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Nursing Microbiology explores the fundamental principles of microbiology with an emphasis on the role of microorganisms in human health and disease. This course covers the structure, function, and classification of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, along with their modes of transmission, growth requirements, and pathogenic mechanisms. Special attention is given to infection control practices, epidemiology, immunology, and the significance of antimicrobial agents. Students will develop a foundational understanding of how microorganisms interact with the human body, which is crucial for preventing and managing infections in clinical nursing practice.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology and Infection Control for Health Professionals 6th Edition by Gary Lee
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Q1) Microbiology is the study of
A)microorganisms too small to be seen with the naked eye.
B)only those organisms that cause disease.
C)cells which can only be seen under a microscope.
D)processes by which microorganisms produce food.
E)only bacteria and viruses.
Answer: A
Q2) The emergence of new infectious agents can result from A)their development in an animal host.
B)new combinations of genes from different microbes.
C)encroachment of humans into native forests.
D)over-use and misuse of antibiotics.
E)all of the above.
Answer: E
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Q1) Which of the following may be used in a diagnostic microbiology laboratory to identify a bacterium?
A)Its growth characteristics on a blood agar plate.
B)Its biochemical properties.
C)Its ability to grow on a selective medium.
D)Its ability to grow in anaerobic conditions.
E)All of the above.
Answer: E
Q2) The simple compound formed by green plants from water and carbon dioxide using the sun's energy is
A)sucrose.
B)glucose.
C)starch.
D)fructose.
E)cellulose.
Answer: B
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Q1) The polysaccharide layer surrounding some bacteria is called a A)waxy layer.
B)capsid.
C)basal body.
D)glycocalyx.
E)any of the above.
Answer: D
Q2) During the logarithmic (log)phase of bacterial growth
A)the cells are in a resting state.
B)the cells are dividing at a minimal rate.
C)there is an exponential increase in cell numbers.
D)the cells are adapting to their new environment.
E)none of the above.
Answer: C
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Q1) The polymerase chain reaction (PCR)is used to
A)duplicate the chromosomes of bacteria.
B)produce billions of copies of a segment of DNA.
C)separate DNA fragments in an electromagnetic field.
D)stain fragments of DNA with a radioactive label.
E)determine the sequence of nucleotides in a segment of DNA.
Q2) Which of the following methods is used to distinguish between different strains of a bacterium?
A)Specialised transduction.
B)Growth characteristics.
C)Pulse field gel electrophoresis.
D)Colony morphology.
E)All of the above.
Q3) A codon is
A)a sequence of three nucleotide bases.
B)a sequence of four nucleotide bases.
C)a section of the ribosomal RNA.
D)the four nucleotide bases on transfer RNA.
E)the gene that directs protein synthesis.
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Q1) Which of the following viral infections has been eradicated from the world by vaccination?
A)Polio.
B)Smallpox.
C)Whooping cough.
D)Measles.
E)Mumps.
Q2) Some viruses are associated with the development of cancer.An important characteristic of cancer cells is
A)the lack of contact inhibition.
B)the inability to synthesise protein.
C)the slow metabolism.
D)no nuclear membrane.
E)the lack of staining properties.
Q3) Which of the following is TRUE?
A)Viruses that infect humans never infect other animals.
B)All viruses can only attack one type of cell.
C)Each virus attaches to a specific receptor site on its target cells.
D)Viruses that infect birds do not infect humans.
E)All of the above.
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Q1) Which of the following statements about fungi is TRUE?
A)Fungi may be unicellular or multicellular.
B)All fungi are eucaryotic.
C)A few fungi are pathogenic to humans.
D)Fungi are heterotrophic.
E)All of the above.
Q2) Moulds usually reproduce by
A)binary fission.
B)budding.
C)forming asexual spores.
D)schizogony.
E)forming gametes.
Q3) Toxoplasmosis
A)is usually a mild illness in adults.
B)can be acquired by consumption of undercooked meats.
C)can be transmitted in cat faeces.
D)can cause congenital defects in an unborn baby.
E)all of the above.
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Q1) Which of the following viruses is potentially associated with the development of cancer?
A)Human papilloma virus.
B)Epstein-Barr virus.
C)Human herpes virus 8.
D)Hepatitis B virus.
E)All of the above.
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)The composition of the intestinal microbiota never changes.
B)Stomach acid stimulates the growth of pathogenic microorganisms.
C)Intestinal bacteria are always aerobic.
D)All intestinal bacteria are potentially harmful.
E)None of the above.
Q3) The microbes that make up the microbiota of humans
A)can change over a person's lifetime.
