Nursing Pathophysiology Pre-Test
Questions
Course Introduction
Nursing Pathophysiology explores the physiological processes and alterations in normal body functions that lead to disease and illness. This course provides nursing students with a foundational understanding of the mechanisms underlying common acute and chronic health conditions across the lifespan. Emphasis is placed on the relationship between pathophysiological changes and clinical manifestations, enabling students to apply critical thinking skills to patient assessment, diagnosis, and management. By integrating core concepts of cellular biology, organ system function, and homeostatic imbalances, students develop the knowledge necessary to inform evidence-based nursing practice and improve patient outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Pathophysiology 5th Edition by Sue E. Huether
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40 Chapters
1443 Verified Questions
1443 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11169
Sample Questions
Q1) An athlete runs a marathon,after which his muscles feel fatigued and unable to contract.The athlete asks the nurse why this happened.How should the nurse respond? A deficiency in ________ can cause impaired muscle contraction.
A) GTP
B) AMP
C) ATP
D) GMP
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse would be correct in identifying the predominant extracellular cation as:
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Chloride
D) Glucose
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 15-year-old female is diagnosed with Prader-Willi syndrome.This condition is an example of:
A) Gene imprinting
B) An autosomal recessive trait
C) An autosomal dominant trait
D) A sex-linked trait
Answer: A
Q2) A DNA strand has a region with the sequence ATCGGAT.Which of the following would be a complementary strand?
A) CGATACGT
B) TAGCCTAG
C) TUGCCTUG
D) UAGCCUAG
Answer: B
Q3) The base components of DNA are:
A) A, G, C, and U
B) P, G, C, and T
C) A, G, C, and T
D) X, XX, XY, and YY
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn male is diagnosed with albinism based on skin,eye,and hair appearance.Which finding will support this diagnosis?
A) Increased melanin
B) Increased hemoproteins
C) Inability to convert tyrosine to DOPA (3,4 dihydroxyphenylalanine)
D) Inability to convert bile to bilirubin
Answer: C
Q2) A 55-year-old male is diagnosed with hepatocellular cancer secondary to hepatitis
C.If the cancerous region of the liver were removed,the remaining cells would undergo:
A) Pathologic hyperplasia
B) Pathologic metaplasia
C) Compensatory hyperplasia
D) Compensatory aplasia
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Fluids and Electrolytes, Acids and Bases
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following patients is most prone to hypochloremia? A patient with:
A) Hypernatremia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypercalcemia
D) Increased bicarbonate intake
Q2) A 25-year-old male is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting tumor of the adrenal cortex.Which finding would the nurse expect to see in the lab results?
A) Decreased blood volume
B) Decreased blood K<sup>+</sup> levels
C) Increased urine Na<sup>+</sup> levels
D) Increased white blood cells
Q3) Water movement between the ICF and ECF compartments is determined by:
A) Osmotic forces
B) Plasma oncotic pressure
C) Antidiuretic hormone
D) Buffer systems
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Chapter 5: Innate Immunity: Inflammation and Wound Healing
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 10-year-old male is diagnosed with a parasite.Which lab result should the nurse check for a response to the parasite?
A) Monocytes
B) Eosinophils
C) Neutrophils
D) Macrophages
Q2) A 20-year-old male received a knife wound to the arm during an altercation.Which of the following types of immunity was compromised?
A) Innate immunity
B) Inflammatory response
C) Adaptive immunity
D) Specific immunity
Q3) An infant develops a fever secondary to a bacterial infection.Which of the following most likely triggered the fever?
A) Interleukin-1
B) Interleukin-6
C) Interleukin-10
D) Interferons (INFs)
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Chapter 6: Adaptive Immunity
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a disease state that results from the secretion of toxins by bacteria.Which medical diagnosis will the nurse see documented on the chart?
A) Malaria
B) Tetanus
C) Smallpox
D) Hepatitis
Q2) A 16-year-old is bitten by a rabid dog while jogging in the park.Upon admission to the emergency department,the nurse will administer which of the following to help prevent infection?
