Course Introduction
Nursing Pathophysiology
Chapter Exam Questions
Nursing Pathophysiology explores the physiological processes and alterations that underlie human disease and disorders, providing nursing students with a foundational understanding of how disruptions in normal body functions contribute to illness. Through the examination of various organ systems, students learn to link clinical signs and symptoms to cellular and systemic changes, enabling them to apply critical thinking in patient assessment, diagnosis, and care planning. Emphasis is placed on the integration of pathophysiological concepts with evidence-based nursing interventions to promote effective and holistic patient management throughout the lifespan.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 6th Edition by Jacquelyn L. Banasik
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Q1) Your patient's red blood cell is slightly elevated today.This might be explained by (Select all that apply.)
A) gender difference.
B) situational factors.
C) normal variation.
D) cultural variation.
E) illness.
Answer: A,B,C,E
Q2) C.Q.was recently exposed to group A hemolytic Streptococcus and subsequently developed a pharyngeal infection.His clinic examination reveals an oral temperature of 102.3°F,skin rash,dysphagia,and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustules.He complains of sore throat,malaise,and joint stiffness.A throat culture is positive for Streptococcus,and antibiotics have been prescribed.The etiology of C.Q.'s disease is A) a sore throat.
B) streptococcal infection.
C) genetic susceptibility.
D) pharyngitis.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Homeostasis, Allostasis, and Adaptive
Responses to Stressors
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Q1) Chronic activation of stress hormones can lead to (Select all that apply.)
A) cardiovascular disease.
B) depression.
C) impaired cognitive function.
D) autoimmune disease.
E) overactive immune function.
Answer: A,B,C,D
Q2) Selye's three phases of the stress response include all the following except A) allostasis.
B) resistance.
C) alarm.
D) exhaustion.
Answer: A
Q3) Indicators that an individual is experiencing high stress include all the following except A) tachycardia.
B) diaphoresis.
C) increased peripheral resistance.
D) pupil constriction.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cardiac drug digitalis enhances myocardial contraction,because it
A) increases intracellular calcium level in cardiac cells.
B) inhibits sodium from entering cardiac cells.
C) enhances the sodium-potassium pump.
D) increases the sodium gradient across the cell membrane.
Answer: A
Q2) Gap junctions are connecting channels that allow passage of small molecules from one cell to the next and are especially important for A) distance signaling.
B) tissues requiring synchronized function.
C) communication within a cell.
D) passage of large molecules.
Answer: B
Q3) Phospholipids spontaneously form lipid bilayers,because they are A) polar.
B) charged.
C) insoluble.
D) amphipathic.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) Extreme cold injures cells by all the following except A) ischemic injury from vasoconstriction.
B) peripheral nerve damage from rebound vasodilation.
C) decreased blood viscosity.
D) crystallization of cellular components.
Q2) Apoptosis is a process that results in cellular A) atrophy.
B) death.
C) proliferation.
D) mutation.
Q3) The primary effect of aging on all body systems is A) decreased functional reserve.
B) diseased function.
C) programmed senescence.
D) senility.
Q4) All these cellular responses are potentially reversible except A) necrosis.
B) metaplasia.
C) atrophy.
D) hyperplasia.
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Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
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Q1) An important difference between skeletal and cardiac muscle is that
A) cardiac muscle is not striated.
B) only skeletal muscle is dependent upon actin-myosin cross-bridging.
C) calcium does not leave the sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac cells.
D) cardiac muscle has calcium channels on the cell surface for calcium entry.
Q2) Which tissue type is categorized as epithelial?
A) Tendons and ligaments
B) Blood cells
C) Blood vessel endothelium
D) Cartilage
Q3) Characteristics of stem cells include that they (Select all that apply.)
A) may differentiate into any type of cell.
B) reside only in the bone marrow.
C) have greater capacity to proliferate than more differentiated cells.
D) are dependent upon environmental cues for proliferation.
E) can die in the absence of an appropriate environment.
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Q1) A fetus is most vulnerable to environmental teratogens during A) birth.
B) conception.
C) the first trimester.
D) the last trimester.
Q2) A point mutation
A) results from the addition or loss of one or more bases.
B) is because of the translocation of a chromosomal segment.
C) always produces significant dysfunction.
D) involves the substitution of a single base pair.
