Nursing Leadership in Critical Care Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Nursing Leadership in Critical Care explores the unique challenges and responsibilities of leadership within high-acuity healthcare settings. This course emphasizes the development of essential leadership competencies, including effective decision-making, conflict resolution, interdisciplinary collaboration, and advocacy for patient safety and quality care. Students will analyze contemporary issues facing critical care units, assess leadership theories, and apply evidence-based strategies for managing teams and resources in crisis situations. Through case studies and simulations, students gain practical skills in communication, ethical leadership, and crisis management, preparing them to lead critical care teams with confidence and competence.
Recommended Textbook
Critical Care Nursing Diagnosis and Management 8th Edition by Linda D. Urden
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41 Chapters
1210 Verified Questions
1210 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2075 Page 2
Chapter 1: Critical Care Nursing Practice
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41299
Sample Questions
Q1) Emphasis is on human integrity and stresses the theory that the body,mind,and spirit are interdependent and inseparable.This statement describes which methodology of care?
A) Holistic care
B) Individualized care
C) Cultural care
D) Interdisciplinary care
Answer: A
Q2) According to American Association of Critical-Care Nurses,what are the responsibilities of a critical care nurse?
A) Respecting the values, beliefs, and rights of the patient
B) Intervening when the best interest of the patient is in question
C) Helping the patient obtain necessary care
D) Making decisions for the patient and patient's family
E) Monitoring and safeguarding the quality of care the patient receives
F) Acting as a gatekeeper for the patient, the patient's family, and other health care professionals
Answer: A,B,C,E
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3
Chapter 2: Ethical Issues
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is using the SFNO approach to case analysis to facilitate ethical decision making.Which question is important to ask when considering stakeholders?
A) Are there reasons to give priority to one stakeholder over another?
B) Will the stakeholders abide by the decision?
C) Will the stakeholders want to be present during the ethics consultation?
D) Do the stakeholders understand how to use the SFNO model?
Answer: A
Q2) Which action best reflects the concept of beneficence within the critical care setting?
A) Advocating for equitable health care
B) Promoting for safe patient care
C) Ensuring equal access for those with the same condition or diagnosis
D) Confirming technologic advances are available to all in a given community
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Legal Issues
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an injury resulting from the failure to meet an ordinary duty called?
A) Negligence
B) Malpractice
C) Assault
D) Battery Answer: A
Q2) Which actions by a nurse demonstrate the act of battery?
A) Performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on a patient with a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order
B) Threatening to punch someone
C) Sexual misconduct with a patient
D) Drawing blood without the patient's consent
E) Threatening to restrain a patient for not using his or her call light for mobility assistance
Answer: A,C,D
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Chapter 4: Genetic Issues
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the study of all the genetic material within the cell and its impact on biologic and physical characteristics called?
A) Chromatids
B) Karyotype
C) Genomics
D) Histones
Q2) A family pedigree is used to determine whether a disease has a genetic component.What does a proband indicate in a family pedigree?
A) The disease being mother related or father related
B) The first person in the family who was diagnosed with the disorder
C) Who in the family is the xy band
D) The disease genotype including locus
Q3) Each chromosome consists of an unbroken strand of DNA inside the nucleus of the cell.What is the arrangement of human chromosomes termed?
A) Chromatids
B) Karyotype
C) Genomics
D) Histones
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6
Chapter 5: Patient and Family Education
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which situation are group discussions most effective as a patient teaching strategy?
A) Patients have a variety of medical diagnoses.
B) Patients are in the acute phase of their illness.
C) Patients are in the hospital only 3 days or less.
D) Patients are at similar stages of adaptation.
Q2) Acute illness disrupts the patient's and family's normal routines and is extremely stressful.What coping mechanisms might the nurse expect the patient and/or family to display?
A) Denial
B) Adaptation
C) Values
D) Anger
E) Disbelief
Q3) Which of the following statements best describes the teaching-learning process?
A) It follows the distinct order of the nursing process, with each step of the process separate and without repetition.
B) It requires formal blocks of learning time that are planned during the shift.
