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Nursing Pathophysiology offers a comprehensive exploration of the physiological processes that underpin human health and the alterations that lead to disease states. This course emphasizes the mechanisms by which normal bodily functions are disrupted, providing students with a foundational understanding of the pathogenesis, clinical manifestations, and progression of common acute and chronic illnesses. Through a systems-based approach, students will investigate how cellular and organ dysfunctions manifest in observable symptoms, enhancing their critical thinking and clinical reasoning skills essential for effective nursing practice. The curriculum integrates case studies and real-world scenarios to prepare future nurses for the application of pathophysiological principles in patient assessment and care.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Surgical Nursing 8th Edition by Sharon L. Lewis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
69 Chapters
1771 Verified Questions
1771 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1584 Page 2
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31398
Sample Questions
Q1) Which action by a newly graduated RN working on the postsurgical unit indicates that more education about delegation and assignment is needed?
A) The nurse delegates measurement of patient oral intake and urine output to NAP.
B) The nurse delegates assessment of a patient's bowel sounds to experienced NAP.
C) The nurse assigns an LPN/LVN to administer oral medications to several patients.
D) The nurse assigns a "float" RN from pediatrics to care for a patient with diabetes.
Answer: B
Q2) A patient with a stroke is paralyzed on the left side of the body and has developed a pressure ulcer on the left hip. The best nursing diagnosis for this patient is
A) impaired physical mobility related to left-sided paralysis.
B) risk for impaired tissue integrity related to left-sided weakness.
C) impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure.
D) ineffective tissue perfusion related to inability to move independently.
Answer: C
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3
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31399
Sample Questions
Q1) When developing strategies to decrease health care disparities, the nurse working in a clinic located in a neighborhood with many Vietnamese individuals will include A) improving public transportation.
B) obtaining low-cost medications.
C) updating equipment and supplies for the clinic.
D) educating staff about Vietnamese health beliefs.
Answer: D
Q2) When planning health care for a community with a large number of recent immigrants from China, the most important intervention for the nurse to include is A) pregnancy testing.
B) tuberculosis screening.
C) contraceptive teaching.
D) colonoscopy information.
Answer: B
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4

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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31400
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is performing a health history and physical examination for a patient with right-sided rib fractures. The pertinent negative finding is that the patient
A) states that there have been no other health problems recently.
B) denies having pain when the area over the fractures is palpated.
C) has several bruised and swollen areas on the right anterior chest.
D) refuses to take a deep breath because of the associated chest pain.
Answer: B
Q2) A patient is seen in the emergency department with chest pain and hypotension. Which type of assessment should the nurse do at this time?
A) Focused assessment
B) Subjective assessment
C) Emergency assessment
D) Comprehensive assessment
Answer: C
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31401
Sample Questions
Q1) After the nurse implements diet instruction for a patient with heart disease, the patient can explain the information but fails to make the recommended dietary changes. The nurse's evaluation is that
A) learning did not occur because the patient's behavior did not change.
B) choosing not to follow the diet is the behavior that resulted from learning.
C) the nursing responsibility for helping the patient make dietary changes has been fulfilled.
D) the teaching methods were ineffective in helping the patient learn the dietary information.
Q2) A newly diagnosed diabetic patient tells the nurse, "I want to know how to give my own insulin." Which action will the nurse take first when implementing the standardized diabetic teaching plan?
A) Demonstrate how to draw up and administer insulin.
B) Discuss the use of exercise to decrease insulin needs.
C) Teach about differences between the various types of insulin.
D) Provide handouts about therapeutic and adverse effects of insulin.
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31402
Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing actions will the nurse take to assess for possible malnutrition in a 69-year-old patient (select all that apply)?
A) Observe for depression.
B) Review laboratory results.
C) Assess teeth and oral mucosa.
D) Ask about transportation needs.
E) Determine food likes and dislikes.
Q2) The nurse is planning discharge for an alert, homeless 70-year-old with a chronic foot infection. The most appropriate intervention by the nurse is to
A) teach the patient how to assess and care for the foot infection.
B) refer to social services for further assessment of patient needs.
C) schedule the patient to return to outpatient services for foot care.
D) give the patient written information about shelters and meal sites.
Q3) To obtain the most complete information when doing an assessment for an 81-year-old patient, the nurse will
A) interview both the patient and the primary patient caregiver.
B) use a geriatric assessment instrument to evaluate the patient.
C) review the patient's chart for the history of medical problems.
D) ask the patient to write down medical problems and medications.
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Page 7

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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31403
Sample Questions
Q1) A family caregiver tells the home health nurse, "I feel like I can never get away to do anything for myself." Which action will be best for the nurse to take?
A) Assist the caregiver in finding respite services.
B) Assure the caregiver that the work is appreciated.
C) Teach the caregiver that family members provide excellent patient care.
D) Encourage the caregiver to discuss feelings openly with the nurse as needed.
Q2) Which of these patients should the nurse refer for Medicare-reimbursed home health services?
A) A 71-year-old with dementia who needs 24-hour care to prevent injury
B) An 82-year-old whose family has asked for respite care for a few days a month
C) A 67-year-old who requires assistance with shopping, housework, and cooking
D) A 79-year-old who needs to have medications placed in a marked pillbox weekly
Q3) When the home health nurse is caring for a patient who needs to relearn self-care skills such as dressing and self-feeding, which referral will be best?
A) Dietitian
B) Speech therapist
C) Physical therapist
D) Occupational therapist
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31404
Sample Questions
Q1) Which information will the nurse include when discussing the use of herbal remedies with a patient who uses a variety of herbs for health maintenance?
A) Herbs should be purchased only from manufacturers with a history of quality control.
B) Most herbs are toxic and carcinogenic and should be used only when proven effective.
C) Herbs are no better than conventional drugs in maintaining health and may be less safe.
D) Frequent medical evaluation is required during the use of herbs to avoid adverse effects.
Q2) Which information obtained by the nurse when admitting a patient with osteoarthritis may indicate a need for patient teaching?
A) The patient obtains information about herbal therapies online.
B) The patient takes glucosamine daily to prevent knee and hip pain.
C) The patient attends a weekly yoga class to improve flexibility and balance.
D) The patient states that prayer helps to improve the knee pain and function.
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31405
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been hospitalized for a heart attack tells the nurse, "I didn't sleep last night because I worried about missing work and losing my insurance coverage." Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate to include in the plan of care?
A) Anxiety
B) Defensive coping
C) Ineffective denial
D) Risk prone health behavior
Q2) A 22-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department ( ED ) with multiple abrasions after a motor vehicle accident and has an initial blood pressure ( BP ) of 180/98. The nurse will plan to
A) discuss the need for hospital admission to control blood pressure. B) treat the abrasions and discuss the risks associated with hypertension. C) recheck the blood pressure before the patient's discharge from the ED. D) start an intravenous ( IV ) line to administer antihypertensive medications.
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31406
Sample Questions
Q1) Which instruction will the nurse include when teaching a patient with chronic insomnia about ways to improve sleep quality?
A) Avoid aerobic exercise during the day.
B) Read in bed for a few minutes each night.
C) Keep the bedroom temperature slightly warm.
