Nursing Pathophysiology
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Nursing Pathophysiology explores the foundational concepts of human disease processes by examining alterations in normal physiological functions. This course emphasizes the etiology, pathogenesis, and clinical manifestations of common acute and chronic conditions across the lifespan. Students will develop a deeper understanding of how body systems respond to injury, infection, and other stressors, and how these responses manifest as disease symptoms. The content is tailored to equip nursing students with critical thinking skills necessary for clinical decision-making, focusing on the integration of pathophysiological knowledge into patient assessment, planning, and interventions within diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 5th Edition by Copstead
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54 Chapters
1230 Verified Questions
1230 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient's red blood cell is slightly elevated today.This might be explained by A) gender difference.
B) situational factors.
C) normal variation.
D) cultural variation.
E) illness.
Answer: A, B, C, E
Q2) Socioeconomic factors influence disease development due to A) genetics.
B) environmental toxins.
C) overcrowding.
D) nutrition.
E) hygiene.
Answer: B, C, D, E
Q3) When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be ________.
Answer: idiopathic
Many diseases are idiopathic in nature.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis and Adaptive Responses to Stressors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not normally secreted in response to stress?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Cortisol
C) Epinephrine
D) Insulin
Answer: D
Q2) Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in
A) stress reduction.
B) permanent damage and death.
C) movement into the resistance stage.
D) exhaustion of the sympathetic nervous system.
Answer: B
Q3) Indicators that an individual is experiencing high stress include all the following except
A) tachycardia.
B) diaphoresis.
C) increased peripheral resistance.
D) pupil constriction.
Answer: D
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell-to-cell communication through secretion of chemical signals into the bloodstream to target cells throughout the body is called _____ signaling.
A) synaptic
B) paracrine
C) endocrine
D) autocrine
Answer: C
Q2) GTP-binding proteins (G proteins)function to
A) activate receptors on the extracellular surface.
B) degrade second-messenger molecules.
C) activate intracellular enzyme systems.
D) synthesize ATP.
Answer: C
Q3) The cardiac drug digitalis enhances myocardial contraction, because it
A) increases intracellular calcium level in cardiac cells.
B) inhibits sodium from entering cardiac cells.
C) enhances the sodium-potassium pump.
D) increases the sodium gradient across the cell membrane.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cellular response indicative of injury due to faulty metabolism is
A) hydropic swelling.
B) lactate production.
C) metaplasia.
D) intracellular accumulations.
Q2) Necrotic death of brain tissue usually produces _____ necrosis.
A) coagulative
B) caseous
C) liquefactive
D) fat
Q3) The primary effect of aging on all body systems is
A) decreased functional reserve.
B) diseased function.
C) programmed senescence.
D) senility.
Q4) Somatic death refers to death
A) of a body organ.
B) of the entire organism.
C) of nerve cells.
D) secondary to brain damage.
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Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In DNA replication DNA polymerase functions to A) pry DNA apart.
B) unwind and separate the DNA strands.
C) prevent tangling of DNA strands as they unwind.
D) match appropriate bases to the template base.
E) proofread the newly developed DNA for errors in base pairing.
Q2) Characteristics of smooth muscle include
A) being under voluntary control.
B) having striations.
C) contraction being short-lived.
D) being found in blood vessels.
Q3) Characteristics of stem cells include that they
A) may differentiate into any type of cell.
B) reside only in the bone marrow.
C) have greater capacity to proliferate than more differentiated cells.
D) are dependent upon environmental cues for proliferation.
E) can die in the absence of an appropriate environment.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Huntington disease primarily affects the _____ system.
A) neurologic
B) muscular
C) gastrointestinal
D) endocrine
Q2) The primary factor associated with risk of Down syndrome is
A) family history of heritable diseases.
B) exposure to TORCH syndrome organisms.
C) maternal alcohol intake.
D) maternal age.
Q3) Information parents should be given about the consequences of PKU includes
A) high dietary phenylalanine may help induce enzyme production.
B) PKU is commonly associated with other congenital anomalies.
C) failure to avoid phenylalanine results in progressive mental retardation.
D) mental retardation is inevitable.
Q4) Males are more likely than females to be affected by ________ disorders.
A) X-linked
B) autosomal-dominant
C) autosomal-recessive
D) chromosomal nondisjunction
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Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tumor markers
A) are found only in the blood.