Q3) The parents of a child with PKU are concerned about the risk of transmitting the disorder in future pregnancies.The correct assessment of the risk is
A) each child has a 25% chance of being a carrier.
B) each child has a 25% chance of being affected.
C) since one child is already affected, the next three children will be unaffected.
D) one cannot predict the risk for future pregnancies.
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8
Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Q1) Breast cancer in women who have the breast cancer gene
A) occurs at an earlier age.
B) is more likely to be unilateral.
C) is more common than non-inherited breast cancer.
D) is more responsive to treatment.
Q2) After bronchoscopy and histologic examination of a suspected tumor,your patient is diagnosed with primary bronchial carcinoma.Thus,the tumor
A) is benign.
B) is malignant.
C) is secondary to cancer elsewhere in the body.
D) has spread.
Q3) Deficits in immune system function occur in cancer as a result of (Select all that apply.)
A) chemotherapy.
B) cancer cells.
C) cancer metastasis to bone marrow.
D) immunotherapy.
E) malnutrition.
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Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
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Q1) Characteristics of immunization include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Giving injections of preformed antibodies provides immediate immunity.
B) Immunization provides life-long immunity.
C) Immunization with killed vaccines may lead to infection from the agent.
D) Herd immunity controls disease without immunizing everyone in the population.
E) Lack of immunization may lead to an epidemic.
Q2) An infectious disease that is common in a community is termed A) endemic.
B) epidemic.
C) pandemic.
D) partdemic.
Q3) The term used to describe fungal infections is A) sepsis.
B) mycoses.
C) amebiasis.
D) Chlamydia.
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10
Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary function of kinins is
A) phagocytosis of antigens.
B) production of antibodies.
C) to limit immune reactions.
D) vasodilation to enhance inflammation.
Q2) Antigen-presenting cells function to
A) display foreign antigen on their cell surfaces bound to MHC.
B) stimulate cytokine production by macrophages.
C) phagocytose and degrade foreign antigens.
D) initiate the complement cascade by way of the alternative pathway.
Q3) Functions of T cells include (Select all that apply.)
A) synthesizing antibodies.
B) secreting cytokines.
C) killing antigen-presenting cells.
D) stimulating of B cells.
E) killing virally infected cells.
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11
Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
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Q1) Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)syndrome is an example of a(n)
A) deficient immune response.
B) excessive immune response.
C) primary acquired immunodeficiency.
D) hypersensitivity reaction.
Q2) A primary effector cell of the type I hypersensitivity response is A) monocytes.
B) mast cells.
C) neutrophils.
D) cytotoxic cells.
Q3) An important mediator of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is A) complement.
B) antigen-antibody immune complexes.
C) T cells.
D) histamine.
Q4) The hypersensitivity reaction that does not involve antibody production is type A) I.
B) II.
C) III.
D) IV.
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Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
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Q1) Which form of leukemia demonstrates the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome?
A) ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)
B) CLL (chronic lymphoid leukemia)
C) AML (acute myeloid leukemia)
D) CML (chronic myeloid leukemia)
Q2) Which viruses have been implicated as cancer-causing agents? (Select all that apply.)
A) Epstein-Barr
B) Human T-cell leukemia
C) Human immunodeficiency
D) Herpes
E) Shingles
Q3) Which type of leukemia primarily affects children?
A) ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)
B) CLL (chronic lymphoid leukemia)
C) AML (acute myeloid leukemia)
D) CML (chronic myeloid leukemia)
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13
Chapter 12: HIV Disease and Aids
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Sample Questions
Q1) The immune system disorder associated with HIV is A) an overactive B-cell system.
B) proliferation of immature WBCs (blasts).
C) deficiency of T-helper lymphocytes.
D) cancerous growth of lymph tissue.
Q2) An effective HIV vaccine is difficult to produce,primarily because A) HIV is not immunogenic.
B) B cells are unable to produce antibodies against HIV.
C) HIV mutates frequently.
D) reverse transcriptase cleaves to the vaccine.
Q3) HIV infection of T-helper cells is facilitated by attachment of the viral envelope protein gp120 to
A) CD8 proteins on suppressor cells.
B) reverse transcriptase.
C) CD4 proteins on helper cells.
D) the macrophage lipid bilayer.
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14
Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is educating a patient diagnosed with anemia of chronic renal failure about the disease.Which statements made by the nurse are correct regarding the patient's treatment? (Select all that apply.)
