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Nursing Fundamentals introduces students to the basic principles and foundational concepts essential for professional nursing practice. This course covers topics such as the nursing process, patient safety, infection control, vital signs, basic patient care techniques, communication skills, legal and ethical responsibilities, and the promotion of health and wellness. Students learn to apply critical thinking and evidence-based practice in providing holistic care to diverse populations. Hands-on laboratory and clinical experiences enable students to develop essential psychomotor skills, therapeutic communication, and professionalism necessary for success in more advanced nursing courses and in future clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 16th Edition by Clayton
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50 Chapters
994 Verified Questions
994 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which online drug reference makes available to health care providers and the public a standard, comprehensive, up to date look up and downloadable resource about medicines?
A)American Drug Index
B)American Hospital Formulary
C)DailyMed
D)Physicians' Desk Reference (PDR)
Answer: C
Q2) Meperidine (Demerol) is a narcotic with a high potential for physical and psychological dependency.Under which classification does this drug fall?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) When obtaining a patient's health history, which assessment data would the nurse identify as having the most effect on drug metabolism?
A)History of liver disease
B)Intake of a vegetarian diet
C)Sedentary lifestyle
D)Teacher as an occupation
Answer: A
Q2) Which are routes of drug excretion? (Select all that apply.)
A)GI tract; feces
B)Genitourinary (GU) tract; urine
C)Lymphatic system
D)Circulatory system; blood/plasma
E)Respiratory system; exhalation
Answer: A, B, E
Q3) Which is the best description of when drug interactions occur?
A)On administration of toxic dosages of a drug
B)On an increase in the pharmacodynamics of bound drugs
C)On the alteration of the effect of one drug by another drug
D)On increase of drug excretion
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which age-related change would affect transdermal drug absorption in geriatric patients the most?
A)Difficulty swallowing
B)Diminished kidney function
C)Changes in pigmentation
D)Altered circulatory status
Answer: D
Q2) What time will the trough blood level need to be drawn if the nurse administers the intravenous medication dose at 9:00 AM?
A)6:30 AM
B)8:30 AM
C)9:30 AM
D)11:30 AM
Answer: B
Q3) When is the ideal time for a nursing mother to take her own medications?
A)Before the infant latches on to begin to breastfeed
B)As soon as the mother wakes up in the morning
C)Right before the mother goes to sleep at night
D)As soon as the infant finishes breastfeeding
Answer: D
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Q1) Which task is included in the assessment step of the nursing process?
A)Establishing patient goals/outcomes
B)Implementing the nursing care plan (NCP)
C)Measuring goal/outcome achievement
D)Collecting and communicating data
Q2) Prior to the administration of a nephrotoxic drug, the nurse determines that the kidney lab data are within normal range.Which step of the nursing process is being used?
A)Assessment
B)Nursing diagnosis
C)Planning
D)Evaluation
Q3) When a nursing diagnosis statement is written, who or what directs the nurse to identify appropriate nursing interventions?
A)Other nurses on staff who have experience with the diagnoses
B)The patient and family who have an interest in the outcome
C)The etiologies of the problems identified in the nursing diagnoses
D)The medical staff who have more expertise than the nurses
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Q1) Which item(s) would be considered characteristic of the cognitive domain level of learning? (Select all that apply.)
A)A patient's opinion regarding wellness
B)Basic mathematical formulas learned in grade school
C)Incorporation of a person's previous experiences and perceptions
D)Skill demonstration using a step by step approach
E)Relationship between prior experiences and new concepts
Q2) Which action(s) by the nurse can foster patient responsibility for adhering to the therapeutic regimen? (Select all that apply.)
A)Assessing the patient's readiness to learn
B)Determining the patient's level of understanding of content
C)Determining the patient's education level and learning style
D)Maintaining an aloof attitude toward presented content
E)Documenting expected outcomes independently
Q3) Which is the most intangible portion of the learning process?