A) Cytotoxic T cells
B) Helper T cells
C) Macrophages
D) Immune globulin
Q3) A 5-month-old child is admitted to the hospital with recurring respiratory infections.A possible cause of this condition is:
A) Hypergammaglobulinemia
B) Increased maternal IgG
C) Immune insufficiency
D) Decreased maternal antibody breakdown, resulting in hyposensitivity
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Infection and Defects in Mechanisms of Defense
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The microorganisms that make up the normal human flora are important for:
A) Regulating inflammation
B) Secreting bacteriostatic substances
C) Activating white blood cells
D) Preventing the colonization and multiplication of pathogens
Q2) When the immunologist says that pathogens possess infectivity,what is the immunologist explaining? Infectivity allows pathogens to:
A) Spread from one individual to others and cause disease
B) Induce an immune response
C) Invade and multiply in the host
D) Damage tissue
Q3) When a nurse cares for a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE),the nurse remembers this disease is an example of:
A) Autoimmunity
B) Alloimmunity
C) Homoimmunity
D) Alleimmunity
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9
Chapter 8: Stress and Disease
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stress induces sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla.This causes the secretion of catecholamines,which include:
A) Epinephrine and aldosterone
B) Norepinephrine and cortisol
C) Epinephrine and norepinephrine
D) Cortisol and aldosterone
Q2) When teaching about the stress-age syndrome,what information should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
A) Decreased cortisol secretion
B) Increased thyroxine
C) Immunodepression
D) Increased catecholamine secretion
E) Hypercoagulation of the blood
F) Free radical damage
Q3) Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and _____ is not successful.
A) Fight or flight
B) Alarm
C) Adaptation
D) Arousal
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Biology, Clinical Manifestations, and Treatment of Cancer
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11177
Sample Questions
Q1) Which information indicates a nurse understands characteristics of malignant tumors?
A) Grows slowly
B) Has a well-defined capsule
C) Has a high mitotic index
D) Is well-differentiated
Q2) A 30-year-old male with HIV is diagnosed with Epstein-Barr virus.After 2 months,the virus is still active.Based upon the Epstein-Barr virus,which of the following cancers is most likely to develop in this patient?
A) B cell lymphoma
B) Kaposi sarcoma
C) T cell leukemia
D) T cell lipoma
Q3) Of the following genetic lesions that cause cancer,which is the most common?
A) Insertions
B) Deletions
C) Point mutations
D) Amplification
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Chapter 10: Cancer Epidemiology
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks why indoor pollution is worse than outdoor pollution.How should the nurse respond? Indoor pollution is considered worse than outdoor pollution because of cigarette smoke and:
A) Fireplace wood smoke
B) Radon
C) Benzene
D) Chlorine
Q2) When a patient asks what types of cancers are associated with tobacco use,how should the nurse respond?
A) Squamous and small cell adenocarcinomas
B) Sarcoma and adenoma
C) Melanoma and lymphoma
D) Basal cell and lipoma
Q3) A water test recently revealed arsenic levels above 200 ìg/L.Which of the following cancers would be most likely to develop in those who consistently drank the water?
A) Liver
B) Skin
C) Colon
D) Kidney
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Cancer in Children
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While planning care for children with cancer,which information should the nurse remember? Most childhood cancers originate from the:
A) Placenta
B) Environment
C) Mesodermal germ layer
D) Neural tube
Q2) A 40-year-old female developed adenocarcinoma of the vagina.Which of the following is the most likely cause of her cancer?
A) Rb gene mutation
B) Prenatal exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES)
C) Prenatal exposure to solvents
D) Prenatal exposure to radiation
Q3) When an aide asks why carcinomas rarely occur in childhood,how should the nurse respond? (Select all that apply.)
A) Carcinomas cannot develop in an immunosuppressed environment.
B) Carcinomas need a long time from exposure to occurrence.
C) Carcinomas are due to environmental exposures.
D) Carcinomas occur primarily in secondary sexual organs.
E) Carcinomas are mesodermal.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to teach about functions to maintain homeostasis and instinctive behavioral patterns.Which area of the brain is the nurse discussing?