A) "Since your glomerular filtration is 13 mL/min, you'll be started on dialysis."
B) "Your hematocrit is 29%, so you're going to start on erythropoietin therapy."
C) "Your hemoglobin is 9 g/dL, so you'll need erythropoietin therapy."
D) "We need to get your hemoglobin up to at least 15 g/dL"
E) "You're going to need iron, folate, and B therapy to help improve your blood counts."
Q2) Red blood cells differ from other cell types in the body,because they
A) contain cytoplasmic proteins.
B) have no cytoplasmic organelles.
C) have a longer life span.
D) contain glycolytic enzymes.
Q3) Which condition is associated with an elevated reticulocyte count?
A) Renal disease
B) Aplastic anemia
C) Hypertension
D) Hemolytic anemia
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15
Chapter 14: Alterations in Homeostasis and Blood Coagulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with a tortuous blood vessel of the right hand that bleeds spontaneously.This patient presents with A) petechiae.
B) purpura.
C) telangiectasia.
D) thrombocytosis.
Q2) Disseminated intravascular coagulation may be treated with heparin therapy to A) enhance fibrinolysis.
B) inhibit clotting factor consumption.
C) activate platelets.
D) enhance liver synthesis of clotting factors.
Q3) The conversion of plasminogen to plasmin results in A) clot retraction.
B) fibrinolysis.
C) platelet aggregation.
D) activation of thrombin.
Q4) Hemophilia B is also known as Christmas disease. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) When systemic vascular resistance is decreased,blood flow A) increases.
B) decreases.
C) stays the same.
D) moves to the extremities.
Q2) Blood flow throughout the periphery is regulated by A) cardiac output.
B) the autonomic nervous system.
C) velocity.
D) hemodynamics.
Q3) The goal of long term heparin for the management of a deep vein thrombosis is to A) relieve edema.
B) prevent clot dislodgement.
C) dissolve the thrombus.
D) prevent further clot formation.
Q4) A serious complication of deep vein thrombosis is A) stroke.
B) hypertensive crisis.
C) extremity necrosis.
D) pulmonary embolus.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
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Q1) Atherosclerosis puts a patient at risk for (Select all that apply.)
A) ischemic stroke.
B) hemorrhagic stroke.
C) retinal injury.
D) renal impairment.
E) liver disease.
Q2) A patient presents to the emergency department with a diastolic blood pressure of 132 mm Hg,retinopathy,and symptoms of an ischemic stroke.This symptomology is likely the result of
A) arthrosclerosis.
B) angina.
C) myocardial infarction.
D) hypertensive crisis.
Q3) The ingestion of certain drugs,foods,or chemicals can lead to secondary hypertension.
A)True B)False
Q4) The most commonly recognized outcome of hypertension is pulmonary disease.
A)True
B)False
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
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Q1) A vessel that normally contains desaturated (venous)blood is the A) bronchial artery.
B) pulmonary artery.
C) pulmonary vein.
D) coronary artery.
Q2) Parasympathetic stimulation of the heart generally leads to a decrease in heart rate,because acetylcholine
A) increases intracellular cAMP levels and opens calcium channels.
B) opens potassium channels allowing potassium ion efflux.
C) binds and blocks b receptors on the cell membrane.
D) inhibits voltage-gated sodium channels in the membrane.
Q3) During which phase of the cardiac cycle is the mitral valve normally open?
A) Atrial systole
B) Isovolumic contraction
C) Isovolumic relaxation
D) Ventricular ejection
Q4) A standard ECG has 13 leads.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
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Q1) A patient with significant aortic stenosis is likely to experience A) syncope.
B) hypertension.
C) increased pulse pressure.
D) peripheral edema.
Q2) A patient with a history of myocardial infarction continues to complain of intermittent chest pain brought on by exertion and relieved by rest.The likely cause of this pain is
A) stable angina.
B) myocardial infarction.
C) coronary vasospasm.
D) unstable angina.
Q3) Diagnostic tests used to diagnose or confirm MI include (Select all that apply.)
A) electrocardiogram.
B) cardiac catheterization.
C) echocardiography.
D) radionuclide scintigraphy.
E) computed tomography.
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Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Q1) A patient with pure left-sided heart failure is likely to exhibit
A) jugular vein distention.
B) pulmonary congestion with dyspnea.