A)Cognitive
B)Affective
C)Psychomotor
D)Eminent
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Sample Questions
Q1) 1/7 + 3/7 = _____
Q2) 2 1/2 + 1 1/3 = _____
Q3) 0.125 + 0.25 = _____
Q4) 10 7/9 - 6 1/6 = _____
Q5) 1 c = _____ oz
Q6) 1 L = _____ mL
Q7) 0.5 ÷ 4 = _____
Q8) 3/32 ÷ 1/8 = _____
Q9) 5/18 - 2/9 = _____
Q10) Convert 2 tsp to milliliters (mL): _____
Q11) 15 kg = _____ lb
Q12) 1/200 ÷ 1/150 = _____
Q13) 3/4 ÷ 3 = _____
Q14) Convert 0.2 mg to mcg: _____
Q15) 0.13 = _____
Q16) 0.125/0.25 = _____ Page 8
Q17) 200 mL of solution containing 2 g of boric acid in water: _____
Q18) 11/15 - 1/4 = _____
Q19) 1 mg = _____ mcg
Q20) 0.00007 = _____
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who defines the standards of care for the practice of nursing? (Select all that apply.)
A)State boards of nursing
B)Hospital policy and procedures
C)Federal laws regulating health care facilities
D)The Joint Commission
E)Professional nursing associations
Q2) The nurse transcribes an order to administer Valium 10 mg IV stat.This order is correctly interpreted by the nurse to mean it should be provided how? (Select all that apply.)
A)As needed
B)Immediately
C)One time only
D)In divided doses
E)Intravenously
Q3) Which is known as the "fifth vital sign"?
A)Temperature
B)Respirations
C)Pain
D)Pulse
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Sample Questions
Q1) When applying nitroglycerin topically, which nursing intervention is correct?
A)Secure the paper on two sides with tape.
B)Shave the area prior to application of the paper.
C)Wear gloves while placing the new paper.
D)Remind the patient to discontinue use of the medication if chest pain is relieved.
Q2) Why are sublingual and buccal medications rapidly absorbed?
A)Their action is localized to the mouth.
B)They are metabolized in the liver.
C)Blood flow is diminished in these sites.
D)These drugs pass directly into systemic circulation.
Q3) What is the appropriate nursing action when administering a vaginal suppository?
A)Ask the patient to urinate prior to insertion.
B)Assist the patient to a side lying position.
C)Keep suppository refrigerated prior to insertion.
D)Insert the suppository 1 inch into the vagina.
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Q1) An adult patient is to receive 10 mL of cough syrup at 0800.The nurse can prepare to administer this medication in a(n): (Select all that apply.)
A)soufflé cup.
B)medicine cup.
C)oral syringe.
D)teaspoon.
E)nipple.
Q2) Which nursing action(s) would be appropriate when administering a disposable enema? (Select all that apply.)
A)Position the patient on the left side.
B)Allow the solution to flow in by gravity.
C)Instruct the patient to hold the solution 30 minutes before defecating.
D)Maintain the six rights of medication administration.
E)Lubricate the rectal tube.
Q3) Which is a characteristic of medication administration via the rectal route?
A)Irritation of the mouth
B)Nausea and vomiting
C)Bypassing of the digestive enzymes
D)Use of the first pass metabolism
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Q1) Which information provided by the nurse is most important to include when teaching a patient about the use of an EpiPen?
A)"Hold the syringe at a 45-degree angle against the skin."
B)"Monitor the expiration date of this medication."
C)"After using the EpiPen, lie down for 1 hour."
D)"Place the syringe in a cartridge prior to using."
Q2) When preparing parenteral medications, the nurse should perform which intervention(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A)Check the expiration date.
B)Use sterile technique throughout the entire procedure.
C)Check the drug dose form ordered against the source available.
D)Prepare the drug in a clean well lighted area.
E)Check calculations.
Q3) Which needle will the nurse use to administer an intramuscular (IM) immunization on an 18 month old child?
A)18-gauge, 1 inch needle
B)20-gauge, 1/2 inch needle
C)27-gauge, 1 1/2 inch needle
D)25-gauge, 1/2 inch needle
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse cleansing the skin surface of a patient prior to injection will start at the:
A)periphery and work inward in a back and forth motion.
B)periphery and work inward in a cyclical motion.
C)injection site and work outward in a straight line.
D)injection site and work outward in a circular motion.
Q2) Which is the preferred IM site for injecting a 6-month-old child?
A)Dorsogluteal
B)Abdominal
C)Vastus lateralis
D)Deltoid muscle
Q3) A 65-year-old man who weighs 180 lb (81.8 kg) is to receive 1.5 mL of a viscous antibiotic by intramuscular (IM) injection.Which needle and syringe will be used?