A) Thalamus
B) Medulla
C) Cerebellum
D) Hypothalamus
Q2) A 19-year-old male college student reports to his primary care provider that he cannot stay awake in class regardless of how much sleep he gets.A drug that stimulates which of the following areas would best treat his problem?
A) Corpora quadrigemina
B) Reticular activating system
C) Cerebellum
D) Hypothalamus
Q3) When a patient wants to know how many vertebrae make up the vertebral column,the nurse responds with _____.
Q4) A nurse is monitoring intracranial pressure.A nurse recalls the normal upper limit of intracranial pressure is _______ mm Hg.
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Chapter 13: Pain, Temperature, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 50-year-old diabetic patient experiences visual disturbances and decides to visit his primary care provider.After examination,the primary care provider tells the patient that the cells that allow him to see are degenerated.Which of the following structures is most likely damaged?
A) Lens
B) Pupil
C) Cornea
D) Retina
Q2) When planning care for a child in pain,which principle should the nurse remember? The pain threshold in children is _____ that of adults.
A) Higher than
B) Lower than
C) The same as
D) Not related to
Q3) Which group of people is most prone to red-green color blindness?
A) Males
B) Females
C) Elderly persons
D) Children
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics and Motor Function
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An attorney spoke to the nurses regarding brain death.Which statement indicates the nurses understood brain death? For legal purposes,brain death is defined as:
A) Cessation of brain function
B) Lack of cortical function
C) A VS
D) Death of the brainstem
Q2) The breathing pattern that reflects respirations based primarily on carbon dioxide (CO<sub>2</sub>)levels in the blood is:
A) Cheyne-Stokes
B) Ataxic
C) Central neurogenic
D) Normal
Q3) The primary care provider states that the patient has vasogenic edema.The nurse realizes vasogenic edema is clinically important because:
A) It usually has an infectious cause.
B) The blood-brain barrier is disrupted.
C) Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is excessively high.
D) It always causes herniation.
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Chapter 15: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11183
Sample Questions
Q1) A 50-year-old male presents with low back pain.He denies trauma and says he just woke up and it was hurting.An MRI reveals that the vertebra at L5 slid forward relative to those above and below it.Which of the following conditions will be documented on the chart?
A) Degenerative disk disease
B) Spondylolysis
C) Spondylolisthesis
D) Spinal stenosis
Q2) The majority of intervertebral disk herniations occur between which vertebral levels (cervical,C; thoracic,T; lumbar,L; sacral,S)?
A) C1 to C3
B) T1 to T4
C) T12 to L3
D) L4 to S1
Q3) _____ are most at risk of spinal cord injury from minor trauma.
A) Infants
B) Men
C) Women
D) The elderly
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When should be the best time for the nurse to assess for the vomiting and headache that are symptoms of a brain tumor in children?
A) Morning
B) Early afternoon
C) As the sun goes down and darkness begins
D) During the middle of the night
Q2) The nurse is assessing a 2-month-old infant.Which reflex of infancy will disappear first?
A) Stepping
B) Rooting
C) Palmar grasp
D) Moro reflex
Q3) To prevent Reye syndrome in infants,which of the following instructions should the nurse give to parents?
A) Breast-feed infants as long as possible.
B) Treat fevers with acetaminophen, not aspirin.
C) Lock up hazardous cleaning agents.
D) Remove lead paint from the home.
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18
Chapter 17: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nutrient would the nurse encourage the patient to consume for thyroid hormone synthesis?
A) Zinc
B) Sodium
C) Iodine
D) Calcium
Q2) An endocrinologist isolated a new hormone and found it to be a water-soluble amine.Which of the following is most like this new hormone?
A) Growth hormone (GH)
B) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
C) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
D) Epinephrine
Q3) A patient wants to know why ADH is important in the body.What is the nurse's best response? ADH is important in:
A) The body's water balance and urine concentration
B) Maintaining electrolyte levels and concentrations
C) Follicular maturation
D) Regulation of metabolic processes
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19
Chapter 18: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 35-year-old female took corticosteroid therapy for several months.Which of the following would the nurse expect to find?
