Nursing Pathophysiology Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Nursing Pathophysiology explores the physiological processes underlying human disease and illness, focusing on how disruptions in biological systems manifest as clinical symptoms. The course examines the mechanisms of disease at the cellular, tissue, organ, and systemic levels, emphasizing the relationship between altered physiological function and health outcomes. Students gain an understanding of the pathogenesis of common disorders across the lifespan, learn to analyze signs and symptoms, and develop the critical thinking skills necessary for effective clinical assessment and intervention in nursing practice.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Ivan Damjanov MD PhD
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23 Chapters
495 Verified Questions
495 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1009
Page 2
Chapter 1: Cell Pathology
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20000
Sample Questions
Q1) Inhibition of ATP production by hypoxia causes all of the following except:
A) Increased production of lactic acid in the cytoplasm
B) Degranulation of the rough endoplasmic reticulum
C) Dilation of the rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) Swelling of the mitochondria
E) Alkalinization of the hyaloplasm
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following is an oxygen radical?
A) Hydrogen peroxide
B) Acid hydrolase
C) ATP
D) Carbon tetrachloride
E) Lipofuscin
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Release of histamine at the site of inflammation causes:
A) Increased vascular permeability
B) Decreased vascular permeability
C) Accumulation of neutrophils
D) Accumulation of platelets
E) Activation of the complement system
Answer: A
Q2) Bradykinin is formed in the plasma through the activation of what element?
A) Bradykinin
B) Histamine
C) Complement membrane attack complex
D) Hageman factor
E) Prostaglandin
Answer: D
Q3) Inflammation cannot develop:
A) In living tissue
B) After a minor laceration
C) Postmortem
D) From massive bleeding
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Immunopathology
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is considered a systemic form of autoimmune disease?
A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Multiple sclerosis
C) Primary biliary cirrhosis
D) Pemphigus vulgaris
E) AIDS
Answer: E
Q2) These prelymphoid stem cells migrate to the thymus and mature into:
A) Lymphocytes
B) Monocytes
C) B cells
D) T cells
E) MALT
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Neoplasia
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carcinoma of the stomach has the highest incidence in:
A) England
B) Japan
C) United States
D) Israel
E) France
Q2) Which of the following conditions is characterized by a defect of a DNA repair enzyme?
A) Neurofibromatosis
B) Hereditary polyposis coli
C) Xeroderma pigmentosum
D) Wilms' tumor
E) Hodgkin's lymphoma
Q3) Retinoblastoma gene (RB1)is classified as a(n):
A) Oncogene
B) Tumor suppressor gene
C) Point mutation
D) Gene amplification
E) Viral oncogene inserted into the human genome
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Genetic and Developmental Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tall,slightly effeminate male with eunuchoid body proportions and gynecomastia is found to have a 47,XXY karyotype.This presentation is typical of:
A) Turner's syndrome
B) Klinefelter's syndrome
C) Fragile X syndrome
D) Marfan's syndrome
E) Duchenne-type muscular dystrophy
Q2) The X-linked bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of factor VIII is called:
A) Hemophilia A
B) Hemophilia B
C) Hemosiderosis
D) Hemochromatosis
E) Hemorrhagic fever
Q3) The agents that cause fetal abnormalities are called:
A) Trophoblasts
B) Homeobox genes
C) Organogenesis
D) Teratology
E) Teratogens
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Fluid and Hemodynamic Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thrombosis can be initiated by all of the following except:
A) Inflammation
B) Endothelial cell injury
C) Stagnation of blood in varicose veins
D) Hypercoagulability of blood as a result of shock
E) Heparin
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of an exudate but is not typical of a transudate?
A) Accumulation of fluid in a body cavity
B) Accumulation of fluid in the alveoli of the lung
C) Accumulation of fluid in the tissue, with subsequent swelling of the tissue ("tumor")
D) Accumulation of protein in extracellular spaces
E) Accumulation of numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes in extracellular spaces
Q3) In decompression sickness or caisson disease,the emboli are composed of:
A) Air
B) Fat
C) Platelets
D) Fibrin
E) Plasminogen
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8
Chapter 7: The Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Septal defects produce a distinct:
A) Low-pitched systolic heart murmur
B) High-pitched systolic heart murmur
C) Low-pitched diastolic heart murmur
D) High-pitched diastolic heart murmur
E) Absence of sound during the systolic phase of contraction
Q2) Intermittent claudication is caused by atherosclerosis of the:
A) Carotid artery
B) Subclavian artery
C) Splenic artery
D) Renal artery
E) Popliteal artery
Q3) Lymph fluid is different than blood because it contains:
A) Red blood cells and white blood cells
B) Red blood cells and clotting factors
C) Red blood cells only
D) White blood cells only
E) Clotting factors only
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9
Chapter 8: The Respiratory System
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major pulmonary complication of congenital alpha -antitrypsin deficiency is:
A) Chronic bronchitis
B) Bronchiectasis
C) Atelectasis
D) Emphysema
E) Mesothelioma
Q2) Acute laryngotracheobronchitis that is most common in children younger than 3 years old and is associated with a "barking" cough is known as:
A) Asthma
B) Interstitial pneumonia
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Croup
E) Bronchiolitis
Q3) Fibrin-rich hyaline membranes and protein-rich intra-alveolar edema are features of:
A) Atelectasis
B) Diffuse alveolar damage (DAD) in adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
C) Emphysema
D) Bronchiectasis
E) Aspiration pneumonia
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Chapter 9: The Hematopoietic and Lymphoid System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Macrocytic,megaloblastic anemia occurs typically in association with:
A) Chronic dermatitis
B) Atrophic gastritis
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Old age
E) Chronic osteoarthritis
Q2) Sickle cell hemoglobin is routinely identified in the laboratory by:
A) Polarized light microscopy
B) Electron microscopy
C) Electrophoresis
D) Immunochemistry
E) Electron spin microscopy
Q3) Which virus is a proven cause of leukemia/lymphoma in humans?