D) Try to go to bed at the same time every evening.
Q2) Which information will the nurse plan to include when teaching a patient with narcolepsy about management of the disorder?
A) Stimulant drugs should be used for only a short time because of the risk for abuse.
B) Driving an automobile may be possible with appropriate treatment of narcolepsy.
C) Changes in sleep hygiene are ineffective in improving sleep quality in narcolepsy.
D) Antidepressant drugs are prescribed to treat the depression caused by the disorder.
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31407
Q1) These medications are ordered for an 86-year-old patient with arthritis in both hips who is complaining of level 3 (0 to 10 scale) hip pain while ambulating. Which medication should the nurse use as initial therapy?
A) aspirin (Bayer) 650 mg orally
B) naproxen (Aleve) 200 mg orally
C) oxycodone (Roxicodone) 5 mg orally
D) acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg orally
Q2) A patient who uses a fentanyl ( Duragesic ) patch for chronic cancer pain complains to the nurse of the rapid onset of pain at a level 9 ( 0 to 10 scale ) and requests "something for pain that will work quickly." The nurse will document this as A) somatic pain.
B) referred pain.
C) neuropathic pain.
D) breakthrough pain.
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31408
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these patients is most appropriate for the nurse to refer to hospice care?
A) A 60-year-old with lymphoma whose children are unable to discuss issues related to dying
B) A 72-year-old with chronic severe pain as a result of spinal arthritis and vertebral collapse
C) A 28-year-old with AIDS-related dementia who needs palliative care and pain management
D) A 56-year-old with advanced liver failure whose family members can no longer care for him or her at home
Q2) The nurse is caring for a terminally ill patient who has 20-second periods of apnea followed by periods of deep and rapid breathing. The nurse documents this finding as A) agonal breathing.
B) apneustic breathing.
C) death-rattle respirations.
D) Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
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13
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31409
Sample Questions
Q1) An agitated individual is brought to the emergency department by friends who state that the patient took a hallucinogenic drug at a party and then tried to jump from a second-story window. The priority nursing diagnosis for the patient is
A) risk for injury related to altered perception.
B) ineffective health maintenance related to drug use.
C) powerlessness related to loss of behavioral control.
D) ineffective denial related to lack of control of life situation.
Q2) During physical assessment of a patient who has sinus headaches, the nurse finds nasal sores and necrosis of the nasal septum. The nurse should ask the patient specifically about the use of A) heroin.
B) cocaine.
C) tobacco.
D) marijuana.
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14
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31410
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has just received change-of-shift report about the following four patients. Which patient will the nurse assess first?
A) The patient who has multiple black wounds on the feet and ankles.
B) The newly admitted patient with a stage IV pressure ulcer on the coccyx.
C) The patient who needs to be medicated with multiple analgesics before a scheduled dressing change.
D) The patient who has been receiving immunosuppressant medications and has a temperature of 102° F.
Q2) Which nursing action is most likely to detect early signs of infection in a patient who is taking immunosuppressive medications?
A) Monitor white blood cell count.
B) Check the skin for areas of redness.
C) Check the temperature every 2 hours.
D) Ask about fatigue or feelings of malaise.
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15
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31411
Sample Questions
Q1) A 62-year-old patient who is having an annual check-up tells the nurse, "I don't understand why I need to have so many cancer screening tests now. I feel just fine!" The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the
A) consequences of aging on cell-mediated immunity.
B) decrease in antibody production associated with aging.
C) impact of poor nutrition on immune function in older people.
D) incidence of cancer-stimulating infections in older individuals.
Q2) A patient whose mother has been diagnosed with BRCA gene-related breast cancer asks the nurse, "Do you think I should be tested for the gene?" Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) "In most cases, breast cancer is not caused by the BRCA gene."
B) "It depends on how you will feel if the test is positive for the BRCA gene."
C) "There are many things to consider before deciding to have genetic testing."
D) "You should decide first whether you are willing to have a double mastectomy."
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Page 16

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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31412
Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing an individual who has been diagnosed with early chronic HIV infection and has a normal CD4+ count, the nurse will
A) check neurologic orientation.
B) ask about problems with diarrhea.
C) palpate the regional lymph nodes.
D) examine the oral mucosa for lesions.
Q2) A patient who has been treated for HIV infection for 7 years has developed fat redistribution to the trunk, with wasting of the arms, legs, and face. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about
A) the benefits of daily exercise.
B) foods that are higher in protein.
C) treatment with antifungal agents.
D) a change in antiretroviral therapy.
Q3) When designing a program to decrease the incidence of HIV infection in the community, the nurse will prioritize teaching about A) methods to prevent perinatal HIV transmission.
B) how to prevent transmission between sexual partners.
C) ways to sterilize needles used by injectable drug users.
D) means to prevent transmission through blood transfusions.
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31413
Sample Questions
Q1) External-beam radiation is planned for a patient with endometrial cancer. The nurse teaches the patient that an important measure to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation is to
A) test all stools for the presence of blood.
B) maintain a high-residue, high-fiber diet.
C) clean the perianal area carefully after every bowel movement.
D) inspect the mouth and throat daily for the appearance of thrush.
Q2) After receiving change-of-shift report, which of these patients should the nurse assess first?
A) 35-year-old who has wet desquamation associated with abdominal radiation
B) 42-year-old who is sobbing after receiving a new diagnosis of ovarian cancer
C) 24-year-old who is receiving neck radiation and has blood oozing from the neck
D) 56-year-old who has a new pericardial friction rub after receiving chest radiation
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31414
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with advanced lung cancer is admitted to the emergency department with urinary retention caused by renal calculi. Which of these laboratory values will require the most immediate action by the nurse?
A) Arterial blood pH is 7.32.
B) Serum calcium is 18 mEq/L.
C) Serum potassium is 5.1 mEq/L.
D) Arterial oxygen saturation is 91%.
Q2) Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has a central venous access device ( CVAD )?
A) Avoid using friction when cleaning around the CVAD insertion site.
B) Use the push-pause method to flush the CVAD after giving medications.
C) Obtain an order from the health care provider to change CVAD dressing.
D) Have the patient turn the head toward the CAVD during injection cap changes.
Q3) When assessing a patient with increased extracellular fluid (ECF) osmolality, the priority assessment for the nurse to obtain is
A) skin turgor.
B) heart sounds.
C) mental status.
D) capillary refill.
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31415
Sample Questions
Q1) During the preoperative assessment of a patient scheduled for a colon resection, the patient tells the nurse about using St. John's wort to prevent depression. The nurse should alert the staff in the postanesthesia recovery area that the patient may
A) experience increased pain.
B) have hypertensive episodes.
C) take longer to recover from the anesthesia.
D) have more postoperative bleeding than expected.
Q2) A patient who is scheduled for surgery in a week tells the nurse doing the preoperative assessment about an allergy to bananas, kiwifruit, and latex products. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
A) Notify the dietitian about the food allergies.
B) Alert the surgery center about the latex allergy.
C) Reassure the patient that all allergies are noted on the medical record.
D) Ask whether the patient uses antihistamines to reduce allergic reactions.
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31416
Sample Questions
Q1) The perioperative nurse encourages a family member or a friend to remain with a patient in the preoperative holding area until the patient is taken into the operating room primarily to
A) ensure the proper identification of the patient before surgery.