C) peripheral edema.
D) hepatomegaly.
Q2) Increased preload of the cardiac chambers may lead to which patient symptom?
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Decreased respiratory rate
C) Edema
D) Excitability
Q3) Cor pulmonale refers to
A) biventricular failure.
B) left ventricular hypertrophy secondary to lung disease.
C) right ventricular hypertrophy secondary to pulmonary hypertension.
D) right ventricular failure secondary to right ventricular infarction.
Q4) Right-sided heart failure is usually a consequence of (Select all that apply.)
A) elevated right ventricular afterload.
B) right ventricular infarction.
C) tricuspid valve defects.
D) congenital anomalies.
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Chapter 20: Shock
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Q1) Which causes of shock are considered to be obstructive? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ventricular rupture
B) Pulmonary embolus
C) Cardiac tamponade
D) Tension pneumothorax
E) Acute hemorrhage
Q2) Improvement in a patient with septic shock is indicated by an increase in A) cardiac output.
B) SvO<sub>2</sub>.
C) systemic vascular resistance.
D) serum lactate level.
Q3) Positive inotropic drugs work by increasing (Select all that apply.)
A) contractility.
B) cardiac output.
C) tissue perfusion.
D) myocardial oxygen demand.
E) vascular resistance.
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Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
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Q1) Structure(s)that engage in exchange of respiratory gases include(s)the (Select all that apply.)
A) trachea.
B) bronchi.
C) pulmonary artery.
D) pulmonary capillaries.
E) alveoli.
Q2) The central chemoreceptors for respiratory control are
A) located in the carotid artery.
B) responsive primarily to changes in pH and CO .
C) responsive primarily to hypoxemia.
D) less important than the peripheral chemoreceptors in maintaining respiration.
Q3) Primary pulmonary hypertension is
A) more common in men.
B) readily treatable.
C) caused by genetic mutation.
D) rapidly progressive.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
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Q1) After evaluation,a child's asthma is characterized as "extrinsic." This means that the asthma is
A) of unknown pathogenesis.
B) associated with specific allergic triggers.
C) associated with respiratory infections.
D) induced by psychological factors (stress).
Q2) In individuals who have asthma,exposure to an allergen to which they are sensitized leads to which pathophysiologic event?
A) Loss of alveolar elastin and premature closure of airways
B) Pulmonary edema and decreased alveolar compliance
C) Mast cell degranulation that causes decreased surfactant
D) Inflammation, mucosal edema, and bronchoconstriction
Q3) Croup is characterized by
A) a productive cough.
B) a barking cough.
C) an inability to cough.
D) drooling, sore throat, and difficulty swallowing.
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Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
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Q1) Clinical manifestations of pleural effusion include (Select all that apply.)
A) dyspnea.
B) sharp pain in expiration.
C) productive cough.
D) diminished breath sounds.
E) a tracheal shift, if large.
Q2) The primary cause of infant respiratory distress syndrome is A) prematurity.
B) lack of surfactant.
C) maternal illegal drug use during pregnancy.
D) umbilical cord compression.
Q3) A major risk factor for the development of active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB)disease is
A) contaminated water.
B) immunosuppression.
C) being a male.
D) overuse of antibiotics.
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Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Q1) How is a patient hospitalized with a malignant tumor that secretes parathyroid hormone-related peptide monitored for the resulting electrolyte imbalance?
A) Serum calcium, Chvostek and Trousseau signs
B) Serum calcium, bowel function, level of consciousness
C) Serum potassium, Chvostek and Trousseau signs
D) Serum potassium, bowel function, level of consciousness
Q2) Decreased neuromuscular excitability is often the result of
A) hypercalcemia and hypermagnesemia.
B) hypomagnesemia and hyperkalemia.
C) hypocalcemia and hypokalemia.
D) hypernatremia and hypomagnesemia.
Q3) Signs and symptoms of clinical dehydration include
A) decreased urine output.
B) increased skin turgor.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) decreased heart rate.
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Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Q1) Which acid are the kidneys unable to excrete?
A) Metabolic
B) Carbonic
C) Bicarbonate
D) Ammonia
Q2) The major buffer in the extracellular fluid is A) hemoglobin.
B) albumin.
C) bicarbonate.
D) phosphate.
Q3) Metabolic alkalosis is often accompanied by A) hypernatremia.
