Nursing Genetics Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Nursing Genetics explores the foundational principles of genetics and their application to nursing practice. The course covers gene structure and function, patterns of inheritance, genetic variability, and the role of genetics in common and rare diseases. Students will examine how genetic information influences health promotion, disease prevention, and therapeutic approaches, with a focus on ethical, legal, and psychosocial considerations. Emphasis is placed on the nurses role in genetic assessment, counseling, and patient education within diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Human Heredity Principles and Issues 10th Edition by Michael Cummings
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1035 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: A Perspective on Human Genetics
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31 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms is not closely related to the others?
A) Haplotype
B) Single nucleotide polymorphism
C) Genome-wide association study
D) Induced pluripotency
E) All of these terms are closely related
Answer: D
Q2) If you were a geneticist working to clone a woolly mammoth, you would be using ____ technology.
A) cytogenetic
B) pedigree analysis
C) molecular genetics
D) transmission genetics
E) recombinant DNA
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: Cells and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) In meiosis of oogenesis, how many mature eggs result?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: A
Q2) "Crossing over" is partially responsible for our genetic diversity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) With which organelle are ribosomes most closely associated?
A) The Golgi complex
B) Lysosomes
C) Mitochondria
D) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: E
Q4) Ribosomes exist either free in the cytoplasm or attached to the membranes of
Answer: rough endoplasmic reticulum
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Chapter 3: Transmission of Genes From Generation to Generation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two heterozygous smooth-pea pea plants are crossed (Ss X Ss) and four peas from the cross are randomly selected for examination. The first three are smooth. Must the fourth one be wrinkled? Why or why not?
Answer: No, the fourth pea does not necessarily have to be wrinkled.
When two heterozygous smooth-pea plants (Ss X Ss) are crossed, the Punnett square for this cross would result in a 3:1 ratio of smooth to wrinkled peas. This means that on average, out of every 4 peas, 3 would be smooth and 1 would be wrinkled.
However, this is just a statistical probability and does not guarantee that every set of 4 peas will follow this exact ratio. It is possible for all 4 peas to be smooth, or for 2 to be smooth and 2 to be wrinkled, or any other combination that adds up to 4.
Therefore, the fourth pea from the cross does not have to be wrinkled. The outcome of each individual pea is independent of the others, and the genetic probability does not ensure that the fourth pea will be wrinkled.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Pedigree Analysis in Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) More than one mode of inheritance can be seen for a single trait.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Genetic diseases transmitted only by a mother to both sons and daughters result from ____________________ genes.
Q3) Valeria has a serious disorder called fragile X syndrome and her brother does not have the disorder. Her mother does not have the disorder but her father does. What is the most likely inheritance pattern for fragile X syndrome?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) X-linked dominant
D) X-linked recessive
E) Y-linked recessive
Q4) All genes are expressed in either the prenatal or newborn stages.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If a man and his wife are both homozygous for a disease-causing recessive gene, then ____________________ of their children will be affected.
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Chapter 5: Complex Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Provide evidence from a specific example that argues for a substantial role for the environment in determining IQ.
Q2) In a certain population with a mean IQ of 100, the heritability of IQ was measured at 0.6. A chapter of Mensa in this population has an average IQ of 140. If they are otherwise typical of their population, about how many of their IQ points can be attributed to their genes?
A) 60
B) 84
C) 24
D) 100
E) 40
Q3) Sickle cell disease exhibits a variety of symptoms and is more severe under stressful situations. Sickle cell disease is an example of a _____ genetic disorder.
A) discontinuous
B) continuous
C) polygenic
D) multifactorial
E) phenotypic
Q4) How have twins been useful in studies of multifactorial traits?
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Chapter 6: Cytogenetics: Karyotypes and Chromosome
Aberrations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What chromosomal mutation occurs in each of the following: Patau syndrome, Klinefelter syndrome, Turner syndrome, and Angelman syndrome?
Q2) The most common survival trisomy is trisomy 13.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Due to a chromosome deletion, Timothy is very retarded, both physically and mentally. He also has a severe abnormality of his voice-box so that his cry is abnormal. Give the karyotypic designation and the name of the syndrome that he most likely has.
Q4) The degree of mental retardation in a Down syndrome fetus is predictable. A)True
B)False
Q5) Among abnormalities of the sex chromosomes, no cases of OY individuals are known, although XO individuals have been found. Why do you think this is the case? Is this evidence for differences in genetic content between the X and Y chromosome?
Q6) What is the number of chromosomes in a human tetraploid cell?
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Q7) A chromosome whose centromere is near one end is termed
Chapter 7: Development and Sex Determination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Implantation of an embryo normally has occurred by how long after fertilization?
A) 3 days
B) 6 days
C) 12 days
D) 20 days
E) 1 month
Q2) The hormone that induces contractions that lead to birth is ____.
A) estrogen
B) prostaglandin
C) oxytocin
D) melatonin
E) progesterone
Q3) Explain how X inactivation can result in female mosaicism.
Q4) Meiosis I in females is completed at ____________.