B) protect the patient from cross-contamination with other patients.
C) assist the perioperative nurse to obtain a complete patient history.
D) help relieve the stress of separation for the patient and significant others.
Q2) The nurse from the general surgical unit is asked to bring the patient's hearing aid to the surgical suite. The nurse will take the hearing aid to the
A) clean core.
B) scrub sink areas.
C) nursing station or information desk.
D) corridors of the operating room area.
Q3) Which action will the scrub nurse use to maintain aseptic technique during surgery?
A) Use waterproof shoe covers.
B) Wear personal protective equipment.
C) Insist that all operating room (OR) staff perform a surgical scrub.
D) Change gloves after touching the upper arm of the surgeon's gown.
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31417
Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient is transferred from the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) to the clinical surgical unit, the first action by the nurse on the surgical unit should be to
A) assess the patient's pain.
B) take the patient's vital signs.
C) read the postoperative orders.
D) check the rate of the IV infusion.
Q2) A postoperative patient has not voided for 7 hours after return to the postsurgical unit. Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Notify the surgeon.
B) Perform a bladder scan.
C) Assist the patient to ambulate to the bathroom.
D) Insert a straight catheter as indicated on the PRN order.
Q3) Following gallbladder surgery, a patient's T-tube is draining dark green fluid. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Place the patient on bed rest.
B) Notify the patient's surgeon.
C) Document the color and amount of drainage.
D) Irrigate the T-tube with sterile normal saline.
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31418
Sample Questions
Q1) Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient about routine glaucoma testing?
A) The test involves reading a Snellen chart at a distance of 20 feet.
B) Application of a Tono-pen to the surface of the eye will be needed.
C) The examination includes checking the pupil's reaction to a bright light.
D) Medications to dilate the pupil will be used before testing for glaucoma.
Q2) In order to assess the visual acuity for a patient in the outpatient clinic, the nurse will need to obtain a (an)
A) penlight.
B) Amsler grid.
C) Snellen chart.
D) ophthalmoscope.
Q3) A patient in the eye clinic is scheduled for refractometry. Which information will the nurse include in patient teaching?
A) "You will need to wear sunglasses for a few hours after the exam."
B) "The surface of your eye will be numb while the doctor does the exam."
C) "You should not take any of your eye medicines before the examination."
D) "The doctor will shine a bright light into your eye during the examination."
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31419
Sample Questions
Q1) The home health nurse observes a patient taking these actions when self-administering eardrops. Which patient action indicates a need for more teaching?
A) The patient leaves the ear wick in place while administering the drops.
B) The patient lies down before and for 2 minutes after administering the drops.
C) The patient gets the eardrops out of the refrigerator just before administering the drops.
D) The patient holds the tip of the dropper 1 cm above the ear while administering the drops.
Q2) A patient with Ménière's disease is admitted with vertigo, nausea, and vomiting. Which nursing intervention will be included in the care plan?
A) Keep the patient's room darkened.
B) Encourage oral fluids to 3000 ml daily.
C) Change the patient's position every 2 hours.
D) Keep the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees.
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31420
Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment information documented in a patient's chart indicates that the nurse may need to continue to monitor the skin condition of an 82-year-old patient admitted with bacterial pneumonia?
A) "Scattered macular brown areas on extremities"
B) "Skin brown and wrinkled, skin tenting on forearm"
C) "Longitudinal nail bed ridges noted, sparse scalp hair"
D) "Skin moist and intact; states history of allergic rashes"
Q2) The nurse is preparing to obtain a culture from a patient who has a possible fungal infection in the groin area. Which action is appropriate?
A) Apply a topical anesthetic before obtaining the culture.
B) Use sterile gloves to squeeze the lesion and obtain exudate.
C) Swab the infected area with a sterile cotton-tipped applicator.
D) Scrape the area gently with a razor blade to obtain a specimen.
Q3) The nurse notes several angiomas on the legs of a 73-year-old patient. Which action should the nurse take next?
A) Assess the patient for evidence of liver disease.
B) Discuss the adverse effects of sun exposure on the skin.
C) Educate the patient about possible skin changes with aging.
D) Suggest that the patient make an appointment with a dermatologist.
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31421
Sample Questions
Q1) When examining a patient's oral cavity, the nurse notes the presence of white lesions that resemble milk curds at the back of the throat. Which question by the nurse is appropriate at this time?
A) Do you have a productive cough?
B) How often do you brush your teeth?
C) Are you taking any medications at present?
D) Have you ever had an oral herpes infection?
Q2) Which nursing action should the nurse delegate to nursing assistive personnel (NAP) who are assisting with the care of a patient with furunculosis?
A) Applying antibiotic cream to the groin.
B) Obtaining cultures from ruptured lesions.
C) Evaluating the patient's personal hygiene.
D) Cleaning the skin with antimicrobial soap.
Q3) A patient is diagnosed with basal cell carcinoma ( BCC ) of the face. Which information should be included in patient teaching?
A) Treatment plans include watchful waiting.
B) Screening for metastasis will be important.
C) Low dose systemic chemotherapy is used to treat BCC.
D) Minimizing sun exposure will reduce risk for future BCC.
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31422
Sample Questions
Q1) In which order will the nurse take these actions when doing a dressing change for a partial-thickness burn wound on a patient's back? Put a comma and space between each solve choice (a, b, c, d, etc.) ____________________
A) Apply sterile gauze dressing.
B) Document wound appearance.
C) Apply silver sulfadiazine cream.
D) Administer IV fentanyl ( Sublimaze ).
E) Clean wound with saline-soaked gauze.
Q2) A 70 kg patient with burns over 30% of total body surface area (TBSA) is admitted to the burn unit. Using the Parkland formula, calculate the volume of lactated Ringer's solution that the nursing staff will administer during the first 24 hours.
Q3) A patient with circumferential burns of both arms develops a decrease in radial pulse strength and numbness in the fingers. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Notify the health care provider.
B) Monitor the pulses every 2 hours.
C) Elevate both arms above heart level with pillows.
D) Encourage the patient to flex and extend the fingers.
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31423
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse palpates the posterior chest while the patient says "99" and notes that no vibration is felt. How should this be charted?
A) Diminished expansion
B) Dullness to percussion
C) Absent tactile fremitus
D) Decreased breath sounds
Q2) When auscultating a patient's chest while the patient takes a deep breath, the nurse hears loud, high-pitched, "blowing" sounds at both lung bases. The nurse will document these as
A) normal sounds.
B) vesicular sounds.
C) abnormal sounds.
D) adventitious sounds.
Q3) A patient with a chronic cough has a bronchoscopy. Which action will be included in the nursing care plan after the procedure?
A) Elevate the head of the bed to 80 to 90 degrees.
B) Keep the patient NPO until the gag reflex returns.
C) Place on bed rest for at least 4 hours postbronchoscopy.
D) Notify the health care provider about blood-tinged mucus.
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Page 28

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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31424
Sample Questions
Q1) After a patient has undergone a rhinoplasty, which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care?
A) Educate the patient about how to safely remove and reapply nasal packing.
