Nursing Microbiology Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Nursing Microbiology introduces students to the fundamental concepts of microbiology with a focus on microorganisms that impact human health. The course covers the structure, physiology, and classification of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, emphasizing their roles in disease processes and infection control. Students will learn about the mechanisms of microbial pathogenicity, immune responses, laboratory diagnostics, and antimicrobial therapies. Special attention is given to infection prevention, epidemiology, and the nurse's role in breaking the chain of infection within healthcare environments. Through lectures, laboratory experiences, and case studies, students gain essential knowledge and skills for understanding and managing infectious diseases in clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology and Infection Control for Health Professionals 6th Edition by Gary Lee
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
21 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2406
Page 2
Chapter 1: The Invisible World
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47832
Sample Questions
Q1) In order to disprove the theory of spontaneous generation,Louis Pasteur
A)heated nutrient broth in a stoppered flask to show that microorganisms could not grow.
B)heated nutrient broth in an open flask.
C)heated nutrient broth in a swan-necked flask so that microorganisms could not enter.
D)excluded oxygen from the flask.
E)filtered the nutrient broth in the flask before heating.
Answer: C
Q2) The infectious disease which is considered to be the greatest single cause of death in the world today is A)malaria.
B)AIDS.
C)tuberculosis.
D)cholera.
E)plague.
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: Biological Reactions in Microbial Cells
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47833
Sample Questions
Q1) Proteins are composed of
A)straight chains of pyruvic acids.
B)folded chains of amino acids.
C)regular sequences of five different amino acids.
D)amino acids bound to glucose by peptide bonds.
E)either acidic or basic amino acids.
Answer: B
Q2) Glucose can be broken down to release energy in a biological process called A)oxidation.
B)glycolysis.
C)aerobic respiration.
D)catabolism.
E)all of the above.
Answer: E
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
4
Chapter 3: Bacteria
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47834
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is TRUE of endospores?
A)They can withstand boiling at 100OC.
B)They are formed under adverse conditions.
C)Only one endospore is formed from each bacterial cell.
D)They consist of DNA enclosed in a spore coat.
E)All of the above.
Answer: E
Q2) Plasmids are
A)small pieces of DNA which may carry genes for antibiotic resistance.
B)structures which are only found in pathogenic bacteria.
C)essential for the correct replication of a bacterial cell.
D)small pieces of DNA attached to the plasma membrane.
E)only found in Gram-positive bacteria.
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
5
Chapter 4: Genes and Biotechnology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47835
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following methods is used to determine whether a particular nucleotide sequence is present in a DNA sample?
A)DNA fingerprinting.
B)Pulse field gel electrophoresis (PFGE).
C)DNA probes.
D)Southern blot.
E)All of the above.
Q2) The ability of some bacteria to take up fragments of DNA from their environment and incorporate them into their own DNA is called
A)polymerisation.
B)conjugation.
C)transduction.
D)aggregation.
E)transformation.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 5: Viruses and Viral Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47836
Sample Questions
Q1) Viral nucleic acid
A)carries all the information necessary for the replication of new viral particles.
B)codes only for some viral structural proteins and enzymes.
C)acts as a template for synthesis of host cell mRNA.
D)codes for the host cell enzymes required for viral synthesis.
E)codes for the synthesis of interferon.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a description of a type of viral infection?
A)Latent.
B)Passive.
C)Acute.
D)Oncogenic.
E)Subclinical.
Q3) Interferons are
A)antiviral substances produced in response to viral infection.
B)proteins that transmit infection from one cell to another.
C)substances that transform cancer cells.
D)synthetic drugs that are used to treat bacterial infections.
E)substances that interfere with antibody formation.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 6: Eucaryotic Microorganisms: Fungi, protozoa and
Multicellular Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47837
Sample Questions
Q1) The current treatment for worm infestations in developing countries
A)has led to the eradication of most worm infestations.
B)relies on the destruction of intermediate hosts or vectors.