C) It is a continuous activity that occurs during hospitalization and beyond.
D) It ends at the point of discharge.
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Chapter 6: Psychosocial and Spiritual Alterations and Management
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What serious concern regarding the critical care environment affects the patient's ability to cope and heal?
A) Lack of consistent visiting policies
B) Misuse of complementary therapies
C) Deprivation of sleep
D) Mishandling of integrative therapies
Q2) A patient with low self-esteem may manifest which behaviors?
A) Refusal to participate in care
B) Feelings that his or her body has betrayed him or her
C) Acceptance and ownership of problems
D) Disruption in the perception of the body
Q3) According to the transactional theories on stress,what does a person do first when confronted by stress?
A) Determines coping mechanisms to deal with the stress
B) Determines the perceived degree of threat imposed
C) Determines what the response will be to the stress
D) Denies the stress exists
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Nutrition Alterations and Management
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with heart failure is placed on a sodium and fluid restriction.What is the purpose of this order?
A) To enhance the metabolize of medications
B) To normalize the patient's weight
C) To reduce cardiac workload
D) To decrease serum lipids
Q2) The patient is receiving corticosteroid treatment for neurologic alterations.The patient should be routinely monitored for what common complication of this type of therapy?
A) Hyponatremia
B) Hyperalbuminemia
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hyperglycemia
Q3) How would a person with a BMI of 28 be classified?
A) Obese
B) Overweight or preobese
C) Normal weight
D) Underweight
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9
Chapter 8: Pain and Pain Management
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) C fibers are small-diameter,unmyelinated fibers that transmit what type of pain?
A) Aching
B) Sharp
C) Prickling
D) Concentrated
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA).The patient's spouse asks about the advantages of using this type of pain management therapy.What should the nurse say to the spouse?
A) "The method allows the patient to act preemptively by administering a bolus of medication when pain begins."
B) "This method allows the patient to choose between an opioid and a nonopioid medication to control pain."
C) "This method decreases the risk of respiratory depression and other side effects."
D) "This method allows for the rise and fall of the blood level of the opioid."
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10
Chapter 9: Sedation,Agitation,and Delirium Management
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the causes of delirium in critically ill patients?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Meningitis
C) Cardiomegaly
D) Pulmonary embolism
E) Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
F) Hyperthyroidism
Q2) Which complications can result from prolonged deep sedation?
A) Pressure ulcers
B) Thromboembolism
C) Diarrhea
D) Nosocomial pneumonia
E) Delayed weaning from mechanical ventilation
F) Hypertension
Q3) Which medication has a greater advantage for treatment of alcohol withdrawal syndrome (AWS)because of its longer half-life and high lipid solubility?
A) Lorazepam
B) Midazolam
C) Propofol
D) Diazepam
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Chapter 10: End-Of-Life Care
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient was admitted several weeks ago with an acute myocardial infarction and subsequently underwent coronary artery bypass grafting surgery.Since a cardiac arrest 5 days ago,the patient has been unresponsive.An electroencephalogram shows no meaningful brain activity.The patient does not have an advance directive.Which statement would be the best way to approach the family regarding his ongoing care?
A) "I will refer this case to the hospital ethics committee, and they will contact you when they have a decision."
B) "What do you want to do about the patient's care at this point?"
C) "Dr. Smith believes that there is no hope at this point and recommends do-not-resuscitate status."
D) "What would the patient want if he knew he were in this situation?"
Q2) What is the most common complaint heard from families of dying patients?
A) Poor nursing care
B) Inadequate communication
C) Lack of consistent plan of care
D) Confusion among health care team members
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Chapter 11: Cardiovascular Anatomy and Physiology
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the valve that allows blood flow into pulmonary artery?
A) Aortic
B) Tricuspid
C) Mitral valve
D) Pulmonic valves
Q2) Which step of impulse conduction is most conducive to atrial kick?