B) Reassure the patient that the nose will look normal when the swelling subsides.
C) Instruct the patient to keep the head elevated for 48 hours to minimize swelling and pain.
D) Teach the patient to use nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for pain control.
Q2) When the nurse is caring for a patient who has had a total laryngectomy and radical neck dissection during the first 24 hours after surgery, what is the priority nursing action?
A) Monitor for bleeding.
B) Assess breath sounds.
C) Clean the inner cannula every 8 hours.
D) Avoid changing the tracheostomy ties.
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31425
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a pleural effusion is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Before the procedure, the nurse will plan to
A) start a peripheral intravenous line to administer the necessary sedative drugs.
B) position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward.
C) remove the water pitcher and remind the patient not to eat or drink anything for 6 hours.
D) instruct the patient about the importance of incentive spirometer use after the procedure.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with primary pulmonary hypertension who is receiving epoprostenol (Flolan). Which assessment information requires the most immediate action?
A) The BP is 98/56 mm Hg.
B) The oxygen saturation is 94%.
C) The patient's central intravenous line is disconnected.
D) The international normalized ratio (INR) is prolonged.
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Q1) When the nurse takes an admission history for a patient with possible asthma who has new-onset wheezing and shortness of breath, which information may indicate a need for a change in therapy?
A) The patient has a history of pneumonia 2 years ago.
B) The patient has chronic inflammatory bowel disease.
C) The patient takes propranolol (Inderal) for hypertension.
D) The patient uses acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches.
Q2) A patient with asthma who has a baseline peak flow reading of 600 mL calls the nurse, stating that the current peak flow is 420 mL. Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Tell the patient to go to the hospital emergency department.
B) Instruct the patient to use the prescribed albuterol (Proventil).
C) Ask about recent exposure to any new allergens or asthma triggers.
D) Question the patient about use of the prescribed inhaled corticosteroids.
Q3) When preparing a patient with possible asthma for pulmonary function testing, the nurse will teach the patient to
A) avoid eating or drinking for several hours before the testing.
B) use rescue medications immediately before the tests are done.
C) take oral corticosteroids at least 2 hours before the examination.
D) withhold bronchodilators for 6 to 12 hours before the examination.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A confused patient with pancytopenia of unknown origin is scheduled for the following diagnostic tests. The nurse should contact the patient's family member to sign a consent form before the
A) ABO blood typing.
B) bone marrow biopsy.
C) abdominal ultrasound.
D) complete blood count ( CBC ).
Q2) The history and physical for a newly admitted patient states that the complete blood count ( CBC ) shows a "shift to the left." The nurse will plan to monitor the patient for
A) cool extremities.
B) pallor and weakness.
C) elevated temperature.
D) low oxygen saturation.
Q3) When caring for a patient with a chronic iron deficiency anemia, the nurse will assess for
A) yellow-tinged sclerae.
B) shiny, smooth tongue.
C) numbness of the extremities.
D) gum bleeding and tenderness.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31428
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following assessment data obtained by the nurse when caring for a patient with thrombocytopenia should be immediately communicated to the health care provider?
A) The platelet count is 52,000/µl.
B) The patient is difficult to arouse.
C) There are large bruises on the back.
D) There are purpura on the oral mucosa.
Q2) When planning discharge teaching for the patient who was admitted with a sickle cell crisis, which instruction will the nurse include?
A) Limit fluids to 2 to 3 quarts a day.
B) Take a daily multivitamin with iron.
C) Avoid exposure to crowds as much as possible.
D) Drink only one or two caffeinated beverages daily.
Q3) A patient with von Willebrand disease is admitted to the hospital for minor knee surgery. The nurse will review the coagulation survey to check the A) platelet count.
B) bleeding time.
C) thrombin time.
D) prothrombin time.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse hears a murmur between the S1 and S2 heart sounds at the patient's left 5th intercostal space and midclavicular line. How will the nurse record this information?
A) "Systolic murmur heard at mitral area."
B) "Diastolic murmur heard at aortic area."
C) "Systolic murmur heard at Erb's point."
D) "Diastolic murmur heard at tricuspid area."
Q2) While doing the admission assessment for a thin 72-year-old patient, the nurse observes pulsation of the abdominal aorta in the epigastric area. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Notify the hospital rapid response team.
B) Instruct the patient to remain on bed rest.
C) Teach the patient about aortic aneurysms.
D) Document the finding in the patient chart.
Q3) Which action will the nurse implement for a patient who arrives for a calcium-scoring CT scan?
A) Administer oral sedative medications.
B) Teach the patient about the procedure.
C) Ask whether the patient has eaten today.
D) Insert a large gauge intravenous catheter.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which information should the nurse include when teaching a patient with newly diagnosed hypertension?
A) Dietary sodium restriction will control BP for most patients.
B) Most patients are able to control BP through lifestyle changes.
C) Hypertension is usually asymptomatic until significant organ damage occurs.
D) Annual BP checks are needed to monitor treatment effectiveness.
Q2) The nurse obtains a blood pressure of 180/75 mm Hg for a patient. What is the patient's mean arterial pressure (MAP)? ____________________
Q3) Which action will be included in the plan of care when the nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) to treat a hypertensive emergency?
A) Organize nursing activities so that the patient has undisturbed sleep for 6 to 8 hours at night.
B) Assist the patient up in the chair for meals to avoid complications associated with immobility.
C) Use an automated noninvasive blood pressure machine to obtain frequent BP measurements.
D) Place the patient on NPO status to prevent aspiration caused by nausea and the associated vomiting.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment finding by the nurse who is caring for a patient who has had coronary artery bypass grafting using a right radial artery graft is most important to communicate to the physician?
A) Complaints of incisional chest pain
B) Crackles audible at both lung bases
C) Pallor and weakness of the right hand
D) Redness on either side of the chest incision
Q2) A patient admitted to the coronary care unit (CCU) with an ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is restless and anxious. The blood pressure is 86/40 and heart rate is 110. Based on this information, which nursing diagnosis is a priority for the patient?
A) Acute pain related to myocardial ischemia
B) Anxiety related to perceived threat of death
C) Decreased cardiac output related to cardiogenic shock
D) Activity intolerance related to decreased cardiac output
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Q1) A patient has recently started taking oral digoxin (Lanoxin) in addition to furosemide (Lasix) and captopril (Capoten) for control of heart failure. Which assessment finding by the home health nurse is most important to communicate to the health care provider?
A) Presence of 1 to 2+ edema in the feet and ankles
B) Liver is palpable 2 cm below the ribs on the right side.
C) Serum potassium level is 3.0 mEq/L after 1 week of therapy
D) Weight increase from 120 pounds to 122 pounds over 3 days
Q2) A patient who is receiving dobutamine (Dobutrex) for the treatment of acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) has the following nursing actions included in the plan of care. Which action will be best for the RN to delegate to an experienced LPN/LVN?
A) Evaluate the IV insertion site for extravasation.
B) Monitor the patient's BP and heart rate every hour.
C) Adjust the rate to keep the systolic BP >90 mm Hg.
D) Teach the patient the reasons for remaining on bed rest.