Q5) The duct between a testis and a seminal vesicle is the ____________________.
Q6) The limb deformities caused by the tranquilizer ____________________ helped focus attention on the issue of teratogens.
Q7) During oogenesis, cells divide unequally into a large functional oocyte and a small
Q8) In the uterus, the ____________________ is shed during menstruation.
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Chapter 8: DNA Structure and Chromosomal Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) RNA molecules have two definably different ends: a head (the 5') and a tail (the 3').
Do DNA molecules similarly have head and tail ends? Why or why not?
Q2) X-ray crystallography revealed several important features of the shape of DNA.
Which one of the following facts about DNA was NOT revealed by X-ray crystallography?
A) The shape of the molecule is helical.
B) The amount of purine bases equals the amount of pyrimidine bases.
C) The molecule has a constant diameter.
D) The phosphate groups are located on the outside.
E) All of these were revealed by X-ray crystallography.
Q3) The basic unit of a DNA molecule is the
A) nitrogenous base.
B) sugar-phosphate backbone.
C) amino acid.
D) nucleotide.
E) ribose sugar.
Q4) Chromosome territories do not overlap each other.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The name of the enzyme that replicates DNA is ____________________.
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Chapter 9: Gene Expression: From Genes to Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________________ have two binding sites for tRNA to allow the formation of peptide bonds.
Q2) How many nucleotides form the code for one amino acid?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6
Q3) What happens to human mRNA before it leaves the nucleus?
Q4) What kinds of mutational events might be associated with introns in human genes?
Q5) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is caused by a _____________.
A) bacterium
B) fungus
C) virus
D) protein
E) lipid
Q6) There are altogether ____________________ codons that code for amino acids in the genetic code.
Q7) The codon ____________________ serves as the initiator codon and also codes for the amino acid ____________________.
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Chapter 10: From Proteins to Phenotypes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In most cases, mutations in metabolic pathways produce a recessive trait. Suggest how a mutation in a metabolic pathway might produce a dominant condition.
Q2) A person with the genotype GD/g for the galactosemia gene would have ____________________ of the normal level of galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase.
Q3) Discuss the various possible effects of the loss of the activity of an enzyme.
Q4) There are no mandatory screening programs for genetic defects such as PKU and galactosemia in newborns.
A)True B)False
Q5) Certain traits in humans are incompletely penetrant, or show variations in expressivity. Can you suggest a biochemical explanation for these observations in such cases caused by a metabolic error?
Q6) Large scale alterations of the amino acid structure in alpha globin are the cause of sickle cell anemia.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The inability to break down galactose is the genetic disorder called
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Mutation: the Source of Genetic Variation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Queen Victoria had an allele for alkaptonuria that originated by mutation in one of her parents.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Frameshift mutations include nucleotide substitutions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a mutant allele appears in a family with no history of that disorder and is fully expressed by everyone carrying that allele, it most like is a ______________ allele.
A) autosomal dominant
B) autosomal recessive
C) X-linked recessive
D) Y-linked
E) mitochondrial
Q4) Explain why the phenomena of anticipation and genomic imprinting seemed at first, before they were understood, to violate basic concepts of Mendelian genetics.
Q5) A ____________________ heterozygote is an individual with two different mutant alleles of a gene.
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Chapter 12: Genes and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) If retinoblastoma requires mutation in two copies of the RB gene, and familial cases inherit one such mutation, doesn't it seem unlikely that a second mutation would occur in a retinal cell at this specific gene? Yet 90 percent of those individuals who inherit one mutant RB gene develop a second mutation and retinoblastoma. Why does this occur with such a high frequency?
Q2) What phrase best describes the field of epidemiology?
A) It is the study of factors that control the presence or absence of disease.
B) It is the study of infectious disease.
C) It is a direct and experimental science.
D) It begins with laboratory studies on experimental animals.
E) It is none of these.
Q3) Which of the following statements about retinoblastoma offers support for the idea that multiple mutations are needed in cancer?
A) Noninherited cases involve both eyes and occur later in life.
B) Noninherited cases involve both eyes and occur early in life.
C) Inherited cases involve one eye and occur early in life.
D) Inherited cases involve one eye and occur late in life.
E) Noninherited cases involve one eye and occur later in life.
Q4) The BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes both function in the process of ____________________.
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Chapter 13: An Introduction to Genetic Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heat is required for the polymerase chain reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) To find a specific DNA sequence in a genomic library, researchers employ single-stranded RNA or DNA molecules called _________.
Q3) Plasmids are short sequences of DNA used as primers in PCR.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cloning by embryo splitting
A) uses an unfertilized egg as the starting point.
B) does not require the use of a host uterus.
C) cannot be used for cloning human embryos.
D) is characterized by all of these.
E) is characterized by none of these
Q5) Explain the technologies used in cloning domestic animals.
Q6) In Southern blotting, DNA fragments on filters must be ____________________ so that probes can bond with them.
Q7) In genomic libraries, DNA fragments are stored in ______________ chromosomes.
