Nursing Genetics and Genomics Exam Review
Course Introduction
Nursing Genetics and Genomics introduces nursing students to the fundamental concepts of human genetics and genomics and their applications in contemporary healthcare. The course explores the principles of inheritance, genetic variation, and the molecular mechanisms underlying health and disease. Students will examine the role of genetics in disease predisposition, prevention, diagnosis, and treatment, with an emphasis on personalized and precision medicine. Ethical, legal, and social implications of genetic testing and counseling are discussed, along with culturally competent care for individuals and families affected by genetic conditions. Through case studies and evidence-based practice, learners will develop skills to integrate genetic and genomic knowledge into nursing assessment, patient education, and advocacy.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics and Genomics in Nursing and Health Care 1st Edition by Theresa A. Beery
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18 Chapters
307 Verified Questions
307 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3775
Page 2
Chapter 1: DNA Structure and Function
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75308
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the result of DNA replication?
A)Formation of two new daughter cells
B)Formation of two identical sets of DNA
C)Disappearance of the original parent cell
D)Activation and attachment of spindle fibers
Answer: B
Q2) What is the term used to describe the organized picture of the paired chromosomes within a cell used to determine whether chromosome numbers,structures,and banding patterns are normal?
A)Pedigree
B)Phenotype
C)Karyotype
D)Autosome
Answer: C
Q3) Under what normal condition are genotype and phenotype always the same?
A)Trisomy of alleles
B)Triploidy of alleles
C)Homozygosity of alleles
D)Heterozygosity of alleles
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Protein Synthesis
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which DNA segment deletion would cause a frameshift mutation?
A)TCT
B)GAGTC
C)TACTAC
D)GCATGACCC
Answer: B
Q2) What is the difference between DNA transcription for DNA synthesis and DNA transcription for protein synthesis?
A)Transcription for DNA synthesis is rapidly followed by the process of translation.
B)Transcription for protein synthesis has "greater fidelity" than does transcription for DNA synthesis.
C)Transcription for protein synthesis occurs only in cells undergoing mitosis,and transcription for DNA synthesis occurs in both dividing and nondividing cells.
D)Transcription for DNA synthesis occurs with both the "sense" and the "antisense" strands,while transcription for protein synthesis occurs with only the "sense" strand.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Genetic Influences on Cell Growth, cell
Differentiation, and Gametogenesis
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is normal fertilization of one mature ovum usually performed by only one mature sperm even though hundreds of millions of sperm are present in the seminal fluid of one ejaculation?
A)The corona radiata causes the tail of the other sperm to fall off,decreasing their motility.
B)At the time of first penetration the pH around the ovum changes and the enzymes of the other sperm are inactivated.
C)Fusion of the two nuclei forms a tight nuclear membrane that prevents the nuclei of other sperm from entering.
D)After being penetrated by one sperm,the ovum's membrane changes electrically and prevents other sperm from entering.
Answer: D
Q2) What is the consequence for a tissue/cell that no longer produces any cell adhesion molecules?
A)The production of three daughter cells with mitosis instead of just two
B)Failure to perform any differentiated functions
C)Conversion from euploidy to aneuploidy
D)Migration of cells into other tissues
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Patterns of Inheritance
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of genetic transmission promotes the continued existence of genetic mutations in single genes?
A)Autosomal dominant
B)Autosomal recessive
C)Codominant
D)Sex-linked
Q2) Which common health problem has the highest heritability estimate?
A)Hypertension
B)Peptic ulcer disease
C)Congenital heart disease
D)Schizophrenic behavior
Q3) What is the expected expression of a monogenic trait that has its locus on the Y chromosome?
A)Females never inherit the trait.
B)Females inheriting the trait will be carriers.
C)Males inherit the trait in a dominant pattern of expression;females inherit the trait in a recessive pattern of expression.
D)Females inherit the trait in a dominant pattern of expression;males inherit the trait in a recessive pattern of expression.
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Chapter 5: Chromosomal and Mitochondrial Inheritance and Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor has the greatest influence on the expression of a genetic disorder such as Prader-Willi syndrome or Angelman syndrome through the process of genomic imprinting?
A)Paternal age at time of conception
B)Maternal age at time of conception
C)The gender of the parent transmitting the deletion
D)The number of bases deletion from the chromosome
Q2) Why does an embryo with a balanced translocation have the same chance for normal development that an embryo with a normal karyotype has?
A)The translocation stimulates DNA repair mechanisms to correct the problem before commitment occurs.
B)The embryo's somatic cells are unaffected,expressing a normal karyotype;only germline cells express the translocation.
C)Although the location of the genetic material is abnormal with a balanced translocation,there are no missing or extra alleles.
D)When a zygote with a balanced translocation reaches the embryo stage without a spontaneous abortion,the risk for abnormal development decreases.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Family History and Pedigree Construction
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Martha has Alzheimer's disease.She and her daughter Melanie provided care for Martha's mother Margaret when she had severe Alzheimer's disease.Now Melanie,age 57,is showing signs of impaired memory.Melanie's daughter Megan is pregnant with her first child and has contacted a genetic counselor to discuss Alzheimer's risk in her family.Who in this family is the proband?
