Course Introduction
Nursing Pharmacology Test
Bank
Nursing Pharmacology explores the principles of pharmacology with an emphasis on the role of the nurse in medication administration and patient safety. The course covers essential topics such as drug classifications, mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, side effects, drug interactions, and proper dosage calculations. Students learn about the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of commonly prescribed medications, as well as the legal and ethical responsibilities in administering drugs. Emphasis is placed on the development of critical thinking and clinical judgment skills to ensure safe and effective medication management across diverse patient populations.
Recommended Textbook
Integrated Cardiopulmonary Pharmacology 3rd Edition by Bruce J. Colbert
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15 Chapters
833 Verified Questions
833 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: General Pharmacologic Principles
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Sample Questions
Q1) A severe,life-threatening allergic reaction can result in ________________. Answer: anaphylactic shock
Q2) The FDA considers herbals the same as drugs because they are derived from plants that were forerunners of many current medications.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) In order for digoxin to be effective,an appropriate amount of the drug must be present in the blood.This blood level is known as the ________________. Answer: therapeutic range
Q4) Why are patients with liver disease likely to have greater than expected effects from prescribed drugs?
Answer: Patient's with liver disease may experience greater than expected effects from a drug due to an increase in the drug's half-life.Because drugs are metabolized by the liver,if the liver is not capable of breaking down or metabolizing the drug,it is able to remain in the body longer and continue to elicit a response.
Q5) Drugs administered directly to the lungs are given via the ____________ route. Answer: inhalation route
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Chapter 2: The Metric System and Drug Dosage
Calculations
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47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A dosage of 4 mg of morphine sulfate is ordered for a patient.How many milliliters will be administered from a vial containing 10 mg/ml?
A)0.1 ml
B)0.4 ml
C)1 ml
D)4 ml
Answer: B
Q2) A patient who weighs 55 kilograms is to receive a drug dosage of 10mg/kg.How much drug should be administered?
A)550 mg
B)250 mg
C)25 mg
D)5.5 mg
Answer: A
Q3) The method used to convert between the English and metric systems is referred to as the factor-label method.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Pharmacology of the Autonomic Nervous System
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What ANS division needs to be blocked to cause bronchial smooth muscle dilation?
Answer: The parasympathetic nervous system must be blocked to cause bronchial smooth muscle dilation.
Q2) How is norepinephrine regulated at postsynaptic adrenergic receptors?
Answer: Norepinephrine is recycled back into the synaptic knob by a process called "reuptake." If excess norepinephrine remains,it is eventually metabolized by two enzymes,monoamine oxidase and catechol-o-methyl-transferase.
Q3) Drugs that antagonize the sympathetic response are known as ________________ or ________________.
Answer: antiadrenergics/sympatholytics
Q4) Adrenergic receptors are found primarily in the smooth muscle of blood vessels,cardiac muscle,and the airways.
A)True B)False
Answer: True
Q5) The CNS is comprised of the ____________ and the ____________. Answer: brain/spinal cord
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Medicated Aerosol Treatments
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Sample Questions
Q1) All except which of the following are advantages of using a spacer or a holding chamber?
A)It increases the flow rate of the aerosol particles as they move through the spacer.
B)It allows the patient to direct the flow of aerosol into and through the oral cavity.
C)It aids in coordinating activating the device and taking a breath.
D)It allows time to vaporize the aerosol particle to the point of 1 to 5 microns.
Q2) Aerosol particles are measured in ________________.
Q3) Explain why a slow inspiration improves aerosol medication delivery within the lungs.
Q4) The best deposition into the lower airways is achieved with aerosol particles of which size?
A)>10 microns
B)5 to 10 microns
C)1 to 5 microns
D)<1 micron
Q5) State a clinical condition that would require delivery of medicated aerosols to the upper airway.
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Chapter 5: Bronchodilators
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Sample Questions
Q1) Xopenex is a sympathomimetic beta agonist that is classified as a:
A)Resorcinol
B)Catecholamine
C)Methylxanthine
D)Saligenin
Q2) Selective beta<sub>2</sub>-agonists that are used for continuous nebulization during severe acute episodes of bronchospasm include ____________ and ____________.