C)is based on regular administration of antihelminthic drugs.
D)is impractical because of the high cost of drugs.
E)none of the above.
Q2) The organisms that cause parasitic infections
A)infect only humans.
B)produce resistant spores in soil and water supplies.
C)have a simple life cycle.
D)are protozoa,helminths or arthropods.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Moulds are most often identified by
A)their ability to ferment specific substrates.
B)their ability to grow on different media.
C)microscopic examination of their subcellular structures.
D)the microscopic appearance of their spore-bearing hyphae.
E)Gram staining of the cells.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Hostmicrobe Interactions and Principles of Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47838
Sample Questions
Q1) Organisms that cause disease only when the body's defences are lowered are called A)contaminants.
B)commensals.
C)transient.
D)opportunists.
E)colonisers.
Q2) A fulminating disease is one that
A)results in severe inflammation and swelling.
B)progresses very rapidly.
C)is never fatal.
D)does not provoke an immune reaction.
E)is caused by a fungus.
Q3) An infection that often results from the depletion of a person's normal microbiota is A)gonorrhoea.
B)dental caries.
C)urinary tract infection.
D)thrush.
E)all of the above.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: Epidemiology: How Diseases Are Spread
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47839
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Endogenous infections are caused by organisms already present on the body.
B)Infections caused by a person's own microbiota are regarded as exogenous.
C)Endogenous infections have to penetrate the skin to cause disease.
D)Thrush is usually an exogenous infection.
E)Endogenous infections are usually caused by viruses.
Q2) If a baby acquires an infection from its mother during birth it is called a A)congenital infection.
B)genital infection.
C)portal infection.
D)maternal infection.
E)perinatal infection.
Q3) Seroprevalence is defined as the
A)presence of antibodies in serum.
B)number of people who are not immune to a particular disease.
C)prevalence of a particular disease in the community.
D)number of people who have antibodies to a particular disease.
E)absence of a particular disease.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 9: The Bodys Defence Systems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47840
Sample Questions
Q1) An autoimmune disease represents a loss of A)T helper cells.
B)B cells.
C)tolerance to self-antigens.
D)antigen-presenting cells.
E)mechanisms for antibody production.
Q2) The role of opsonins in the human body is to A)enhance phagocytosis.
B)cause bacterial cells to burst.
C)neutralise toxins.
D)inactivate viruses.
E)reduce adherence of antigens to phagocytes.
Q3) An attenuated vaccine consists of A)killed microorganisms.
B)live microorganisms.
C)inactivated toxins.
D)parts of microorganisms.
E)any of the above.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
11
Chapter 10: Pathogenic Mechanisms and Evasion
Strategies of Microorganisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47841
Sample Questions
Q1) Opportunistic pathogens
A)are able to cause disease in healthy hosts.
B)have virulence factors that overcome normal defences.
C)cause damage by releasing toxins.
D)cause disease only in hosts with weakened immune defences.
E)always cause systemic infections.
Q2) Which of the following structures does NOT assist in adherence of microorganisms to cell surfaces?
A)Adhesins.
B)Fibronectin.
C)Pili.
D)Lipopolysaccharide.
E)Glycocalyx.
Q3) The toxin of Vibrio cholerae
A)kills cells by stopping protein synthesis.
B)interferes with synaptic transmission in inhibitory interneurones.
C)causes a loss of water and ions from intestinal epithelial cells.
D)blocks the release of acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions.
E)kills cells by damaging the cell membrane.
Page 12
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 11: Principles of Sterilisation and Disinfection
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47842
Sample Questions
Q1) Which concentration of ethyl alcohol is the most effective bactericide?
A)100%
B)90%
C)70%
D)50%
E)20%
Q2) Which of the following is an effective disinfection process?
A)Boiling at 100 C for 5 minutes.
B)Boiling at 100 C for 30 minutes.
C)Heating to 63 C for 30 minutes.
D)Heating to 72 C for 15 seconds.
E)All of the above.