A) Epstein-Barr virus
B) HIV
C) HTLV-1
D) HPV
E) CMV
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11
Chapter 10: The Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteriologically sterile peritonitis is a complication of:
A) Ruptured gastric ulcer
B) Gangrene of the large intestine
C) Gonococcal salpingitis
D) Acute pancreatitis
E) Acute appendicitis
Q2) Crypt abscesses,serpiginous ulcerations,and inflammatory polyps of the large intestine are typical features of:
A) Diverticulosis coli
B) Crohn's disease
C) Ulcerative colitis
D) Pseudomembranous colitis
E) Cholera
Q3) Most malignant tumors of the esophagus are histologically classified as:
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Transitional cell carcinoma
C) Small-cell carcinoma
D) Squamous cell carcinoma
E) Sarcoma
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Liver and Biliary System
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Overall the most common cause of cirrhosis in the United States is:
A) Viral infection
B) Alcohol abuse
C) Drug abuse
D) Immune hepatitis
E) Extrahepatic obstruction
Q2) In cirrhosis the surface of the liver is:
A) Smooth and shiny
B) Smooth but fatty
C) Dark brown and rough
D) Nodular
E) Covered with fibrin or pus
Q3) Complications of cirrhosis include all of the following except:
A) Ascites
B) Splenomegaly
C) Esophageal varices
D) Hypoalbuminemia
E) Hypogammaglobulinemia
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13
Chapter 12: The Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which tumor has its highest incidence in 60- to 80-year-old American men?
A) Insulinoma
B) Somatostatinoma
C) Gastrinoma
D) Adenocarcinoma of the head of pancreas
E) Adenocarcinoma of the papilla of Vater
Q2) Chronic pancreatitis is:
A) More common than acute pancreatitis
B) More common in males than in females
C) Associated with higher mortality than acute pancreatitis
D) Associated with higher levels of amylase in blood than acute pancreatitis
E) More common in children than in adults
Q3) What is the most important and most abundant hormone secreted by the pancreas?
A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) Somatostatin
D) Gastrin
E) Cholecystokinin
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atherosclerosis of the aorta and renal arterioles causing significantly reduced blood flow through the kidneys is known as:
A) Hypertension
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Nephroangiosclerosis
D) Acute tubular necrosis
E) Diffuse glomerulosclerosis
Q2) The most common urinary stones are composed of:
A) Calcium phosphate
B) Magnesium ammonium sulfate
C) Uric acid
D) Cystine
E) Xanthine
Q3) The best-known local symptom of pyelonephritis or renal tumors is:
A) Dysuria
B) Urinary colic
C) Hematuria
D) Flank pain
E) Low abdominal pain
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Male Reproductive System
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20013
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common congenital abnormality of the male reproductive system that affects the penis is:
A) Cryptorchidism
B) Anorchia
C) Polyorchidism
D) Hyperspadias
E) Hypospadias
Q2) Invasive carcinoma of the prostate:
A) Occurs mostly in old age
B) Occurs more often in castrated men
C) Is caused by HPV
D) Is related to HIV infection
E) Is a squamous cell carcinoma
Q3) Most carcinomas of the prostate:
A) Present with symptoms of cystitis
B) Present early in their course with urinary obstruction
C) Invade early into the urethra
D) Occur in the peripheral part (posterior lobe) of the prostate
E) Tend to secrete androgens
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Female Reproductive System
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Condyloma acuminatum is caused by:
A) Herpes simplex virus type 1
B) Herpes simplex virus type 2
C) Human papillomavirus
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
E) Treponema pallidum
Q2) Women with carcinoma of the endometrium are at an increased risk of developing carcinoma of the:
A) Ovary
B) Vulva
C) Adrenals
D) Liver
E) Lung
Q3) Most spontaneous abortions are consequences of:
A) Developmental anomalies of the fetus and/or placenta
B) Internal infections
C) Autoimmune disorders
D) Lack of estrogen in the maternal organism
E) Excess of progesterone during early pregnancy
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Chapter 16: The Breast
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The developmental abnormality that refers to the congenital absence of the breast is known as:
A) Accessory breast tissue
B) Polythelia
C) Polymastia
D) Amastia
E) Anumerary breasts
Q2) In postmenopausal women,the breasts gradually atrophy as a result of the loss of:
