Nursing Pharmacology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Nursing Pharmacology is a foundational course that introduces nursing students to the principles of pharmacology and its practical applications in patient care. The course covers drug classifications, mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, side effects, and interactions, with a strong focus on safe medication administration and dosage calculations. Students will learn to assess patient responses to medications, recognize adverse reactions, and employ evidence-based practices for drug therapy management. Emphasis is placed on understanding the legal and ethical responsibilities of nurses in pharmacological care, as well as developing critical thinking and decision-making skills vital for promoting optimal patient outcomes across diverse populations.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Pharmacology 2nd Edition by Workman
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Drug Regulation, Actions, and Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells you that she is allergic to the drug her health care provider just prescribed.What is your best first response or action?
A) Ask her to describe the allergic response she had previously to this drug.
B) Ask her whether she received the drug she was allergic to by mouth or by injection.
C) Thank her for the information and ask the health care provider to prescribe something else.
D) Tell her that the health care provider will also prescribe an antidote that will prevent an allergic response to the prescribed drug.
Answer: A
Q2) What is the term for a drug that has the same action as a naturally occurring body hormone or enzyme?
A) Agonist
B) Blocking agent
C) Chemical
D) Duplicator
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Safely Preparing and Giving Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient with an NG tube has orders for several enteral drugs (e.g. ,capsules,tablets,and liquids).What should you do before giving these drugs? (select all that apply)
A) Check with the pharmacist about crushing the tablets.
B) Follow the procedures of the "eight rights."
C) Aspirate to check for stomach contents.
D) Open the extended-release capsules.
E) Inject 150 mL of water to check tube patency.
Answer: A,B,C
Q2) When is it acceptable to take a verbal order from the prescriber before giving a drug to a patient?
A) During the nightshift when the prescriber is not at the hospital
B) In an emergency situation such as a cardiac arrest
C) When a patient is experiencing severe pain
D) At any time it is convenient
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Mathematics Review and Introduction to Dosage Calculation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which fraction is reduced to its lowest common denominator?
A) 3/17
B) 4/8
C) 2/20
D) 5/15
Answer: A
Q2) A patient is prescribed aspirin 650 mg orally.The aspirin form on hand is 325 mg/tablet.How many tablets is the correct dose?
_____ tablet(s)
Answer: 2
Want 650 mg/Have 325 mg; 11ea681a_4365_1dac_b611_6da88a19f984_TB1177_11 = 2.
Q3) What does the "N" indicate in the PINCH high alert drugs?
A) Narcotics
B) Niacin
C) Naphthalene
D) Neurotransmitter
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Medical Systems of Weights and Measures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed to receive 750 mg of metformin (Glucophage)oral solution through a nasogastric tube.You have on hand the oral solution with a concentration of 100 mg/mL.How many milliliters should you administer through the tube?
Q2) A newborn infant weights 1.982 kg.What is this infant's weight in pounds?
A) 9.2
B) 4.36
C) 2.92
D) 0.9
Q3) How many milliliters are in 3 ounces?
A) 15
B) 30
C) 60
D) 90
Q4) A patient is prescribed potassium 15 mEq in an oral solution.How many ounces is the correct dose to be administered to the patient from a solution of potassium with a strength of 20 mEq in 8 ounces? _____ ounces
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Chapter 5: Dosage Calculation of Intravenous Solutions and Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) While examining a patient's peripheral intravenous (IV)site,you observe a red streak along the length of the vein.On palpation,the vein feels hard and cordlike.What is your best action?
A) Check for a blood return and notify the prescriber.
B) Discontinue the infusion and remove the IV needle.
C) Apply ice packs to the vein and continue the infusion.
D) Change the IV fluid to normal saline and redress the site.
Q2) Which term describes how much fluid is to be infused intravenously?
A) Rate
B) Infusion
C) Volume
D) Duration
Q3) What sign or symptom is an indication of IV extravasation?
A) Fever
B) Purulent drainage
C) Pain at the infusion site
D) Strong blood return when the IV bag is positioned below the level of the IV site
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Anti-Inflammatory Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed 20 mg of ketorolac (Toradol)intramuscularly.How many milliliters should you draw up from a vial of ketorolac containing 30 mg/mL?