Q3) In terms of processing requirements,a urinary catheter would be classified as A)critical.
B)semi-critical.
C)non-critical.
D)low risk.
E)moderate risk.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
13
Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47843
Sample Questions
Q1) The main reason there are very few effective antiviral drugs is because
A)viruses cannot be cultured in the laboratory to determine their sensitivity to antiviral drugs.
B)viruses are too simple to be attacked by a chemical compound.
C)viruses use the host's metabolic machinery so there are few points of selective attack.
D)viruses are difficult to identify under the light microscope.
E)it is too expensive to develop and test them.
Q2) Prescription of an antimicrobial drug for a patient without knowing the cause of infection is
A)an inappropriate use of a drug.
B)unlikely to effectively treat the infection.
C)likely to cause severe side effects.
D)called empirical therapy.
E)all of the above.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
14
Chapter 13: Infection Control in Healthcare Facilities
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47844
Sample Questions
Q1) Aseptic no touch technique
A)requires that no part of the patient's body is touched under any circumstances.
B)requires that equipment can only be touched after performing hand hygiene.
C)should be observed when inserting a urinary catheter.
D)emphasises the proper disposal of contaminated waste.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Transmission-based Precautions
A)replace Standard Precautions when certain diseases are known to be present.
B)replace Standard Precautions when certain diseases are suspected to be present.
C)are rarely necessary in large,metropolitan hospitals.
D)should be applied whenever a patient has any infection.
E)include contact,droplet and airborne precautions.
Q3) Infections that result from medical procedures are called
A)iatrogenic.
B)induced.
C)opportunistic.
D)contagious.
E)endogenous.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 14: Issues in Public Health
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47845
Sample Questions
Q1) In New Zealand
A)the incidence of some diseases varies in different ethnic groups.
B)the pattern of notifications of infectious diseases is similar to Australia.
C)the incidence of rheumatic fever is much lower than in other developed countries.
D)immunisation against hepatitis B is not recommended for children.
E)there is a low rate of gastrointestinal infections.
Q2) Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of a vaccine?
A)If the person has had an anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of the vaccine.
B)The use of a live vaccine in a person receiving immunosuppressive drugs.
C)The use of a live vaccine in a pregnant woman.
D)The use of a live vaccine in a person with leukaemia.
E)All of the above.
Q3) The BCG vaccine for tuberculosis is recommended for
A)Aboriginal children in the Northern Territory.
B)all healthcare workers in Australia.
C)all overseas travellers under the age of 12 years.
D)all immigrants from South-East Asia.
E)all of the above.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 16
Chapter 15: Microbial Techniques for Diagnosis of Infection
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47846
Sample Questions
Q1) The proportion of people who have a disease and are identified as having it by a test is the ___________ of the test.
A)specificity
B)sensitivity
C)accuracy
D)positivity
E)negativity
Q2) Laboratory diagnosis of all infectious diseases can be achieved by
A)direct microscopic examination of a specimen.
B)culture and isolation of microorganisms from a specimen.
C)detection of specific antibodies in the patient's blood.
D)detection of microbial DNA in a specimen.
E)none of the above.
Q3) A patient has a serum antibody titre of 1280 to rubella virus.This could mean that the patient
A)has rubella.
B)is immune to rubella.
C)has been vaccinated against rubella.
D)all of the above.
E)none of the above.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Skin, wound and Eye Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47847
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements concerning surgical wounds is TRUE?
A)Any microorganism present in a wound must be causing infection.
B)Surgery involving body sites with a microbiota have a high risk of infection.
C)Almost all infections occur during dressing changes.
D)Risk of infection is reduced if the preoperative hospitalisation time of the patient is increased.
E)Multi-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)causes all surgical wound infections.
Q2) A person with German measles (rubella)
A)is contagious around a week before symptoms develop.
B)usually suffers a severe systemic disease as well as a rash.
C)spreads the virus mainly via infected skin lesions.
D)is readily diagnosed from the typical signs and symptoms.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is TRUE of scabies?