A) Renal toxicity
B) Episodes of hypoglycemia
C) Hypotension
D) Type 2 DM
Q2) A 22-year-old male is admitted to the intensive care unit with a closed head injury sustained in a motorcycle accident.The injury has caused severe damage to the posterior pituitary.Which of the following complications should the nurse anticipate?
A) Dilutional hyponatremia
B) Dehydration from polyuria
C) Cardiac arrest from hyperkalemia
D) Metabolic acidosis
Q3) A 49-year-old female is diagnosed with hypercortisolism.Which of the following would the nurse expect?
A) Weight loss
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Decreased urination
D) Osteoporosis
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11187
Sample Questions
Q1) Which electrolyte will the nurse check to ensure normal platelet functioning?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Magnesium
D) Calcium
Q2) A newborn baby has a clotting disorder that results in her body being unable to produce thrombin.Which of the following phases of platelet degranulation would be impossible?
A) Subendothelial exposure
B) Adhesion
C) Activation
D) Aggregation
Q3) After birth,red blood cells are normally made only in the:
A) Liver
B) Spleen
C) Bone marrow
D) Kidney
Q4) When an aide asks a nurse how many oxygen molecules can hemoglobin carry,what is the nurse's best response? Hemoglobin molecules carry _____ oxygen molecules.
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Chapter 20: Alterations of Hematologic Function
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse sees a diagnosis of hereditary hemochromatosis on the chart,the nurse knows this is a disorder of:
A) Intravascular coagulation
B) Iron overload
C) Leukocytosis
D) Granulocytosis
Q2) A 65-year-old male experienced loss of appetite,weight loss,lemon-yellow skin,liver enlargement,and a beefy red tongue shortly before his death.Autopsy suggested pernicious anemia,and the cause of death would most likely reveal:
A) Brain hypoxia
B) Liver hypoxia
C) Heart failure
D) Kidney failure
Q3) A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia.Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?
A) Sideroblastic anemia
B) Hemolytic anemia
C) Pernicious anemia
D) Iron deficiency anemia
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 10-year-old male is diagnosed with sickle cell anemia.When the parents ask who is responsible for this disease,what is the nurse's best response? He most likely inherited it from:
A) His mother
B) His father
C) Noth his mother and father
D) None of the above; sickle cell disease is not clearly an inherited disease.
Q2) A 5-year-old male is diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytic purpura (ITP).Which information should the nurse give the staff regarding the cause of this condition?
A) Normal postnatal platelet lysis
B) Virally induced antibody destruction of platelets
C) An allergic reaction to vaccinations
D) Maternal antibodies that target platelets in the neonate
Q3) A nurse wants to chart the other name for hemophilia B.Which term should the nurse write?
A) Classic hemophilia
B) Christmas disease
C) Thalassemia
D) von Willebrand disease
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement indicates the nurse understands blood flow? Oxygenated blood flows through the:
A) Superior vena cava
B) Pulmonary veins
C) Pulmonary artery
D) Cardiac veins
Q2) A 65-year-old male develops blockage in the pulmonary artery.As a result of the blockage,blood would first back up into the:
A) Aorta
B) Left ventricle
C) Pulmonary veins
D) Right ventricle
Q3) A patient has searched on the internet for muscle contractions.Which information indicates a good understanding? Muscle contractions occur when there is a decreased:
A) Distance between Z lines
B) A band length
C) Z line length
D) H zone distance
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Chapter 23: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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78 Verified Questions
78 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hypotensive state seen in septic shock can lead to:
A) Bradycardia due to an overworked heart
B) Gut lining disruption and the translocation of bacteria into the bloodstream
C) Decreased oxygen demand of highly metabolic tissue
D) The increased spread of infection
Q2) A 56-year-old male presents to his primary care provider for a checkup.Physical exam reveals edema,hepatomegaly,and muffled heart sounds.Which of the following is of greatest concern to the nurse?
A) Tamponade
B) Exudate
C) Aneurysm
D) Pulsus paradoxus
Q3) A 65-year-old female presents to the emergency department reporting difficulty swallowing and shortness of breath.A CT scan would most likely reveal an aneurysm in the:
A) Cerebral vessels
B) Renal arteries
C) Inferior vena cava
D) Thoracic aorta
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn child is diagnosed with trisomy 18.Which of the following congenital heart defects should the nurse assess for in the infant? (Select all that apply.)