A) 0.5
B) 0.7
C) 1
D) 2
Q2) A patient taking a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)tells you that the drug causes an upset stomach.What is your best response?
A) "Always take this drug with food or with milk."
B) "Stop taking the drug and notify your prescriber."
C) "Try chewing the drug instead of swallowing it whole."
D) "Take the drug on an empty stomach to avoid vomiting."
Q3) A patient with an inflammatory response is prescribed ranitidine (Zantac)75 mg once a day.What is your best action?
A) Give the drug as ordered.
B) Hold the drug and notify the prescriber.
C) Teach the patient to take the drug first thing in the morning.
D) Ask the patient if he or she is allergic to any drugs or other substances.
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8
Chapter 7: Drugs for Pain Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which key point should you teach a pregnant woman who is prescribed opioids drugs during pregnancy?
A) Your child may become addicted to opioids and go through withdrawal after birth.
B) These drugs do not cross the placenta so are safe to use during pregnancy.
C) Some opioids have been found to cause birth defects in animal studies.
D) Opioids are not present in breast milk so it is safe to breastfeed.
Q2) You note all of the following changes in the last week in a 72-year-old nursing home patient taking nortriptyline (Pamelor)for chronic pain.For which problem do you immediately notify the prescriber?
A) Heart rate decreased from 80 to 72 beats/min.
B) Respiratory rate decreased from 20 to 16 breaths/min.
C) Weight increased from 128 to 137 lb.
D) Morning blood glucose increased from 86 to 94 mg/dL.
Q3) Which is the best clinical definition of pain?
A) A state of extreme physical distress or discomfort
B) A condition of sensation caused by tissue damage
C) A cognitive awareness of a change in comfort
D) Whatever the patient says it is
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Chapter 8: Anti-Infectives: Antibacterial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed intravenous ertapenem (Invanz).Which question is most important to ask before giving the first dose of this drug?
A) "Do you have a hearing problem or any trouble with your ears?"
B) "Do you take medications for seizures?"
C) "Are you allergic to sulfa drugs?"
D) "Have you ever had asthma?"
Q2) Which laboratory blood test result for a patient taking clarithromycin (Biaxin)and warfarin (Coumadin)should you report immediately to the prescriber?
A) Potassium 3.6 mEq/L
B) Sodium 134 mEq/L
C) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)21 mg/dL
D) International normalized ratio (INR)4.6
Q3) A patient who has been on antibiotic therapy for 3 weeks has a cottage cheese-like coating on the teeth,gums,and roof of the mouth.What your best action?
A) Take a specimen and send it to the laboratory for culture.
B) Hold the dose and notify the prescriber immediately.
C) Document this expected finding as the only response.
D) Assist the patient to perform frequent mouth care
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Chapter 9: Anti-Infectives: Antiviral Drugs
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Q1) A patient on HAART that includes neviripine (Viramune)has all of the following side effects.Which one should you report to the prescriber immediately?
A) Nausea
B) 2 lb weight loss
C) Clay-colored stools
D) Dizziness on standing
Q2) Which drug can only be given by subcutaneous injection?
A) Atazanavir (Reytaz)
B) Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)
C) Maraviroc (Selzentry)
D) Darunavir (Prezista)
Q3) A patient taking highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)for a year has the following blood laboratory test values.Which value do you report to the prescriber immediately?
A) White blood cell count 3500 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>
B) Lactate dehydrogenase 990 IU/L
C) Sodium 132 mEq/L
D) Hematocrit 32%
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11
Chapter 10: Anti-Infectives: Antitubercular and Antifungal Drugs
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Q1) A patient taking ketoconazole (Nizoral)for the last 2 weeks has all of the following blood laboratory test values.Which value should you report to the prescriber immediately?
A) White blood cell count (WBC)10,500 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>
B) Lactate dehydrogenase 880 IU/L
C) Potassium 3.6 mEq/L
D) Hematocrit 32%
Q2) Which antitubercular drug is avoided in the treatment of children who have tuberculosis?