A)It is spread by close personal contact.
B)It is caused by a mite.
C)Lesions are typically burrows in the epidermis.
D)Outbreaks can occur in hospitals.
E)All of the above.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 18
Chapter 17: Respiratory Tract Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47848
Sample Questions
Q1) Immunisation for whooping cough
A)involves a single dose of a live vaccine.
B)should be commenced at birth.
C)is recommended for grandparents and carers of young children.
D)also provides protection for diphtheria and glandular fever.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following most often causes a chronic lung infection in patients with cystic fibrosis?
A)Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C)Legionella pneumophila.
D)Coxiella burnetii.
E)Chlamydophila psittaci.
Q3) Which of the following bacteria is responsible for scarlet fever?
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B)Streptococcus pyogenes.
C)Salmonella typhimurium.
D)Mycobacterium avium complex.
E)Staphylococcus aureus.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 19
Chapter 18: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47849
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following food poisoning organisms produces almost immediate gastrointestinal symptoms (within hours)?
A)Salmonella typhimurium.
B)Enterococcus faecalis.
C)Staphylococcus aureus.
D)Shigella dysenteriae.
E)All of the above.
Q2) Infection with the pinworm Enterobius vermicularis
A)is rare in Australia.
B)is characterised by anal itching.
C)is acquired by penetration of the skin by larvae.
D)can lead to lung disease.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Most intestinal pathogens invade the intestine and spread to other parts of the body.
B)Only bacteria cause gastroenteritis.
C)Gastrointestinal infection always results in diarrhoea.
D)Acute diarrhoeal infections can be fatal due to fluid loss.
E)Gastrointestinal infections are always associated with contaminated food.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 20
Chapter 19: Cardiovascular and Multisystem Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47850
Sample Questions
Q1) Filariasis
A)is a rare disease throughout the world.
B)is caused by a fungus.
C)can lead to elephantiasis in repeated infections.
D)is spread by fleas.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Septicaemia-causing bacteria may be difficult to isolate from blood cultures because
A)the bacteria may be present only in low numbers.
B)blood is difficult to culture because it coagulates.
C)septicaemia is due to toxins rather than living bacteria.
D)blood is a poor culture medium.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Mumps
A)is transmitted by contact with saliva of an infected person.
B)can cause inflammation of the testicles.
C)mainly occurs in adolescents and young adults in developed countries.
D)can cause encephalitis in a small percentage of cases.
E)all of the above.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: Infections of the Nervous System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47851
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about rabies is FALSE?
A)It is an encephalitis caused by a Lyssavirus.
B)It is primarily a disease of warm-blooded animals.
C)The usual incubation period is at least one month.
D)It can be acquired from a variety of animals,including bats and monkeys.
E)None of the above.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT transmitted by mosquitoes?
A)Murray valley encephalitis.
B)Japanese encephalitis.
C)Herpes encephalitis.
D)West Nile virus infection.
E)Kunjin virus infection.
Q3) Neonatal meningitis
A)is most often caused by Listeria monocytogenes.
B)is usually fatal.
C)may be associated with premature birth.
D)does not result in long-term problems.
E)responds poorly to antibiotic treatment.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47852
Sample Questions
Q1) Pelvic inflammatory disease most often results from infection with A)Treponema pallidum.
B)lymphogranuloma venereum.
C)herpes simplex type 1 virus.
D)Chlamydia trachomatis.
E)papillomavirus.
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding gonorrhoea in women?
A)Gonococci infect the uterine cervix.
B)Gonococcal infection may extend into the fallopian tubes.
C)Arthritis may be a sequela.
D)Obstruction of the fallopian tubes may occur.
E)All of the above.
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Chlamydial infections are treated with penicillin.
B)Chlamydia is rarely seen in Aboriginal people or in remote areas of Australia.
C)Chlamydia infection can cause pelvic inflammatory disease.
D)Chlamydia infection is always symptomatic.
E)Chlamydia does not affect koalas.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23