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Nursing Management of Adult Clients Exam Bank - 1873 Verified Questions

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Nursing Management of Adult Clients Exam Bank

Course Introduction

This course focuses on the principles and practices involved in the care and management of adult clients experiencing acute and chronic health conditions. Emphasizing holistic and evidence-based approaches, it covers assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation of nursing interventions tailored to meet the unique needs of adult patients. Students will explore critical thinking, effective communication, interdisciplinary collaboration, and leadership skills essential for delivering safe, ethical, and high-quality care. Special attention is given to patient education, advocacy, cultural competence, and the management of complex health problems in diverse adult populations across various healthcare settings.

Recommended Textbook

Medical Surgical Nursing Clinical Management for Positive Outcomes Single Volume 8th Edition

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82 Chapters

1873 Verified Questions

1873 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Health Promotion and Disease Prevention

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/3999

Sample Questions

Q1) During a nursing history before a physical exam, a nurse identifies a client as being in a violent relationship. The most important intervention by the nurse at this time is to

A) ask the physician to order a series of x-rays to look for old broken bones.

B) call the police if the abusive partner is in the waiting room.

C) help the woman develop an individual plan to diminish future abuse.

D) refer her to the local battered women's shelter.

Answer: C

Q2) The nurse planning a health promotion program with clients in the community will focus least on

A) assisting the clients to make informed decisions.

B) organizing methods to achieve optimal mental health.

C) providing information and skills to maintain lifestyle changes.

D) reducing genetic risk factors for illness.

Answer: D

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Chapter 2: Health Assessment

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Inspection

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

Answer: C

Q2) The nurse is collecting a health history on a middle-aged African American male. The nurse asks about past blood pressure screening because the incidence of hypertension is higher in this ethnic group than in others. This is an example of A) a generalization based on the nurse's limited experience with African Americans. B) bias, and the nurse should not question the client about blood pressure screening. C) stereotyping the client based on the client's ethnic/racial group.

D) using valid research data to focus questions on the client's specific risks.

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: Critical Thinking

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Sample Questions

Q1) It is crucial for the nurse to be able to make sound decisions using critical thinking because

A) it is the most efficient use of the nurse's time and resources.

B) it uses previously learned knowledge in predictable situations.

C) most clients have problems for which there are no textbook answers.

D) nurses can recognize problems rapidly and provide speedy responses to situations.

Answer: C

Q2) A nurse who is alert to changes, confident, open-minded, proactive, and questioning is displaying which characteristics?

A) Alfaro's Attitudes and Characteristics of a Critical Thinker

B) Benner's Five Levels of Competency in Nurses

C) Hawk's Model of Critical Thinking in Registered Nurses

D) Universal Intellectual Standards

Answer: A

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Chapter 4: Complementary and Alternative Therapies

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse taking the history of a client with rheumatoid arthritis might be alerted to the client's use of CAM when the client says

A) "A bunch of nuts believe that putting nice smells in the air cures arthritis."

B) "Doctors don't know everything, you know."

C) "I've heard something about alternative medicine. What is that?"

D) "What do you think about biofeedback?"

Q2) A young Hispanic woman tells the nurse that she is going to have a healing ritual to center her spirit after the recent death of her husband. The nurse recognizes the alternative medicine system of

A) Ayurveda.

B) Curanderismo.

C) Reiki.

D) Tai Chi.

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Chapter 5: Ambulatory Health Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) In comparing the ambulatory care setting to an inpatient hospital setting, the nurseinstructor is correct in stating that the ambulatory care setting

A) has had so many cost increases that a visit is just as costly as the hospital. B) is already in decline and offers limited employment opportunities.

C) may create a feeling of greater stress to the client than a hospital setting.

D) provides an environment where the client is less at risk for nosocomial infection.

Q2) The facility least suited to the provision of primary health care is a(n)

A) ambulatory care center.

B) emergency department.

C) HMO.

D) hospital outpatient clinic.

Q3) The nurse who is seeking legal guidance in delegating assignments to assist workers in an ambulatory care setting would best consult

A) agency protocols.

B) recently published texts.

C) the agency's legal counsel.

D) the state nurse practice act.

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Chapter 6: Acute Health Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) A planned program of loss prevention and liability control best defines

A) client satisfaction.

B) clinical pathway.

C) quality assurance.

D) risk management.

Q2) The nurse who is delegating care to unlicensed assistive personnel should keep in mind that most of these workers have an educational background consisting of

A) completion of high school.

B) less than 1 year of college.

C) more than 1 year of college.

D) on-the-job experience.

Q3) A registered nurse (RN) is considering delegating some tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which of the following things should the nurse consider when making this decision? (Select all that apply.)

A) Does the task have exact, unchanging directions?

B) Does the UAP want to do the task?

C) Is an RN or other licensed personnel required to do this task?

D) Is the UAP competent to perform this task?

E) Is there a licensed provider, such as an RN, available to supervise?

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Chapter 7: Critical Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) The population that is increasingly using critical care units and needing specialized nursing care is the population of A) elderly.

B) middle-age adults.

C) underserved pregnant women.

D) uninsured.

Q2) A nurse working in critical care would plan interactions with clients' families based on the understanding that families most need A) knowledge.

B) respect.

C) sleep.

D) spiritual support.

Q3) A nurse working in the critical care unit would assess the client's complexity by asking questions related to A) ability of the client and family to make sound decisions.

B) effect of family, stress, and environmental factors on the client.

C) interplay of multiple medical problems on the current condition.

D) the client's ability to use compensatory coping mechanisms.

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Chapter 8: Home Health Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) A home health nurse has a client with permanent left-sided weakness after a stroke; the client is cared for by his wife and daughter. The nurse will design the plan of care to

A) help the wife manage the home.

B) limit input from the wife and daughter.

C) reduce the impact of the client's health care beliefs.

D) stimulate the client to become independent.

Q2) The home health nurse uses the Omaha System for planning care and is able to evaluate the client's health status with the portion of that tool known as

A) Assessment and Analysis.

B) Intervention Scheme.

C) Problem Classification.

D) Problem Rating Scale.

Q3) A home health nurse explains to a client that the Omaha System was designed to facilitate

A) client understanding of the overall health care plan.

B) documentation of unusual events and associated malpractice risks.

C) nursing practice, documentation, and data management.

D) the nurse's ability to visit more clients during the workday.

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Chapter 9: Long-Term Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Hill-Burton Hospital Survey and Construction Act of 1946 provided building funds and resulted in nursing homes that

A) allowed for flexible visiting hours.

B) resembled hospitals.

C) were located only in rural settings.

D) were to have at least 100 beds.

Q2) After a long-term care facility nurse receives a phone order from the physician, the nurse must ensure that the order is countersigned in A) 8 hours.

B) 12 hours.

C) 24 hours.

D) 48 hours.

Q3) A nurse teaching a new resident and family about the Resident Rights outlined by OBRA would include which information? A resident has the right to A) be informed of rights, rules, and responsibilities.

B) choose activities and care.

C) have clean, safe, home-like environment.

D) organize and participate in resident groups.

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Chapter 10: Rehabilitation

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Sample Questions

Q1) The rehabilitation nurse explains that the transdisciplinary approach to rehabilitation provides the client with

A) more efficient service at a greatly reduced cost.

B) reduced number of personnel with whom to interact.

C) reduced time spent on therapeutic modalities.

D) shortened stay in the rehabilitation unit.

Q2) The rehabilitation nurse reminds a client that according to the International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health (ICF), the broad theoretical qualification criterion for rehabilitation services is that the client

A) has impaired mobility in two limbs.

B) has impairments that lead to reduced ability to engage in activities.

C) is no longer capable of independent living.

D) requires assistance in mobility, dressing, and toileting.

Q3) A rehabilitation nurse scores the client at "1" in a functional area on the FIM. This means the client has

A) full independence in that area.

B) independence in that area with use of an assistive device.

C) partial dependence in need of significant assistance.

D) total dependence.

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Clients with Fluid Imbalances

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client has a serum sodium level of 115 mEq/L. The nurse has initiated a slow IV infusion of hypertonic saline solution per IV pump in a large vein. Which other intervention should the nurse implement as a priority?

A) Assess the client for dysphagia.

B) Have on-hand a calcium-channel blocker in case of overdose.

C) Initiate seizure and safety precautions.

D) Start a second IV in case the first one infiltrates.