A) Isoniazid (INH)
B) Rifampin (RIF)
C) Pyrazinamide (PAS)
D) Ethambutol (EMB)
Q3) A patient is prescribed 420 mg of rifampin to be added to 500 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D<sub>5</sub>W).The vial contains rifampin 60 mg/mL.How many milliliters should you add to the D<sub>5</sub>W for the correct?
A) 0.16 mL
B) 5mL
C) 7mL
D) 8mL
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Drugs That Affect the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement regarding artificially acquired active immunity is true?
A) It requires "boosting" on a regular schedule.
B) It is present in only children and not in adults.
C) It can be used for vaccinations but not for immunizations.
D) It has the shortest duration of effectiveness of any type of immunity.
Q2) The activity of which specific immune system cell must be suppressed to reduce transplant rejection episodes?
A) Neutrophils
B) Macrophages
C) T lymphocytes
D) B lymphocytes
Q3) Which vaccination is routinely administered to infants at ages 2 months,4 months,and 6 months?
A) HyperTET
B) RhoGAM
C) TdaP
D) DTaP
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13
Chapter 12: Anticancer Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does oncogene activation cause normal cells to transform into cancer cells?
A) By inhibiting the ability of suppressor gene products to regulate the cell cycle
B) By increasing the amount of cyclins present so that cells keep entering the cell cycle and dividing
C) By preventing the immune system from recognizing and eliminating cells that are no longer totally normal
D) By reducing the amount of glucose and other nutrients that reach normal cells,resulting in the starvation and death of normal cells
Q2) An infant with cancer is to receive vincristine (Oncovin)0.05 mg/kg intravenously.The infant weighs 18 lb.What is the appropriate dose,in mg?
Q3) Which class of chemotherapy drugs works by interfering with the formation of tubules so that new cells cannot separate during cell division?
A) Antimetabolites
B) Antitumor antibiotics
C) Antimitotics
D) Alkylating agents
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Chapter 13: Drug Therapy for Diabetes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who received 22 units of regular insulin an hour ago is now pale,sweaty,and has trembling hands,but is alert and able to talk.What is your best first action?
A) Prepare to administer intravenous (IV)glucose immediately.
B) Check the patient's blood glucose level immediately.
C) Notify the prescriber or rapid response team immediately.
D) Give the patient a snack containing protein and a complex carbohydrate immediately.
Q2) Which fasting blood glucose level indicates that the antidiabetic drug prescribed for a patient with type 2 diabetes is effective at maintaining target blood glucose levels?
A) 40 mg/dL
B) 80 mg/dL
C) 120 mg/dL
D) 160 mg/dL
Q3) Which oral antidiabetic drug belongs to the alpha-glucosidase inhibitor class?
A) Acarbose (Precose)
B) Glyburide (Diabeta)
C) Nateglinide (Starlix)
D) Pioglitazone (Actos)
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Chapter 14: Drug Therapy for Thyroid and Adrenal Gland
Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid)and a fiber supplement.What key point would you be sure to teach the patient about these drugs?
A) "Take the drugs together as there are no interactions between them."
B) "Be sure to take the fiber supplement 2 hours before a meal and the levothyroxine 3 hours after a meal."
C) "Take the fiber supplement in the morning with breakfast and the levothyroxine in the evening before you go to bed."
D) "Do not take the drugs together because a fiber supplement will decrease the absorption of your levothyroxine."
Q2) An adult who has adrenal gland hyperfunction is prescribed to receive 2 g of mitotane (Lysodren)orally immediately.The drug on hand is mitotane 500 mg/scored tablet.How many tablets should you prepare to give?
Q3) A 6-year-old child is being started on levothyroxine (Synthroid)intravenously and is prescribed 5 mcg/kg.The child weighs 32lb.The drug vial contains 100 mcg/mL.How many milliliters should you draw up for a correct dose?
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Chapter 15: Drugs That Affect Urine Output
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Q1) Which type of diuretic can cause higher than normal blood calcium levels?