A) The firing of the sinoatrial node, which results in atrial depolarization
B) The conduction delay at the atrioventricular (AV) node, allowing time for filling
C) Conduction through the bundle of His, enhancing ventricular depolarization
D) Conduction to the Purkinje fibers, allowing for ventricular contraction
Q3) What are the two important proteins contained within the cardiac cells that contribute to contraction?
A) Z-disk and A-band
B) Actin and myosin
C) I-band and M-band
D) Renin and angiotensin
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Chapter 12: Cardiovascular Clinical Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of "rule out myocardial infarction." The patient reports midchest pressure radiating into the jaw and shortness of breath when walking up stairs.What factor influences the amount of history obtained during the admission assessment?
A) Presence of cardiovascular risk factors
B) Prior medical history
C) Presenting symptoms
D) Current medications
Q2) Which condition is usually associated with clubbing?
A) Central cyanosis
B) Peripheral cyanosis
C) Carbon monoxide poisoning
D) Acute hypoxemia
Q3) What sounds are created by the turbulence of blood flow through a vessel caused by constriction of the blood pressure cuff?
A) Korotkoff sounds
B) Grating murmurs
C) Blowing murmurs
D) Gallops
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Cardiovascular Diagnostic Procedures
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with heart failure may be at risk for hypomagnesemia as a result of which factor?
A) Pump failure
B) Diuretic use
C) Fluid overload
D) Hemodilution
Q2) Which serum lipid value is a significant predictor of future acute myocardial infarction (MI)in persons with established coronary artery atherosclerosis?
A) High-density lipoprotein (HDL)
B) Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
C) Triglycerides
D) Very-low-density lipoprotein
Q3) What effect does ventricular tachycardia have on cardiac output?
A) Increases cardiac output due to an increase in ventricular filling time
B) Decreases cardiac output due to a decrease in stroke volume
C) Increases cardiac output due to an increase in preload
D) Decreases cardiac output due to a decrease in afterload
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Chapter 14: Cardiovascular Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with left-sided heart failure.The nurse suspects the patient is developing pulmonary edema.Which finding would confirm the nurse's suspicions?
A) Pulmonary crackles
B) Peripheral edema
C) Pink, frothy sputum
D) Elevated central venous pressure
Q2) Why do women have higher mortality rates from acute myocardial infarction (MI)than men?
A) Women wait longer to seek medical care.
B) Women have more risk factors for coronary artery disease than men.
C) Women have a higher risk of coronary spasm than men.
D) Women have smaller hearts than men.
Q3) What are the clinical manifestations of right-sided heart failure?
A) Elevated central venous pressure and sacral edema
B) Pulmonary congestion and jugular venous distention
C) Hypertension and chest pain
D) Liver tenderness and pulmonary edema
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Chapter 15: Cardiovascular Therapeutic Management
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which dosage of dopamine results in stimulation of beta1 receptors and increased myocardial contractility?
A) 1 mcg/kg/min
B) 5 mcg/kg/min
C) 15 mcg/kg/min
D) 20 mcg/kg/min
Q2) Which calcium channel blocker is beneficial in the treatment of patients with coronary artery disease or ischemic stroke?
A) Nifedipine
B) Nicardipine
C) Clevidipine
D) Diltiazem
Q3) A transvenous pacemaker is inserted through the right subclavian vein and threaded into the right ventricle.The pacemaker is placed on demand at a rate of 70.What is the three letter code for this pacing mode?
A) VVI
B) AOO
C) DDD
D) VAT
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pulmonary Anatomy and Physiology
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which pulmonary condition is related to a lack of surfactant?
A) Pulmonary embolus
B) Pulmonary hypertension
C) Pulmonary atelectasis
D) Pulmonary edema
Q2) Normally,the central chemoreceptors responsible for triggering ventilation changes respond to which of the following?
A) Increased PaCO
B) Increased HCO ¯
C) Decreased PaO
D) Increased PaO
Q3) What are the primary functions of the pulmonary system?