Q2) A client has hypervolemic hyponatremia. The assessment finding the nurse would find inconsistent with this condition is

A) dysrhythmias

B) hypotension.

C) jugular vein distention.

D) S3 gallop.

Q3) A client with dehydration is being weighed on a standing scale next to the bed. The most important action by the nurse is to

A) assist the client to prevent falls.

B) calibrate the scale per manufacturer's directions.

C) document the weight and compare it with prior ones.

D) explain to the client what is going to happen.

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Clients with Electrolyte Imbalances

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21 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client is being discharged after successful treatment for hyperphosphatemia. The nurse would know that diet teaching has been effective when the client says, "I can't eat large amounts of A) bananas."

B) dairy products."

C) fatty foods."

D) green leafy vegetables."

Q2) For a client in renal failure with an abnormally elevated serum potassium level, the priority assessment by the nurse would be the client's A) electrocardiogram (ECG) strips.

B) level of consciousness.

C) serial BUN and creatinine levels.

D) urine output.

Q3) The factor in the client's history that the nurse assesses as a risk for the development of hypermagnesemia is

A) Addison's disease.

B) gastrointestinal disease.

C) vomiting.

D) water intoxication.

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Chapter 13: Acid-Base Balance

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse explains to a concerned family member of a client who has developed respiratory acidosis that the kidneys

A) achieve optimal compensation immediately.

B) are unable to compensate.

C) can achieve optimal compensation in about 3 days.

D) will compensate within 24 hours.

Q2) The nurse is caring for a client who has developed metabolic acidosis and has an anion gap of 12 mEq/L. The nurse informs a family member that this finding indicates that the client's acidosis is caused by

A) accelerated lipid metabolism.

B) an increase of fixed acid.

C) increases in carbonic acid.

D) loss of bicarbonate.

Q3) For a 34-year-old client in renal failure who develops acidosis, the nurse would assess for

A) drowsiness.

B) hypoventilation.

C) muscle hyperactivity.

D) paresthesias.

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Chapter 14: Clients Having Surgery

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38 Verified Questions

38 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse explains to a client that because of alterations in liver function caused by cirrhosis, the client is predisposed to postoperative fluid shifts and wound infection related to

A) elevated creatinine phosphokinase levels.

B) elevated lactic dehydrogenase levels.

C) low albumin levels.

D) low blood urea nitrogen levels.

Q2) In the first 3 days after surgery, the nurse would anticipate the fluid and electrolyte adjustment of

A) elevated hematocrit level.

B) fluid retention.

C) increase in serum potassium level.

D) increased urine output.

Q3) For a client admitted to the PACU with an oral airway in place, the nursing intervention that would be inappropriate is

A) allowing the client to spit out the airway.

B) removing the airway when the client becomes responsive.

C) suctioning the client's secretions as needed.

D) taping the airway in place so it does not fall out.

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Perspectives in Genetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse working with clients who seek genetic counseling or testing helps the client and family manage potential psychosocial distress that can accompany test results, including (Select all that apply)

A) disclosure of nonrelatedness.

B) disrupted family processes.

C) guilt feelings for passing on diseases.

D) impairment in self-esteem.

E) survivor guilt.

Q2) The Human Genome Project (HGP) was begun in 1990 to A) alter the course of inherited disorders.

B) clone an animal, then a human.

C) determine the location of genes on chromosomes.

D) replicate the structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).

Q3) A nurse educating clients in a genetic screening clinic explains that recessive genes on autosomal chromosomes can be passed on

A) to children of either gender.

B) only to males.

C) only to females.

D) to females after skipping a generation.

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Page 17

Chapter 16: Perspectives in Oncology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client has worked for 2 years installing insulation containing asbestos. The nurse will determine further assessment questions based on the understanding that occupational exposure to carcinogens represents _____% of all human cancers.

A) <2

B) 2-8

C) 10-12

D) >12

Q2) The number of new cancer cases diagnosed has increased steadily since 1900. The nurse explains to a client that one of the reasons for this increase is that

A) cancer is related to most birth defects.

B) many false-positive cancer results are reported.

C) people who live longer are less prone to cancer.

D) statistical analysis and reporting are more accurate.

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Chapter 17: Clients with Cancer

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Sample Questions

Q1) The client whose father and uncle died of colorectal cancer asks the nurse how to modify a diet to reduce the risk of this cancer. The nurse can suggest

A) decreasing consumption of alcohol.

B) decreasing consumption of unrefined whole-grain products.

C) increasing consumption of organ meats.

D) increasing consumption of vitamin A.

Q2) A 31-year-old male client who is to receive chemotherapy for treatment of lymphoma has expressed concern about the possible side effects of chemotherapy on reproduction and fertility. An appropriate response by the nurse to these concerns is to

A) discuss pretreatment sperm banking as a reproductive alternative.

B) reassure the client that sexual function will return to normal after treatments.

C) review sexual functioning and discuss the previous pregnancy.

D) suggest artificial insemination for the client's wife.

Q3) The nurse assesses that the client most at risk for breast cancer is the

A) 26-year-old multipara whose father died from lung cancer.

B) 38-year-old primigravida who had menarche at age 9.

C) 42-year-old multipara who had menarche at age 14.

D) 68-year-old nullipara receiving treatment for osteoporosis.

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Chapter 18: Clients with Wounds

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client has a chronic, nonhealing ulcer on the lower leg. The nurse thinks the client could benefit from negative-pressure wound therapy. The most appropriate action by the nurse would be to

A) ask the charge nurse to discuss the matter with the physician.

B) call the physician and request an order for a negative pressure machine.

C) keep track of supplies used currently to estimate the cost of continuing the present regimen.

D) request the physician write an order to consult the wound care nurse.

Q2) A client is being discharged and will need to perform wound care and dressing changes in the home on a large, open wound. When designing a teaching plan for discharge, the nurse should include which of the following elements? (Select all that apply.)

A) A videotape of the wound care procedure if possible

B) Appropriate ways to irrigate the wound

C) Cost of wound care supplies

D) Detailed written instructions

E) Types of supplies the client will need

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Perspectives on Infectious Disease and Bioterrorism

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Sample Questions

Q1) A notation on a client's health record notes that she has a subclinical infection. The nurse assessing this client would expect

A) clinical manifestations of the disease that are not as dramatic as usual.

B) fever with no elevation in the white blood cell count.

C) no systemic manifestations of disease.

D) reports of fatigue and lassitude after the infection.

Q2) An elderly client was admitted yesterday for dehydration. The client has an IV infusion and a Foley catheter. Today the client appears restless and will not eat. The client's vital signs are T 99.2° F, P 88 beats/min, R 20 breaths/min, BP (142/82) mm Hg. The nurse should first assess the client further for

A) an infection.

B) medication usage.

C) orientation status.

D) stroke/TIA.

Q3) The nurse can best instruct a client to avoid the acquisition of hookworm by A) advising the client not to eat raw pork products.

B) advising the client to drink only bottled water when traveling.

C) encouraging the client to wear shoes outdoors.

D) teaching the client good hand-washing technique.

Page 21

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Chapter 20: Clients with Pain

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a client from the Mexican culture who is moaning and groaning in response to pain. The nurse plans care understanding that this response is viewed in the client's culture as

A) a means to eliminate the pain.

B) a method of expressing unmet needs.

C) a woman-like and weak response to pain.

D) an expression of acceptance of pain.

Q2) A client who has been in chronic pain after an automobile accident successfully reduces his pain through a combination of biofeedback and meditation. The conclusion the nurse may draw from his success is that the

A) pain was acute in nature.

B) pain was psychological in nature.

C) placebo effect occurred.

D) therapy caused physiologic changes.

Q3) The client with neuropathic pain develops allodynia, which A) can be relieved by daily doses of opioids.

B) is a vague pain that is difficult for the client to describe.

C) is pain due to a stimulus that does not normally cause pain.

D) responds to NSAIDs taken several times a day.

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Perspectives in Palliative Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) A hospice client is clearly dehydrated and the family is arguing over whether or not the client should receive intravenous fluids. The nurse would guide this discussion based on what knowledge about dehydration in the terminally ill client?

A) If the terminally ill client complains of thirst, he/she is dehydrated.

B) Peripheral edema in the terminally ill client indicates fluid overload.

C) The emphasis of all treatments should be on comfort and reduction of symptoms.

D) The only choices for hydration are oral and intravenous.

Q2) A hospice nurse reevaluates the pain management plan for a client who requires more than

A) four rescue doses in a 24-hour period.