A) Patent ductus
B) Coarctation of the aorta
C) Atrioventricular canal defect
D) Ventricular septal defect
E) Pulmonary stenosis
Q2) A newborn is suspected of having coarctation of the aorta.Which of the following assessments would aid in diagnosis?
A) Cyanosis
B) Bounding pedal pulses
C) Cool arms
D) Weak or absent femoral pulses
Q3) A newborn child is diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot.What symptoms would the nurse expect to observe in the child?
A) High-pitched cry and dyspnea
B) Cyanosis and hypoxia
C) Leg pain and twitching
D) Epistaxis and anemia
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Chapter 25: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pulmonologist is discussing the base of the lungs with staff.Which information should be included? At the base of the lungs:
A) Alveolar gas pressure exceeds arterial perfusion pressure.
B) Arterial perfusion pressure and alveolar gas pressure are less than at the apex.
C) Arterial perfusion pressure exceeds alveolar gas pressure.
D) Arterial perfusion and alveolar gas pressure are equal.
Q2) An aide asks a nurse how surfactant works.How should the nurse respond?
Surfactant facilitates alveolar distention and ventilation by:
A) Decreasing thoracic compliance
B) Attracting water to the alveolar surface
C) Decreasing surface tension in alveoli
D) Increasing diffusion in alveoli
Q3) In a patient with acidosis or a fever,the nurse would expect the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to shift:
A) To the right, causing more O<sub>2</sub> to be released to the cells
B) To the left, allowing less O<sub>2</sub> to be released to the cells
C) Downward, allowing less O<sub>2</sub> to dissolve in the plasma
D) Upward, allowing more O<sub>2</sub> to dissolve in the plasma
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Chapter 26: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 20-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting difficulty breathing when lying down.What term should the nurse use to document this condition?
A) Dyspnea
B) Orthopnea
C) Apnea
D) Tachypnea
Q2) Which of the following patients is at highest risk for developing pulmonary embolism (PE)?
A) 21-year-old male with a hemophilia bleeding disorder
B) 28-year-old woman who had a baby 6 months earlier
C) 36-year-old woman with a history of alcohol abuse who is recovering from a gastric ulcer
D) 72-year-old male who is recovering from hip replacement surgery in the hospital
Q3) A nurse recalls asthma is classified by:
A) Pathophysiologic differences
B) Clinical severity
C) Genetic traits
D) Treatment outcomes
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Chapter 27: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn has respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).The nurse reports this condition appeared:
A) Within minutes of birth
B) 2 to 3 hours after birth
C) Within the first 12 to 24 hours after birth
D) 24 to 48 hours after exposure to an infectious organism
Q2) A 1-year-old female is diagnosed with croup.When the parent asks what caused this,what is the nurse's best response? The most likely cause of this disease is:
A) Bacteria
B) Acute hyperventilation
C) Allergy
D) Viral infection
Q3) During a respiratory assessment of an infant with respiratory distress syndrome,a sinking in the supraclavicular and intercostal areas of the thorax was noted with inspiration.This observation is documented as:
A) Grunting
B) Tachypnea
C) Retractions
D) Nasal flaring
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Chapter 28: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A urologist is discussing a structure that supplies blood to the medulla.What is the urologist describing?
A) Renal arteries
B) Arcuate arteries
C) Peritubular capillaries
D) Vasa recta
Q2) When the nurse discusses the glomerulus and Bowman capsule together,it is referred to as the renal:
A) Corpuscle
B) Capsule
C) Medulla
D) Pyramid
Q3) A patient has searched the Internet for hormones.The patient has a good understanding when she knows that the hormone _____ is synthesized and secreted by the kidneys to stimulate bone marrow production of red blood cells.