B)are influenced by factors such as age,nutritional status and environment.
C)can cause infections in the host.
D)provide various benefits to the host.
E)all of the above.

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Q1) The reservoir of an infection is
A)referred to as a fomite.
B)always a person who has the disease.
C)the habitat where the microorganisms can persist for long periods.
D)always another human or other animal.
E)the same as the source of the infection.
Q2) If it is stated that 12% of a population acquire a particular disease each year,the figure of 12% is the ______________ of the disease.
A)incidence.
B)prevalence.
C)attack rate.
D)morbidity.
E)case rate.
Q3) A fomite is
A)a sponge used for bathing a patient with antiseptic.
B)a disease spread by infected animals.
C)a human pathogen that is able to survive in soil or water.
D)an inanimate object that can carry microorganisms on its surface.
E)an antiseptic solution used for decontamination of hands.
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an immunodeficiency condition?
A)Suppression of the bone marrow.
B)Complement deficiency.
C)Improper development of the thymus gland.
D)Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.
E)Infection with HIV.
Q2) The large granular lymphocytes that are capable of destroying tumour cells are called
A)natural killer cells.
B)macrophages.
C)basophils.
D)monocytes.
E)pattern recognition cells.
Q3) Toxoids are
A)antibodies against toxins.
B)lipopolysaccharides of Gram-negative bacteria.
C)proteins that don't stimulate the immune system.
D)inactivated toxins that are immunogenic.
E)the active components of all vaccines.
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Q1) Which of the following is FALSE? Endotoxins
A)are part of the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria.
B)may produce septic shock.
C)are a primary cause of death in meningococcal patients.
D)may cause blockage of blood vessels and tissue necrosis.
E)can cause release of pyrogens and hence fever.
Q2) Viruses can attach to target cells by
A)hooks.
B)fibronectin.
C)pili.
D)suckers.
E)envelope spikes.
Q3) A biofilm
A)enables bacteria to move through fluids.
B)facilitates quorum sensing between bacterial cells.
C)allows host defence cells to gain access to bacteria.
D)is not normally produced in the human body.
E)is readily removed with disinfectants.
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Q1) In terms of processing requirements,a bedpan would be classified as
A)critical.
B)semi-critical.
C)non-critical.
D)high risk.
E)moderate risk.
Q2) The first person to use disinfectants to reduce the rate of death from infections in surgery was
A)Joseph Lister.
B)Ignaz Semmelweis.
C)Robert Koch.
D)Edward Jenner.
E)John Snow.
Q3) A steam steriliser (autoclave)is effective because
A)water boils at a higher temperature under pressure.
B)packaging material can be dried prior to removal from the steriliser.
C)it destroys all microorganisms.
D)it destroys all viruses.
E)all of the above.
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Q1) A reverse transcriptase inhibitor,such as zidovudine,is used to treat
A)any viral infection.
B)human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)infection.
C)most protozoal infections.
D)some fungal infections.
E)any systemic infection.
Q2) A possible side effect of penicillin therapy is
A)neurological disturbance.
B)discolouration of the teeth.
C)renal impairment.
D)anaphylactic shock.
E)all of the above.
Q3) The 'half-life' of an antimicrobial drug refers to the time that it takes for
A)the drug to kill half the pathogens which are present.
B)half the drug to break down during storage.
C)the concentration of the drug in the bloodstream to fall to half its original level.
D)half the drug to be absorbed from the intestine.
E)half the target bacteria to be killed.
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Q1) Which of the following are the most common causes of hospital-acquired infections?
A)Blood-borne viruses.
B)Bacteria.
C)Fungi.
D)Gastrointestinal viruses.
E)Candida.
Q2) Sterile gloves should be used when
A)taking a patient's blood pressure.
B)assisting a patient to walk to the toilet.
C)inserting a urinary catheter.
D)taking a patient's temperature.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following tends to have the highest incidence of healthcare associated infections?
A)Large public hospitals.
B)Small public hospitals.
C)Small private hospitals.
D)Aged-care facilities.
E)Dental surgeries.
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Q1) Which of the following is FALSE? Trachoma
A) is an eye infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis.
B)has a high incidence among Aboriginal people in the Kimberley region.
C)is carried by mosquitoes.
D) can be treated with antibiotics.
E) if left untreated can cause blindness.
Q2) Herd immunity
A)applies to infectious diseases of animals that can affect humans.
B)states that only immunised people are protected.
C)implies that immunised people can pass on their immunity to close contacts.
D)states that the larger the group the more difficult it is to achieve full immunisation.
E)states that high immunisation rates also protect the unimmunised.