B) one rescue dose in a 48-hour period.

C) three rescue doses in a 48-hour period.

D) two rescue doses in a 24-hour period.

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Chapter 22: Clients with Sleep and Rest Disorders and Fatigue

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse explains to a client with severe depression and who takes tricyclic antidepressants that the effectiveness of this type of medication may be a result of

A) increased stage 4 sleep.

B) prevention of night awakenings.

C) prevention of sleep terrors.

D) suppression of REM sleep.

Q2) To best promote improved sleep patterns for the hospitalized client, the nurse should

A) administer mild sleeping medications.

B) limit television and radio music during the night.

C) provide a light, complex-carbohydrate snack.

D) wake the client only during REM sleep.

Q3) The nurse explains that clients with narcolepsy often also experience cataplexy, which is a/an

A) inability to move for several minutes on awakening.

B) seizure-like episode with tonic and clonic movements.

C) sudden loss of muscle tone that lasts for several minutes.

D) trance-like period of 5 minutes or more.

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Chapter 23: Clients with Psychosocial and Mental Health

Concerns

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse on the general medical floor of a hospital has assessed a client as having severe manifestations of a psychiatric disorder. The most beneficial action by the nurse would be to

A) arrange a consultation with a mental health specialist.

B) document the findings and leave a note for the physician.

C) encourage the client to continue taking prescribed medications.

D) not discuss the problem in order to avoid upsetting the client.

Q2) A client with depression says to the nurse, "I have been on this antidepressant for 5 days and I still feel awful." The nurse can be most supportive by responding

A) "Depression is a horrible feeling. I am sure that you will be getting results from your medication in a few days."

B) "Depressive feelings make you feel hopeless. I will call your doctor and see if I can get an order for something to make you feel better."

C) "It's tough to wait for relief. Many drugs take several weeks to manage symptoms."

D) "You mustn't feel so down. Everyone reacts to medications in a slightly different way."

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Page 25

Chapter 24: Clients with Substance Abuse Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse evaluates that the client has learned an important fact about cocaine use when he says

A) "Cocaine is not addictive. I can use it as a recreational drug."

B) "Cocaine withdrawal is relatively easy. There is only mild fatigue."

C) "I know a young person can have a heart attack from using cocaine."

D) "Since cocaine is a depressant, one should not drive under its influence."

Q2) The nurse reminds the client that in the United States, the most widely used psychoactive substance is

A) alcohol.

B) amphetamines.

C) caffeine.

D) marijuana.

Q3) The nurse recognizes a potential health threat to an alcoholic client who is using the drug disulfiram (Antabuse) when the nurse reads in the health record that the client is also taking

A) Coumadin.

B) diphenhydramine (Benadryl) tablets.

C) Milk of Magnesia.

D) penicillin.

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Page 26

Chapter 25: Assessment of the Musculoskeletal System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse preparing a client for a dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) test explains that the purpose of this test is to measure A) amount of joint deformity.

B) degree of bone loss.

C) degree of fracture healing.

D) presence of bone infection.

Q2) The nurse assisting with an arthrocentesis provides which intervention after the procedure is over? The nurse

A) applies a compression dressing.

B) gives the client a tetanus shot.

C) teaches the client crutch-walking.

D) wraps a heating pad around the knee.

Q3) A client describes ripping sounds in his knee during a fall while skiing. The nurse explains to the client that the diagnostic test that will provide the best data is a(n) A) arthrogram.

B) bone scan.

C) myelogram.

D) x-ray film.

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Chapter 26: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse admitting a 22-year-old client with septic arthritis in the knees would inquire about recent infection with A) a respiratory tract virus. B) gonorrhea.

C) strep throat.

D) urinary tract manifestations.

Q2) The nurse discussing treatment options with a client with Paget's disease will focus on the most frequent treatment, which is with A) bisphosphonates.

B) calcium supplements.

C) heat and cold application.

D) splinting.

Q3) A client has septic arthritis of the knee and the inflammation is beginning to subside. The best nursing action to prevent joint contractures at this point is to A) encourage the client to get out of bed and ambulate.

B) have physical therapy plan an active ROM regimen.

C) immobilize the joint in a sling until the infection resolves. D) provide passive ROM for the affected joint.

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Chapter 27: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal

Trauma or Overuse

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Sample Questions

Q1) The assessment that would alert the nurse to the possibility of cast syndrome in a client with a spica cast is

A) abdominal distention.

B) diminished pulses in the foot.

C) "hot spot" felt on cast.

D) musty, unpleasant odor to cast.

Q2) A client is admitted to the emergency department with a complete fracture of the left radius. The nurse understands that with this type of fracture, the bone is A) displaced with fragments out of normal position.

B) fractured only through one cortex of bone.

C) fractured through the entire bone.

D) fragmented with multiple pieces of bone.

Q3) The initial process of bone healing occurring at the fracture site in the first 72 hours is A) formation of a hematoma.

B) formation of a provisional callus.

C) proliferation of osteoblasts.

D) reabsorption of the clot.

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Page 29

Chapter 28: Assessment of Nutrition and the Digestive System

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4026

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse assessing clients for nutritional status is aware that a client would need a more in-depth analysis when the client complains of frequent nutrition-related manifestations, including (Select all that apply)

A) abdominal pain.

B) changes in weight or appetite.

C) diarrhea.

D) indigestion.

E) nausea and vomiting.

Q2) The nurse is assessing the abdomen of an obese 67-year-old client who is admitted to the emergency department. The finding noted during the abdominal examination that requires further assessment is

A) flat appearance below the umbilicus.

B) rounded abdominal contour.

C) umbilicus that is concave.

D) visible peristalsis.

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Chapter 29: Management of Clients with Malnutrition

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4027

Sample Questions

Q1) The client manifestation noted by the nurse as inconsistent with malnutrition is A) constipation.

B) delayed wound healing.

C) fatigue.

D) postural hypotension.

Q2) The nurse explains to a client with renal failure who requires an oral nutritional supplement that the most appropriate brand would be A) Boost Plus.

B) Nepro.

C) Nutra Shake.

D) Probalance.

Q3) The nurse can reduce the risk of access site infection in a client receiving TPN by A) adding antibiotics to the TPN fluid.

B) changing the catheter every 48 hours.

C) changing the transparent dressing every 72 hours.

D) using a semipermeable dressing on the insertion site.

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Chapter 30: Management of Clients with Ingestive Disorders

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29 Verified Questions

29 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4028

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is conducting smoking cessation clinics and educates the clients they should report which finding in their mouths to their physicians immediately?

A) A patch that is red and has a velvety appearance

B) Elevated yellow-white lesions with a roughened, leathery appearance

C) Lesions that look like milk curds and adhere firmly to tissue

D) Multiple, concave, ulcer-like lesions

Q2) A client who had extensive oral surgery 5 days earlier has the nursing diagnosis of Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements related to altered oral mucosa and surgical procedure. The most appropriate caution by the nurse when the client resumes oral feedings is

A) "It will be painful to eat for some time."

B) "Often clients lose their sense of taste following surgery."

C) "The capacity of your mouth will be smaller."

D) "You may have difficulty feeling the food in your mouth."

Q3) The nurse caring for a client receiving diuretics who develops parotitis would

A) ask the physician to discontinue the diuretics.

B) discontinue the use of dental floss.

C) encourage the client to suck sugarless candy.

D) restrict oral fluids.

Page 32

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Chapter 31: Management of Clients with Digestive Disorders

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4029

Sample Questions

Q1) A client with a duodenal ulcer complains of a sudden onset of severe pain. In which order should the nurse perform the following activities? (select all that apply)

A) Assess the patency of the patient's IV line.

B) Call the physician.

C) Have the nurses' aid obtain a set of vital signs.

D) Perform a complete abdominal examination.

E) Prepare to administer IV pain medication.

Q2) A client asks the nurse about the prescribed diet after gastric surgery. The nurse clarifies that a high-protein, high-fat, low-carbohydrate, dry diet is the best choice after gastric surgery because this diet

A) does not cause diarrhea.

B) does not dilate the stomach.

C) is quickly digested.

D) is slow to leave the stomach.

Q3) Before tube insertion, the nurse performs the NEX measurement, which is the

A) distance from the tip of the nose to the ear lobe and to the xiphoid.

B) length of a tube from the hub to the tip converted to centimeters.

C) distance from the ear lobe to the umbilicus.

D) width of the lumen of the tube multiplied by the length.