B) are produced by normal cells.
C) help determine cancer origin.
D) help identify progression of cancer.
E) include prostatic-specific antigen.
Q2) Characteristics of telomerase include
A) repairs the end caps of chromosomes.
B) contributes to cancer cell immortality.
C) is deficient in cancer cells.
D) activity allows a cell to replicate indefinitely.
Q3) Your patient is scheduled for a staging procedure.She wants to know what that means.The correct response is which of the following?
A) It is a procedure for determining the extent of tumor spread.
B) It is a histologic examination of tissues to determine the degree of tumor differentiation.
C) Is based on exploratory surgery.
D) It is biochemical testing of tumor cells to determine the genetic basis of the tumor.
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9
Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term infectivity is defined as the ability to A) cause disease.
B) spread.
C) cause very severe disease.
D) invade and multiply.
Q2) Dietary zinc is an important defense against infection, because it maintains A) natural killer cell function.
B) lymphocyte activity.
C) antioxidant activity.
D) neutrophil activity.
E) complement activity.
Q3) An infectious disease that is common in a community is termed A) endemic.
B) epidemic.
C) pandemic.
D) partdemic.
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Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spleen is an important defense against infection, because it
A) activates the complement cascade.
B) initiates inflammation.
C) controls phagocytosis.
D) filters the blood.
Q2) Functions of B cells include
A) synthesizing antibodies.
B) secreting cytokines.
C) killing antigen-presenting cells.
D) stimulating B cells.
E) killing virally infected cells.
Q3) Immunity to a specific organism can be determined by A) active phase protein count.
B) antibody titer.
C) erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
D) WBC count.
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Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anaphylaxis may occur in certain hypersensitivity reactions, including type A) I.
B) II.
C) III.
D) IV.
Q2) A primary effector cell of the type I hypersensitivity response is A) monocytes.
B) mast cells.
C) neutrophils.
D) cytotoxic cells.
Q3) Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type ____ hypersensitivity reactions.
Q4) An important mediator of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is A) complement.
B) antigen-antibody immune complexes.
C) T cells.
D) histamine.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Renal insufficiency is a common complication of which disease?
A) Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
B) Chronic lymphoid leukemia (CLL)
C) Myeloma
D) Hodgkin disease
Q2) The Philadelphia chromosome is a balanced chromosome translocation that forms a new gene called A) bcr-abl.
B) Rb.
C) p53.
D) ARA-c.
Q3) Autologous stem cell transplantation is a procedure in which A) there is a high rejection rate.
B) stem cells are transferred to the patient from an HLA-matched donor.
C) stem cells are transferred to the patient from an identical twin.
D) stem cells are harvested from the patient and then returned to the same patient.
Q4) The only known curative treatment for CML is _____ bone marrow transplantation from a suitable donor.
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13
Chapter 12: HIV Disease and AIDS
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about HIV testing is correct?
A) Any patient can be tested for HIV with or without their informed consent.
B) A negative HIV test ensures absence of infection.
C) The false-positive rate for HIV testing is zero.
D) Significant exposure to infected blood or body fluids requires HIV testing.
Q2) The clinical latency period after HIV infection is a time when no
A) viral replication occurs.
B) decline in CD4 lymphocytes occurs.
C) virus is detectable in the blood.
D) significant symptoms of immunodeficiency occur.
Q3) As of 2010, _____ individuals worldwide have been infected with HIV infection.
A) 100,000
B) 1 million
C) slightly less than 16 million
D) nearly 35 million
Q4) Which type of HIV virus causes most infections in the United States and Europe?
A) HIV type 1
B) HIV type 2
C) HIV type A
D) HIV type B
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) A laboratory test finding helpful in confirming the diagnosis of iron-deficiency anemia is
A) elevated total iron-binding capacity.
B) elevated MCHC and MCV.
C) elevated total and indirect bilirubin.
D) positive direct or indirect Coombs test.
Q2) The most appropriate treatment for secondary polycythemia is
A) volume expansion with saline.
B) measures to improve oxygenation.
C) phlebotomy.
D) chemotherapy.
Q3) The arterial oxygen content (CaO )for a patient with PaO 100 mm Hg, SaO 95%, and hemoglobin 15 g/dl is _____ ml oxygen/dl.