A) Loop diuretics
B) Osmotic diuretics
C) Thiazide diuretics
D) Potassium-sparing diuretics
Q2) A hospitalized patient has received furosemide (Lasix),40 mg orally,30 minutes ago.To prevent injury to the patient,what should you do?
A) Assist the patient to the bathroom
B) Keep the patient on bed rest
C) Place all four side rails in the elevated position
D) Provide the patient with a bedpan or urinal
Q3) For which complication should you remain alert when a patient is taking any type of diuretic?
A) Loss of appetite
B) Bladder spasms
C) Hypertension
D) Dehydration
Q4) A 10-year-old child is prescribed a one-time dose of oral furosemide (Lasix)2 mg/kg.The child's weight is 75 lb.How many milligrams will you give the child?
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Chapter 16: Drug Therapy for Hypertension
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Q1) A patient who has been taking lisinopril (Zestril)develops swollen lips and reports that the tongue feels thick.What is your best action?
A) Document the report and reassure the patient that this is a common drug side effect.
B) Check the patient's pulse for rhythm and take the patient's blood pressure.
C) Ask the patient whether this has ever happened before.
D) Hold the lisinopril dose and notify the prescriber.
Q2) How do alpha blockers work to lower blood pressure?
A) Preventing clots from forming
B) Promoting water and potassium loss
C) Relaxing blood vessel muscles
D) Reversing atherosclerosis
Q3) Which side effect of ACE inhibitors is very common?
A) Hypertension
B) Difficulty sleeping
C) Constipation
D) Dry,hacking cough
Q4) An adult patient is prescribed metoprolol (Lopressor)50 mg orally twice a day.Metoprolol is available in 100 mg tablets.How many tablets will you give for each dose?
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Chapter 17: Drug Therapy for Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) You prepare to administer a drug for heart failure to a patient.Which assessment finding do you report to the prescriber before administering the drug?
A) Systolic blood pressure increase from 128 to 136
B) Urine output of 2100 mL in 24 hours
C) Weight gain of 1 lb in 3 days
D) Heart rate of 54 beats/min
Q2) What is the mechanism of action for cardiac glycosides?
A) Slowing the heart rate and increasing the force of the heart muscle contraction
B) Increasing the heart rate and decreasing the force of the heart muscle contraction
C) Directly relaxing blood vessel muscles and decreasing afterload
D) Directly constricting blood vessel muscles and increasing afterload
Q3) After giving the first dose of any antihypertensive drug for heart failure,what action must be taken for a hospitalized patient's safety?
A) Recheck the drug order for accuracy.
B) Ensure that the call light is within reach.
C) Place a wheelchair in the patient's room.
D) Raise all four side rails on the patient's bed.
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Chapter 18: Drug Therapy for Dysrhythmias
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Q1) Which statement by a patient who has been prescribed quinidine (Quinaglute)indicates the need for additional teaching?
A) "I use over-the-counter St.John's wort to help with my memory."
B) "I am careful not to eat too much food that is high in alkaline ash."
C) "I check my heart rate and blood pressure at least once a day."
D) "I take a multivitamin and calcium supplement daily."
Q2) The prescriber orders atropine 0.3 mg IV push for an adult patient with symptomatic bradycardia.What is your best action?
A) Contact the prescriber and question the order.
B) Give the drug exactly as prescribed.
C) Administer a prepared amp of 1 mg atropine in 5 mL NS.
D) Give half an amp of prepared atropine 1 mg in 5 mL NS.
Q3) A 70-year-old patient who has been taking digoxin (Lanoxin)for 4 years has all of the following laboratory blood tests.For which test value should you notify the prescriber immediately?
A) Sodium (Na)132 mEq/L
B) Potassium (K)2.1 mEq/L
C) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)9 mg/dL
D) International normalized ratio (INR)1.5
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Drug Therapy for High Blood Lipids
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Q1) What should you teach a woman of childbearing age who is prescribed a statin drug?
A) "These drugs should not be taken during pregnancy,but are safe to use when breastfeeding."
B) "Statins drugs can interfere with fetal brain development and should not be taken during pregnancy or breastfeeding."
