Course Introduction
Nursing Microbiology
Solved Exam Questions
Nursing Microbiology is an essential course that introduces students to the fundamental principles of microbiology with a focus on the relevance to nursing practice. The course covers the biology of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, emphasizing their roles in health, disease, and infection control. Students learn about the mechanisms of pathogenicity, host immune responses, and the principles of aseptic technique, sterilization, and disinfection. Emphasis is placed on the significance of microbiology in the prevention and management of infectious diseases, the development of antimicrobial resistance, and the application of evidence-based practices to promote patient safety in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology A Human Perspective 7th Edition by Eugene Nester
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Humans and the Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lyme Disease is an example of a disease
A) that is due to a greater degree of interaction between humans and tick-carrying animals.
B) that is due to a decline in vaccinations.
C) that is due to a mutation in the human genome.
D) that is due to climate change leading to a greater mosquito population.
Answer: A
Q2) The work of Tyndall and Cohn
A) supported the idea of spontaneous generation.
B) was used to explain why others investigating spontaneous generation had obtained results that were opposite of those obtained by Pasteur.
C) showed that microbes caused disease.
D) allowed scientists to see microorganisms.
Answer: B
Q3) Both viruses and viroids are
A) capable of independent reproduction.
B) obligate intracellular parasites.
C) interdependent with one another for reproduction.
D) larger than most bacteria in size.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phospholipids are nonpolar molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Amino acids that contain many methyl (-CH3) groups
A) are considered hydrophilic.
B) are nonpolar.
C) carry a positive charge.
D) carry a negative charge.
E) are considered hydrophilic AND carry a positive charge.
Answer: B
Q3) The atomic weight is equal to
A) the number of electrons.
B) the number of electrons plus neutrons.
C) the number of protons.
D) the number of neutrons and protons.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Microscopy and Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The acid-fast stain
A) reflects differences in cytoplasmic membrane structure.
B) is useful for distinguishing a small group of organisms, including Mycobacterium.
C) uses crystal violet and safranin.
D) uses carbolfuchsin and methylene blue.
E) is useful for distinguishing a small group of organisms, including Mycobacterium AND uses carbolfuchsin and methylene blue.
Answer: E
Q2) Which is not true of the cytoplasmic membrane?
A) It defines the boundaries of the cell.
B) It is a semipermeable barrier.
C) It consists mainly of a fixed, static phospholipid bilayer.
D) It uses proteins as selective gates and sensors.
E) All of the choices are true.
Answer: C
Q3) LPS is found in the outer membrane of Gram-positive bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Dynamics of Prokaryotic Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Freezing is an effective means of destroying bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The lag phase of the bacterial growth curve is marked by
A) a decrease in cell mass.
B) dormant, metabolically inactive cells.
C) metabolically active cells.
D) vigorously dividing cells.
Q3) Biofilms
A) are a haphazard mixture of bacteria.
B) are a polysaccharide-encased community of microorganisms.
C) may enhance bioremediation efforts.
D) may protect organisms against harmful chemicals.
E) are a polysaccharide-encased community of microorganisms, may enhance bioremediation efforts AND may protect organisms against harmful chemicals.
Q4) A single bacterial cell may multiply to form a visible colony.
A)True
B)False
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6
Chapter 5: Control of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organisms are resistant to destruction by typical control methods?
A) endospores of Bacillus and Clostridium
B) Pseudomonas
C) naked viruses
D) Mycobacterium spp.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Glutaraldehyde
A) is, if given enough time, able to destroy all forms of microbial life.
B) is very good for use on heat-sensitive medical items.
C) attacks lipids.
D) does not affect naked viruses.
E) is, if given enough time, able to destroy all forms of microbial life AND is very good for use on heat-sensitive medical items.
Q3) Microwaves do not kill organisms directly but kill by
A) the heat they generate in a product.
B) generating free radicals.
C) generating toxins.
D) creating thymine dimers.
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Chapter 6: Metabolism: Fueling Cell Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Concerning catabolism and anabolism,
A) they refer to reactions solely dealing with the metabolism of lipids.