B) hyponatremia.
C) hyperkalemia.
D) hypokalemia.
Q4) Respiratory acidosis may be caused by A) hyperventilation.
B) massive blood transfusion.
C) tissue hypoxia.
D) hypoventilation.
27
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Chapter 26: Renal Function
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Q1) The glucose transporter in the proximal tubule
A) has no transport maximum.
B) does not depend on sodium reabsorption.
C) is ATP-dependent.
D) may be saturated at high filtered glucose loads.
Q2) Excess potassium is excreted from the body by the renal system primarily via A) glomerular filtration based on blood level of potassium.
B) reabsorption based on blood level of potassium.
C) secretion based on aldosterone level.
D) an unknown mechanism.
Q3) Approximately two thirds of the water and electrolytes filtered by the kidney are reabsorbed by the
A) loop of Henle.
B) collecting tubule.
C) distal tubule.
D) proximal tubule.
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Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
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Q1) Which condition is caused by a genetic defect?
A) Acute pyelonephritis
B) Hydroureter
C) Incontinence
D) Polycystic kidney disease
Q2) The most common type of renal stone is
A) uric acid.
B) calcium.
C) struvite.
D) cysteine.
Q3) A person who is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome is also experiencing hypoalbuminemia.This happens because
A) hepatocyte failure decreases albumin synthesis.
B) albumin is excreted in the urine.
C) albumin leaks into the interstitial spaces.
D) malnutrition is part of nephrotic syndrome.
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Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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Q1) The best intervention for acute kidney injury (AKI)is prevention. A)True
B)False
Q2) Anemia in people who have end-stage chronic renal disease is caused by A) chronic loss of blood in the urine.
B) poor appetite, with lack of iron intake.
C) decreased secretion of erythropoietin.
D) increased secretion of aldosterone.
Q3) Appropriate management of end-stage renal disease includes A) potassium supplementation.
B) a high-protein diet.
C) erythropoietin administration.
D) a high-phosphate diet.
Q4) Prerenal acute kidney injury may be caused by A) severe hypotension.
B) glomerulonephritis.
C) bilateral kidney stones.
D) acute tubular necrosis.
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Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
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Q1) The microorganism that causes the vast majority of urinary tract infections is
A) Klebsiella.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) herpes simplex virus.
D) Candida albicans.
Q2) A patient has ureteral colic.The manifestation that requires immediate notification of the physician is
A) severe flank pain.
B) vomiting.
C) pink-tinged urine.
D) chills and fever.
Q3) Pelvic floor muscle training is appropriate for A) overflow incontinence.
B) reflux prevention.
C) urge incontinence.
D) functional incontinence.
Q4) Infection can lead to bladder stone formation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) The capacitation process occurs in sperm
A) after introduction into the vagina.
B) before emission from the penis.
C) after fertilization of the egg.
D) before ejaculation from the penis.
Q2) The activation of sperm after they enter the vagina is called A) flagellation.
B) ejaculation.
C) emission.
D) capacitation.
Q3) In males,pituitary luteinizing hormone (LH)
A) induces Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone.
B) induces Sertoli cells to produce sperm.
C) stimulates ejaculation of semen.
D) has no known reproductive function.
Q4) The main function of the prostate is to A) produce sperm.
B) produce seminal fluid to support sperm.
C) secrete male hormones.
D) provide innervation for erection.
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Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) The most common cause of urinary obstruction in male newborns and infants is urethral valves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sudden,severe testicular pain is indicative of A) prostatitis.
B) testicular cancer.
C) testicular torsion.
D) epididymitis.
Q3) A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream,dribbling of urine,and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristic of A) prostatitis.
B) urinary calculi.
C) bladder carcinoma.
D) prostatic enlargement.
Q4) Cryptorchidism is
A) associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer. B) an extremely uncommon disorder.
C) rarely treated.
D) a consequence of gonorrhea.
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Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) Which organs are part of the female reproductive tract? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ovaries
B) Uterus
C) Cervix
D) Vagina
E) Urethra
Q2) A 48-year-old female who is having hot flashes,tachycardia,palpitations,and sleep disturbance may be experiencing symptoms related to A) pregnancy.
B) perimenopause.
C) ovulation.
D) endometriosis.
Q3) The hormone released from the posterior pituitary gland during the milk ejection reflex is
A) gonadotropin.