A)Margaret
B)Martha
C)Melanie
D)Megan
Q2) How are twins indicated on a pedigree?
A)The two gender symbols are placed on top of each other.
B)Each of the gender symbols is surrounded by an inward-facing set of brackets.
C)The vertical lines to each twin begin at the same point on parents' horizontal mating line.
D)The one born first has a vertical line connected to the parents' horizontal mating line;the twin born second has a vertical line extending down from the first twin's gender symbol.
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Chapter 7: Congenital Anomalies, basic Dysmorphology, and Genetic Assessment
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which ear location is considered "low set"?
A)The earlobes are aligned with the highest point of the upper lip.
B)The earlobes are aligned with the highest point of the bottom lip.
C)The roots of the ears are aligned with the outer canthus of the eyes.
D)The roots of the ears are aligned an inch below the outer canthus of the eyes.
Q2) Which anomaly constitutes clinodactyly?
A)An extra toe on one foot
B)A laterally curved fifth finger
C)Complete absence of fingers and toes
D)Fusion of two fingers on the right hand
Q3) What is the best description of a drug prescribed to control acne that also causes severe birth defects when it is taken during pregnancy?
A)Pleiotropic
B)Teratogenic
C)Carcinogenic
D)Geneticomimetic
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Chapter 8: Enzyme and Collagen Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which substance fails to form normally in individuals with Marfan syndrome?
A)Elastin
B)Glycogen
C)Collagen
D)Fibrillin
Q2) What is the pathologic basis of Fabry disease?
A)Increased degradation of globotriaosylceramide
B)Increased accumulation of globotriaosylceramide
C)Deficiency in the number of liver lysosomes
D)Excessive number of liver lysosomes
Q3) Which manifestation is a characteristic feature of untreated phenylketonuria (PKU)?
A)Increased skin pigmentation
B)Excessive urination
C)Fragile bones
D)Small stature
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10
Chapter 9: Common Childhood-Onset Genetic Disorders
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which result of genetic/genomic variation has the most support as a cause of asthma?
A)Decreased resistance to infectious microorganisms
B)Early childhood exposures to inhalation irritants (air pollution)
C)Increased inflammatory responses to environmental triggers
D)Mutations of frontal lobe genes controlling attention-getting behavior
Q2) Which type of gene could be considered a "candidate gene" for mutations that increase the genetic input to asthma development?
A)One that controls the expression of hemoglobin levels
B)One that regulates the number of alveoli a person develops
C)One that regulates the sensitivity of bronchiolar smooth muscle
D)One that is responsible for the metabolism and elimination of nicotine
Q3) What is the most likely explanation for the variability in expression of disease severity for cystic fibrosis?
A)The ethnicity of the patient
B)The specific CFTR gene mutation inherited
C)The presence of other nongenetic lung or pancreatic problems
D)The length of trinucleotide repeat sequences in the first exon of the CFTR gene
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11
Chapter 10: Common Adult-Onset Genetic Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What can be interpreted about type 2 diabetes mellitus in monozygotic twins when it affects only one twin 70% of the time and affects both twins 30% of the time?
A)The trait is recessive.
B)Mutation repair is incompletely penetrant.
C)Nongenetic factors can influence expression.
D)Homologous genes can undergo chromatid exchanges.
Q2) Which condition or factor most strongly supports a genetic basis for development of type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A)Type 2 diabetes occurring in two cousins before age 30 years
B)The disease developing in a person whose parents also have type 2 diabetes
C)The incidence of disease concordance is higher in dizygotic twins than in monozygotic twins
D)The fact that type 2 diabetes is more prevalent in one city than it is in another similar size city
Q3) Which factor is consistent with Multifactorial (Complex)Genetic Disease?
A)Expression of the trait often involves mutations in several genes.
B)Monozygotic (identical)twin concordance is 100%.
C)Genotype consistently predicts phenotype.
D)It tends to be autosomal dominant.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Cardiovascular Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For patients who have familial hypercholesterolemia,what should be the focus of teaching for blood cholesterol reduction?
A)Eliminating animal fats from the diet
B)Increasing the amount of fruit in the diet
C)Exercising at least 4 to 5 hours every week
D)Taking the lipid-lowering drug as prescribed
Q2) Which problem is associated with Tangier disease as an increased risk for coronary artery disease?
A)Low levels of triglycerides
B)High levels of triglycerides
C)Low levels of high-density lipoproteins (HDLs)
D)High levels of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)
Q3) Why is Factor V Leiden disorder considered a form of thrombophilia?
A)Platelet activity is impaired.
B)Blood clots form more easily.
C)Atherosclerosis development is accelerated.
D)Excessive bleeding episodes occur in response to minor trauma.
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13
Chapter 12: The Genetics of Cancer
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which characteristic(s)is/are associated with an inherited predisposition for a cancer type?
A)Cancers tend to appear at an earlier age than do "sporadic" cancers.
B)These cancers are not picked up by routine cancer screening methods.
C)The carcinogenesis stage of "promotion" is not required for cancer development.
D)They are passed on only to the children of the same gender as the parent with the predisposition.