B) the intermediates of one serve as the reactants in the other.
C) the energy gathered in one is utilized in the other.
D) they refer solely to the reactions involved in synthesis of carbohydrates.
E) the intermediates of one serve as the reactants in the other AND the energy gathered in one is utilized in the other.
Q2) Enzymes act on _______ to produce ________.
A) products, catabolites
B) substrates, products
C) products, substrates
D) glucose, anabolites
Q3) The transition step
A) links glycolysis to the pentose phosphate pathway.
B) links the pentose phosphate pathway to the Entner-Duodoroff pathway.
C) links glycolysis to the TCA cycle.
D) takes place in the matrix of the nucleus.
Q4) The Calvin cycle produces 6 ATP for every 6 turns of the cycle.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Blueprint of Life, From Dna to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adenine binds to thymine via 3 hydrogen bonds.
A)True
B)False
Q2) There are _____ codons to code for the 20 possible amino acids.
A) 20
B) 30
C) 64
D) 61
Q3) AUG
A) is only used as the start codon.
B) codes for methionine.
C) determines the reading frame.
D) is one of the stop codons.
E) codes for methionine AND determines the reading frame.
Q4) The lagging strand
A) is the third type of RNA.
B) is found during RNA replication.
C) is necessary due to the properties of the enzymes and the antiparallel nature of DNA.
D) is always the bottom strand.
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prokaryotic cell mutations can be observed very quickly because the prokaryotic chromosome is
A) diploid.
B) polyploid.
C) haploid.
D) polysomal.
Q2) In conjugation, transformation, or transduction, the recipient bacteria is most likely to accept donor DNA
A) from any source.
B) from any species of bacteria.
C) from the same species of bacteria.
D) only through plasmids.
E) from any source AND only through plasmids.
Q3) Mutations are likely to persist after SOS repair, but not after light-induced or excision repair.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Ames test determines antibiotic sensitivity of a bacterium.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Biotechnology and Recombinant Dna
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Sample Questions
Q1) Double-stranded DNA will separate into two strands when exposed to
A) high temperature.
B) high pH.
C) low temperature.
D) low salt.
E) high temperature AND high pH.
Q2) Short tandem repeats (STRs)
A) are useful in identifying specific individuals
B) are important sites in vectors where foreign DNA can be integrated
C) are errors that can arise during DNA sequencing
D) are DNA fragments generated during PCR
Q3) Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) in humans
A) is always donated to the offspring from both parents
B) can be used to identify related people
C) can be isolated only from intact embryos
D) can be used to establish paternity
Q4) DNA probes are used to find regions of complementary DNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Identification and Classification of Prokaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Modern approaches to evolutionary taxonomy often involve
A) biochemical differences.
B) comparison of DNA and RNA.
C) protein similarities.
D) lactose fermentation.
Q2) Fatty acid analysis
A) can be used to identify Gram-negative bacteria.
B) can be used to identify Gram-positive bacteria.
C) uses gas chromatography to analyze fatty acid methyl esters.
D) requires that cells be grown under standardized conditions.
E) All of the above
Q3) The point at which two organisms diverged from a common ancestor
A) can be determined by comparing the nucleic acid sequences.
B) depends on translational control.
C) depends on metabolism.
D) is determined on MacConkeys media.
Q4) Based on DNA hybridization, humans and chimpanzees are the same species.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: The Diversity of Prokaryotic Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hydrogen sulfide
A) is produced when sulfur compounds are used as terminal electron acceptors.
B) may react with iron to produce a black precipitate.
C) is produced by Desulfovibrio.
D) has a rotten egg smell.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Bdellovibrio
A) prey on other bacteria.
B) are parasites of plants.
C) may fix nitrogen.
D) are photosynthetic.
Q3) Purple sulfur bacteria and filamentous sulfur-oxidizers both
A) accumulate sulfur as intracellular granules.
B) fix nitrogen.
C) produce oxygen from carbon dioxide.
D) use gliding motility.
Q4) Chlamydia occurs in two forms, a reticulate body and an elementary body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: The Eukaryotic Members of the Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sexual reproduction in algae utilizes meiosis that results in the production of A) spores with twice as much DNA as the parental cells.