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Page 33

Chapter 32: Assessment of Elimination

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27 Verified Questions

27 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4030

Sample Questions

Q1) Percussion

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

Q2) Auscultation

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

Q3) Inspection

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

Q4) Palpation

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

34

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Chapter 33: Management of Clients with Intestinal Disorders

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) takes sulfasalazine (Azulfadine) for management of manifestations. To counteract a side effect of this drug, the nurse would encourage the client to increase intake of

A) any citrus fruits.

B) bananas and apples.

C) fish and seafood.

D) peas and beans.

Q2) In caring for a client with Crohn's disease and the nursing diagnosis of Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements related to diarrhea, the nurse would plan to observe for

A) bradycardia.

B) increased urine output.

C) increasing blood pressure.

D) manifestations of anemia.

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35

Chapter 34: Management of Clients with Urinary Disorders

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) During a bladder training program for a client with spinal cord injury using intermittent catheterization, the client suddenly complains of a throbbing headache. Noting that the client's blood pressure is elevated, the priority action by the nurse is to A) catheterize the client.

B) limit fluids for the remainder of the day.

C) notify the physician immediately.

D) place the client flat in bed.

Q2) An elderly client who lives at home is brought to the clinic by her daughter. The daughter states that the client no longer goes out to shop for herself and so is not eating right. The daughter is worried about the client losing weight and seeming depressed. The client appears slightly dehydrated. The nurse should assess the client for A) dementia.

B) elder abuse.

C) incontinence.

D) medication misuse.

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Chapter 35: Management of Clients with Renal Disorders

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Given the diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis, the appropriate nursing diagnosis would be

A) Deficient Knowledge related to decreasing risk factors

B) Fatigue related to increased metabolic demands and anemia

C) Impaired Urinary Elimination related to dysuria, pyuria, and frequency

D) Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume related to fever, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

Q2) When obtaining the history of a client with acute glomerulonephritis, the nurse should be sure to ask about

A) a history of hypertension.

B) a history of long-term analgesic use.

C) recent respiratory tract infections.

D) recent urinary tract infections.

Q3) A nurse assessing a client with a renal abscess would expect to find

A) bacteria in the urine.

B) high fever.

C) hypertension.

D) oliguria.

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Chapter 36: Management of Clients with Renal Failure

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30 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The client with chronic renal failure who would not be a candidate for peritoneal dialysis is a client

A) who has diabetes mellitus.

B) who is a 10-year-old child.

C) with severe cardiovascular disease.

D) with severe respiratory disease.

Q2) The nurse monitoring a client load for risks of acute renal failure (ARF) understands that older clients are more susceptible to ARF because (Select all that apply)

A) cardiac contractile function and kidney perfusion diminish with age.

B) medication use is generally lower in this age group.

C) of a higher probability of pre-existing renal damage.

D) older adults have more difficulty with fluid balance in general.

E) the ability to retain sodium declines with age.

Q3) While caring for a client in the oliguric phase of ARF, the nurse's plan of care should include

A) encouraging fluid intake to prevent dehydration.

B) increasing the client's protein intake to prevent muscle wasting.

C) maintaining reverse isolation to prevent infection.

D) meticulous skin care to prevent skin breakdown.

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Page 38

Chapter 37: Assessment of the Reproductive System

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4035

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse palpates a small lump in a woman's breast. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to

A) ask the client if any relatives have had breast cancer.

B) document its characteristics and the position of the client.

C) refer the client for a same-day mammography.

D) tell the client to return next month for a repeat examination.

Q2) The nurse instructs a client that a normal observation during breast self-examination (BSE) is

A) contour changes.

B) dimpling.

C) nipple deviation.

D) variation in breast size.

Q3) The nurse notices that a client performing a BSE is failing to palpate her breast and axillae completely. To improve her technique, the nurse should teach the client to A) compress the nipple downward.

B) gently slide her fingers over the breast tissue.

C) palpate the breast using a systematic approach.

D) start her examination when standing.

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Chapter 38: Management of Men with Reproductive Disorders

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4036

Sample Questions

Q1) A client is having a penile shaft resection for advanced penile cancer. Which nursing diagnosis would be most important for the nurse to consider when planning care?

A) Altered Body Image

B) Anxiety

C) Risk for Incontinence

D) Risk for Sexual Dysfunction

Q2) For a client with radioactive iodine seeds implanted for local control of a prostate tumor, the nurse would address radiation precautions by

A) isolating the client while the implants are intact.

B) limiting time spent with the client.

C) not allowing children to sit on his lap.

D) treating all urine as radioactive.

Q3) A client has ED after a prostatectomy. Which of the following would be the most helpful statement by the nurse?

A) "Have you ever heard of vacuum erection devices?"

B) "I can refer you to a qualified sex therapist who can be very helpful."

C) "Many men get ED after prostate surgery, but it's really a shame."

D) "Well there are several medications made to treat these problems."

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Chapter 39: Management of Women with Reproductive Disorders

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28 Verified Questions

28 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4037

Sample Questions

Q1) The assessment that would alert the nurse to vulvar carcinoma is A) lichen sclerosa.

B) reduced libido.

C) vaginal atrophy.

D) white, frothy vaginal discharge.

Q2) After a client's hysterectomy for removal of a leiomyoma, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of Constipation related to bowel manipulation during surgery. The best measure that the nurse would take to prevent constipation is A) administer a soapsuds enema to the client.

B) encourage early and frequent ambulation.

C) offer the client iced beverages.

D) reduce fiber in the client's diet.

Q3) The nurse teaching a menopausal client about hormone replacement therapy (HRT) would include that HRT decreases the risk of A) hypertension.

B) osteoporosis.

C) thrombophlebitis.

D) uterine fibromas.

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Chapter 40: Management of Clients with Breast Disorders

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) When the client scheduled for a modified radical mastectomy asks the nurse what tissue the surgeon will remove, the nurse would answer

A) breast, skin, and axillary nodes.

B) breast, skin, and muscle.

C) breast, skin, muscle, and axillary nodes.

D) breast, skin, muscle, axillary nodes, and internal mammary nodes.

Q2) Teaching a client who will soon begin radiation therapy for treatment of breast cancer, the nurse would tell the client that she should expect

A) a low-residue diet to decrease diarrhea.

B) dry, itchy skin changes to develop.

C) pain in the long bones, especially the legs.

D) permanent pigment changes to the breast.

Q3) After a modified radical mastectomy, the action by the client that would indicate to the nurse that the client is developing a positive body image is

A) asking about a prosthesis.

B) looking at the incision.

C) talking about her feelings.

D) wearing make-up and her own nightgown.

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Chapter 41: Management of Clients with Sexually

Transmitted Infections

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4039

Sample Questions

Q1) The ambulatory care nurse is aware that after the appearance of the primary lesions, latent syphilis will begin in approximately A) 1 month.

B) 3 to 6 months.

C) 1 to 2 years.

D) 3 to 5 years.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a community group about STDs, including proper use of condoms. The nurse informs the group that condom failure is generally due to A) environmental concerns.

B) improper or inconsistent use.

C) latex versus non-latex construction.

D) manufacturer's defect.

Q3) When teaching clients strategies for primary prevention of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), the nurse should

A) encourage compliance with medical treatment.

B) encourage early treatment of infected individuals.

C) provide risk reduction counseling.

D) treat all the client's sexual partners.

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Chapter 42: Assessment of the Endocrine and Metabolic Systems

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4040

Sample Questions

Q1) In obtaining a medication history from a client who reports taking all the following medications, the nurse would know that the medication considered hepatotoxic is A) acetaminophen.

B) digoxin.

C) ferrous sulfate.

D) insulin.

Q2) The nurse performing an assessment of a 69-year-old man with a long history of complex medical problems would be aware that a systemic manifestation suggestive of hepatic dysfunction is A) gynecomastia.

B) hematuria.

C) melena.

D) oily skin.

Q3) To obtain the most helpful information from a client about risk factors related to hepatitis, the nurse would ask

A) "Do you eat foods that are high in fat?"

B) "Do you exercise regularly?"

C) "Have you ever had body piercing or a tattoo?"

D) "How many bowel movements do you have weekly?"

Page 44

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Chapter 43: Management of Clients with Thyroid and Parathyroid Disorders

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4041

Sample Questions

Q1) A client just returned from surgery for a thyroid disorder and complains that his/her mouth has an odd sensation. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?