B) prolactin.
C) vasopressin.
D) oxytocin.
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34
Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) What reproductive tract disorder is most likely to be associated with urinary stress incontinence?
A) Rectocele
B) Menopause
C) Cystocele
D) Cervicitis
Q2) Excessive vomiting in pregnant women is known as A) placenta previa.
B) hyperemesis gravidarum.
C) abruptio placentae.
D) spontaneous abortion.
Q3) A 32-year-old female complaining of severe pain with menstruation and inability to participate in her routine household activities is likely experiencing A) dysmenorrhea.
B) menorrhagia.
C) amenorrhea.
D) metrorrhagia.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Q1) Which infection can be a risk factor for cervical cancer?
A) Human papillomavirus
B) Molluscum contagiosum
C) Granuloma inguinale
D) Chancroid
Q2) Central nervous system degeneration,blindness,and paresis are associated with untreated
A) HSV.
B) LGV.
C) syphilis.
D) gonorrhea.
Q3) A painless ulceration called a chancre is a lesion associated with infection by A) human papillomavirus.
B) N. gonorrhoeae.
C) C. trachomatis.
D) T. pallidum.
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Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
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Q1) Most of the parasympathetic innervation of the GI tract is supplied by the A) hypoglossal nerves.
B) enteric nervous system.
C) vagus nerves.
D) celiac ganglia.
Q2) Chief cells secrete A) pepsinogen.
B) hydrogen chloride.
C) intrinsic factor.
D) gastrin.
Q3) Absorption of glucose and amino acids across the intestinal epithelium occurs by A) endocytosis.
B) ATP-driven transporters.
C) sodium-dependent carriers.
D) passive diffusion.
Q4) Pancreatic secretions are high in A) hydrochloric acid.
B) bicarbonate ions.
C) intrinsic factor.
D) secretin.
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Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Q1) Which symptom suggests the presence of a hiatal hernia?
A) Nausea
B) Heartburn
C) Diarrhea
D) Abdominal cramps
Q2) Premature infants are at greater risk for developing
A) necrotizing enterocolitis.
B) pseudomembranous colitis.
C) appendicitis.
D) diverticular disease.
Q3) What finding should prompt further diagnostic testing in a child presenting with diarrhea?
A) Periumbilical discomfort
B) Greenish, watery diarrhea
C) Frequent, large-volume diarrhea
D) Blood and mucus in the stools
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Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
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Q1) Elevated serum lipase and amylase levels are indicative of A) gallbladder disease.
B) appendicitis.
C) pancreatitis.
D) peritonitis.
Q2) Chronic cholecystitis can lead to (Select all that apply.)
A) biliary sepsis.
B) calcified gallbladder.
C) porcelain gallbladder.
D) cirrhosis.
E) diabetes mellitus.
Q3) Patients who may be at risk for development of cholesterol gallstones include (Select all that apply.)
A) high spinal cord injuries.
B) patients receiving total parenteral nutrition.
C) patients receiving chemotherapy.
D) patients with rapid weight loss.
E) pregnant women.
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Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
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Q1) The most common causes of prehepatic jaundice are ________ and ineffective erythropoiesis.
A) hemolysis
B) metabolism
C) fibrosis
D) canalicular bilirubin transport
Q2) Brain injury secondary to high serum bilirubin is called
A) hepatic encephalopathy.
B) hepatic meningitis.
C) kernicterus.
D) encephalitis.
Q3) An increased urine bilirubin is associated with A) an increased indirect serum bilirubin.
B) hemolytic reactions.
C) Gilbert syndrome.
D) hepatitis.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
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Q1) The release of prolactin is normally inhibited by A) dopamine.
B) acetylcholine.
C) somatostatin.
D) somatomedin.
Q2) Up-regulation of target cell receptors results in
A) decreased target cell sensitivity to hormone.
B) reduced production of hormone.
C) increased target cell responsiveness to hormone.
D) an increased hormone half-life.
Q3) Which hormone is responsible for regulation of immune and inflammatory reactions?
A) Thyrotropin
B) Androgen
C) Aldosterone
D) Cortisol
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Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
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Q1) A patient reporting vision changes,photophobia,and lid lag may be exhibiting signs of
A) Addison disease.
B) Cushing syndrome.
C) myxedema.
D) Graves disease.