B) gametes with half the amount of DNA as in the parental cells.
C) spores with the same amount of DNA as the parental cells.
D) swarming cells with the same amount of DNA as the parental cells.
Q2) Fungi are often capable of locomotion through the use of flagella.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fungi are particularly adept at infecting
A) protozoans.
B) algae.
C) animals.
D) plants.
Q4) Lyme disease is transmitted by A) ticks.
B) lice.
C) mosquitoes.
D) fleas.
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Chapter 13: Viruses, Viroids and Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normal tissue taken from animals and prepared immediately as media for viral growth is termed a(n)
A) advantageous group.
B) monolayer culture.
C) plaque.
D) primary culture.
Q2) The nucleocapsid is composed of
A) DNA and RNA and protein.
B) DNA or RNA and protein.
C) protein located in the nucleus.
D) nucleic acid in the ribosome.
Q3) A key feature of all viral infections is the
A) integration of viral DNA into host DNA.
B) disintegration of host DNA.
C) addition of a lipid membrane to the virus.
D) separation of viral nucleic acid from the capsid.
Q4) The integration of phage DNA into host DNA occurs in much the same fashion as seen in transformation, transduction or conjugation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: The Innate Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) The leukocyte that contains histamine is the
A) lymphocyte.
B) monocyte.
C) macrophage.
D) basophil.
Q2) Pyrogens are
A) fever-inducing substances.
B) fever-inhibiting substances.
C) phagocytosis-enhancing substances.
D) complement activators.
Q3) Defensins are short antimicrobial peptides found within mucus membranes and phagocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The four cardinal signs of inflammation are:
A) flare, wheals, fever, cough
B) rash, pus, heat, rubor
C) heat, pain, vesicles, fever
D) redness, heat, swelling, pain
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Chapter 15: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) CD8 cells are often
A) T helper cells.
B) T suppresser cells.
C) T cytotoxic cells.
D) T hypersensitivity cells.
Q2) T cells primarily are responsible for
A) humoral immunity.
B) cell-mediated immunity.
C) anamnestic immunity.
D) producing haptens.
Q3) Which is the most efficient at initiating the classical pathway of the complement cascade?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgM
D) IgE
Q4) T cells are responsible for directly manufacturing antibodies.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Host-Microbe Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A relationship in which one partner benefits and the other is unaffected is termed A) commensalism.
B) parasitism.
C) independence.
D) mutualism.
Q2) The connection between a particular organism and a specific disease was first made by
A) Fracastorius.
B) Pasteur.
C) Koch.
D) Leeuwenhoek.
Q3) The chemical nature of endotoxins is that of a A) protein.
B) nucleic acid.
C) lipid.
D) lipopolysaccharide.
Q4) Infection always leads to disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Immunologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The natural antibodies in serum that react with A or B polysaccharide antigens are mostly of the class
A) IgG.
B) IgE.
C) IgM.
D) IgD.
E) IgA.
Q2) Immune complexes
A) consist of antigen-antibody bound together.
B) are usually cleared rapidly from the body.
C) bind to Fc receptors on cells.
D) are involved in Type III hypersensitivity reactions.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which of the following primary immunodeficiencies is the most common?
A) severe combined immunodeficiency
B) selective IgA deficiency
C) agammaglobulinemia
D) Di George's syndrome
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Chapter 18: Applications of Immune Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common adjuvant is
A) ethanol.
B) formalin.
C) alum.
D) aluminum.
E) alum AND aluminum.
Q2) The practice of deliberately stimulating the immune system is called
A) acquired immunity.
B) memory immunity.
C) vaccination.
D) hypersensitivity.
Q3) Which type of vaccine has been used in place of inactivated whole cell vaccine?
A) acellular subunit
B) whole cell attenuated
C) adjuvant
D) toxin
Q4) The risk of serious illness from measles is 500 times greater than from vaccination against the disease.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prevention of patient-to-personnel transmission of disease keys on limiting contact with A) patients.
B) personnel.
C) administrators.