A) Gas exchange and the movement of air in and out of the lungs
B) Gas exchange and the transfer of oxygen to the tissues
C) The movement of blood in and out of the lungs and the removal of waste products
D) Gas exchange and the prevention of infections
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18
Chapter 17: Pulmonary Clinical Assessment
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While conducting a physical assessment on a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD),the nurse notes that the patient's breathing is rapid and shallow.What is this type of breathing pattern called?
A) Hyperventilation
B) Tachypnea
C) Obstructive breathing
D) Bradypnea
Q2) A patient presents with chest trauma from a motor vehicle accident.Upon assessment,the nurse documents that the patient is complaining of dyspnea,shortness of breath,tachypnea,and tracheal deviation to the right.In addition,the patient's tongue is blue-gray.Based on this assessment data,what additional assessment findings would the nurse expect to find?
A) Kussmaul breathing pattern
B) Absent breath sounds in the right lower lung fields
C) Absent breath sounds in the left lung fields
D) Diminished breath sounds in the right upper lung fields
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Chapter 18: Pulmonary Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) On admission,a patient presents with a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min,pursed-lip breathing,heart rate of 96 beats/min in sinus tachycardia,and a blood pressure of 110/68 mm Hg.The patient's arterial blood gas (ABG)values on room air are PaO ,70 mm Hg; pH,7.38; PaCO ,52 mm Hg; andHCO ¯ ,34 mEq/L.What diagnoses would be most consistent with the above arterial blood gas values?
A) Acute pulmonary embolism
B) Acute myocardial infarction
C) Congestive heart failure
D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Q2) Which ABG values reflect compensation?
A) pH, 7.26; PaCO , 55 mm Hg;HCO ¯ , 24 mEq/L
B) pH, 7.30; PaCO , 32 mm Hg;HCO ¯ , 18 mEq/L
C) pH, 7.48; PaCO , 30 mm Hg;HCO ¯ , 22 mEq/L
D) pH, 7.38; PaCO , 58 mm Hg;HCO ¯ , 30 mEq/L
Q3) Which blood gas parameter is the acid-base component that reflects kidney function?
A) pH
B) PaO
C) PaCO
D) HCO ¯
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Chapter 19: Pulmonary Disorders
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the major hemodynamic consequence of a massive pulmonary embolus?
A) Increased systemic vascular resistance leading to left heart failure
B) Pulmonary hypertension leading to right heart failure
C) Portal vein blockage leading to ascites
D) Embolism to the internal carotids leading to a stroke
Q2) For which situation does a patient with acute lung failure require a bronchodilator?
A) Excessive secretions
B) Bronchospasms
C) Thick secretions
D) Fighting the ventilator
Q3) Which cause of hypoxemia is the result of blood passing through unventilated portions of the lungs?
A) Alveolar hypoventilation
B) Dead space ventilation
C) Intrapulmonary shunting
D) Physiologic shunting
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Chapter 20: Pulmonary Therapeutic Management
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which interventions minimize the complications associated with suctioning an artificial airway?
A) Hyperoxygenate the patient prior to the start of the procedure
B) Hyperoxygenate the patient after each pass of the suction catheter
C) Limit the duration of each suction pass to 20 seconds
D) Instill 5 to 10 mL of normal saline to facilitate secretion removal
E) Use intermittent suction to avoid damaging tracheal tissue
Q2) What is an indication for a pneumonectomy?
A) Peripheral granulomas
B) Bronchiectasis
C) Unilateral tuberculosis
D) Single lung abscess
Q3) Which of the following are complications of endotracheal tubes?
A) Tracheoesophageal fistula
B) Cricoid abscess
C) Tracheal stenosis
D) Tube obstruction
E) Hemorrhage
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22
Chapter 21: Neurologic Anatomy and Physiology
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these substances are examples of small-molecule transmitters?
A) Acetylcholine
B) Glucose
C) Norepinephrine
D) Dopamine
E) Epinephrine
F) GABA receptors
Q2) Which area of the ventricular system is usually cannulated for intracranial pressure monitoring?
A) Frontal horn of the lateral ventricle
B) Aqueduct of Sylvius
C) Foramen of Monro
D) Fourth ventricle
Q3) Which lobe of the brain deals primarily with sensory function?
