in vagal activity and gastrointestinal hormones
D)Both a and c
E)Both b and c
Q2) In response to stress, the hypothalamus secretes ____________________, which ultimately results in cortisol secretion.
Q3) Is essential for life
Q4) Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Q5) The hormone labeled number ____ is called ____________________, and it binds to a highly selective globulin when being transported in the blood.
Q6) Conversion of glucose into glycogen
Q7) The binding of RANKL to RANK causes ___________ (name of cells) to differentiate into ___________ (name of cells)
Q8) Increased TRH _____ TSH.
Q9) Insulin
Q10) Stimulates hepatic glycogenolysis
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Q1) Occurs as a result of vascular engorgement
Q2) Responsible for final maneuvering for penetration of ova
Q3) What is responsible for differentiating the embryonic gonads into testes?
A)Sex-determining region of the X chromosome
B)Sex-determining region of the Y chromosome
C)Autosomal chromosomes
D)Male gonadal-determining factor
E)Sertoli cells
Q4) Gonadal sex
Q5) The third and final stage of labor involves the actual birth of the baby.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The entire process of movement of the sperm and sex gland secretions out of the male reproductive tract is called ____________________; emptying of semen into the urethra is known as ____________________; forceful ejection of sperm from the penis is called ____________________.
Q7) Clitoris
Q8) Promotes thickening of the myometrium
Q9) Labia minora
Q10) Placenta Page 25
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