A) Creatinine
B) Aldosterone
C) Erythropoietin
D) Renin
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Chapter 29: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 45-year-old female presents with hypertension,anorexia,nausea and vomiting,and anemia.She is diagnosed with chronic renal failure.When the patient asks what caused this anemia,how should the nurse respond? Your anemia is caused by:
A) Red blood cells being lost in the urine
B) Inadequate production of erythropoietin
C) Inadequate iron absorption in the gut
D) Red blood cells being injured as they pass through the glomerulus
Q2) Anemia accompanies chronic renal failure because of:
A) Blood loss via the urine
B) Renal insensitivity to vitamin D
C) Inadequate production of erythropoietin
D) Inadequate retention of serum iron
Q3) A 28-year-old female presents with fever,chills,and flank pain.She is diagnosed with pyelonephritis.A nurse recalls the patient's infection is located in the:
A) Bladder
B) Renal pelvis
C) Renal tubules
D) Glomerulus
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11198
Sample Questions
Q1) A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with glomerulonephritis.History reveals that he had an infection 3 weeks before the onset of this condition.The infection was most likely located in the:
A) Bone
B) Gastrointestinal (GI) tract
C) Respiratory tract
D) Ear
Q2) A nurse is preparing to teach about renal agenesis.Which information should the nurse include? Infants who have bilateral renal agenesis:
A) Die within 1 year of birth
B) Can expect to have a normal, healthy life
C) Are stillborn or die within a few hours of birth
D) Have structural abnormalities that can be corrected with surgery
Q3) A 7-year-old female is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome.Which of the following should the nurse ask the parents if they or the child has noticed recently?
A) Sunken fontanelles
B) Vesicular skin rash
C) Frothy urine
D) Jaundice
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Chapter 31: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11199
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to teach about female anatomy.Which information should the nurse include? The female erectile organ that secretes smegma is called the:
A) Introitus
B) Bartholin glands
C) Clitoris
D) Labia minora
Q2) Which information indicates the nurse has a good understanding of progesterone?
Progesterone is primarily secreted by the:
A) Follicle
B) Corpus luteum
C) Granulose cells
D) Anterior pituitary
Q3) When a staff member asks the nurse what is the most potent of the following estrogens,what is the nurse's best response? It is:
A) Estradiol
B) Testosterone
C) Estrone
D) Estriol
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Chapter 32: Alterations of the Reproductive Systems
Including Sexually Transmitted Infections
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11200
Sample Questions
Q1) In the majority of cases delayed puberty is due to:
A) A disruption in the hypothalamus
B) A disruption of the pituitary
C) Slow maturation
D) Ambiguity in sex determination
Q2) A 19-year-old female presents with genital warts.Which of the following would cause this condition?
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Adenovirus
C) HPV
D) Herpes simplex virus
Q3) The most commonly occurring cancer of the female reproductive tract is _____ cancer.
A) Cervical
B) Ovarian
C) Endometrial
D) Fallopian
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11201
Sample Questions
Q1) In the liver,free bilirubin moves from the plasma in the sinusoids into the hepatocytes,where it is converted into:
A) Unconjugated bilirubin
B) Biliverdin
C) Conjugated bilirubin
D) Urobilinogen
Q2) The nursing student is teaching a class to second graders.The student would correctly identify that food moves down the esophagus via the process termed:
A) Peristalsis
B) Retropulsion
C) Haustral segmentation
D) Defecation
Q3) The ________ sphincter controls the movement of chyme from the sigmoid colon into the rectum?
A) Oddi
B) Ileocecal
C) O'Beirne
D) Internal anal
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Chapter 34: Alterations of Digestive Function
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64 Verified Questions
64 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11202
Sample Questions
Q1) A 40-year-old male presents with epigastric pain.Tests reveal acute pancreatitis.The most likely cause of his condition is:
A) Pancreatic duct obstruction by a malignant tumor
B) Surgical trauma to the pancreas
C) Obstruction of the biliary tract by a gallstone
D) Toxic injury to the pancreas from nonprescription medications
Q2) Obesity is define as a body mass index (BMI)greater than _____.
Q3) The adult intestine processes approximately _____ liters of luminal content per day,of which 99% of the fluid is normally reabsorbed.
Q4) An increase in the rate of red blood cell breakdown causes which form of jaundice?