A) 19.4
B) 1909.8
C) 210
D) 21.05
Q4) Vaccination for pneumococcal pneumonia should be performed before ____ years of age in patients with sickle cell anemia.
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Chapter 14: Alterations in Hemostasis and Blood Coagulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 3-year-old boy who exhibits prolonged bleeding after minor trauma and a prolonged aPTT, but a normal platelet count, is likely to be diagnosed with A) hemophilia.
B) liver dysfunction.
C) disseminated intravascular coagulation.
D) thrombocytopenia.
Q2) Widespread activation of the clotting cascade secondary to massive trauma is called
A) hemophilia B.
B) disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
C) Hageman disease.
D) idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura.
Q3) A deficiency of von Willebrand factor impairs
A) activation of the coagulation cascade.
B) platelet aggregation.
C) platelet adhesion to injured tissue.
D) platelet production.
Q4) The ________ is responsible for the synthesis of coagulation factors, with the exception of part of factor VIII.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) Venous obstruction leads to edema because it ________ pressure.
A) increases capillary oncotic
B) increases arterial blood
C) decreases tissue
D) increases capillary hydrostatic
Q2) Clinical manifestations of chronic arterial obstruction include
A) edema.
B) intermittent claudication.
C) decreased pressure proximal to the obstruction.
D) distal hyperemia.
Q3) Blood flow is slow through capillaries because capillaries
A) are so far away from the heart.
B) have the largest total cross-sectional area.
C) are so narrow.
D) have no smooth muscle.
Q4) The smallest vessels of the vascular system and the lymphatic vessels are commonly referred to as the ________.
Q5) Venules are composed of ________ tissue.
Q6) A(n)________ is a stationary blood clot formed within a vessel or a chamber of the heart.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypertension is closely linked to
A) obstructive sleep apnea.
B) urinary tract infection.
C) de Quervain syndrome.
D) spinal stenosis.
Q2) Hypertension with a specific, identifiable cause is known as _____ hypertension.
A) primary
B) orthostatic
C) secondary
D) malignant
Q3) The most commonly recognized outcome of hypertension is ____________.
Q4) After being diagnosed with hypertension, a patient returns to the clinic 6 weeks later.The patient reports "moderate" adherence to the recommended lifestyle changes and has experienced a decreased from 165/96 mm Hg to 148/90 mm Hg in blood pressure.What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient at this time?
A) Continue lifestyle modifications only.
B) Continue lifestyle modifications plus diuretic therapy.
C) Continue lifestyle modifications plus ACE inhibitor therapy.
D) Continue lifestyle modifications plus b-blocker therapy.
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Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) In lead II of a normal electrocardiogram (ECG), the Q wave is a downward deflection resulting from ________ depolarization.
A) atrial
B) apical
C) lateral wall
D) septal
Q2) The R wave is responsible for ________ depolarization.
Q3) During which phase of the cardiac cycle is the mitral valve normally open?
A) Atrial systole
B) Isovolumic contraction
C) Isovolumic relaxation
D) Ventricular ejection
Q4) An increase in intracellular calcium ion results in myocardial contraction, because calcium
A) activates membrane calcium pumps.
B) binds troponin, causing actin-binding sites to be exposed.
C) increases affinity of myosin for actin cross-bridge sites.
D) promotes ATP synthesis.
Q5) A standard ECG has ________ leads.
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Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A loud pansystolic murmur that radiates to the axilla is most likely a result of A) aortic regurgitation.
B) aortic stenosis.
C) mitral regurgitation.
D) mitral stenosis.
Q2) Diagnostic tests used to diagnose or confirm MI include A) electrocardiogram.
B) cardiac catheterization.
C) echocardiography.
D) radionuclide scintigraphy.
E) computed tomography.
Q3) A patient with a history of myocardial infarction continues to complain of intermittent chest pain brought on by exertion and relieved by rest.The likely cause of this pain is
A) stable angina.
B) myocardial infarction.
C) coronary vasospasm.
D) unstable angina.
Q4) Atherosclerotic plaque formation is due to injury to the ____________.
Q5) The cause of Prinzmetal angina is ________.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with heart failure with normal ejection fraction.This patient is most likely characterized by a(n)
A) elderly woman without a previous history of MI.
B) middle-aged man with a previous history of MI.
C) young female athlete with cardiomegaly.
D) young sedentary male with a high-stress job.
Q2) Increased preload of the cardiac chambers may lead to which patient symptom?