C) "Because these drugs control fats produced by the liver,they will help control weight gain during pregnancy."
D) "You can take these drugs during pregnancy as long as you do not have a history of muscle or liver problems."
Q2) A patient is prescribed niacin (Niaspan)500 mg orally.The pharmacy sends niacin (Niacor)500 mg.What is your best action?
A) Hold the drug and contact the prescriber.
B) Administer the Niacor in place of the Niaspan.
C) Ask the pharmacy to send the patient's ordered Niaspan.
D) Check the patient's chart to find out if he or she takes Niacor at home.
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21
Chapter 20: Drugs That Affect Blood Clotting
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Q1) Which dietary teaching do you include for a patient who is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin)on discharge?
A) "Weight loss diets such as the Atkins diet are OK while taking this drug."
B) "Be sure to eat lots of green leafy vegetables for extra vitamin K."
C) "Dietary changes do not affect the action of this drug."
D) "Drinking alcoholic beverages can change the action of warfarin."
Q2) A patient who has been receiving heparin subcutaneously for 3 weeks has all of the following laboratory blood test values.Which value should you report immediately to the prescriber?
A) Activated partial thromboplastin time 1.5
B) International normalized ratio (INR)1.7
C) Red blood cells 4.2 million/mm<sup>3</sup>
D) Platelets 20,000/mm<sup>3</sup>
Q3) Which blood test should be performed on a regular basis for a patient who takes an oral direct thrombin inhibitor daily?
A) International normalized ratio (INR)
B) Complete blood cell count
C) Potassium
D) Sodium
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Drug Therapy for Asthma and Other Respiratory Problems
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Q1) A patient who has been prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid develops a thick white coating on the tongue and patches on the inside cheeks.What is your best action?
A) Instruct the patient to stop using the inhaler until the coating is gone.
B) Obtain a culture of the coating and take the patient's temperature.
C) Hold the dose and notify the prescriber immediately.
D) Document the finding and notify the prescriber.
Q2) Which assessment is most important to perform before administering a bronchodilator by inhalation?
A) Listening with a stethoscope to the patient's breath sounds.
B) Measuring blood pressure in the sitting and standing positions.
C) Asking questions to assess the patient's cognition and mental status.
D) Checking the oral mucous membranes for white or cream-colored patches.
Q3) Which type of asthma problem is helped most by bronchodilator drugs?
A) Thick mucus
B) Mucosal swelling
C) Bronchoconstriction
D) Large,flabby alveoli
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Drug Therapy for Gastrointestinal Problems
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Q1) When should metoclopramide (Reglan)be taken?
A) 1 hour before meals and at bedtime
B) 30 minutes before meals and at bedtime
C) 30 minutes after meals and at bedtime
D) 1 hour after meals and at bedtime
Q2) A patient who is prescribed prochlorperazine (Compazine)for postoperative nausea/vomiting has all of the following changes.For which change should you immediately contact the prescriber?
A) Systolic blood pressure decrease of 12 mm Hg
B) Increased sleepiness but arouses with light shaking
C) Oral temperature increase of 2° F
D) Urine color change from yellow to reddish-brown
Q3) What types of drugs prevent or control nausea/vomiting?
A) Antiemetic drugs
B) Antimotility drugs
C) Antidiarrheal drugs
D) Antipropulsion drugs
Q4) A child is prescribed metoclopramide (Reglan)8 mg by oral solution.The available drug solution is 5 mg/5 mL of solution.How many milliliters does the nurse administer?
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Chapter 23: Drug Therapy for Gastric Ulcers and Reflux
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Q1) Which precaution is most important to teach a patient who is prescribed an antacid?
A) "Avoid using extra pepper on your food while taking this drug."
B) "If you become constipated,stop taking the antacid completely."
C) "Take this drug at least 2 hours before or after taking any other drug."
D) "Notify your prescriber if heartburn continues after you have taken the drug for 3 days."
Q2) A patient who is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec)asks why the drug should be taken before breakfast.What is your best response?
A) "The intended action of this drug is best achieved when given before meals,preferably in the morning."