Q3) While administering an aerosol bronchodilator to a pediatric patient,the parent asks if the child can be given an oral medication to open her airways.Which of the following could you suggest?
A)Albuterol
B)Salmeterol
C)Formoterol
D)Xopenex
Q4) The conducting airways are made up of three layers,the ________________,the ________________,and the ________________.
Q5) Albuterol and levalbuterol are classified as ____________-acting beta-agonists.
Q6) The three classes of beta-agonists are____________,____________,and
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Chapter 6: Mucokinetics and Surfactants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most cost-effective and readily available means of maintaining mucokinetics is with which of the following agents?
A)Mucomyst
B)Normal saline
C)Water
D)Sodium bicarbonate
Q2) Treatment of acetaminophen overdose includes oral or intravenous administration of ________________.
Q3) Expectorants work by increasing the amount of fluid in the respiratory tract and by increasing vagal-gastric reflex stimulation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The role of goblet cells and clara cells is to produce about 100 ml of mucus each day.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ability of mucus to change from thick to thin and back is referred to as having ________________ properties.
Q6) ________________ aerosols dilute mucus by altering its water content.
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Chapter 7: Anti-Inflammatory and Antiasthmatic Agents
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of asthma that responds to immunotherapy or allergy shots is:
A)Anaphylactic.
B)Intrinsic.
C)Nonatopic.
D)Extrinsic.
Q2) Explain the mechanism of prostaglandin inhibitors in airway function.
Q3) The lipoxygenase pathway causes the release of ________________,which contributes to the late-phase response in asthma.
Q4) Cromolyn is supplied for intranasal use under the trade name:
A)Nasalide.
B)Rhinocort.
C)Nasalcrom.
D)Nasonex.
Q5) Corticosteroids block or diminish late-phase asthma responses by blocking the ________________ cascade.
Q6) What is the difference between a B lymphocyte and a T lymphocyte in an antigen response?
Q7) The breakdown of the phospholipid membrane during an inflammatory response produces ________________ acid.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Anti-Infective Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drug used to treat postherpetic neuralgia is:
A)Zanamivir
B)Amantadine
C)Acyclovir
D)Virazole
Q2) A patient is admitted with respiratory infection associated with cystic fibrosis.He is to receive an aerosolized antimicrobial.Which of the following medications would you recommend?
A)Ampicillin
B)Streptomycin
C)Ribavirin
D)Tobramycin
Q3) Fungal infections develop as a result of all of the following except the:
A)Patient having a depressed immune system.
B)Prolonged use of antibiotics.
C)Patient using inhaled corticosteroids.
D)Immunization against viral infections.
Q4) ________________ therapy is started if an antibiotic is administered based on the most likely causative agent.
Q5) How is anti-infective therapy monitored?
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Chapter 9: Cardiac Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________________ refers to the force against which the heart must pump.
Q2) Oral insulin agents can only be prescribed for the treatment of type II diabetes. A)True B)False
Q3) Statin drugs used in the treatment of high cholesterol block enzymes that produce cholesterol.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A female patient is diagnosed with metabolic syndrome in the presence of which of the following?
I)Fasting glucose <110 mg/dl
II)High-density lipoprotein cholesterol <50 mg/dl
III)Triglycerides >150 mg/dl
A)I and II
B)I and III
C)II and III
D)I,II,and III
Q5) Drugs that affect the force of contraction are referred to as _______________.
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Chapter 10: Blood Pressure and Antithrombotic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vasopressor and cardiotonic agents are used to treat _______________.
Q2) Which of the following thrombolytics is classified as a non-fibrin-specific agent?
A)Alteplase
B)Reteplase
C)Streptokinase
D)Tenecteplase
Q3) Hypertension in the majority of patients that occurs for unknown causes is referred to as ________________.
Q4) Which of the following drugs used to treat hypertension is also used to treat nicotine withdrawal?