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Decreased respiratory rate
C) Edema
D) Excitability
Q3) Beta-blockers are advocated in the management of heart failure because they
A) increase cardiac output.
B) reduce cardiac output.
C) enhance sodium absorption.
D) reduce blood flow to the kidneys.
Q4) Chronic elevation of myocardial wall tension results in ________.
Q5) First-degree block is identified by a prolonged ________.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Shock
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tachycardia is an early sign of low cardiac output that occurs because of A) tissue hypoxia.
B) anxiety.
C) baroreceptor activity.
D) acidosis.
Q2) Administration of a vasodilator to a patient in shock would be expected to A) decrease vascular resistance.
B) increase contractility.
C) decrease left ventricular afterload.
D) increase tissue perfusion.
Q3) Which causes of shock are considered to be obstructive?
A) Ventricular rupture
B) Pulmonary embolus
C) Cardiac tamponade
D) Tension pneumothorax
E) Acute hemorrhage
Q4) _________________ is a serious complication of septic shock characterized by abnormal clot formation in the microvasculature throughout the body.
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Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surfactant is a phospholipid that reduces
A) pulmonary vascular capacitance.
B) elastic recoil force.
C) alveolar surface tension.
D) pulmonary capillary fragility.
Q2) The central chemoreceptors for respiratory control are
A) located in the carotid artery.
B) responsive primarily to changes in pH and CO .
C) responsive primarily to hypoxemia.
D) less important than the peripheral chemoreceptors in maintaining respiration.
Q3) Shifts in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve represent the A) effect of carbonic anhydrase on the uptake of CO .
B) ability of blood to pick up more CO when PaO is low.
C) amount of hydrogen in solution in the blood.
D) changes in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen.
Q4) Primary pulmonary hypertension is
A) more common in men.
B) readily treatable.
C) caused by genetic mutation.
D) rapidly progressive.
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Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Asthma is categorized as a(n)
A) restrictive pulmonary disorder.
B) infective pulmonary disorder.
C) obstructive pulmonary disorder.
D) type of acute tracheobronchial obstruction.
Q2) The hyper-secretion of mucus resulting for chronic bronchitis is the result of
A) recurrent infection.
B) destruction of alveolar septa.
C) reduced inflammation.
D) barrel chest.
Q3) The increased anterior-posterior chest diameter associated with obstructive lung disease is caused by
A) increased pulmonary blood flow.
B) increased expiratory flow rates.
C) increased residual lung volumes.
D) decreased chest wall compliance.
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Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacterial pneumonia leads to hypoxemia due to A) cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
B) upper airway obstruction.
C) accumulation of alveolar exudates.
D) interstitial edema.
Q2) Which clinical manifestation is not likely the result of a tuberculosis infection?
A) Productive cough
B) Low-grade fever
C) Night sweats
D) Cyanosis
Q3) The hallmark manifestation of acute respiratory distress syndrome is A) tachycardia.
B) hypotension.
C) frothy secretions.
D) hypoxemia.
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25
Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypernatremia may be caused by
A) decreased aldosterone secretion.
B) decreased antidiuretic hormone secretion.
C) compulsive water drinking.
D) excessive dietary potassium.
Q2) A person who overuses magnesium-aluminum antacids for a long period of time is likely to develop
A) hypokalemia.
B) hyperkalemia.
C) hypophosphatemia.
D) hyperphosphatemia.
Q3) Decreased neuromuscular excitability is often the result of A) hypercalcemia and hypermagnesemia.
B) hypomagnesemia and hyperkalemia.
C) hypocalcemia and hypokalemia.
D) hypernatremia and hypomagnesemia.
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26
Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Q1) The patient who requires the most careful monitoring for development of metabolic acidosis is a patient who
A) is in the diuretic phase of acute renal failure.
B) has had hypokalemia for over a week.
C) has had diarrhea for over a week.
D) has newly diagnosed Cushing syndrome.
Q2) A 3 year old is diagnosed with starvation ketoacidosis.What signs and symptoms should you anticipate in your assessment?
A) Slow, shallow breathing, belligerence, hyperexcitability
B) Slow, shallow breathing, numbness and tingling around his mouth
C) Rapid, deep breathing, lethargy, abdominal pain
D) Rapid, deep breathing, tremors, elevated blood pressure
Q3) The ________ system compensates for metabolic acidosis and alkalosis.