B) "It is best to take this drug in the morning so that antacids taken later in the day do not interfere with absorption."
C) "This drug should always be taken on an empty stomach for maximal action and for better absorption."
D) "Taking this drug early in the morning helps to minimize the occurrence of side effects or adverse effects."
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Chapter 24: Drug Therapy With Nutritional Supplements
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Q1) Which type of nutrient deficiency should you assess for in a patient who eats mostly fresh fruit,red and yellow vegetables,rice,milk,and other dairy products?
A) Vitamin A
B) Iron
C) Sodium
D) Fluoride
Q2) Which type of supplemental feeding makes use of the gastrointestinal tract?
A) TPN (total parenteral nutrition)
B) Intravenous feedings
C) Intraosseous feedings
D) Enteral feedings
Q3) Which foods should you teach a patient who has a mild vitamin K deficiency to eat?
A) Eggs and fortified milk
B) Spinach and romaine lettuce
C) Sunflower seeds and almonds
D) Carrots,sweet potatoes,and pumpkin
Q4) A patient with COPD is to receive Pulmocare at 40 mL/h.How many milliliters would you hang to cover 4 hours?
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Chapter 25: Drug Therapy for Seizures
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Q1) What is the priority intervention for a patient experiencing a tonic-clonic (grand mal)seizure?
A) Place a padded tongue blade in the patient's mouth to prevent biting the tongue.
B) Start a saline lock to administer IV antiseizure medication.
C) Attach pads to the bedside rails to protect the patient from injury.
D) Monitor for and keep the patient's airway open.
Q2) What is another term for seizure disorder?
A) Epilepsy
B) Enkephalin
C) Narcolepsy
D) Neuropathy
Q3) Which second-line drug for seizure control has a potential for physical dependence?
A) Terbinafine (Lamisil)
B) Primidone (Mysoline)
C) Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
D) Phenobarbital (Luminal)
Q4) An infant is prescribed phenobarbital 4 mg/kg in an oral suspension.The infant weighs 11 lb.How many milligrams will you give?
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Chapter 26: Drug Therapy for Alzheimers and Parkinsons Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the common underlying pathophysiology of both Alzheimer's disease and Parkinson's disease?
A) Both are neurodegenerative diseases.
B) Both are forms of dementia.
C) Both involve interrupted transmission of nerve impulses.
D) Both are primarily caused and directly related to environmental factors.
Q2) A patient taking entacapone (Comtan)for Parkinson's disease informs you that his urine is now brownish-orange in color.What is your best action?
A) Explain that this is an expected side effect and is not harmful.
B) Collect a urine sample and send it to the laboratory for urinalysis.
C) Hold the drug and immediately notify the prescriber.
D) Instruct the patient to increase his intake of fluids.
Q3) What are the major symptoms of Parkinson's disease? (select all that apply)
A) Bradycardia
B) Rigidity
C) Abnormal gait
D) Tremor at rest
E) Lack of facial expression
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Chapter 27: Drug Therapy for Psychiatric Problems
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44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of medication could be prescribed for a patient who experiences anxiety when speaking before a group?
A) A benzodiazepine drug
B) An SSRI drug
C) A beta blocker
D) A TCA drug
Q2) What is the advantage of treating a patient with anxiety with a benzodiazepine drug rather than a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?
A) Benzodiazepines are not likely to cause patient dependence when used for an extended period of time.
B) Benzodiazepines have milder side effects and almost no adverse effect when compared with SSRIs.
C) Benzodiazepines control anxiety and allow patients to live a relatively normal lifestyle.
D) Benzodiazepines act to treat anxiety within 30 minutes and can be given on an as-needed basis.
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29
Chapter 28: Drug Therapy for Insomnia
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Q1) Which drugs used to treat insomnia belong to the benzodiazepine class? (select all that apply)
A) Chloral hydrate (Somnote)
B) Estazolam (ProSom)
C) Eszopiclone (Lunesta)
D) Flurazepam (Dalmane)
E) Secobarbital (Seconal)
F) Triazolam (Halcion)
Q2) Which symptoms are expected to be seen in a patient with insomnia? (select all that apply)
A) Difficulty falling asleep
B) Sleeping too much
C) Waking often during the night
D) Feeling unrested after sleep
E) Uncontrollable urge to sleep
Q3) How do benzodiazepines depress the central nervous system and induce sleep?