A) Calcium gluconate

B) Epinephrine

C) Potassium chloride

D) Rectal aspirin

Q2) To increase the comfort of a client with exophthalmos, the nurse would

A) elevate the head of the bed at night.

B) provide warm soaks.

C) restrict activity.

D) restrict fluids.

Q3) In making emergency equipment available at the bedside of a client who has undergone subtotal thyroidectomy, the nurse would include

A) a defibrillator.

B) a tracheostomy set.

C) an electrocardiogram (ECG) monitor.

D) an intra-aortic balloon pump.

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Chapter 44: Management of Clients with Adrenal and Pituitary Disorders

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4042

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse recognizes that the manifestations of Addison's disease are primarily related to the pathophysiology of A) adrenal insufficiency.

B) increased intracranial pressure.

C) renal disease.

D) thyroid hyperfunction.

Q2) The nurse would assess that the individual most at risk for adrenal insufficiency is the

A) asthmatic client taking hydrocortisone once a week who has emergency surgery. B) athlete who stops daily doses of steroids after taking them for 2 years.

C) COPD client using an aerosol bronchodilator daily who becomes pregnant.

D) hypertensive client taking a diuretic who contracts a febrile illness.

Q3) A client has Cushing's syndrome secondary to needing large doses of glucocorticoids to control asthma. Today the client calls the clinic complaining of "not feeling very well," but has no other complaints. The nurse should advise this client to A) come in for an examination and lab work.

B) cut the steroid dose in half for the next week.

C) make an appointment for next week.

D) rest and drink plenty of fluids.

Page 46

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Chapter 45: Management of Clients with Diabetes Mellitus

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44 Verified Questions

44 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4043

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse assesses a diabetic client and finds a blood sugar level of 280 mg/dl, low blood pressure, nausea and vomiting, and erratic pulse. The nurse would suspect the electrolyte abnormality of A) hypermagnesemia.

B) hypernatremia.

C) hypocalcemia.

D) hypokalemia.

Q2) Evaluating a young man with type 1 diabetes, the nurse would consider a classic clinical manifestation of diabetes to be the client's A) excessive thirst.

B) gradual weight gain.

C) overwhelming fatigue.

D) recurrent blurred vision.

Q3) For a client with DKA receiving insulin to correct hyperglycemia, the nurse knows that the most appropriate route of administration would be A) intradermal.

B) intramuscular.

C) intravenous.

D) subcutaneous.

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Page 47

Chapter 46: Management of Clients with Exocrine

Pancreatic and Biliary Disorders

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31 Verified Questions

31 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4044

Sample Questions

Q1) A client who underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy asks the nurse how soon he/she can return to work. The nurse would respond that the final decision is up to the surgeon, but that clients can usually resume work after

A) 24 hours.

B) 3 to 4 days.

C) 5 to 7 days.

D) 2 weeks.

Q2) A client returned to the nursing unit after cholecystectomy with common bile duct exploration has bile leaking from around the wound. The most appropriate nursing intervention at this time would be to

A) assess the client further, asking about pain.

B) reassure the client that this is normal and reinforce the dressing.

C) monitor the client for elevations in blood pressure and pulse.

D) encourage the client to change position in bed.

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Chapter 47: Management of Clients with Hepatic Disorders

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4045

Sample Questions

Q1) A client with jaundice is experiencing uncomfortable itching of the skin. The nurse would anticipate an order to administer

A) acetaminophen (Tylenol).

B) diphenhydramine (Benadryl).

C) oral cholestyramine (Questran).

D) phenobarbital (Luminal).

Q2) The factor in a client's history that the nurse would recognize as placing the client at risk for developing hepatitis A is

A) donating blood frequently.

B) eating fish caught in the pond on the client's farm.

C) working as a nursing assistant in a nursing home.

D) having multiple colorful tattoos.

Q3) The nurse providing information about the hepatitis B vaccine would include the information that the inoculation

A) consists of a single injection but is extremely uncomfortable.

B) is given by three separate injections over 6 months.

C) is recommended only for adults and those at risk.

D) works best when it is given in the gluteal muscle.

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Chapter 48: Assessment of the Integumentary System

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13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse would explain to a client that an "allergy" differs from an "irritation" in that an allergy

A) affects the skin and mucous membranes only.

B) is an immune response.

C) is inconsistent.

D) can be totally desensitized.

Q2) A client is undergoing a lengthy series of treatments for a skin disorder. The best method of documenting the client's experience with the treatments is for the nurse to A) document the lesions clearly at each visit using proper terminology.

B) draw the distribution and characteristics of the lesions occasionally.

C) have the client record ongoing changes and include them in the record.

D) photograph the lesions at each clinic visit and use them for comparison.

Q3) In a highly pigmented client, the nurse would best assess for erythema by A) follicular accentuation. B) induration.

C) reddening of the skin. D) striation.

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Chapter 49: Management of Clients with Integumentary Disorders

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38 Verified Questions

38 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) When caring for a client after a chemical peel procedure to the face, the nurse would

A) apply skin moisturizer.

B) cleanse the client's face with an astringent.

C) maintain the client in a head-down position.

D) use abrasive cleaning agents.

Q2) The nurse would explain to a client that effective treatments for severe pruritus include (Select all that apply)

A) oral corticosteroids.

B) sealing emollients.

C) tricyclic antidepressants.

D) topical antihistamines.

E) topical corticosteroids.

Q3) A nurse is working with a client suffering from chronic pruritus. The client is angry and frustrated. The nurse should incorporate actions into the care plan that acknowledge

A) multiple treatments may be tried before finding one that works.

B) the lack of any effective treatments for pruritus.

C) the major impact pruritus has on quality of life.

D) that pruritus is very expensive to treat.

Page 51

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Chapter 50: Management of Clients with Burn Injury

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30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4048

Sample Questions

Q1) To best meet the psychological needs of a burned client in the acute phase of burn care, the nurse would (Select all that apply)

A) administer tranquilizers when the client is out of control.

B) assist the client to control destructive behaviors.

C) involve the family as much as they and the client desire and are able.

D) offer factual information about the appearance of burns.

E) provide an atmosphere that accepts emotional lability.

Q2) A client has a circumferential third-degree burn on the upper left arm. The nursing assessments specific for this client would include

A) assessing capillary refill in the left hand.

B) evaluating left hand strength.

C) measuring left forearm circumference.

D) monitoring blood pressure in the left arm.

Q3) The nurse teaching a class on burn injury prevention would stress that the leading cause of fire deaths is

A) children playing with matches.

B) cigarettes igniting furniture.

C) kitchen fires igniting other combustibles.

D) space heaters igniting clothing.

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Page 52

Chapter 51: Assessment of the Vascular System

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12 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) For a client admitted to the hospital with chronic venous disease, the nurse's assessment of the client's legs would most likely reveal

A) decreased pulses.

B) erythema.

C) overgrowth of hair.

D) reduced muscle mass.

Q2) A client is taking garlic and hawthorn supplements. The nurse would ask further questions to elicit information on a possible history of A) atherosclerosis.

B) hypertension.

C) smoking.

D) varicose veins.

Q3) A client with venous disease is scheduled for impedance plethysmography. Before the study the nurse would explain that

A) an intravenous dye may be used.

B) the procedure is uncomfortable.

C) venous blood flow quality will be measured.

D) walking on a treadmill is required.

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53

Chapter 52: Management of Clients with Hypertensive Disorders

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4050

Sample Questions

Q1) In an exercise program for weight reduction in a hypertensive client, the nurse would discourage the use of heavy weights because this may cause

A) lactic acid buildup.

B) muscle strain.

C) rapid vasodilation.

D) vasovagal response.

Q2) The nurse would explain to a client that the most common cause of secondary hypertension is

A) chronic renal disease.

B) oral contraceptive use.

C) pregnancy.

D) primary hyperaldosteronism.

Q3) For a hypertensive client who reports being "really fired up" about losing weight, the nurse would recognize the need for more education on hearing the client's plan to A) abruptly eliminate sugar from the diet.

B) lose 1 pound a week.

C) use over-the-counter appetite suppressants.

D) walk and climb stairs.

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Chapter 53: Management of Clients with Vascular Disorders

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38 Verified Questions

38 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4051

Sample Questions

Q1) A client who is receiving IV heparin has a PTT reported by the lab as 101. Appropriate actions by the nurse include (Select all that apply)

A) continuing to monitor the heparin infusion.

B) instituting safety precautions.