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Q1) The nurse notes that a patient's cardiac monitor shows that every other beat is earlier than expected, has no P wave, and has a QRS complex with a wide and bizarre shape. How will the nurse document the rhythm?
A) Ventricular couplets
B) Ventricular bigeminy
C) Ventricular R-on-T phenomenon
D) Ventricular multifocal contractions
Q2) When a patient requires defibrillation, in which order will the nurse accomplish the following steps? Put a comma and space between each solve choice (a, b, c, d, etc.)
____________________
A) Turn the defibrillator on.
B) Deliver the electrical charge.
C) Select the appropriate energy level.
D) Place the paddles on the patient's chest.
E) Check the location of other personnel and call out "all clear."
Q3) When analyzing an electrocardiographic (ECG) rhythm strip of a patient with a regular cardiac rhythm, the nurse finds there are 25 small blocks from one R wave to the next. The nurse calculates the patient's heart rate as ____________________.
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Q1) When caring for a patient with mitral valve stenosis, it is most important that the nurse assess for
A) diastolic murmur.
B) peripheral edema.
C) right upper quadrant tenderness.
D) complaints of shortness of breath.
Q2) During the assessment of a patient with infective endocarditis (IE), the nurse would expect to find
A) a new regurgitant murmur.
B) a pruritic rash on the trunk.
C) involuntary muscle movement.
D) substernal chest pain and pressure.
Q3) Which assessment finding in a patient who is hospitalized with infective endocarditis ( IE ) is most important to communicate to the health care provider?
A) Generalized muscle aching
B) Sudden onset left flank pain
C) Janeway's lesions on the palms
D) Temperature 100.5° F ( 38.1° C )
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Q1) A 46-year-old is diagnosed with thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger's disease). When the nurse is planning expected outcomes for the patient, which outcome has the highest priority for this patient?
A) Cessation of smoking
B) Control of serum lipid levels
C) Maintenance of appropriate weight
D) Demonstration of meticulous foot care
Q2) Which topic will the nurse include in patient teaching for a patient with a venous stasis ulcer on the right lower leg?
A) Adequate carbohydrate intake
B) Prophylactic antibiotic therapy
C) Application of compression to the leg
D) Methods of keeping the wound area dry
Q3) Which information about a patient who has been admitted with a right calf venous thromboembolism ( VTE ) requires immediate action by the nurse?
A) Complaint of left calf pain
B) New onset shortness of breath
C) Red skin color of left lower leg
D) Temperature of 100.4° F ( 38° C )
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Q1) Which information collected by the nurse when caring for a patient who has just arrived in the recovery area after an upper endoscopy is most important to communicate to the health care provider?
A) The patient is very sleepy.
B) The oral temperature is 101.6° F.
C) The apical pulse is 104 beats/minute.
D) The patient complains of a sore throat.
Q2) When caring for a patient following a needle biopsy of the liver at the bedside, the nurse should
A) put pressure on the biopsy site using a sandbag.
B) elevate the head of the bed to facilitate breathing.
C) place the patient on the right side with the bed flat.
D) check the patient's postbiopsy coagulation studies.
Q3) When the nurse is listening to a patient's abdomen, which finding indicates a need for a focused abdominal assessment?
A) Loud gurgles
B) High-pitched gurgles
C) Absent bowel sounds
D) Frequent clicking sounds
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Q1) A 66-year-old patient has a body mass index (BMI) of 31 kg/m², a normal C-reactive protein level, and low transferrin and albumin levels. The nurse will plan patient teaching to increase the patient's intake of foods that are high in A) iron.
B) protein.
C) calories.
D) carbohydrate.
Q2) A patient with protein calorie malnutrition who has had abdominal surgery is receiving parenteral nutrition (PN). Which assessment information obtained by the nurse is the best indicator that the patient is receiving adequate nutrition?
A) Blood glucose is 110 mg/dL.
B) Serum albumin level is 3.5 mg/dL.
C) Fluid intake and output are balanced.
D) Surgical incision is healing normally.
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Q1) In planning preoperative teaching for a patient undergoing a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass as treatment for morbid obesity, the nurse places the highest priority on
A) demonstrating passive range-of-motion exercises to the legs.
B) discussing the necessary postoperative modifications in lifestyle.
C) teaching the patient proper coughing and deep breathing techniques.
D) educating the patient about the postoperative presence of a nasogastric (NG) tube.
Q2) Which of these patients in the clinic will the nurse plan to teach about risks associated with obesity?
A) Patient who has a BMI of 18 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
B) Patient with a waist circumference 34 inches (86 cm)
C) Patient who has a body mass index (BMI) of 24 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
D) Patient whose waist measures 30 in (75 cm) and hips measure 34 in (85 cm)
Q3) Which assessment will the nurse do to help determine if an obese patient seen in the clinic has metabolic syndrome?
A) Take the patient's apical pulse.
B) Check the patient's blood pressure.
C) Ask the patient about dietary intake.
D) Dipstick the patient's urine for protein.
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Q1) The nurse implements discharge teaching for a patient following a gastroduodenostomy for treatment of a peptic ulcer. Which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective?
A) "Persistent heartburn is expected after surgery."
B) "I will try to drink liquids along with my meals."
C) "Vitamin supplements may be needed to prevent problems with anemia."
D) "I will need to choose foods that are low in fat and high in carbohydrate."
Q2) Which information will be best for the nurse to include when teaching a patient with peptic ulcer disease ( PUD ) about dietary management of the disease?
A) "Avoid foods that cause pain after you eat them."
B) "High-protein foods are least likely to cause pain."
C) "You will need to remain on a bland diet indefinitely."
D) "You should avoid eating many raw fruits and vegetables."
Q3) A patient is hospitalized with vomiting of "coffee-ground" emesis. The nurse will anticipate preparing the patient for A) endoscopy.
B) angiography.
C) gastric analysis testing.
D) barium contrast studies.
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Q1) The nurse explains to a patient with a new ileostomy that after the bowel adjusts to the ileostomy, the usual drainage will be about
A) 1 cup.
B) 2 cups.
C) 3 cups.
D) 1 quart.
Q2) When caring for a patient who has a new diagnosis of Crohn's disease after having frequent diarrhea and a weight loss of 10 pounds (4.5 kg) over 2 months, the nurse will plan to teach the patient about
A) medication use.
B) fluid restriction.
C) enteral nutrition.
D) activity restrictions.
Q3) When implementing the initial plan of care for a patient admitted with acute diverticulitis, the nurse will plan to A) give stool softeners.
B) administer IV fluids.
C) order a diet high in fiber and fluids.
D) prepare the patient for colonoscopy.
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Q1) A patient contracts hepatitis from contaminated food. During the acute ( icteric ) phase of the patient's illness, the nurse would expect serologic testing to reveal
A) antibody to hepatitis D ( anti-HDV ).
B) hepatitis B surface antigen ( HBsAg ).
C) anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin G ( anti-HAV IgG ).
D) anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M ( anti-HAV IgM ).
Q2) When assessing a patient who had a liver transplant a week previously, the nurse obtains the following data. Which finding is most important to communicate to the health care provider?
A) Dry lips and oral mucosa
B) Crackles at both lung bases
C) Temperature 100.8° F ( 38.2° C )
D) No bowel movement for 4 days
Q3) When a patient is diagnosed with acute hepatitis B, the nurse will plan to teach the patient about
A) ways to increase exercise and activity level.