A) Obstructive
B) Hemolytic
C) Hepatocellular
D) Metabolic
Q5) A 16-year-old female is diagnosed with anorexia nervosa.By definition,the patient would weigh ____% less than normal for age and height:
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36
Chapter 35: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11203
Sample Questions
Q1) A 3-month-old female presents with intention tremors,dystonia,greenish-yellow rings in the cornea,and hepatomegaly.Tests reveal a defect on chromosome 13.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Galactosemia
B) Fructosemia
C) Wilson disease
D) Cirrhosis
Q2) The primary complication of enterocolitis associated with Hirschsprung disease is related to which finding?
A) Fecal impaction
B) Pancreatic insufficiency
C) Hyperactive peristalsis
D) Ileal atresia
Q3) Meconium ileus is associated with which of the following disorders?
A) Pyloric stenosis
B) Esophageal atresia
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) Esophagitis
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Chapter 36: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11204
Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse is using the term "sarcopenia," what is the nurse describing? It is the:
A) Absence of muscle cells
B) Fatigue of muscle cells
C) Age-related loss in skeletal muscle
D) Muscles that are unable to contract
Q2) The epimysium,perimysium,and endomysium are made of:
A) Bone
B) Epithelium
C) Fascia
D) Cartilage
Q3) While planning care for a patient with muscle problems,which information should the nurse remember? _____ ions directly control the contraction of muscles.
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Calcium
D) Magnesium
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11205
Sample Questions
Q1) A 34-year-old female was recently diagnosed with RA.Physical examination revealed that inflammation started in the:
A) Synovial membrane
B) Articular cartilage
C) Subchondral bone
D) Surrounding ligaments
Q2) A 70-year-old female with osteoporosis fractures her leg at a location of preexisting abnormality.She reports that the fracture occurred following a minor fall.Which of the following best describes the fracture?
A) Fatigue fracture
B) Stress fracture
C) Pathologic fracture
D) Greenstick fracture
Q3) A 70-year-old female presents with a hip fracture.She is diagnosed with osteoporosis.One factor that most likely contributed to her condition is:
A) Increased androgen levels
B) Decreased estrogen levels
C) Strenuous exercise
D) Excessive dietary calcium
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Chapter 38: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11206
Sample Questions
Q1) Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)has a(n)_____ inheritance pattern.
A) Autosomal recessive
B) X-linked recessive
C) Y-linked dominant
D) Autosomal dominant
Q2) Which of the following types of scoliosis accounts for the majority of the cases of scoliosis?
A) Idiopathic
B) Infectious
C) Iatrogenic
D) Secondary
Q3) A 1-year-old female was diagnosed with OI.Which of the following is a complication in this patient?
A) Congestive heart failure
B) Liver failure
C) Aortic aneurysm
D) Pulmonary emboli
Q4) Incidence of Legg-Calvé-Perthes (LCP)disease peaks at age______.
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Q5) Polyarthritis is a type of juvenile arthritis in which more than _____ joints are affected
Chapter 39: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11207
Sample Questions
Q1) Which cells are involved in initiating immune responses in the skin?
A) Langerhans cells
B) Merkel cells
C) Keratinocytes
D) Melanocytes
Q2) A 70-year-old male nursing home resident developed a dermal pressure ulcer.This condition is most often caused by (select all that apply):
A) Shearing forces
B) Friction
C) Moisture
D) Unrelieved pressure
E) High-carbohydrate diet
Q3) In burn injury patients,the rule of nines and the Lund and Browder chart are used to estimate:
A) Depth of burn injury
B) Possibility of infection
C) Degree of systemic involvement
D) Total body surface area burned
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Chapter 40: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11208
Sample Questions
Q1) The pathophysiology student would correctly identify the etiologic agent of smallpox as:
A) A bacteria
B) A virus
C) Insects
D) Mites
Q2) A 4-month-old female is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis (AD).Which of the following assessment findings by the nurse will most likely support this diagnosis?
A) Blistering
B) Moist reddened skin
C) Dry, itchy skin
D) White patches
Q3) A 2-month-old female develops diaper dermatitis.A nurse will monitor this patient for which secondary infection that frequently accompanies diaper dermatitis?
A) Streptococcus
B) Proteus
C) Candida albicans
D) Staphylococcus aureus
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