C) notifying the physician.

D) ordering another PTT in the morning.

E) turning off the heparin IV.

Q2) When a client with arterial insufficiency complains of being awakened at night by pain in the legs, the nurse would recommend that the client sleep

A) after exercising for 10 to 15 minutes.

B) in a recliner with feet dependent.

C) propped up by several pillows.

D) with legs covered by an extra blanket.

Q3) For the first 24 hours after a client's leg amputation, the nurse would place the stump

A) Below the level of the heart.

B) elevated on a pillow.

C) flat on the bed.

D) in external rotation.

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Chapter 54: Assessment of the Cardiac System

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30 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) To best facilitate a client's understanding of an electrophysiologic study, the nurse would explain that this study will

A) enable the physician to reproduce dysrhythmias and evaluate antidysrhythmic drugs.

B) evaluate the relationship of the atrium to the ventricles during contractions.

C) increase the understanding of the strength of the muscles in the ventricles.

D) interrupt blood flow to coronary arteries and assess the heart's electrical system.

Q2) Women with heart disease often present with which symptom? (Select all that apply.)

A) Chest pain

B) Dyspnea

C) Fatigue

D) Nausea

E) Palpitations

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Chapter 55: Management of Clients with Structural

Cardiac Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse auscultating heart sounds notes that a client has an opening snap and a low-pitched, rumbling murmur over the apex. This assessment would indicate

A) aortic stenosis.

B) mitral stenosis.

C) pulmonic prolapse.

D) tricuspid regurgitation.

Q2) In counseling a client who is considering a heart transplant, the nurse would know the client has an accurate perception of this treatment option when the client says

A) "Less than half of those who survive a heart transplant live 10 years."

B) "People under 75 years of age may have a heart transplant."

C) "The survival rate for patients having a heart transplant is about 80%."

D) "This is an experimental treatment, but I want to take the chance."

Q3) When performing cardiac auscultation on a client with mitral valve prolapse, the nurse would anticipate hearing a

A) harsh, systolic murmur.

B) loud S2 heart sound.

C) midsystolic click.

D) prominent S4 heart sound.

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Chapter 56: Management of Clients with Functional

Cardiac Disorders

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Q1) A client is scheduled to have a PTCA. The nurse brings the consent forms and the client questions why he/she has to sign a consent form for possible coronary artery bypass grafting too. The nurse's response should be based on understanding that (Select all that apply)

A) a separate consent must be signed for each procedure.

B) education will only have to be done one time if the client signs both now.

C) in case of a complication, there may not be time to have a consent signed.

D) the client will be sedated during the PTCA and cannot sign another consent form.

Q2) When a client is admitted to the hospital with clinical manifestations of left ventricular heart failure, the nurse would question the client about A) abdominal pain.

B) breathlessness.

C) leg swelling.

D) nausea.

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Chapter 57: Management of Clients with Dysrhythmias

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Sample Questions

Q1) Before a client receives cardioversion, the nurse should ensure that the client

A) ate only a light breakfast.

B) has signed a consent form.

C) is not wearing jewelry.

D) skipped today's digoxin dose.

Q2) A client is being discharged after unsuccessful cardioversion for atrial fibrillation. An important self-care measure the nurse should include in the discharge teaching plan is to tell the client to

A) be sure to get plenty of rest balanced with activity.

B) not eat too much red meat and other high-fat foods.

C) reschedule the cardioversion in 2 weeks.

D) take the Coumadin as scheduled.

Q3) The nurse would explain to a client who has a demand pacemaker in place that this pacemaker functions by

A) demanding the heart to contract at a preset rate.

B) firing after the SA node has started the cycle.

C) firing if the heart's electrical activity drops below a preset rate.

D) stimulating the SA node to fire.

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Chapter 58: Management of Clients with Myocardial Infarction

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Q1) When the immediate post-MI client complains about the high-fiber diet and being encouraged to drink water, the nurse would inform the client that the purpose of such a diet is to

A) create a high-bulk, soft stool.

B) lower cholesterol levels.

C) maintain bowel health to decrease gas.

D) promote easy digestion.

Q2) For a 40-year-old client who wants to be more active the first 24 hours after an MI, the nurse could safely suggest that the client

A) ambulate in the hall with supervision.

B) perform gentle isometric exercises.

C) take a bath in the shower.

D) use the bedside commode for bowel movements.

Q3) A client newly diagnosed with STEMI has the nursing diagnosis Anxiety related to hospital admission. The nurse assesses that goals have been met when the client

A) continues to ask questions.

B) cries openly while the nurse is there.

C) is able to rest quietly.

D) needs repetition of information.

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Chapter 59: Assessment of the Respiratory System

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Q1) The nurse clinician performing percussion of the chest on a client assesses a low-pitched, hollow sound over the middle lobe. The nurse would record this finding as

A) dull, and refer the client to an allergist.

B) hyperresonant, and refer to a physician for work-up.

C) resonant and document the finding, taking no other action.

D) tympany, and refer the client to radiology for a chest x-ray.

Q2) Evaluating the respiratory status of a 59-year-old man with vague complaints of respiratory problems, the nurse would know the assessment that is normal is

A) an inspiratory wheeze heard only with a stethoscope.

B) dyspnea with mild exertion.

C) reports of loud snoring by the client's spouse.

D) the absence of sputum production after coughing.

Q3) The nurse would explain to a client that the most helpful test in the evaluation of a possible pulmonary embolus is A) alveolar lavage.

B) bronchoscopy.

C) gallium scan.

D) ventilation-perfusion scan.

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Chapter 60: Management of Clients with Upper Airway Disorders

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Q1) The nurse explaining the pieces of a tracheostomy to a client would note that the portion of the tracheostomy apparatus used to round the end of the tube for insertion is the

A) flange.

B) inner cannula.

C) obturator.

D) pilot tube.

Q2) The nurse would explain to a client that laser surgery to remove laryngeal tumors has the major benefit of A) a usable voice.

B) complete cure.

C) minimal blood loss.

D) reduced edema.

Q3) A client is trying unsuccessfully to clear the airway with a cough. The measure the nurse would suggest to help the client cough more effectively is A) cough while leaning forward.

B) drink milk to coat the throat.

C) insert a large-lumen suction catheter before coughing.

D) place a clean finger over the tracheostomy tube and cough.

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Chapter 61: Management of Clients with Lower Airway and Pulmonary Vessel

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Q1) When counseling a client with asthma who has been advised to make several major life changes, the nurse should encourage the client to consider each suggestion carefully because

A) clients may be able to simply increase their medications and not make changes.

B) no doctor has all the answers about reducing exacerbations.

C) the benefit of the change may be offset by the stress it causes.

D) there are controversies about lifestyle changes needed in asthma.

Q2) After providing instructions to a client with newly diagnosed COPD who is learning to take a steroid medication by inhaler, the nurse would determine that proper technique has been learned when the client

A) breathes out forcefully with an open mouth.

B) gently rolls the canister in the hands before use.

C) holds the breath for 5 to 10 seconds after inhalation.

D) starts to discontinue the medication once manifestations subside.

Q3) The nurse caring for a client with asthma would place the client in the A) Fowler position.

B) lithotomy position.

C) side-lying position.

D) supine position.

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Chapter 62: Management of Clients with Parenchymal and Pleural Disorders

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Q1) The nurse caring for a client with cystic fibrosis would select as the highest priority the nursing diagnosis of

A) Activity Intolerance.

B) Anxiety.

C) Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume.

D) Risk for Ineffective Airway Clearance.

Q2) A client is admitted with flu-like symptoms that developed after hunting rabbits. The nurse anticipates which of the following initial orders for this client?

A) Intubation and mechanical ventilation

B) Mantoux TB testing

C) Rapid infusion of IV fluids

D) Respiratory isolation room

Q3) A client comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of breath with activity that has gradually gotten worse over several years. An important finding from the nursing history would be the client's

A) family history of lung cancer.

B) occupation as a coal miner.

C) previous treatment for "walking pneumonia."

D) recent move from the mountains.

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Chapter 63: Management of Clients with Acute Pulmonary Disorders

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Q1) The nurse would explain that the use of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) assists the client on mechanical ventilation by

A) gradually increasing the amount of oxygen delivered.

B) increasing the amount of expired carbon dioxide.

C) keeping the alveoli open.

D) using a pressure of 30 cm H<sub>2</sub>O.