D) physicians.
E) body fluids.
Q2) Diseases that can be transmitted from one person to another are termed A) symptomatic.
B) clinical.
C) acute.
D) latent.
E) communicable.
Q3) In order to prevent spread of microorganisms from the microbiology laboratory, the room air should be
A) under positive pressure.
B) under negative pressure.
C) filtered.
D) chilled.
E) under negative pressure AND filtered.
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Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antimicrobials that kill microorganisms have the suffix
A) -cidal.
B) -static.
C) -anti.
D) -genic.
Q2) The key characteristic of a useful antimicrobial is selective toxicity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Beta-lactam drugs are only effective against growing bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following drugs target peptidoglycan?
A) penicillin
B) cephalosporin
C) vancomycin
D) bacitracin
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q5) Broad-spectrum antibiotics have minimal effect on the normal flora.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Respiratory System Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are considered diseases of the lower respiratory tract?
A) diphtheria and pneumonia
B) influenza and diphtheria
C) tuberculosis and pneumonia
D) common cold and tuberculosis
Q2) About 60% of the bacterial pneumonias that require hospitalization of adults are caused by
A) S. pyogenes.
B) S. pneumoniae.
C) S. aureus.
D) K. pneumonia.
Q3) The causative agent of the pneumonia that causes permanent lung damage, may be nosocomial and has a high mortality if untreated is
A) S. pneumoniae.
B) K. pneumoniae.
C) S. pyogenes.
D) S. aureus.
Q4) A vaccine is available for protection from pneumococcal pneumonia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Skin Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most serious consequence of rubella is A) encephalitis.
B) meningitis.
C) deafness.
D) birth defects.
Q2) Diphtheroids are responsible for body odor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The existence of extensive scalded skin syndrome does not indicate that Staphylococcus is growing in all the affected areas. Why not?
A) This condition is caused by an exotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself.
B) This condition is caused by an endotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself.
C) This condition isn't caused by Staphylococcus at all.
D) This microbe doesn't grow in the skin-but the toxins it releases are transported by the blood vessels into the skin, where it achieves the observed effect.
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Chapter 23: Wound Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bites by little children typically cause few problems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The organism that grows anaerobically in dead or damaged tissue and produces dense colonies that are the color and size of sulfur particles is
A) Escherichia coli.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Actinomyces israelii.
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Q3) The infectious agent(s) that may arise in a wound from a human bite is/are
A) Escherichia coli.
B) Bacteroides.
C) Actinomyces israelii.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.
E) Bacteroides AND Staphylococcus aureus.
Q4) Streptobacillus moniliformis is unusual in that it
A) forms spores.
B) spontaneously forms L-forms.
C) is anaerobic.
D) has a cell wall.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Digestive System Infections
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Q1) The primary treatment for cholera is
A) the administration of antibiotics.
B) vaccination.
C) by blood transfusion.
D) simply rehydration.
E) vaccination AND by blood transfusion.
Q2) Amebiasis
A) is caused by C. parvum.
B) often causes a bloody diarrhea.
C) is an infection of the stomach.
D) is restricted to temperate climates.
E) is caused by C. parvum AND often causes a bloody diarrhea.
Q3) The most commonly identified waterborne illness in the United States is A) amoebiasis.
B) cryptosporidiosis.
C) balantidiasis.
D) giardiasis.
Q4) Cyclosporiosis is transmissable from person to person.
A)True
B)False
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Genitourinary Infections
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Q1) Why should scarring of a fallopian tube raise the risks of an ectopic pregnancy?
A) Scarring may slow the progression of the ovum (egg) from the fallopian tubes into the uterus. If it is fertilized by a sperm cell while it is stopped in the fallopian tube, it may implant there, resulting in an ectopic pregnancy.
B) Scarring can completely block the ovum (egg) from being able to exit the fallopian tube to enter the uterus. It may implant in the wall of the fallopian tube (since it can't enter the uterus) and result in an ectopic pregnancy.
C) Scarring may allow the sperm cells to enter the fallopian tubes and bind to the scar tissue. The inflammatory response generated when this occurs is termed an ectopic pregnancy.