B) self-administration of ?-interferon ( Intron A ).
C) side effects of nucleoside and nucleotide analogs.
D) measures that will be helpful in improving appetite.
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Q1) A creatinine clearance test is ordered for a hospitalized patient with possible renal insufficiency. Which equipment will the nurse need to obtain?
A) Sterile specimen cup
B) Large container for urine
C) Foley catheter and drainage bag
D) Towelettes for perineal cleaning
Q2) When reading a patient's chart, the nurse notes that the patient has dysuria. To assess whether there is any improvement, which question will the nurse ask?
A) "Do you have any blood in your urine?"
B) "Do you have to urinate very frequently?"
C) "Do you have any pain when you urinate?"
D) "Do you have to get up at night to urinate?"
Q3) A patient's urine dipstick indicates a small amount of protein in the urine. The next action by the nurse should be to
A) check which medications the patient is currently taking.
B) obtain a clean-catch urine for culture and sensitivity testing.
C) ask the patient about any family history of chronic renal failure.
D) send a urine specimen to the laboratory to test for ketones and glucose.
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Q1) After obtaining the health history for a 25-year-old who smokes two packs of cigarettes daily, the nurse will plan to do teaching about the increased risk for
A) kidney stones.
B) bladder cancer.
C) bladder infection.
D) interstitial cystitis.
Q2) A 32-year-old patient is diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease. Which information is most appropriate for the nurse to include in teaching at this time?
A) Importance of genetic counseling
B) Complications of renal transplantation
C) Methods for treating chronic and severe pain
D) Differences between hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis
Q3) A patient's renal calculus is analyzed as being very high in uric acid. To prevent recurrence of stones, the nurse teaches the patient to avoid eating
A) milk and dairy products.
B) legumes and dried fruits.
C) organ meats and sardines.
D) spinach, chocolate, and tea.
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Q1) A patient with chronic kidney disease ( CKD ) brings all home medications to the clinic to be reviewed by the nurse. Which medication being used by the patient indicates that patient teaching is required?
A) Multivitamin with iron
B) Milk of magnesia 30 mL
C) Calcium phosphate ( PhosLo )
D) Acetaminophen ( Tylenol ) 650 mg
Q2) Which nursing action for a patient who has arrived for a scheduled hemodialysis session is most appropriate for the RN to delegate to a dialysis technician?
A) Educate patient about fluid restrictions.
B) Check blood pressure before starting dialysis.
C) Assess for reasons for increase in predialysis weight.
D) Determine the ultrafiltration rate for the hemodialysis.
Q3) A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has an arterial blood pH of 7.30. The nurse will assess the patient for A) vasodilation.
B) poor skin turgor.
C) bounding pulses.
D) rapid respirations.

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Q1) The nurse will plan patient care that will decrease the patient's physical and emotional stress when the patient is undergoing
A) a water deprivation test.
B) testing for serum T<sub>3</sub> and T<sub>4</sub> levels.
C) a 24-hour urine test for free cortisol.
D) a radioactive iodine (I-131) uptake test.
Q2) Which information about a patient who is scheduled for an oral glucose tolerance test should be reported to the health care provider before starting the test?
A) The patient reports having occasional orthostatic dizziness.
B) The patient has had a 10-pound weight gain in the last month.
C) The patient drank several glasses of water an hour previously.
D) The patient takes oral corticosteroids for rheumatoid arthritis.
Q3) A patient is admitted with a serum sodium level of 118 mEq/L. The nurse will anticipate the need for which diagnostic test?
A) Urinary 17-ketosteroids
B) Antidiuretic hormone level
C) Growth hormone stimulation test
D) Adrenocorticotropic hormone level
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Q1) After the nurse has finished teaching a patient about self-administration of the prescribed aspart (NovoLog) insulin, which patient action indicates good understanding of the teaching?
A) The patient avoids injecting the insulin into the upper abdominal area.
B) The patient cleans the skin with soap and water before insulin administration.
C) The patient places the insulin back in the freezer after administering the prescribed insulin dose.
D) The patient pushes the plunger down and immediately removes the syringe from the injection site.
Q2) When the nurse is assessing a patient who is recovering from an episode of diabetic ketoacidosis, the patient reports feeling anxious, nervous, and sweaty. Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Administer 1 mg glucagon subcutaneously.
B) Obtain a glucose reading using a finger stick.
C) Have the patient drink 4 ounces of orange juice.
D) Give the scheduled dose of lispro (Humalog) insulin.
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Q1) A patient is treated with demeclocycline (Declomycin) to control the symptoms of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse determines that the demeclocycline is effective upon finding that the A) peripheral edema is decreased.
B) patient's weight has increased.
C) urine specific gravity is increased.
D) patient's urinary output is increased.
Q2) A patient with Cushing syndrome who is admitted for adrenalectomy has a nursing diagnosis of disturbed body image related to changes in appearance caused by the effects of the disease. Which intervention by the nurse will be most helpful?
A) Reassure the patient that the physical changes are very common in patients with Cushing syndrome.
B) Discuss the use of diet and exercise in controlling the weight gain associated with Cushing syndrome.
C) Teach the patient that most of the physical changes caused by Cushing syndrome will resolve after surgery.
D) Remind the patient that the metabolic impact of Cushing syndrome is of more importance than appearance.
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Q1) A woman calls the clinic because she is having an unusually heavy menstrual flow. She tells the nurse that she has saturated two tampons in the past 2 hours. The nurse estimates that the amount of blood loss is
A) 10 to 20 mL.
B) 20 to 30 mL.
C) 30 to 40 mL.
D) 40 to 60 mL.
Q2) When scheduling a pelvic examination and Pap test for a patient, the nurse instructs the patient that she should
A) shower, but not take a tub bath, before the examination.
B) not have sexual intercourse the day before the Pap test.
C) plan to have the Pap test just after her menstrual period.
D) avoid douching for at least 24 hours before the examination.
Q3) A patient with a possible ovarian cyst is scheduled for ultrasound. The nurse will teach the patient that she should
A) discontinue taking aspirin before the procedure.
B) receive IV contrast solution during the procedure.
C) expect mild abdominal cramps after the procedure.
D) drink several glasses of fluids before the procedure.
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Q1) After the nurse completes discharge teaching for a patient who has had a left modified radical mastectomy and lymph node dissection, which statement by the patient indicates that teaching has been successful?
A) "I will need to use my right arm and to rest the left one."
B) "I will avoid reaching over the stove with my left hand."
C) "I will keep my left arm in a sling until the incision is healed."
D) "I will stop the left arm exercises if moving the arm is painful."
Q2) When the nurse is caring for a patient with left arm lymphedema, which action will be included in the plan of care?
A) Check BP on both right and left arms.
B) Avoid isometric exercise on the left arm.
C) Assist with application of compression dressings.
D) Keep the left arm at or below the level of the heart.
Q3) A patient at the clinic who has metastatic breast cancer has a new prescription for trastuzumab (Herceptin). The nurse will plan to
A) have the patient schedule frequent eye examinations.