Q3) The highest rate of notifications of communicable diseases in Australia each year usually comes from
A)NSW.
B)Queensland.
C)Northern Territory.
D)Victoria.
E)South Australia.
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Q1) If a patient's antibody titre to hepatitis B has recently changed from less than 20 to 640,it can be assumed that the patient has A)not got hepatitis B.
B)seroconverted.
C)convalesced.
D)recovered.
E)immune deficiency.
Q2) The test that enables the simultaneous amplification and detection of nucleic acid is A)multiplex PCR
B)reverse transcriptase PCR
C)broad-range PCR
D)real-time PCR
E)qualitative PCR.
Q3) Testing a patient's blood for antibodies to an infectious agent is called A)culture and sensitivity.
B)microscopy.
C)molecular biology.
D)serology.
E)serotyping.
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Q1) When the varicella zoster virus reactivates late in life,it causes
A)cancer.
B)shingles.
C)autoimmune disease.
D)measles.
E)dementia.
Q2) Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis
A)can be transmitted in eye clinics.
B)is usually transmitted by flies.
C)is highly sensitive to common disinfectants.
D)is not very contagious.
E)must be immediately treated with topical chloramphenicol.
Q3) Impetigo is a(n)
A)rash caused by a virus.
B)allergic reaction to an infection.
C)infection only seen in children.
D)bacterial skin infection.
E)fungal infection of subcutaneous tissue.
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Q1) Inflammation of the larynx and trachea
A)is most frequently caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
B)is a life-threatening condition requiring urgent intubation.
C)occurs predominantly in the elderly.
D)is known as croup.
E)may spread throughout the body causing systemic effects.
Q2) The common cold is caused by
A)adenoviruses.
B)rhinoviruses.
C)parainfluenza viruses.
D)coronaviruses.
E)all of the above.
Q3) What causes glandular fever?
A)Hendra virus.
B)Epstein-Barr (EB)virus.
C)Streptococcus pyogenes.
D)Haemophilus influenzae.
E)Respiratory syncytial virus.
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Q1) Haemolytic uraemic syndrome is caused by
A)a strain of E.coli that produces a Shiga toxin.
B)Salmonella found in raw chicken meat.
C)a streptococcal infection of the kidneys.
D)exotoxins secreted by Staphylococcus aureus.
E)intestinal bacteria that spread to the urinary tract.
Q2) Cholera is a disease which
A)only occurs in humans.
B)is often transmitted via contaminated drinking water.
C)can be prevented by vaccination.
D)is rare in Australia.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Inflammatory diarrhoea
A)usually involves the small intestine.
B)is a profuse diarrhoea without blood and white cells.
C)is often accompanied by fever.
D)does not result from the action of toxins.
E)all of the above.
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Q1) Which of the following diseases is characteristically transmitted to humans in the urine of animals?
A)Leptospirosis.
B)Q fever.
C)Melioidosis.
D)Anthrax.
E)Listeriosis.
Q2) Toxoplasmosis is
A)caused by a protozoan.
B)transmitted in cat faeces.
C)usually a mild infection in most adults.
D)all of the above.
E)none of the above.
Q3) Infective endocarditis
A)often presents as a fever of unknown origin.
B)most often affects a normal heart valve.
C)is always due to infection with streptococci.
D)is diagnosed by the presence of a heart murmur.
E)all of the above.
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Q1) A brain abscess can result from
A)head trauma.
B)neurosurgery.
C)middle ear infection.
D)all of the above.
E)none of the above.
Q2) Meningitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae
A)cannot be treated with antibiotics.
B)is less common due to vaccination.
C)is common in head-injured patients.
D)usually follows splenectomy.
E)is transmitted by mosquitoes.
Q3) A rabies-like virus transmitted by Australian fruit bats is
A)Menangle virus.
B)Hendra virus.
C)Nipah virus.
D)Lyssavirus.
E)Barmah Forest virus.
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Q1) In between attacks of genital herpes,the causative agent
A)exists within nerve cells.
B)is easily obtained by culture of nerve tissue.
C)can be found in genital secretions by Gram staining.
D)is never present in genital secretions.
E)has entered the bloodstream.
Q2) Gonorrhoea is a significant problem because
A)all infections result in severe genital symptoms.
B)the infection can be transmitted via the placenta to the foetus.
C)the organism is becoming increasingly resistant to antibiotics.
D)the organism is resistant to drying so may be acquired from inanimate objects.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Donovanosis
A)does not occur in Australia.
B)is caused by the bacterium Klebsiella granulomatis.
C)characteristically is a urethritis in men and women.
D)all of the above.
E)none of the above.
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