D) Scarring of the fallopian tubes results from undiagnosed bacterial infections. These bacteria can also make the lining of the uterus inhospitable to implantation of a fertilized egg. If the fertilized egg can't implant into the wall of the uterus, it may travel back into the fallopian tube and implant there instead, resulting in an ectopic pregnancy.
Q2) Most strains of gonococcus do not survive long outside the body.
A)True
B)False
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Nervous System Infections
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Q1) Leprosy is
A) an infectious disease caused by a bacterium.
B) a disease of the blood.
C) also known as Hansen's disease.
D) described in the Bible.
E) an infectious disease caused by a bacterium, also known as Hansen's disease AND described in the Bible.
Q2) Which is true of the poliomyelitis virus?
A) nonenveloped
B) single-stranded DNA
C) double-stranded RNA
D) single-stranded RNA
E) nonenveloped AND single-stranded RNA
Q3) The transmission of leprosy is by
A) direct human-to-human contact.
B) the fecal-oral route.
C) contact with infected blood products.
D) contact with infected nasal secretions.
E) direct human-to-human contact AND contact with infected nasal secretions.
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Chapter 27: Blood and Lymphatic Infections
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Q1) Cytokine(s) released from macrophages in response to exposure to endotoxin is/are
A)tumor necrosis factor.
B)interleukin-1.
C)protein A.
D)alpha-toxin.
E)tumor necrosis factor AND interleukin-1.
Q2) The material released from bacteria that may lead to shock and death in septicemia is
A) exotoxin.
B) protein A
C) endotoxin.
D) interferon.
Q3) The common name for tularemia is
A) Bang's disease.
B) rabbit fever.
C) Hansen's disease.
D) Chagas' disease.
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Chapter 28: Hiv Disease and Complications of Immunodeficiency
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Q1) Live vaccines are generally unsafe to give to an AIDS patient.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mycobacterium avium complex organisms
A) survive phagocytosis.
B) are acid fast.
C) are widespread in the environment.
D) cause persistent bacteremia in immunodeficient people.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii is A) humans.
B) cats.
C) goats.
D) cows.
Q4) AIDS was first described as a new disease in A) 1970.
B) 1976.
C) 1981.
D) 1989.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) Nitrogen is
A) an important constituent of carbohydrates.
B) primarily fixed by fungi.
C) turned into ammonia by microorganisms.
D) ultimately used in making amino acids and nucleotides.
E) turned into ammonia by microorganisms AND ultimately used in making amino acids and nucleotides.
Q2) The rumen is
A) found in horses and rabbits.
B) found in carnivores.
C) an offshoot of the colon.
D) an anaerobic fermentation vessel found in herbivores.
E) found in horses and rabbits AND an offshoot of the colon.
Q3) The role that an organism plays in its environment is called its A) role.
B) position.
C) ecosystem.
D) niche.
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Chapter 30: Environmental Microbiology: Treatment of Water,
Wastes, and Polluted Habitats
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term "potable water" refers to water that is
A) safe to swim in but not drink.
B) safe to drink.
C) only good for irrigation.
D) contaminated with chemicals.
Q2) The term "potable water" refers to water that is not necessarily pure, but is safe to drink.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The approximate BOD value for raw sewage is
A) 2000-7000 milligrams per milliliter.
B) 500-800 grams per milliliter.
C) 0-50 kilograms per milliliter.
D) 300-400 milligrams per liter.
Q4) Vibrio cholera is most often associated with A) breathing air.
B) eating food.
C) drinking water.
D) touching animals.
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Chapter 31: Food Microbiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/59594
Sample Questions
Q1) Most bacteria are inhibited by a pH of
A) 7.2.
B) 7.0.
C) 6.0.
D) 4.5
Q2) Egg white is rich in the antimicrobial
A) lysosome.
B) RNAse.
C) penicillin.
D) lysozyme.
Q3) Yeast cannot convert grain to alcohol.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following are most likely to be found growing on salted or dried foods?
A) fungi
B) bacteria
C) viruses
D) protozoa
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