Q2) Calcitonin is produced by thyroid parafollicular cells and increases bone formation by
A) homeostasis.
B) osteoclasts.
C) reabsorption.
D) osteoblasts.
Q3) A tumor which results in excessive production and release of catecholamines is A) goiter.
B) pheochromocytoma.
C) Conn syndrome.
D) Cushing disease.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
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Q1) Which insulin types are most commonly used in the rapid-acting category? (Select all that apply.)
A) NPH
B) Aspart
C) Glargine
D) Lispro
E) Regular
Q2) Which are clinical findings usually associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus? (Select all that apply.)
A) Polyuria
B) Polydipsia
C) Polyphagia
D) Obesity
E) Weight gain
Q3) ________ is the most powerful predictor of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus.
A) Aging
B) Obesity
C) Sedentary lifestyle
D) Cardiovascular disease
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
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Q1) Which condition is associated with an increase in basal metabolic rate?
A) Aging
B) Fever
C) Obesity
D) Starvation
Q2) Acute physiologic stress is associated with A) preferential use of glycogen.
B) catabolism of body proteins.
C) decreased basal metabolic rate.
D) conservation of body energy stores.
Q3) A body mass index of 25.5 is considered to be
A) morbidly obese.
B) normal.
C) overweight.
D) obese.
Q4) What patient is most at risk for severe protein malnutrition?
A) A postsurgical patient who has been NPO for 3 days
B) A postburn patient who has a deep partial-thickness burn
C) A febrile patient who has had a temperature of 102.6°F for 3 days
D) An immobile patient who has been in skeletal traction for 1 week
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Q1) Neurotransmitter binding to neuronal receptors occurs primarily at the dendrite and A) cell body.
B) nucleus.
C) axon hillock.
D) axon terminal.
Q2) Which are parts of the meninges? (Select all that apply.)
A) Dura mater
B) Pia mater
C) Choroid
D) Arachnoid
E) Ganglia
Q3) Exocytosis of neurotransmitter in response to depolarization of the presynaptic nerve membrane is mediated by
A) neurotransmitter binding to presynaptic carrier proteins.
B) potassium influx through voltage-gated channels.
C) sodium-potassium ATPase.
D) calcium influx through voltage-gated channels.
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Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important preventive measure for hemorrhagic stroke is A) anticoagulation.
B) blood pressure control.
C) thrombolytics.
D) management of dysrhythmias.
Q2) Clinical manifestations of a stroke within the right cerebral hemisphere include
A) cortical blindness.
B) right visual field blindness.
C) expressive and receptive aphasia.
D) left-sided muscle weakness and neglect.
Q3) The first indication of brain compression from increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)may be
A) decorticate posturing.
B) absence of verbalization.
C) sluggish pupil response to light.
D) Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13.
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Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Q1) It is recommended that women of childbearing age take folic acid daily for prevention of
A) neural tube defects.
B) seizure disorders.
C) cerebral palsy.
D) hydrocephalus.
Q2) Which neurologic disorder is commonly referred to as Lou Gehrig disease?
A) Multiple sclerosis
B) Parkinson disease
C) Alzheimer disease
D) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Q3) Which conditions are risk factors for the development of cerebral palsy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Birth trauma
B) Seizure disorder
C) Kernicterus
D) Prenatal maternal infection
E) Scoliosis
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Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
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Q1) Expected management of acute otitis media includes
A) surgical removal of debris in the middle ear.
B) placement of ventilation tubes in the tympanic membrane.
C) antibiotic therapy.
D) adenoidectomy.
Q2) Nerve fibers of the ________ system have their cell bodies in the mucous membrane of the upper and posterior parts of the nasal cavity.
A) visual
B) auditory
C) gustatory
D) olfactory
Q3) A sudden onset of eye pain and impaired vision associated with pupil dilation is characteristic of
A) narrow-angle glaucoma.
B) open-angle glaucoma.
C) cataract.
D) retinal detachment.
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Chapter 47: Pain
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Q1) One of the most common causes of acute pain is A) headache.
B) fibromyalgia.
C) malignancy.
D) trigeminal neuralgia.
Q2) The physiologic mechanisms involved in the pain phenomenon are termed A) nociception.
B) sensitization.
C) neurotransmission.
D) proprioception.
Q3) Modulation of pain signals is thought to be mediated by the release of A) histamine.
B) endorphins.
C) cholecystokinin.