A) Frontal lobe
B) Temporal lobe
C) Occipital lobe
D) Parietal lobe
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23
Chapter 22: Neurologic Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic
Procedures
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is precepting a new graduate nurse.The new graduate asks about the difference between electroencephalography and evoked potentials.What should the nurse tell the new graduate?
A) Evoked potentials measure and record electric and muscle activity in response to noxious stimuli.
B) Electroencephalography measures cerebral blood flow and oxygen extraction.
C) Evoked potentials measure cerebral electrical impulses generated in response to sensory stimuli.
D) Electroencephalography measures the biochemical changes in the brain to assess metabolic activity.
Q2) Cerebral infarction is a serious complication of which procedure?
A) Extracranial Doppler
B) Evoked potential testing
C) Myelography
D) Cerebral angiography
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Chapter 23: Neurologic Disorders and Therapeutic Management
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the most common medications used in high-dose barbiturate therapy?
A) Phenytoin and fosphenytoin
B) Mannitol and nimodipine
C) Lidocaine and phenobarbital
D) Pentobarbital and thiopental
Q2) A patient has been told he has a nonencapsulated tumor that has infiltrated the brain tissue.Why type of tumor does the nurse suspect the patient has?
A) Angioma
B) Pituitary adenoma
C) Meningioma
D) Glioma
Q3) A patient's ICP is 34 mm Hg,and his cerebral perfusion pressure is 65 mm Hg.Given that the practitioner has left appropriate orders,which action should the nurse take next?
A) No action is required.
B) Administer mannitol 1 to 2 g/kg IV.
C) Place the patient supine and flat in bed.
D) Suction the patient.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Kidney Anatomy and Physiology
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25 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent acid-base disturbances,what is the ratio between carbonic acid and bicarbonate?
A) 10 mEq of carbonic acid to 20 mEq of bicarbonate
B) 20 mEq of carbonic acid to 10 mEq of bicarbonate
C) 1 mEq of carbonic acid to 20 mEq of bicarbonate
D) 20 mEq of carbonic acid to 1 mEq of bicarbonate
Q2) Maintaining a normal range of serum potassium is important for what physiologic process?
A) Fluid regulation
B) Acid-base buffering
C) Nervous impulse conduction
D) Triggering antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release
Q3) Which statement regarding kidney function and aging is accurate?
A) Kidney function declines with age but this usually does not affect homeostasis.
B) Serum creatinine rises with age due to increased catabolism of red muscle.
C) Glomerular filtration rate falls at a rate of 2 mL/min/year.
D) Older adults are less susceptible to acute kidney dysfunction but more susceptible to chronic kidney dysfunction.
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26
Chapter 25: Kidney Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been on complete bed rest for 3 days.The practitioner has left orders to get the patient out of bed for meals.The patient complains of feeling dizzy and faint while sitting at the bedside.The nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing what problem?
A) Orthostatic hypertension
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Hypervolemia
D) Electrolyte imbalance
Q2) A patient has been admitted in acute heart failure.Which parameter would indicate to the nurse that the patient is fluid overloaded?
A) Central venous pressure of 4 mm Hg
B) Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of 18 mm Hg
C) Cardiac index of 2.5 L/min/m²
D) Mean arterial pressure of 40 mm Hg
Q3) When calculating the anion gap,what is the predominant cation?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Chloride
D) Bicarbonate
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Chapter 26: Kidney Disorders and Therapeutic Management
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nursing management plan for the patient with a urinary drainage catheter would include which interventions to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)?
A) Insert urinary catheters using aseptic techniques.
B) Change the urinary catheter daily.
C) Review the need for the urinary catheter daily and remove promptly.
D) Flush the urinary catheter q8 hours to maintain patency.
E) Avoid unnecessary use of indwelling urinary catheters.
Q2) A patient was admitted with liver failure and acute kidney injury (AKI).Which intravenous solution should the nurse question if it were ordered for this patient?
A) D5W
B) 0.9% NaCl
C) Lactated Ringer solution
D) 0.45% NaCl
Q3) Which diuretics maybe combined to work on different parts of the nephron?