A) Raising the seizure threshold
B) Reducing the number of neurotransmitter receptors in the brain
C) Decreasing the amount of excitatory neurotransmitters in the brain
D) Increasing the amount of gamma amino butyric acid present in the brain
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Chapter 29: Drug Therapy for Eye Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement regarding primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG)is true?
A) It is most common in children.
B) The major cause is trauma to the eye.
C) The problem usually affects both eyes.
D) The first symptom is chronic eye pain.
Q2) Which assessment is most important to perform before instilling latanoprost (Xalatan)into a patient's eyes?
A) Measure the patient's temperature.
B) Measure the patient's intraocular pressure.
C) Check the cornea for abrasions or open areas.
D) Assess heart rate and rhythm for 1 full minute.
Q3) Which term means constriction of the pupil of the eye?
A) Miosis
B) Punctum
C) Glaucoma
D) Mydriasis
Q4) A patient is prescribed to use 2 gtt of carbachol (Isopto)1.5% solution per eye every 8 hours.The drug comes in a 15 mL bottle and 1 mL = 16 gtt.How many days will the bottle of carbachol last?
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Chapter
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Q1) What is the most important precaution to take when administering rasburicase?
A) Wearing gloves to prevent absorption of the drug through skin and mucous membranes
B) Placing the patient in an upright position for 30 minutes after the drug is administered
C) Keeping the emergency equipment in the room during administration of the drug
D) Ensuring that the patient drinks at least 16 ounces of fluid with each dose
Q2) Which drugs belong to the estrogen agonist/antagonist class? (select all that apply)
A) Alendronate (Fosamax)
B) Densosumab (Prolia)
C) Estrogen/bazedoxifene (Duavee)
D) Ibandronate (Boniva)
E) Raloxifene (Evista)
Q3) Which patient is at greatest risk for developing a hematologic problem while receiving rasburicase?
A) 32-year-old patient taking chemotherapy for kidney cancer
B) 42-year-old patient who has a glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
C) 52-year-old patient who has a deficiency of the enzyme alpha-1-antitrypsin
D) 62-year-old patient who was first diagnosed with gout at the age of 21 years
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Chapter 31: Drug Therapy for Male Reproductive Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which intended response will you monitor when a patient is prescribed finasteride (Proscar)5 mg orally each day?
A) Pressure is increased
B) Urine flow from urethra improves
C) Nocturia increases
D) Bladder empties incompletely
Q2) Which individual should be cautioned to avoid handling a DHT inhibitor drug?
A) 55-year-old woman who is postmenopausal
B) 25-year-old woman who is 3 months pregnant
C) 35-year-old man whose sister is 5 months pregnant
D) 45-year-old man who has diabetes and hypertension
Q3) A 58-year-old patient with BPH asks you why he should see his physician for prostate cancer screening.What is your best response?
A) "BPH increases your risk for developing prostate cancer."
B) "At your age it is always best to complete cancer screening tests."
C) "If prostate cancer is caught early enough there is a very high cure rate."
D) "The signs and symptoms of BPH and prostate cancer are the same."
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Chapter 32: Drug Therapy for Female Reproductive Issues
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Q1) Which laboratory finding in a perimenopausal woman who takes Premarin should be reported to the prescriber?
A) Random blood glucose 116 mg/dL
B) Potassium 4.8 mEq/L
C) Sodium 146 mEq/L
D) Hematocrit 27%
Q2) A woman who is hospitalized overnight after surgery usually takes Premarin 2.5 mg daily for control of perimenopausal symptoms.Her prescriber orders a one-time dose of Premarin 2.5 mg orally as soon as possible.The drug on hand is Premarin 0.625 mg/tablet.How many tablets should you administer?
Q3) Which female hormone supports pregnancy by directly maintaining the thickened uterine lining?
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Luteinizing hormone
D) Follicle stimulating hormone
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