Q2) Which statement regarding the biology of cancer is always true?
A)Cancer cells arise from normal cells.
B)Testicular cancer is strongly associated with excessive masturbation.
C)When cancer cells are exposed to air,their growth rate becomes uncontrolled.
D)The biggest risk factor for cancer development is having a first-degree relative with cancer.
Q3) Which statement regarding general cancer development is true?
A)The risk for cancer development increases with age.
B)Cancers usually develop in tissues that are missing a nucleus.
C)Children of older mothers have a greater risk for cancer development.
D)Most mutations leading to cancer development occur in structural genes.
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Chapter 13: Genetic Contributions to Psychiatric and Behavioral Disorders
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement regarding behavioral genetics is accurate?
A)Genes and gene products have been discovered that directly control behavior.
B)A genetic predisposition toward a specific behavior can be modified by altering environmental influences.
C)The genotypes and phenotypes of behavioral problems or deviations follow Mendelian autosomal recessive inheritance patterns.
D)The genetic susceptibility or predisposition toward a behavioral disorder requires the trigger of an infectious disease for expression.
Q2) Which condition provides the greatest support for a strong genetic contribution to autism spectrum disorders (ASDs)?
A)Concordance among dizygotic twins is 10%.
B)Males are affected four times more frequently than females.
C)People with some neurologic disorders also have features of ASDs.
D)ASDs are more likely to occur in children of parents who are over 35 at time of conception.
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Chapter 14: Genetic and Genomic Testing
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)most likely to be used?
A)To find a gene associated with a particular disease
B)To determine whether a stillborn infant has trisomy 13
C)To determine the carrier status of a child whose sister has cystic fibrosis
D)To establish a diagnosis for a possible adult-onset possible single gene disorder
Q2) What is the major disadvantage to the fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)method of genetic testing?
A)Single nucleotide mutations cannot be detected.
B)Depending on the skill of the technician,the rate of false positives is high.
C)The sample for testing must be obtained from living tissue rather than from a preserved specimen.
D)Results are not available quickly because cells must first be grown in culture before testing can be performed.
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Chapter 15: Assessing Genomic Variation in Drug Response
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition or factor improves the initial bioavailability of a drug agonist that has extensive first-pass loss as a result of the patient's enhanced liver enzyme activity?
A)Increasing the patient's fluid intake
B)Co-administering the drug with an antagonist
C)Administering the drug by the intravenous route
D)Crushing the oral form of the drug before administration
Q2) A patient with a fractured elbow in the emergency department states that he needs morphine for pain rather than codeine because the last time he had a painful injury,codeine was not effective in managing his pain.What is the nurse's best response or action?
A)Ask the patient how much alcohol he ingests daily.
B)Communicate this information to the admitting physician.
C)Alert the health-care provider that this patient is "drug-seeking."
D)Reassure the patient that he will receive progressively higher dosages of codeine until his pain is controlled.
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17
Chapter 16: Health Professionals and Genomic Care
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action reflects promotion of genomic care as part of comprehensive health care?
A)Calculating the odds ratios and recurrence risks of common complex health problems for all people
B)Ensuring that genomic issues potentially influencing a person's health are incorporated into routine care
C)Encouraging all people to undergo genetic testing as part of a proactive health screening and prevention program
D)Instructing patients who undergo genetic testing about their obligation to inform family members regarding test results
Q2) Which genetics professional has the defined responsibility for overseeing the work in a cytogenetic laboratory?
A)Clinical laboratory geneticist
B)Genetic laboratory technician
C)Cytogenetics technician
D)Medical geneticist
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18
Chapter
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient,Maggie,insists that her mother have genetic testing to determine if her breast cancer is connected to a mutation in the BRCA1/2 genes.Maggie is concerned about her own risk for getting breast cancer and that of her children,but Maggie's mom does not want to be tested.What ethical principle is one of several that must be considered in evaluating this case?
A)Maggie's "autonomy"
B)Maggie's mother's "right to know"
C)The nurse's "duty to warn"
D)Maggie's mother's "right to privacy"
Q2) What group(s)of people is/are specifically protected by the Genetic Information and Nondiscrimination Act (GINA)?
A)Veterans and those in the active military
B)Employers trying to use genetic information to make hiring decisions
C)People receiving their health care through federally financed health services
D)People applying for health insurance who have had predictive genetic testing
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Genetic and Genomic Variation
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it important to consider population genetics?
A)Natural selection can increase genetic diversity.
B)Accurate assessment of a person's ethnicity can be identified from DNA.
C)Disease risk can vary as a result of the geographic origin of one's ancestors.
D)Knowing ethnicity allows accurate prediction of Huntington disease risk.
Q2) Which term refers to a random change in allele frequencies,not based on natural selection?
A)Population bottleneck
B)Genetic drift
C)Founder effect
D)Migration effect
Q3) A group of eight space travelers,four men and four women,settled on the planet Zebulon.Their descendents had a very high rate of the autosomal dominant disorder,Moonophilia distractens.What factor could explain this phenomenon?
A)Equal exposure to an environmental mutagen
B)Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
C)Variable expressivity
D)Founder effect
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