A) gastrointestinal
B) renal
C) cardiovascular
D) respiratory
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Chapter 26: Renal Function
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Q1) Factors that increase the glomerular filtration rate include
A) fluid volume excess.
B) increased hydrostatic pressure in the Bowman's capsule.
C) high oncotic pressure in glomerular capillary blood.
D) obstruction in the renal tubules.
Q2) Serum creatinine may be increased by
A) carbohydrate intake.
B) fat intake.
C) muscle breakdown.
D) fluid intake.
Q3) Approximately two-thirds of the water and electrolytes filtered by the kidney are reabsorbed by the
A) loop of Henle.
B) collecting tubule.
C) distal tubule.
D) proximal tubule.
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28
Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Renal stone formation is affected by
A) urine concentration.
B) urine PH.
C) metabolic/congenital conditions.
D) dietary intake.
E) potassium level.
Q2) Glomerular disorders include
A) pyelonephritis.
B) obstructive uropathy.
C) interstitial cystitis.
D) nephrotic syndrome.
Q3) The individual at highest risk of pyelonephritis who requires monitoring for signs of its occurrence is the
A) woman who is paraplegic.
B) woman who is pregnant.
C) man who has glomerulonephritis.
D) man who has chronic urinary tract infections.
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Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best intervention for acute kidney injury (AKI)is ________.
Q2) The most common agent resulting in nephrotoxicity and subsequent acute tubular necrosis (ATN)in hospitalized patients is
A) contrast media.
B) antibiotics.
C) cancer chemotherapy.
D) recreational drugs.
Q3) Gastrointestinal drainage, perioperative and postoperative hypotension, and hemorrhage may all contribute to renal failure by causing A) hydronephrosis.
B) acute tubular necrosis.
C) nephrosis.
D) renal inflammation.
Q4) One of the most frequent causes of chronic kidney disease is A) hypertension.
B) glomerulonephritis.
C) chronic pyelonephritis.
D) polycystic kidney disease.
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Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ureterocele is
A) an abnormally placed ureter.
B) an additional ureter.
C) a cystic dilation of a ureter.
D) fusion of both ureters at the bladder junction.
Q2) The direct cause of stress incontinence is
A) the effect of aging.
B) pelvic muscle weakness.
C) neurologic conditions.
D) detrusor muscle overactivity.
Q3) Urge incontinence is often due to A) aging.
B) bladder infections.
C) obesity.
D) prostate enlargement.
E) diuretics.
Q4) Infection can lead to bladder ________ formation.
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Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nerve most responsible for penile erection is the _____nerve.
A) penile
B) prepual
C) pudendal
D) prostatic
Q2) Production of LH occurs in response to serum levels of
A) estrogen.
B) prostate-specific antigen.
C) cortisol.
D) testosterone.
Q3) The male penis is innervated by the ________ nerve.
A) sciatic
B) sacral
C) pudendal
D) caudal
Q4) An important function of the scrotum is to
A) regulate the temperature of the testes.
B) provide support to the prostate gland.
C) regulate blood supply to the penis.
D) supply antibacterial secretions.
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Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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13 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23396
Sample Questions
Q1) Phimosis is a disorder of the penis characterized by A) sustained, painful erection.
B) inability to retract the foreskin.
C) inability to achieve erection.
D) malpositioning of the urinary meatus.
Q2) A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream, dribbling of urine, and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristic of
A) prostatitis.
B) urinary calculi.
C) bladder carcinoma.
D) prostatic enlargement.
Q3) Erection requires the release of nitrous oxide into the ________ during sexual stimulation.
Q4) The pathology report for a patient with penile cancer has this statement: The tumor involves the shaft of the penis.The cancer is at what stage?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
33
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Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 48-year-old female who is having hot flashes, tachycardia, palpitations, and sleep disturbance may be experiencing symptoms related to A) pregnancy.
B) perimenopause.
C) ovulation.
D) endometriosis.
Q2) What is the average maternal weight gain during pregnancy?
A) 7 lbs
B) 12 lbs
C) 24 lbs
D) 40 lbs
Q3) During the first 2 weeks of the menstrual cycle, the endometrium proliferates under the influence of A) estrogen.
B) testosterone.
C) progesterone.
D) hCG.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 32-year-old female complaining of severe pain with menstruation and inability to participate in her routine household activities is likely experiencing A) dysmenorrhea.