A) Loop and thiazide diuretics
B) Loop and osmotic diuretics
C) Osmotic and carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretics
D) Thiazide and osmotic diuretics
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Gastrointestinal Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What vessel delivers nutrient-rich blood from the gut,pancreas,spleen,and stomach to the liver?
A) Hepatic artery
B) Hepatic vein
C) Portal vein
D) Interlobular veins
Q2) Which organ lies obliquely beneath the cardiac sphincter and above the pyloric sphincter?
A) Esophagus
B) Stomach
C) Duodenum
D) Ileum
Q3) What role does the liver play in maintaining normal blood sugar levels?
A) Produces insulin to breakdown glucose
B) Synthesizes amino acids from ketoacids
C) Converts glycogen to glucose
D) Synthesizes glycogen from carbohydrates
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29
Chapter 28: Gastrointestinal Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic Procedures
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common location for a male to have a hernia?
A) Femoral
B) Umbilical
C) Inguinal
D) Abdominal
Q2) A patient has been admitted with perforated duodenal ulcer.Which findings would the nurse expect to note to support this diagnosis?
A) Tenderness in the epigastric area
B) Jaundice
C) Vomiting
D) Cullen sign
Q3) Which anatomic structures are found in the left upper quadrant?
A) Stomach
B) Spleen
C) Portion of the transverse and descending colon
D) Head of the pancreas
E) Body of the pancreas
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Gastrointestinal Disorders and Therapeutic Management
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41327
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with acute liver failure.The patient has elevated ammonia levels.Which medication would the nurse expect the practitioner to order for this patient?
A) Insulin
B) Vitamin K
C) Lactulose
D) Lorazepam
Q2) A patient has been admitted with acute liver failure.Which interventions would the nurse expect as part of the interprofessional collaborative management plan?
A) Benzodiazepines for agitation
B) Pulse oximetry and serial arterial blood gas measurements
C) Insulin drip for hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia
D) Monitoring electrolyte blood levels
E) Assessing for signs of cerebral edema
F) Fever
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Chapter 30: Endocrine Anatomy and Physiology
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Q1) A patient is admitted with a traumatic head injury.The patient starts to exhibit signs of a decrease in antidiuretic hormone (ADH).Which symptom would alert the nurse to this problem?
A) Rapidly escalating hypertension
B) Massive diuresis
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Hyperkalemia
Q2) A patient is receiving insulin due to the development of steroid-induced hyperglycemia.In addition to lowering blood glucose levels,what other physiologic effect may occur when insulin is administered?
A) Breakdown of proteins
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hypokalemia
D) Cellular dehydration
Q3) Glucagon release is stimulated by which physiologic factor?
A) Increases in circulating insulin
B) Decreases in blood amino acids
C) Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system
D) High blood glucose levels
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Chapter 31: Endocrine Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic Procedures
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Q1) A patient is admitted with hypernatremia secondary to diabetes insipidus (DI).The practitioner suspects the patient has neurogenic DI.Which finding would confirm that diagnosis?
A) A slight increase in urine osmolality
B) A decrease in urine output
C) A decrease in serum osmolality
D) No change in urine osmolality
Q2) A patient is admitted with critical hypotension,hyperkalemia,hyponatremia,and hypoglycemia.The nurse knows that these symptoms are highly suggestive of which disorder?
A) Myxedema
B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Addisonian crisis
D) Cushing syndrome
Q3) A patient is diagnosed with a pheochromocytoma.What signs or symptoms might the nurse expect to see in this patient?
A) Hypertension and tachycardia
B) Weight gain and acne
C) Diarrhea and facial swelling
D) Blurred vision and poor skin turgor
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Endocrine Disorders and Therapeutic Management
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Q1) A patient is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).The nurse knows that the dehydration associated with DKA results from which pathophysiologic mechanism?
A) Increased serum osmolality and urea
B) Decreased serum osmolality and hyperglycemia
C) Ketones and potassium shifts
D) Acute renal failure
Q2) Which medication can place a patient at risk for developing syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?