D) glutamine.
Q4) The ________ is the level of painful stimulation required to be perceived. A) perception
B) tolerance
C) expression
D) threshold
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Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
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Q1) The schizophrenia category which indicates that the disturbance has continued but the active-phase symptoms are no longer met is the _____ Type.
A) Residual
B) Undifferentiated
C) Paranoid
D) Disorganized
Q2) An elderly patient is taking antipsychotic drugs and begins to develop involuntary chewing motions.The patient is likely exhibiting signs of
A) dementia.
B) Parkinson disease.
C) tardive dyskinesia.
D) dysthymia.
Q3) Which manifestation is characteristic of the "positive" symptoms of schizophrenia?
A) Social withdrawal
B) Flat affect
C) Lack of speech
D) Hallucinations
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Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
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Q1) The most common childhood psychiatric disorder is A) bipolar disorder.
B) attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder.
C) autism spectrum disorder.
D) psychosis.
Q2) Repetitive or ritualistic acts that a person performs with urgency are referred to as A) obsessions.
B) delusions.
C) hallucinations.
D) compulsions.
Q3) Individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder
A) are not aware that obsessive thoughts are from their own brains.
B) may become highly anxious if prevented from performing rituals.
C) have disordered thinking and poor reality orientation.
D) have a severe, unmanageable psychotic illness.
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Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) When oxygen for muscle activity from the respiratory vascular systems is insufficient for muscle activity,the body breaks down glucose,which results in A) hypoglycemia.
B) lactic acid buildup in muscle.
C) a large energy source.
D) exhaustion.
Q2) Radicular pain is pain caused by a A) tissue injury.
B) compressed nerve.
C) fracture of long bones.
D) meniscal tear.
Q3) Moderate stretching of a muscle at rest results in a(n) A) more forceful contraction when stimulated.
B) inefficient use of ATP.
C) more rapid onset of muscle fatigue.
D) reduced force of contraction.
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Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
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Q1) A fracture in which bone breaks into two or more fragments is referred to as A) comminuted.
B) open.
C) greenstick.
D) stress.
Q2) Manifestations of fibromyalgia often include (Select all that apply.)
A) generalized pain.
B) sensitivity to heat.
C) headaches.
D) fatigue.
E) sleep disturbance.
Q3) The disease that is similar to osteomalacia and occurs in growing children is A) rickets.
B) osteosarcoma.
C) Paget disease.
D) osteopenia.
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Rheumatic Disorders
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Q1) Ankylosing spondylitis causes
A) intervertebral joint fusion.
B) instability of synovial joints.
C) costal cartilage degeneration.
D) temporomandibular joint degeneration.
Q2) Gouty arthritis is a complication of
A) group A streptococcal infection.
B) autoimmune destruction of joint collagen.
C) excessive production of urea.
D) inadequate renal excretion of uric acid.
Q3) The pathophysiology of rheumatoid arthritis involves
A) immune cells accumulating in pannus and destroying articular cartilage.
B) free radicals attaching to the synovial membrane and tunneling into articular cartilage.
C) excessive wear and tear and microtrauma that damage articular cartilage.
D) cysts developing in subchondral bone and creating fissures in articular cartilage.
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Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
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Q1) Herpes simplex I infection (Select all that apply.)
A) causes both oral and genital infections.
B) begins with a burning or tingling sensation.
C) reactivates with stress, sun exposure, menses.
D) is painless.
E) remains latent in spinal ganglia between outbreaks.
Q2) A post-infective painful neuralgia can occur as a complication of A) shingles.
B) herpes simplex.
C) impetigo.
D) verrucae.
Q3) Shingles is caused by the same virus that causes A) measles.
B) mumps.
C) chickenpox.
D) rubella.
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Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
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Q1) Electrical injury may cause extensive damage to low-resistance tissues,particularly A) bone and muscle.
B) nerves and blood vessels.
C) epidermis.
D) dermis and subcutaneous tissue.
Q2) The time between the end of burn shock and closure of the burn to less than 20% of total body surface area is called the ________ phase.
A) postshock
B) rehabilitation
C) critical
D) emergent
Q3) The immediate management of a thermal burn victim once the fire has been extinguished is to
A) cover with blankets to prevent shock.
B) monitor for signs of respiratory impairment.
C) apply lubricant to the burn area.
D) start an IV line.
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