B) menorrhagia.
C) amenorrhea.
D) metrorrhagia.
Q2) Absence of menstruation is called A) amenorrhea.
B) metrorrhagia.
C) menorrhagia.
D) dysmenorrhea.
Q3) Treatment of a uterine prolapse may involve the insertion of a(n)________ to hold the uterus in place.
A) catheter.
B) IUD.
C) pessary.
D) endopelvic mesh implant.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Centers for Disease Control estimate that there are ________ new sexually transmitted infections every year.
A) 300,000
B) 1.3 million
C) 19 million
D) 17 billion
Q2) A painless ulceration called a chancre is a lesion associated with infection by
A) human papillomavirus.
B) N. gonorrhoeae.
C) C. trachomatis.
D) T. pallidum.
Q3) Which of the following infections is asymptomatic and self-limited and does not require therapy?
A) Syphilis
B) Nongonococcal cervicitis
C) Gonorrhea
D) Molluscum contagiosum
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36
Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
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22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23400
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is associated with contraction of the gallbladder?
A) Cholecystokinin
B) Morphine
C) Norepinephrine
D) Gastrin
Q2) Carbohydrates are absorbed in the form of A) polysaccharides.
B) disaccharides.
C) monosaccharides.
D) monoglycerides.
Q3) The portion of the stomach that controls gastric emptying is the A) fundus.
B) body.
C) antrum.
D) pylorus.
Q4) The propulsive movement of the GI tract is called A) peristalsis.
B) transmission.
C) contraction.
D) constriction.
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Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Premature infants are at greater risk for developing
A) necrotizing enterocolitis.
B) pseudomembranous colitis.
C) appendicitis.
D) diverticular disease.
Q2) An urgent surgical consult is indicated for the patient with acute abdominal pain and
A) vomiting.
B) CVA tenderness.
C) absent bowel sounds.
D) borborygmi.
Q3) Dumping syndrome is commonly seen after __________ procedures.
A) appendectomy
B) intestinal biopsy
C) colonoscopy
D) gastric bypass
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Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with acute pancreatitis are generally made NPO and may require continuous gastric suctioning in order to A) prevent abdominal distention.
B) remove the usual stimuli for pancreatic secretion.
C) prevent hyperglycemia associated with loss of insulin secretion.
D) prevent mechanical obstruction of the intestine.
Q2) More than half of the initial cases of pancreatitis are associated with A) trauma.
B) stones.
C) alcoholism.
D) high cholesterol.
Q3) The pain associated with chronic pancreatitis is generally described as ________ in nature.
A) sharp and constant
B) steady and boring
C) intermittent and burning
D) intermittent and stabbing
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hepatic encephalopathy is associated with A) hyperbilirubinemia.
B) hyperuricemia.
C) toxic effects of alcohol on brain cells.
D) increased blood ammonia levels.
Q2) Jaundice is a common manifestation of A) malabsorption syndromes.
B) anemia.
C) liver disease.
D) cholecystitis.
Q3) ________ disease is a rare autosomal recessive disorder in which excessive amounts of copper accumulate in the liver.
A) Kayser-Fleischer
B) Wilson
C) Reye
D) Byler
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Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) An increase in serum osmolality would be expected to ________ secretion.
A) increase vasopressin
B) decrease vasopressin
C) decrease ADH
D) decrease aldosterone
Q2) Most endocrine hormones are water-soluble and exert their effects on target cells by
A) binding to nuclear receptors.
B) generating second messengers.
C) binding to intracellular receptors.
D) stimulating action potentials.
Q3) Aldosterone secretion would be expected to produce which change?
A) Decrease sodium reabsorption
B) Decrease urine potassium
C) Decrease blood pressure
D) Increase blood pressure
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Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) An increase in ADH secretion occurs in response to A) decreased serum osmolality.
B) dehydration.
C) hypervolemia.
D) hyponatremia.
Q2) The formation of active vitamin D
A) occurs in the skin.
B) is impaired in renal failure.
C) is dependent on oral intake of vitamin D.
D) is necessary for normal potassium metabolism.
Q3) A tumor which results in excessive production and release of catecholamines is A) goiter.
B) pheochromocytoma.
C) Conn syndrome.
D) Cushing disease.