Q9) In recombinant DNA technology, _________ are used to cut DNA at specific sites. Page 15
Q8) A method for amplifying DNA segments using DNA polymerase is ____________.
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Biotechnology and Society
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hundreds of thousands of vitamin A deficiencies, and its resulting blindness, may be avoided with the use of genetically modified ____________________.
Q2) Mutations at the cutting site of restriction enzymes always lead to shorter fragments.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are some potential problems that might result from the release of genetically engineered organisms into the environment?
Q4) DNA tests on remains thought to be those of Czar Nicholas Romanov II of Russia proved the remains were his.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Transgenic corn that contains a gene for herbicide resistance has raised concerns about its safety and has been kept off the market.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A ____________________ organism is one that carries a gene that has been transferred to it from another species.
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Chapter 15: Genomes and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of genes in the human genome is estimated to be between
A) 20,000 and 25,000.
B) 50,000 and 75,000.
C) 150,000 and 200,000.
D) 5,000 and 10,000.
E) 80,000 and 100,000.
Q2) The scientific field of study that analyzes genes and proteins to identify targets for therapeutic drugs is ___________________.
Q3) The field of study named ____________________ has developed software to efficiently store, analyze, and present genomic information.
Q4) One finding of the HGP was that mutations in ____________ can cause mutations in distant regions of the genome, which can result in cancer.
A) DNA repair genes
B) promoter regions
C) introns
D) single nucleotide polymorphisms
E) DNA polymerase genes
Q5) Genes on the same chromosome are said to show ______________.
Q6) A set of SNPs close together on a chromosome is called a _______________.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Technology, Genetic Testing, and Gene Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is argued that genetic testing can be used to hold down costs for insurance and in employee liability. Should mandatory genetic testing be used as a condition for employment or insurance? Why or why not?
Q2) In estimating risks for genetic counseling, one parent with an autosomal dominant and two parents heterozygous for recessive conditions are considered to be
Q3) Louise Brown was the first baby born as a result of ____________________.
Q4) Which of the following couples would NOT ordinarily be encouraged to seek genetic counseling?
A) Those who plan to raise large families.
B) Those with a child who has an inherited disorder or birth defect.
C) Those who are first cousins.
D) Those who have had babies who died in infancy or before birth.
E) Those whose occupations may pose a risk to pregnancy.
Q5) Most of the problems with gene therapy have been traced to ____________________.
Q6) Explain why PKU is a model disease for newborn screening programs.
Q7) The risk of having a premature baby is low with IVF. A)True B)False Page 19
Q8) The condition of having no sperm in the semen is called _____________.
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Chapter 17: Genes and the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most closely associated with a MAC attack?
A) Complement proteins
B) Helper T cells
C) B cells
D) Histamine
E) Cytokinins
Q2) T cells become mature, programmed cells in the _______________.
Q3) According to the current theory of antibody formation
A) gene clusters are identical in all antibody-forming cells.
B) antibody gene clusters are closely linked.
C) gene fusion accompanies B cell maturation.
D) each B cell can make many types of antibodies.
E) all germ cells carry only one V gene.
Q4) Which of the following blood types are safe to transfuse to O blood types?
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
E) All of these blood types are safe to transfuse to O blood types
Q5) How can hemolytic disease of the newborn be prevented?
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Chapter 18: Genetics of Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) An early model of bipolar illness postulated that a single gene was responsible for the phenotype. This led to the "discovery" of a locus on chromosome 11 thought to be the gene responsible for this behavioral abnormality. Further work caused the retraction of this discovery, but the issues raised in this case have not been fully resolved. What are the problems associated with a single gene model, and how do they affect the search for the gene?
Q2) The mutant huntingtin protein that results in Huntington disease
A) causes a decrease in production of another protein.
B) leads to degeneration of cells in the brain's striatum.
C) is toxic to brain cells.
D) leads to degeneration of cells in the brain's striatum and is toxic to brain cells only.
E) has all of these traits.
Q3) Huntington disease is
A) a model of a multifactorial trait, controlled by several genes.
B) inherited as an X-linked dominant trait.
C) a disease with onset in early childhood.
D) one that produces no significant changes in brain cells.
E) a model of a single gene defect affecting behavior.
Q4) Alcohol dehydrogenase converts alcohol into _____________________.
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Chapter 19: Population Genetics and Human Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most geneticists would agree that human races are distinct genetic entities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Hardy-Weinberg law is based on the assumptions that no genotype is superior to any other and that ____________________ and ____________________ are absent from a population.
Q3) The idea that H. erectus populations in Africa, the Middle East, and Asia all collectively interbred and evolved into H. sapiens is called the ____________________ hypothesis.
Q4) Comparative genome studies show that humans and chimpanzees shared a common ancestor approximately ____________ million years ago.
Q5) Gene frequencies often differ from population to population. What factors might hold gene frequencies at different levels in adjacent populations?
Q6) A deficiency in the enzyme G6PD confers resistance to the disease
Q7) Genetic drift is a random process that can change the genetic structure of a population.
A)True
B)False
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