Q2) A client who was extubated 2 hours ago is becoming increasingly restless. The last vital signs before extubation were pulse 88 beats/min, respirations 18 breaths/min, blood pressure (138/78)mm Hg, and PaCO<sub>2</sub> 45 mm Hg. Current vital signs include pulse 104 beats/min, respirations 26 breaths/min, blood pressure (140/80) mm Hg, and PaCO<sub>2</sub> 62 mm Hg. The nurse would

A) administer a nebulized bronchodilator.

B) assist with reintubation.

C) obtain a complete blood count (CBC).

D) prepare the client for a tracheostomy.

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Page 65

Chapter 64: Assessment of the Eyes and Ears

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Q1) The nurse performing an assessment of a client with a neuromuscular disorder finds that the left upper eyelid sags and covers a portion of the pupil. The nurse would note this finding on the client record as A) amblyopia.

B) lid eversion.

C) presbyopia.

D) ptosis.

Q2) The nurse examining the conjunctivae of a healthy young adult would document a normal finding when recording that the color of the conjunctivae is A) dark red.

B) pale.

C) pink.

D) yellow tinged.

Q3) If a client shows intolerance to light during pupil examination, the nurse would record that the client exhibits A) photophobia.

B) reduced accommodation.

C) strabismus.

D) unequal pupil response.

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Page 66

Chapter 65: Management of Clients with Visual Disorders

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Q1) A client has had an enucleation for ocular melanoma. Which of the following instructions takes priority when dismissing this client?

A) "Be extra cautious when going up or down stairs."

B) "If the plastic conformer comes out, wash it and replace it."

C) "Keep soap and water out of your eye socket."

D) "You can wear an eye patch sometimes, but not all of the time."

Q2) A nurse is conducting wellness seminars in the community. One health promotion activity the nurse could advise the audience to reduce the chances of developing cataracts is to

A) drink plenty of water.

B) limit the amount of alcohol you drink.

C) take a lot of vitamins A and E.

D) wear sunglasses when outside.

Q3) In planning the care of a client with Crohn's disease for 10 years who has developed Sjögren's syndrome, the nurse would include

A) applying frequent cool soaks.

B) cleansing the eye to remove crusts.

C) instilling lubricating eye drops frequently.

D) reducing lighting in the room.

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Page 67

Chapter 66: Management of Clients with Hearing and Balance Disorders

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Q1) To provide appropriate instructions to a client who has an ear wick inserted to facilitate medication administration for external otitis, the nurse would advise the client to

A) apply ear drops directly to the wick.

B) eliminate milk from the diet.

C) shower frequently to remove ear secretions.

D) sleep with the affected ear on the pillow.

Q2) An 82-year-old man tells the nurse he is having difficulty hearing and that he has "too much ear wax." Because of the client's age, the nurse would ask

A) "Did you ever experience impacted cerumen?"

B) "Do you swim in a pool with chlorinated water?"

C) "Have you had an upper respiratory infection?"

D) "Have you noted a change in the color of the ear wax?"

Q3) The nurse caring for a client with a conductive hearing loss would enhance communication by facing the client and

A) lowering the pitch of the voice.

B) speaking loudly.

C) speaking slowly.

D) using lip movement to shape words.

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Chapter 67: Assessment of the Neurologic System

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Q1) Neurologic examination reveals that a client has intact, functioning cranial nerves (CNs) III through XII. The nurse would conclude that the client has normal function of the A) brain stem.

B) cerebellum.

C) cerebrum.

D) spinal cord.

Q2) A client with a brain tumor is scheduled for a spiral CT scan. Which of these factors, if present in the client's history, would affect the nurse's preparation for the scan?

A) The client has periods of paresthesia in the hands.

B) The client is allergic to seafood and iodine.

C) The client is having trouble remembering recent events.

D) The client takes an anticonvulsant medication on a regular basis.

Q3) If the client has adequate proprioception, the nurse would know that the client can

A) bend over at a 90-degree angle and return to ab upright position.

B) stand steady with feet together.

C) touch nose with eyes closed.

D) touch top lip with tip of tongue.

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Chapter 68: Management of Comatose or Confused

Clients

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Q1) To improve the quality of sleep for a confused client, the nurse would plan to A) allow for 90 minutes of undisturbed rest.

B) give warm black tea at bedtime.

C) keep the client awake during the day.

D) routinely use sedative medications.

Q2) The nurse points out the important difference between metabolically induced coma and structurally induced coma is that metabolically induced coma results in A) abnormal posturing.

B) absent corneal reflex.

C) exaggerated deep tendon reflexes.

D) symmetrical motor manifestations.

Q3) The nursing action that is important to prevent complications from nasogastric feeding in a comatose client receiving tube feedings is to A) check residual volume every 4 hours.

B) feed only small amounts every hour.

C) feed the client in the supine position.

D) stimulate the gag reflex every 8 hours.

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Page 70

Chapter 69: Management of Clients with Cerebral Disorders

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Q1) The client with epilepsy asks the nurse if he will have to take antispasmodic medication for the rest of his life. The nurse's most helpful response would be

A) "Maybe. You might be able to stop medication if you are seizure free for 2 years."

B) "No. After a stable pattern is recognized, you can take it sporadically."

C) "Yes. Epilepsy requires compliance to a regimen of lifelong medication."

D) "Yes. Stopping a med after you take it a while makes seizure activity worse."

Q2) An important age-related consideration the nurse should include in the care plan for an elderly client with a seizure disorder is

A) a decreased serum albumin level can increase the free plasma level of medications. B) fortunately, seizure medications have very few drug-drug interactions.

C) older adults have very few choices when it comes to seizure medications. D) the elderly rarely have seizure disorders, so community support for them is poor.

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Chapter 70: Management of Clients with Stroke

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Q1) The critical care nurse explains to the family of a client who is to receive nimodipine following hemorrhagic stroke that the purpose of this drug is to treat

A) dizziness.

B) hypertension.

C) spasticity.

D) vasospasm.

Q2) The nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke several years ago. The client has indicators of being malnourished. The nurse would assess the client for which of the following?

A) Ability to throw the head back to propel the food

B) Embarrassment and frustration over trouble eating

C) Inability of the bowel to absorb nutrients

D) Positioning the head with a sideways' tilt

Q3) Safety precautions the nurse instructs the client with homonymous hemianopsia to use include

A) getting evaluated for prescription lenses.

B) turning the head to scan the visual field.

C) using artificial tears to keep the eyes moist.

D) wearing an eye patch on alternating eyes.

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Page 72

Chapter 71: Management of Clients with Peripheral Nervous System Disorders

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Q1) The nurse would recommend that the habit that should be modified to reduce the incidence of back pain is

A) eating a high-fiber diet.

B) mild exercise three times a week.

C) sitting for long periods, rather than standing.

D) using leg muscles when lifting.

Q2) When the client who had a cervical spinal fusion this morning complains of a sudden radicular pain, the nurse is

A) alerted because this indicates possible infection.

B) concerned because this indicates possible meningitis.

C) distressed because of the possible need to repeat the surgery.

D) relieved because this indicates a reduction in edema.

Q3) The nurse should assess a client who has had unrelieved trigeminal neuralgia for the past 6 months for

A) alcohol consumption.

B) suicidal ideation.

C) vocational rehabilitation.

D) weight gain.

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Chapter 72: Management of Clients with Degenerative Neurologic Disorders

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Q1) To assist the client with Parkinson's disease to reduce tremor, the nurse suggests that the client

A) clasp arms about self and squeeze.

B) sleep on the non-tremorous side.

C) tightly hold change in the pocket.

D) visualize stilling the tremor.

Q2) The nurse cautions clients with ALS and their families to be aware that (Select all that apply)

A) activities should be spaced throughout the day.

B) clients experience incontinence, an early cause of falling.

C) cognition will usually decline late in the disease.

D) muscle weakness may cause a risk for injury.

Q3) The nurse instructs a group of nursing students that the pathologic changes that occur in the brain of a person with dementia of Alzheimer's disease include

A) abnormal accumulation of proteins.

B) damage to the myelin sheath of neurons.

C) destruction of neurons.

D) increase in production of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

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Chapter 73: Management of Clients with Neurologic

Trauma

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Q1) While caring for a spinal cord-injured client, the nurse notes that he is flushed and sweating profusely, complaining of headache and nausea, and that his blood pressure is elevated with a slow pulse rate. The priority intervention should be to

A) administer antihypertensive medication.

B) check for a distended bladder.