A) Adenosine
B) Diltiazem
C) Heparin sodium
D) Acetaminophen
Q3) A patient has been admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis,and treatment has been initiated.Which findings would lead the nurse to suspect the patient is dehydrated?
A) Poor skin turgor and flat neck veins
B) Dyspnea and crackles
C) Presence of Chvostek and Trousseau signs
D) Extra heart sounds and 3+ edema
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Chapter 33: Trauma
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Q1) A patient with multisystem trauma has been in the intensive care unit (ICU)for 6 days.The patient is still intubated and mechanically ventilated and has a chest tube,urinary drainage catheter,nasogastric tube,and two abdominal drains.The patient's vital signs include blood pressure (BP),92/66 mm Hg; heart rate (HR),118 beats/min; temperature (T),38.7° C; and central venous pressure (CVP),5 mm Hg.What is the most likely cause of this hemodynamic picture?
A) Septic shock
B) Hemorrhagic shock
C) Cardiogenic shock
D) Neurogenic shock
Q2) The nurse is working on an organization-wide falls prevention project.The nurse understands that the majority of falls accounting for traumatic injury occur in what population?
A) Construction workers
B) Adolescents
C) Older adults
D) Young adults
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Chapter 34: Shock,sepsis,and Multiple-Organ Dysfunction Syndrome
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Q1) A patient is being admitted with septic shock.The nurse appreciates that the key to treatment is finding the cause of the infection.Which cultures would the nurse obtain before initiating antibiotic therapy?
A) Blood cultures ´2
B) Wound cultures
C) Urine cultures
D) Sputum cultures
E) Complete blood count (CBC) with differential
Q2) A patient has been admitted with hypovolemic shock due to traumatic blood loss.Which nursing measure can best facilitate the administration of large volumes of fluid?
A) Inserting a large-diameter peripheral intravenous catheter
B) Positioning the patient in the Trendelenburg position
C) Encouraging the patient to drink at least 240 mL of fluid each hour
D) Administering intravenous fluids under pressure with a pressure bag
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Chapter 35: Burns
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Q1) A patient is admitted to the burn unit with extensive burns after a house fire.The patient's vital signs and physical exam include a heart rate of 140 beats/min,a urine output of 25 mL/h,and clear lung sounds.What adjustment,if any,needs to be made to the fluid resuscitation plan?
A) Continue as planned; everything looks good.
B) IV rate should be decreased and colloids started.
C) IV rate should be increased and fluid status closely watched.
D) Fluids should be switched to packed red blood cells.
Q2) A patient is admitted to the burn unit after a house fire.The patient sustained extensive burns to the chest,back,left arm,right arm,right upper leg,and areas on the face.The nurse is unable to obtain a palpable pulse or a Doppler pulse in the right arm.What procedure should the nurse anticipate next?
A) Escharotomy
B) Silver sulfadiazine application
C) Splint application
D) Xenograft application
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Chapter 36: Organ Donation and Transplantation
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Q1) Which statement made by a patient who has received an organ transplant indicates that the teaching was effective?
A) "I will finally be able to eat a regular diet."
B) "I will establish a routine for checking any skin changes."
C) "I will check my blood pressure regularly to make sure it's not too high."
D) "After my drug regimen is established, I won't have to worry about rejection."
Q2) After a pancreatic transplant with bladder exocrine drainage,the nurse would anticipate which order?
A) Continuous bladder irrigation
B) Intermittent insulin injections
C) Removal of the nasogastric tube as soon as the patient is alert
D) Daily hematocrit and hemoglobin levels
Q3) A patient has had a kidney transplant.The nurse knows that monitoring of which parameter would have the highest priority?
A) Fluid volume
B) Electrolytes
C) Complete blood count
D) Temperature
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Chapter 37: Hematologic and Oncologic Emergencies
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT play a role in thrombin inhibition?
A) Thromboxane A
B) Antithrombin III
C) Protein S
D) Protein C
Q2) How is the intrinsic coagulation pathway activated?