B) instruct the patient to call if she notices ankle swelling.
C) remind the patient that hot flashes may occur with the medication.
D) teach the patient about the need to monitor serum electrolyte levels.
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Q1) When a patient returns to the clinic for follow-up after treatment for gonococcal urethritis, a purulent urethral discharge is still present. When trying to determine the reason for the recurrent infection, which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask the patient?
A) "Did you take the prescribed antibiotic for a week?"
B) "Did you drink at least 2 quarts of fluids every day?"
C) "Were your sexual partners treated with antibiotics?"
D) "Do you wash your hands after using the bathroom?"
Q2) A patient is treated for chlamydia that was detected during a routine pelvic examination. The nurse knows that teaching regarding the management of the condition has been effective when the patient says,
A) "Go ahead and give me the antibiotic injection so I will be cured."
B) "My boyfriend will need to take antibiotics at the same time I do."
C) "I will use condoms during sex until I finish taking all the antibiotics."
D) "Since I do not plan on having any children, treatment is not as important."
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Q1) A patient who is trying to become pregnant asks the nurse about ways to determine when she is most likely to conceive. The nurse explains that
A) ovulation prediction kits provide accurate information about ovulation.
B) ovulation is difficult to predict unless she has regular menstrual periods.
C) she will need to bring a specimen of cervical mucus to the clinic for testing.
D) she should take her body temperature daily and have intercourse when it drops.
Q2) Six months after being sexually assaulted, a woman tells the nurse that she has nightmares about the incident and develops acute anxiety if she finds herself alone in situations where several men are present. The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the patient is
A) anxiety related to effects of being raped.
B) sleep deprivation related to frightening dreams.
C) rape-trauma syndrome related to rape experience.
D) ineffective coping related to inability to resolve incident.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When reviewing patient laboratory results, the nurse in the clinic notes elevated prostate specific antigen ( PSA ) levels in the following four patients. Which patient's PSA result is most important to report to the health care provider?
A) A 75-year-old who uses saw palmetto to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia ( BPH )
B) A 38-year-old who is being treated for acute prostatitis
C) A 48-year-old whose father died of metastatic prostate cancer
D) A 52-year-old who goes on long bicycle rides every weekend
Q2) A 51-year-old man is scheduled for an annual physical exam at the outpatient clinic. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the purpose of
A) urinalysis collection.
B) uroflowmetry studies.
C) prostate specific antigen ( PSA ) testing.
D) transrectal ultrasound scanning ( TRUS ).
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Q1) The charge nurse is observing a new staff nurse who is assessing a patient with a possible spinal cord lesion for sensation. Which action indicates a need for further teaching about neurologic assessment?
A) The new nurse asks the patient, "Does this feel sharp?"
B) The new nurse tests for light touch before testing for pain.
C) The new nurse has the patient close the eyes during testing.
D) The new nurse uses an irregular pattern to test for intact touch.
Q2) A patient with a brainstem infarction is admitted to the nursing unit. The priority nursing assessment for the patient is
A) reflex reaction time.
B) pupil reaction to light.
C) level of consciousness.
D) respiratory rate and rhythm.
Q3) When developing a plan of care for a patient with dysfunction of the cerebellum, the nurse will include interventions to
A) prevent falls.
B) stabilize mood.
C) enhance swallowing ability.
D) improve short-term memory.
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Q1) A patient with a head injury has admission vital signs of blood pressure 128/68, pulse 110, and respirations 26. Which of these vital signs, if taken 1 hour after admission, will be of most concern to the nurse?
A) Blood pressure 156/60, pulse 55, respirations 12
B) Blood pressure 130/72, pulse 90, respirations 32
C) Blood pressure 148/78, pulse 112, respirations 28
D) Blood pressure 110/70, pulse 120, respirations 30
Q2) After noting that a patient with a head injury has clear nasal drainage, which action should the nurse take?
A) Have the patient blow the nose.
B) Check the nasal drainage for glucose.
C) Assure the patient that rhinorrhea is normal after a head injury.
D) Obtain a specimen of the fluid to send for culture and sensitivity.
Q3) When caring for a patient who has had a head injury, which assessment information requires the most rapid action by the nurse?
A) The patient is more difficult to arouse.
B) The patient's pulse is slightly irregular.
C) The patient's blood pressure increases from 120/54 to 136/62 mm Hg.
D) The patient complains of a headache at pain level 5 of a 10-point scale.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of impaired verbal communication for a patient with expressive aphasia. An appropriate nursing intervention to help the patient communicate is to
A) have the patient practice facial and tongue exercises.
B) ask simple questions that the patient can solve with "yes" or "no."
C) develop a list of words that the patient can read and practice reciting.
D) prevent embarrassing the patient by changing the subject if the patient does not respond.
Q2) A patient with a left-sided brain stroke suddenly bursts into tears when family members visit. The nurse should
A) use a calm voice to ask the patient to stop the crying behavior.
B) explain to the family that depression is normal following a stroke.
C) have the family members leave the patient alone for a few minutes.
D) teach the family that emotional outbursts are common after strokes.
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Q1) A patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) has urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder. Which action will the nurse plan to take?
A) Teach the patient how to use the Credé method.
B) Decrease the patient's fluid intake in the evening.
C) Suggest the use of incontinence briefs for nighttime use only.
D) Assist the patient to the commode every 2 hours during the day.
Q2) Following a thymectomy, a patient with myasthenia gravis receives the usual dose of pyridostigmine (Mestinon). An hour later, the patient complains of nausea and severe abdominal cramps. Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Auscultate the patient's bowel sounds.
B) Notify the patient's health care provider.
C) Administer the prescribed PRN antiemetic drug.
D) Give the scheduled dose of prednisone (Deltasone).
Q3) When a patient is experiencing a cluster headache, the nurse will plan to assess for A) nuchal rigidity.
B) projectile vomiting.
C) unilateral eyelid swelling.
D) throbbing, bilateral facial pain.
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Q1) To determine whether a new patient's confusion is caused by dementia or delirium, which action should the nurse take?
A) Assess the patient using the Mini-Mental Status Exam.
B) Obtain a list of the medications that the patient usually takes.
C) Determine whether there is positive family history of dementia.
D) Use the Confusion Assessment Method tool to assess the patient.
Q2) When developing a plan of care for a hospitalized patient with moderate dementia, which intervention will the nurse include?
A) Provide complete personal hygiene care for the patient.
B) Remind the patient frequently about being in the hospital.
C) Reposition the patient frequently to avoid skin breakdown.
D) Place suction at the bedside to decrease the risk for aspiration.
Q3) When administering a mental status examination to a patient, the nurse suspects depression when the patient responds with
A) "I don't know."
B) "Is that the right solve?"
C) "Wait, let me think about that."
D) "Who are those people over there?"
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a T1 spinal cord injury is admitted to the intensive care unit. The nurse will teach the patient and family that
A) use of the shoulders will be preserved.
B) full function of the patient's arms will be retained.
C) total loss of respiratory function may occur temporarily.
D) elevations in heart rate are common with this type of injury.
Q2) A 24-year-old patient is hospitalized with the onset of Guillain-Barré syndrome. During this phase of the patient's illness, the most essential assessment for the nurse to carry out is
A) monitoring the cardiac rhythm.