C) elevate the head of the bed to a sitting position.

D) notify the physician immediately.

Q2) To assess motor response, the nurse performing a neurologic assessment on a client in a coma would ask the client to

A) cough and deep breathe.

B) grasp the nurse's fingers.

C) repeat a phrase.

D) wiggle the toes.

Q3) Urinary complications can be prevented if the nurse adjusts the care plan to include

A) checking for post void residuals.

B) encouraging voiding every 2 hours.

C) monitoring the client's urinalysis.

D) placing an indwelling Foley catheter.

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Chapter 74: Assessment of the Hematopoietic System

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Q1) The nurse reads that an assigned client has an immunodeficiency. The nurse reads further in the medical record, anticipating that the client also most likely has a history of A) conjunctivitis.

B) severe headaches.

C) skin eruptions.

D) unexplained weight loss.

Q2) A client has a hematocrit (Hct) of 30%. The nurse interprets this to mean A) 30% of the blood will be plasma and plasma products.

B) bleeding disorders are possible.

C) the blood is viscous and concentrated.

D) the individual has fewer red blood cells than normal.

Q3) The laboratory test result that would be most helpful to the nurse in the assessment of a client with a bleeding disorder is A) differential count.

B) hematocrit.

C) platelet count.

D) RBC count.

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Chapter 75: Management of Clients with Hematologic Disorders

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Q1) A nurse providing wellness seminars plans which of the following primary prevention activities related to sickle cell disease?

A) Have a "sick day management" tip sheet for those with SCD.

B) Offer information on genetic counseling for SSD.

C) Plan to have a list of community resources for the families of people with SCD.

D) Provide a list of day care providers willing to care for children with SCD.

Q2) The nurse points out that nursing management of all individuals with anemia is primarily directed toward

A) genetic counseling.

B) identifying complications.

C) managing manifestations.

D) rehabilitative measures.

Q3) The nursing diagnosis that would have priority in the care of a client with agranulocytosis is

A) alteration in bowel elimination: Constipation due to iron overload.

B) Impaired Gas Exchange due to low RBC count.

C) potential for Impaired Skin Integrity due to poor nutritional status.

D) Risk for Infection due to decreased leukocyte count.

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Chapter 76: Management of Clients with Immune Disorders

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Q1) The nurse instructs the client who has a new prescription for cromolyn sodium (NasalCrom) that the most effective administration schedule is

A) at the start of allergy season, with once-a-day dosing.

B) just after manifestations begin, with twice daily dosing.

C) 1 week before allergy season begins, with four to six doses per day.

D) when manifestations peak only, with two or three doses per day.

Q2) A nurse would observe the client for how long to determine whether there is an immediate reaction to a skin test?

A) 1 to 2 minutes

B) 2 to 5 minutes

C) 5 to 10 minutes

D) 10 to 20 minutes

Q3) In teaching self-care measures, the nurse would teach the client who has atopic dermatitis to avoid

A) applying a lubricant after bathing.

B) bathing in hot water.

C) keeping fingernails trimmed.

D) using gentle soaps.

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Chapter 77: Management of Clients with Rheumatic Disorders

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Q1) A client with ankylosing spondylitis has severe kyphosis. The nurse planning care for this client would provide priority interventions to

A) create a safe environment.

B) consult with physical therapy for an exercise regimen.

C) encourage a high-calorie diet with vitamin supplements.

D) use meticulous technique when changing surgical dressings.

Q2) A client is being evaluated for SLE. The nurse would be concerned when the client lists which drug as one of his/her routine medications?

A) Aspirin

B) Digoxin (Lanoxin)

C) Gentamicin (Garamycin)

D) Procainamide (Pronestyl)

Q3) When the nurse is caring for a client with progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS), the highest-priority nursing diagnosis would be

A) Constipation.

B) Disturbed Thought Processes.

C) Risk for Imbalanced Body Temperature.

D) Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity.

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Chapter 78: Management of Clients with Acquired

Immunodeficiency Syndrome

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Q1) The situation that would be least helpful to manage pain in the AIDS client who is an injecting drug user is

A) carefully rationing narcotic prescriptions.

B) having multiple practitioners prescribing medications.

C) limiting rescue doses of narcotic analgesics on a monthly basis.

D) refusing to fill lost prescriptions.

Q2) A client with AIDS has the nursing diagnosis Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements. The nurse should

A) encourage sweet foods and desserts that appeal to the taste.

B) encourage the client to dine alone to focus on food intake.

C) instruct the client to prepare meals, then divide and freeze them.

D) tell the client to eat large meals to result in greater intake.

Q3) When the AIDS client refuses pain medication because he or she is not in pain presently, the nurse should explain that

A) refraining from using the medication makes its effectiveness last longer.

B) skipping a dose will decrease diarrhea.

C) taking the medication on schedule keeps the blood level constant.

D) using the drug will increase the appetite.

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Chapter 79: Management of Clients with Leukemia and Lymphoma

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Q1) A client with acute leukemia has an extremely high white count and is going to receive chemotherapy. The nurse should anticipate administering which agents to this client? (Select all that apply.)

A) Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

B) Increased IV fluids

C) Rasburicase (Elitek)

D) Urine acidifiers

Q2) A client with leukemia has the nursing diagnosis Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements. Which food offered by the nurse would the client be least likely to want?

A) A sandwich

B) Cold applesauce

C) Hot soup

D) Vanilla milkshake

Q3) A client with Hodgkin's disease is staged at III. The nurse plans care knowing this means there

A) are nodes on both sides of the diaphragm with para-aorta involvement.

B) are nodes on both sides of the diaphragm with portal involvement.

C) is involvement of a single lymphoid structure.

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D) might be a single node on one side of the diaphragm.

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Chapter 80: Management of Clients Requiring

Transplantation

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Q1) A client is confused about Medicare coverage post-transplant. The nurse clarifies that in 1996 Medicare extended insurance coverage for A) all organ transplants.

B) postoperative immunosuppressants.

C) preoperative immunosuppressive protocol.

D) relocation expenses.

Q2) The nurse working in an emergency department assesses that the client near death who would be the best candidate for organ donation is the client with A) cancer.

B) cirrhosis.

C) coronary heart disease.

D) subarachnoid hemorrhage.

Q3) The nurse explains that the law prohibiting the buying and selling of organs is the A) National Transplant Act.

B) Organ Procurement and Transplant Network.

C) Uniform Anatomical Gift Act.

D) United Network of Organ Sharing.

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Page 82

Chapter 81: Management of Clients with Shock and Multisystem

Disorders

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Q1) A client in the ICU has shock and is getting blood glucose levels drawn and treatment with subcutaneous insulin. The client's spouse is upset seeing this and says "Now s/he's a diabetic, too?" The best response by the nurse is

A) "Blood sugar goes up with physical stress and insulin controls it, and clients seem to do better."

B) "High blood sugar is a common side effect of all these medications we are giving the client."

C) "No, no, s/he is not yet a diabetic. I hope we can prevent it by giving insulin now."

D) "Under great physical stress, blood glucose elevates and people can become diabetic."

Q2) A client is in shock and is receiving naloxone (Narcan). The client's sibling is an EMT and questions why the client is getting medication for "an overdose." The most appropriate response by the nurse is

A) "Because of HIPAA laws, I am not allowed to tell you about his/her care."

B) "I don't know but I can have the doctor come and speak with you."

C) "In clients with shock it helps the hypotension and cardiac output."

D) "The client may have gotten too much morphine in the emergency department."

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Chapter 82: Management of Clients in the Emergency Department

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Q1) When a client is admitted to the ED with respiratory distress and rapid-sequence induction (RSI) is needed to intubate the client, the nurse should first

A) apply nasal oxygen.

B) establish intravenous (IV) access.

C) hyperventilate with 50% oxygen.

D) insert a nasogastric tube.

Q2) A client admitted to the ED exhibits raccoon eyes and Battle's sign. The nurse interprets that these manifestations are compatible with A) basilar skull fracture.

B) extreme fatigue and sensory deprivation.

C) opiate overdose or poisoning.

D) subarachnoid hemorrhage.

Q3) The nurse clarifies that the law specifies that an ED client cannot be transferred to another facility until the client is stable. "Stable" is interpreted to mean that the client

A) has a blood pressure of at least 90/50 mm Hg.

B) has been evaluated by a physician.

C) is conscious and able to provide necessary information.

D) is not likely to deteriorate during transfer.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 84

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