A) Local blood vessels constrict at the injury site.
B) Damaged subendothelium comes into contact with circulating blood.
C) Tissue factor is released by injured vascular cells.
D) Serotonin and histamine are released.
Q3) Hospital-acquired anemia is an increasing problem in critically ill patients.Which nursing interventions can be most beneficial in preventing this problem?
A) Administering fluids and inotropic agents to optimize blood pressure
B) Using blood salvage devices
C) Obtaining smaller blood samples through the use of pediatric blood tubes and point-of-care testing
D) Decreasing afterload through the use of vasodilators
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Chapter 38: The Obstetric Patient
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Q1) Which statement regarding the use of medications or other therapies for advanced cardiac life support (ACLS)in the pregnant patient is accurate?
A) No contraindications exist for use of atropine in pregnancy.
B) Epinephrine is contraindicated because it decreases uteroplacental perfusion.
C) Lidocaine is contraindicated because it crosses the placenta and has adverse fetal effects.
D) Electric therapies are contraindicated because of the potential for electrocution of the infant.
Q2) According to research,what are the minimal viability parameters for an infant?
A)20 to 21 weeks' gestation and fetal weight between 500 and 1000 g.
B)22 to 23 weeks' gestation and fetal weight between 1000 and 15,000 g.
C)23 to 24 weeks' gestation and fetal weight between 500 and 1000 g.
D)24 to 25 weeks' gestation and fetal weight between 500 and 1200 g.
Q3) What intrinsic factor can influence fetal development?
A) Fungal infections
B) Chromosomal abnormalities
C) Radiation exposure
D) Medication exposure
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Chapter 39: The Pediatric Patient
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Q1) What is the difference between the upper airway of an infant and that of an adult?
A) The infant's epiglottis is located lower than an adult's.
B) The infant's tongue is larger than the adult's, and it fills the oral cavity.
C) The infant's larynx is more tubular shaped with its narrowest portion at the epiglottis.
D) The infant's airway is more rigid than an adult's.
Q2) Optimal treatment of a pediatric patient with status asthmaticus includes which actions?
A) Placing the patient in the knee-chest position
B) Extending the neck to promote opening of the airway
C) Providing humidified oxygen
D) Administering b-adrenergic therapy
E) Administering corticosteroids
Q3) What are the causes of status epilepticus in children?
A) High fever
B) Encephalitis
C) Metabolic disorders
D) Meningitis
E) Gradual weaning of anticonvulsant drugs
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Chapter 40: The Older Adult Patient
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Q1) The nurse recognizes that there are numerous interventions that can decrease the negative physical,functional,and cognitive long-term outcomes associated with critical illness.Identify a few of these interventions.
A) Avoid pharmacologic sleep agents.
B) Focus on planning for home.
C) Use restraints.
D) Use indwelling catheters.
E) Reduce noise at night.
Q2) An older adult is placed on a continuous infusion of high-dose loop diuretic for diuresis.What finding would alert the nurse to the presence of a possible adverse effect?
A) Tremors
B) Bradycardia
C) Electrolyte imbalance
D) Hypoglycemia
Q3) Which sign or symptom would be a normal assessment finding for an older patient?
A) Inability to remember what was eaten yesterday
B) An increase in resting heart rate
C) Hypoactive bowel sounds
D) Brisk papillary response to light
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Chapter 41: The Perianesthesia Patient
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Q1) A postoperative patient has developed laryngeal edema.What medication would the nurse anticipate being administered to the patient?
A) Racemic epinephrine
B) Succinylcholine
C) Albuterol
D) Morphine
Q2) Management of an airway obstruction begins with immediate recognition and treatment.Place these nursing interventions in the appropriate order for initial care of a postanesthesia patient with airway obstruction.
1)Positive-pressure mask ventilation
2)Head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver (nonreactive patient)
3)Insertion of oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal airway
4)Intubation with mechanical intubation
5)Stimulation of the patient
A) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4
B) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
C) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4
D) 4, 2, 3, 1, 5
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