A) Acinar cells
B) Prolactin
C) Hormone-rich connective tissue
D) Hormone-sensitive connective tissue
E) Estrogen
Q3) A tumor of any size associated with distant metastases is known as Stage:
A) IV
B) III
C) II
D) I
E) 0
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The C cells of the thyroid secrete:
A) Thyroglobulin
B) Thyroxin
C) Triiodothyronine
D) Calcitonin
E) Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Q2) Amenorrhea and galactorrhea are typically produced by tumors that are classified as:
A) Pituitary carcinoma
B) Somatostatinoma
C) Glucagonoma
D) Prolactinoma
E) Corticotropic adenoma
Q3) Addison's disease is treated with:
A) Aspirin
B) Antihypertensive drugs
C) ACTH
D) Prolactin
E) Corticosteroids
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Page 19
Chapter 18: The Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Preinvasive carcinoma of sun-exposed skin is called:
A) Seborrheic keratosis
B) Seborrheic dermatitis
C) Actinic keratosis
D) Basal cell carcinoma
E) Mycosis fungoides
Q2) Jeanne received second-degree burns from suntanning.How would this be classified?
A) Thermal injury
B) Mechanical trauma
C) Electrical injury
D) Radiation injury
E) Weather-related injury
Q3) Reckles or a brown,pigmented spot less than 2cm in diameter that is not raised or depressed can be best classified as a:
A) Macule
B) Papule
C) Pustule
D) Vesicle
E) Bulla
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Chapter 19: Bones and Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) The central ("midshaft")portion of long bones is called:
A) Epiphysis
B) Metaphysis
C) Diaphysis
D) Physis
E) Anapophysis
Q2) Migratory arthritis caused by Borrelia burgdorferi is typical of:
A) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
B) Trench foot
C) Lyme disease
D) Legionnaire's disease
E) Osteoarthritis
Q3) Osteosarcomas most often arise in the bones of the:
A) Skull
B) Vertebrae
C) Fingers
D) Toes
E) Knee
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Chapter 20: Muscles and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Botulism,a disease caused by a toxin from Clostridium botulinum,is marked by:
A) Tetany
B) Convulsions
C) Paralysis of muscles
D) Loss of sensation
E) Hypercalcemia
Q2) The most prominent symptom of muscle disease is:
A) Weakness
B) Fatigability
C) Myotonus
D) Fibrillation
E) Myalgia
Q3) Skeletal muscles are:
A) Composed of either type I (slow) or type II (fast) fibers
B) Composed of rapidly dividing cells
C) Composed of nondividing cells that can be stimulated to enter mitosis by a variety of cytokines
D) In close contact with nerves
E) Major storage sites of calcium and phosphate
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Page 22
Chapter 21: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common location of glioblastoma multiforme is:
A) Cerebrum
B) Pons
C) Cerebellum
D) Medulla oblongata
E) Spinal cord
Q2) Which disease can be transmitted by corneal transplantation?
A) Huntington's disease
B) Alzheimer's disease
C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
D) Meningococcal meningitis
E) Parkinson's disease
Q3) In myelomeningocele,the protrusion of the defective spinal canal contains:
A) Skin only
B) Meninges only
C) Meninges and portion of the spinal cord
D) Meninges and vertebral bodies
E) Meninges and displaced parts of the cerebellum
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Chapter 22: The Eye
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important cause of ulcerative keratitis is:
A) CMV
B) Herpesvirus
C) Mumps virus
D) Influenza virus
E) Human papillomavirus
Q2) Which of the following disorders has no defined underlying pathologic condition?
A) Glaucoma
B) Myopia
C) Cataract
D) Trachoma
E) Conjunctivitis
Q3) The innermost sensory layer of the eye,composed of rods and cones,is called:
A) Iris
B) Cornea
C) Sclera
D) Retina
E) Choroid
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24
Chapter 23: The Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mike is having a hard time hearing and tries to remove some earwax with a toothpick.He suddenly feels a sharp pain and is unable to hear well.Mike has most likely caused what type of injury to what part of the ear?
A) Scratched the inner ear canal
B) Punctured the external ear canal
C) Perforated the tympanic membrane
D) Perforated the Eustachian tube
E) Experienced trauma to the stapes
Q2) Accumulation of fluid in the inner ear is known as:
A) Purulent otitis media
B) Purulent otitis externa
C) Acute otitis media
D) Serous otitis media
E) Serous otitis externa
Q3) Otosclerosis involves all of the following except:
A) Malleus
B) Incus
C) Stapes
D) Oval window
E) Acoustic nerve
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