B) determining level of consciousness.
C) checking strength of the extremities.
D) observing respiratory rate and effort.
Q3) A patient with paraplegia resulting from a T10 spinal cord injury has a neurogenic reflex bladder. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care?
A) Educate on the use of the Credé method.
B) Teach the patient how to self-catheterize.
C) Catheterize for residual urine after voiding.
D) Assist the patient to the toilet every 2 hours.
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Q1) A patient is seen in the clinic complaining of knee pain following an arthroscopic procedure 7 days previously and the health care provider performs arthrocentesis. Which finding will be of most concern to the nurse?
A) Scant thin fluid
B) Sanguineous fluid
C) Straw-colored fluid
D) Purulent appearing fluid
Q2) A patient with kyphosis is scheduled for dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry ( DEXA ) testing. The nurse will plan to
A) give an oral sedative.
B) start an intravenous line.
C) teach the patient about DEXA.
D) screen the patient for shellfish allergies.
Q3) When assessing the musculoskeletal system, the nurse's initial action will usually be to
A) feel for the presence of crepitus during joint movement.
B) have the patient move the extremities against resistance.
C) observe the patient's body build and muscle configuration.
D) check active and passive range of motion for the extremities.
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Q1) After a patient with a left femur fracture has a hip spica cast applied, which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care?
A) Avoid placing the patient in the prone position.
B) Use the cast support bar to reposition the patient.
C) Ask the patient about any abdominal discomfort or nausea.
D) Discuss the reasons for remaining on bed rest for several weeks.
Q2) When the nurse is caring for a patient who is on bed rest after having a complex pelvic fracture, which assessment finding is most important to report to the health care provider?
A) The patient states that the pelvis feels unstable.
B) Abdominal distention is present and bowel tones are absent.
C) There are ecchymoses on the abdomen and hips.
D) The patient complains of pelvic pain with palpation.
Q3) When counseling an older patient about ways to prevent fractures, which information will the nurse include?
A) Tack down scatter rugs in the home.
B) Most falls happen outside the home.
C) Buy shoes that provide good support and are comfortable to wear.
D) Range-of-motion exercises should be taught by a physical therapist.
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Q1) A patient has muscle spasms and acute low back pain. An appropriate nursing intervention for this problem is to teach the patient to
A) avoid the use of cold because it will exacerbate the muscle spasms.
B) keep both feet flat on the floor when prolonged standing is required.
C) keep the head elevated slightly and flex the knees when resting in bed.
D) twist gently from side to side to maintain range of motion in the spine.
Q2) After teaching a patient with a bunion about how to prevent further problems, the nurse will determine that more teaching is needed if the patient says,
A) "I will throw away my high heel shoes."
B) "I will use the bunion pad to relieve the pain."
C) "I will need to wear open sandals at all times."
D) "I will take ibuprofen (Motrin) when I need it."
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who has had a surgical reduction of an open fracture of the left tibia. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the health care provider?
A) Left leg muscle spasms
B) Serous wound drainage
C) Left leg pain with movement
D) Temperature 101.4° F ( 38.6° C )
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Q1) A patient has systemic sclerosis manifested by CREST ( calcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon, esophageal dysfunction, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia ) syndrome. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care?
A) Avoid use of capsaicin cream on hands.
B) Keep patient's room warm and draft free.
C) Obtain capillary blood glucose before meals.
D) Assist to bathroom every 2 hours while awake.
Q2) A patient with rheumatoid arthritis refuses to take the prescribed methotrexate (Rheumatrex), telling the nurse "That drug has too many side effects. My arthritis isn't that bad yet." The most appropriate response by the nurse is
A) "You have the right to refuse to take the methotrexate."
B) "Methotrexate is less expensive than some of the newer drugs."
C) "It is important to start methotrexate early to decrease the extent of joint damage."
D) "Methotrexate is effective and has fewer side effects than some of the other drugs."
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Q1) A patient with respiratory failure has hemodynamic monitoring and is receiving mechanical ventilation with peak end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 10 cm H<sub>2</sub>O. Which information indicates that a change in the ventilator settings may be required?
A) The arterial line shows a blood pressure of 90/46.
B) The pulmonary artery pressure (PAP) is decreased.
C) The cardiac monitor shows a heart rate of 58 beats/min.
D) The pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is increased.
Q2) To determine the effectiveness of medications that a patient has received to reduce left ventricular afterload, which hemodynamic parameter will the nurse monitor?
A) Central venous pressure (CVP)
B) Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
C) Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)
D) Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)
Q3) A patient's vital signs are pulse 80, respirations 24, and BP of 124/60 mm Hg and cardiac output is 4.8 L/min. What is the patient's stroke volume?
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Q1) When the nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving a nitroprusside (Nipride) infusion to treat cardiogenic shock, which finding indicates that the medication is effective?
A) No heart murmur is audible.
B) Skin is warm, pink, and dry.
C) Troponin level is decreased.
D) Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg.
Q2) A patient with shock of unknown etiology whose hemodynamic monitoring indicates BP 92/54, pulse 64, and an elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure has the following collaborative interventions prescribed. Which intervention will the nurse question?
A) Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr.
B) Keep head of bed elevated to 30 degrees.
C) Give nitroprusside (Nipride) unless systolic BP <90 mm Hg.
D) Administer dobutamine (Dobutrex) to keep systolic BP >90 mm Hg.
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Q1) When prone positioning is used in the care of a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), which information obtained by the nurse indicates that the positioning is effective?
A) The patient's PaO<sub>2</sub> is 90 mm Hg, and the SaO<sub>2</sub> is 92%.
B) Endotracheal suctioning results in minimal mucous return.
C) Sputum and blood cultures show no growth after 24 hours.
D) The skin on the patient's back is intact and without redness.
Q2) To decrease the risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia, which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who requires intubation and mechanical ventilation?
A) Avoid use of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP).
B) Suction every 2 hours.
C) Elevate head of bed to 30 to 45 degrees.
D) Give enteral feedings at no more than 10 mL/hr.
Q3) After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient will the nurse assess first?
A) A patient with cystic fibrosis who has thick, green-colored sputum
B) A patient with pneumonia who has coarse crackles in both lung bases
C) A patient with emphysema who has an oxygen saturation of 91% to 92%
D) A patient with septicemia who has intercostal and suprasternal retractions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient arrives in the emergency department ( ED ) a few hours after taking "20 to 30" acetaminophen ( Tylenol ) tablets. Which action will the nurse plan to take?
A) Give N-acetylcysteine ( Mucomyst ).
B) Discuss the use of chelation therapy.
C) Have the patient drink large amounts of water.
D) Administer oxygen using a non-rebreather mask.
Q2) When planning the response to the potential use of smallpox as an agent of terrorism, the emergency department ( ED ) nurse-manager will plan to obtain sufficient quantities of
A) blood.
B) vaccine.
C) atropine.
D) antibiotics.
Q3) When preparing to rewarm a patient with hypothermia, the nurse will plan to
A) attach a cardiac monitor.
B) insert a urinary catheter.
C) assist with endotracheal intubation.
D) have sympathomimetic drugs available.
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