Q4) In comparison to triiodothyronine (T ), the hormone thyroxine (T )
A) has greater biological activity.
B) is more abundant in the circulation.
C) has a shorter half-life.
D) binds to nuclear receptors with greater affinity.
42
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Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insulin binding to its receptor on target cells results in A) increased active transport of glucose into the cell.
B) glycogen breakdown within target cells.
C) increased facilitated cellular diffusion of glucose.
D) gluconeogenesis.
Q2) The American Diabetes Association recommends a postprandial blood glucose level of ________ mg/dl for adults with diabetes.
A) less than 180
B) more than 180
C) 70
D) 130
Q3) In the United States, nearly ________ people have diabetes mellitus.
A) 7 million
B) 25.8 million
C) 366 million
D) 176 billion
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43
Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a fever of 3° F above normal would be expected to have increased energy expenditure of
A) 3%.
B) 15%.
C) 21%.
D) 50%.
Q2) What patient is most at risk for severe protein malnutrition?
A) A postsurgical patient who has been NPO for 3 days
B) A postburn patient who has a deep partial-thickness burn
C) A febrile patient who has had a temperature of 102.6° F for 3 days
D) An immobile patient who has been in skeletal traction for 1 week
Q3) The metabolic response to fever is
A) anabolic.
B) catabolic.
C) both anabolic and catabolic.
D) related to gluconeogenesis.
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pathologic process called hydrocephalus would be manifested by _____ ventricular size.
A) decreased CSF, increased B) increased CSF, increased C) decreased CSF, decreased
D) increased CSF, decreased
Q2) The integrity of the blood-brain barrier is maintained in part by CNS cells called A) ganglia.
B) leptocytes.
C) neurocytes.
D) astrocytes.
Q3) Exocytosis of neurotransmitter in response to depolarization of the presynaptic nerve membrane is mediated by
A) neurotransmitter binding to presynaptic carrier proteins.
B) potassium influx through voltage-gated channels.
C) sodium-potassium ATPase.
D) calcium influx through voltage-gated channels.
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Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Manifestations of acute brain ischemia (Cushing reflex)are due primarily to
A) parasympathetic nervous system activation.
B) sympathetic nervous system activation.
C) autoregulation of body systems.
D) loss of brainstem reflexes.
Q2) ________ occurs when a brainstem impaired patient exhibits a persistent rhythmic or jerky movement in one or both eyes.
A) Nystagmus
B) Dysconjugate movement
C) Ocular palsy
D) Doll's eye
Q3) A level of ____ on the Glasgow Coma Scale indicates likely fatal damage.
A) 3
B) 8
C) 12
D) 15
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Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Seizures that involve both hemispheres at the outset are termed
A) partial.
B) complex.
C) focal.
D) generalized.
Q2) Orthostatic hypotension may be a manifestation of
A) Alzheimer disease.
B) multiple sclerosis.
C) Parkinson disease.
D) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
Q3) What effect do demyelinating disorders such as multiple sclerosis have on neurotransmission?
A) Slower rate of action potential conduction
B) Increased rate of action potential conduction
C) Facilitation of action potential initiation
D) Faster rate of repolarization
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Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nerve fibers of the ________ system have their cell bodies in the mucous membrane of the upper and posterior parts of the nasal cavity.
A) visual
B) auditory
C) gustatory
D) olfactory
Q2) The nurse caring for an individual with vision impairment should be prepared to
A) keep the patient on bedrest to avoid injury.
B) speak to the patient with a clear, loud voice.
C) announcing himself or herself at all interactions.
D) provide as much bright light as possible.
Q3) Which structures make up the middle ear?
A) Cerumen
B) Malleus
C) Incus
D) Scala media
E) Stapes
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Chapter 47: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ is the level of painful stimulation required to be perceived.
A) perception
B) tolerance
C) expression
D) threshold
Q2) It is useful to conceptualize pain physiology according to the four stages because each stage provides an opportunity for
A) education.
B) stimulation.
C) intervention.
D) documentation.
Q3) Referred pain may be perceived at some distance from the area of tissue injury, but generally felt
A) on the same side of the body.
B) with slightly less intensity.
C) within the same dermatome.
D) within 10 to 15 cm area.
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Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Depression is thought to be associated with A) abnormal personality development.
B) early childhood emotional trauma.
C) deficient brain norepinephrine and serotonin.