A)Clonidine
B)Doxazosin
C)Metoprolol
D)Prazosin
Q5) Cardiotonic agents cause all of the following effects to occur except:
A)Vasoconstriction.
B)Increased cardiac contraction.
C)Increased heart rate.
D)Increased blood pressure.
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Chapter 11: Neuromuscular, sedative, anesthetic, and Analgesic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following anesthetic agents is related to an increased incidence of postoperative nausea and vomiting?
A)Nitrous oxide
B)Lidocaine
C)Propofol
D)Midazolam
Q2) A local anesthetic works by binding to a membrane site and preventing the neurons from ________________.
Q3) Central-acting skeletal muscle relaxants decrease muscle tone by acting directly on ________________.
Q4) Reversal of ventilatory depression caused by opioids is accomplished with which of the following?
A)Fentanyl
B)Naloxone
C)Doxapram
D)Protriptyline
Q5) Drugs used in combination to decrease the level of consciousness and produce a retrograde amnesia are referred to as ________________.
Q6) What are the different mechanisms of action for analgesic medications?
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Chapter 12: Therapeutic Medical Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Administration of oxygen to patients with COPD that raises their PaO<sub>2</sub> above 70 mmHg can cause oxygen-induced hypercapnia due to which of the following mechanism?
A)Depression of the peripheral chemoreceptors
B)Stimulation of the respiratory center
C)Formation of free radicals
D)Washout of nitrogen in the lungs
Q2) Is cyanosis a good indicator of hypoxemia?
Q3) A COPD patient is being discharged to home and requires oxygen therapy.The physician asks you to recommend a device that can be used with his oxygen concentrator.Which of the following would you recommend for this patient?
A)A nasal cannula
B)A simple mask
C)A nonrebreathing mask
D)A jet-mixing mask
Q4) The FIO<sub>2 </sub>delivered in _______________ oxygen systems is affected by the patient's rate and depth of breathing.
Q5) Helium/oxygen mixtures have been shown to be beneficial with _______________ airway obstructions.
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Chapter 13: Pharmacologic Management of Obstructive
Pulmonary Disease: Asthma, chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the NAEPP guidelines,all patients with asthma should know how to do all except which of the following?
A)Use a quick-relief medication
B)Use long-term medication daily
C)Take personal peak-flow meter measurements
D)Recognize symptoms of an attack
Q2) The primary cause of COPD is ________________.
Q3) A patient with COPD who has just progressed into stage III COPD and has repeated exacerbations should now be treated with the addition of which of the following medications?
A)A short-acting bronchodilator
B)A long-acting bronchodilator
C)Inhaled corticosteroids
D)Oxygen
Q4) The most effective agents for long-term control of asthma are ______________.
Q5) In addition to treatment with nicotine replacement,patients who wish to quit smoking should be encouraged to ________________.
Q6) ________________ is a reversible obstructive disease,and ________________ is progressive and not fully reversible. Page 15
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Pharmacologic Treatment of Respiratory
Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vancomycin is reserved for resistant or severe infections and is not prescribed for routine antimicrobial treatment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Antibiotics are not effective treatment against infections caused by viruses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The drug of choice for treatment of pharyngitis caused by group A streptococcus is which of following?
A)Vancomycin
B)Erythromycin
C)Penicillin
D)Levofloxacin
Q4) The diagnostic test that gives immediate results to identify group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus in patients with pharyngitis is:
A)Culture and sensitivity.
B)ELISA.
C)Rapid antigen detection.
D)The Ziehl-Neelsen stain.
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Chapter 15: Medications for Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a ventricular or supraventricular rhythm that is stable must be treated with cardioversion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following cardiac agents is also administered for allergic anaphylactic reactions?
A)Atropine
B)Dopamine
C)Epinephrine
D)Metoprolol
Q3) Administration of positive inotropic drugs causes all of the following except:
A)An increased force of contraction of the heart.
B)Increased conduction through the AV node and increased heart rate.
C)Increased cardiac output.
D)Increased tissue perfusion.
Q4) Lidocaine is no longer the first-line antiarrhythmic drug used to treat ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation.
A)True
B)False
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