D) excessive stimulation of D<sub>1</sub> and D<sub>2</sub> receptors in the brain.
Q2) When a client is diagnosed with schizophrenia and asks what could have caused the disorder, the statements that could serve as a basis for answering include which of the following?
A) Schizophrenia may be related to abnormal cerebral structure.
B) Schizophrenia is inherited as an autosomal recessive gene defect.
C) Schizophrenia often develops in the absence of family psychopathology.
D) Chronic prolonged stress may contribute to development of schizophrenia.
E) Symptoms of schizophrenia may be associated with smoking.
Q3) The action of most antidepressants currently available is to A) improve brain norepinephrine and serotonin activity.
B) inhibit norepinephrine and serotonin activity.
C) convert into catecholamines in the brain.
D) block D2 receptors in the brain.
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Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) As many as ____ of children in the United States aged 3 to 17 years are affected by some type of neurodevelopmental disorder.
A) 5%
B) 12%
C) 25%
D) 30%
Q2) The fearful expectation of panic anxiety is known as
A) a nervous breakdown.
B) anticipatory anxiety.
C) a phobia.
D) avoidance anxiety
Q3) Children with social or communication deficits, fixated interests and repetitive behaviors are likely exhibiting symptoms of
A) attention deficient hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
B) a learning disorder.
C) inattention.
D) autism spectrum disorder.
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Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The epiphyseal plate
A) provides support to long bones.
B) prevents overactivity of osteoblasts.
C) allows for continued bone lengthening during maturation.
D) has an unknown function.
Q2) The primary determinant of tendon strength is A) collagen cross-linking.
B) actin-myosin cross-bridging.
C) elastin composition.
D) calcium balance.
Q3) The structures that connect muscle to bone are referred to as A) ligaments.
B) tendons.
C) trabeculae.
D) synovial sheaths.
Q4) The neurotransmitter released from the a-motor neuron at the motor end plate is A) norepinephrine.
B) epinephrine.
C) serotonin.
D) acetylcholine.
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Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inflammation of the sacs that overlie bony prominences is called A) epicondylitis.
B) arthritis.
C) tendinitis.
D) bursitis.
Q2) The most common symptom of multiple myeloma is A) pathologic fracture.
B) fever.
C) bone pain.
D) osteomyelitis.
Q3) Pain in fibromyalgia involves A) muscle inflammation.
B) autoimmune destruction of muscle tissue.
C) nerve inflammation.
D) changes in pain transmission in the spinal cord.
Q4) A unique characteristic feature of fibromyalgia is the presence of A) tender point pain.
B) head pain.
C) contractures.
D) muscle atrophy.
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Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Rheumatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although skin manifestations may occur in numerous locations, the classic presentation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)includes
A) lesions affecting the palms of hands and the soles of feet.
B) dry, scaly patches in the antecubital area and behind the knees.
C) cracked, scaly areas in the webs of fingers.
D) a butterfly pattern rash on the face across the bridge of the nose.
Q2) The pain of nonarticular rheumatism ("growing pain")is worse
A) during activity.
B) following strenuous exercise.
C) upon awakening.
D) during the night.
Q3) Ankylosing spondylitis causes
A) intervertebral joint fusion.
B) instability of synovial joints.
C) costal cartilage degeneration.
D) temporomandibular joint degeneration.
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Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An elevated lesion containing purulent material is a A) nodule.
B) pustule.
C) macule.
D) vesicle.
E) papule.
Q2) A large, palpable bump is a A) nodule.
B) pustule.
C) macule.
D) vesicle.
E) papule.
Q3) Scleroderma is characterized by A) large, weeping, open sores.
B) thickening and decreased elasticity of the skin.
C) butterfly rash on the face.
D) hair loss and ulcer formation on the extremities.
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Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
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Sample Questions
Q1) The time between the end of burn shock and closure of the burn to less than 20% of total body surface area is called the ________ phase.
A) postshock
B) rehabilitation
C) critical
D) emergent
Q2) Electrical injury may cause extensive damage to low-resistance tissues, particularly A) bone and muscle.
B) nerves and blood vessels.
C) epidermis.
D) dermis and subcutaneous tissue.
Q3) The third element essential to survival after major burn injury is
A) excision of the burn followed by skin grafting.
B) frequent wound debridement to encourage wound healing.
C) hyperbaric oxygen therapy.
D) continuous topical antibiotic therapy.
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