A)5/8 inch, 25-gauge needle with 5 mL syringe
B)1 inch, 28-gauge needle with 4 mL syringe
C)1 1/2 inch, 21-gauge needle with 3 mL syringe
D)3 inch, 16-gauge needle with 1.5 mL syringe
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Q1) The nurse determines that an elderly patient's IV of D<sub>5</sub>0.2NS with 20 mEq KCl at 75 mL/hr is running 3 hours behind.After determining the IV site is patent, what action will the nurse take?
A)Call the health care provider to obtain an order to decrease the IV rate.
B)Administer a bolus to make up the deficit.
C)Recalculate the flow rate and slowly make up the fluids.
D)Maintain the ordered rate.
Q2) Which patient assessment finding(s) suggest(s) extravasation of an IV solution? (Select all that apply.)
A)Coolness
B)Edema
C)Fever
D)Pain at venipuncture site
E)Redness at the site
F)Shortness of breath
Q3) Which needle is used to access implanted infusion devices?
A)Jamshidi
B)Huber
C)Gigli
D)Crutchfield
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Q1) A patient with Parkinson's disease asks the nurse why anticholinergics are used in the treatment.Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A)"These drugs help you urinate."
B)"These drugs will decrease your eye pressure."
C)"These drugs inhibit the action of acetylcholine."
D)"These drugs will assist in lowering your heart rate."
Q2) Which body function(s) is/are controlled by the autonomic nervous system? (Select all that apply.)
A)Blood pressure
B)Skeletal muscle contraction
C)GI secretion
D)Body temperature
E)Urination
Q3) Which condition would alert the nurse of the need to use beta adrenergic blockers cautiously?
A)Hypertension
B)Raynaud's phenomenon
C)Emphysema
D)Cardiac dysrhythmias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sleep pattern stage diminishes as an effect of aging?
A)Stage I
B)Stage II
C)Stage III
D)Stage IV
Q2) What can occur as a result of rapid withdrawal from long term use of barbiturate therapy? (Select all that apply.)
A)Anxiety
B)Delirium
C)Weakness
D)Grand mal seizures
E)Severe pain
Q3) For what conditions are benzodiazepines prescribed?
A)Chronic amnesia
B)Chronic insomnia
C)Preoperative sedation
D)Psychotic episodes
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Q1) What is the rationale for administering levodopa instead of dopamine for treatment of Parkinson's disease?
A)Dopamine does not cross the blood-brain barrier when administered orally.
B)Levodopa is much less expensive.
C)The half life of dopamine is too short.
D)Dopamine has too many reactions with other medications.
Q2) Parkinson's disease has which characteristic symptom(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A)Muscle tremors
B)Posture alterations
C)Muscle flaccidity
D)Tachycardia
E)Slow body movement
Q3) A patient taking rasagiline is assessed by the nurse to have a lasting significant increase in blood pressure.When reviewing the patient's current list of medications, the nurse decides to hold the next dose of:
A)dextromethorphan.
B)levodopa.
C)ciprofloxacin.
D)Valium.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is developing a teaching plan for patients prescribed buspirone (BuSpar).Which information about this medication should be included?
A)There is minimal potential for abuse.
B)Signs of improvement can be seen within 3 days.
C)Sedation is increased compared with other antianxiety medications.
D)It stimulates the action of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA).
Q2) A female patient is admitted to the adult psychiatric floor with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder.Anxiolytic medications and group therapy have been prescribed.Evaluation of therapeutic outcomes related to her acute stay can be measured by which assessment(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A)She is able to sleep 5 hours during the night.
B)The tremor and pacing she exhibited on admission are reduced.
C)She is able to attend and actively participate in group sessions.
D)She is eating only 10% of her meals.
E)She complains of chest pain before group therapy.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug(s) interact(s) with SSRI agents? (Select all that apply.)
A)Tranylcypromine (Parnate)
B)Lithium (Eskalith)
C)Warfarin (Coumadin)
D)Furosemide (Lasix)
E)Propranolol (Inderal)
Q2) A patient taking vilazodone has been vomiting persistently for 12 hours.The priority nursing diagnosis for this patient is:
A)nausea.
B)imbalanced nutrition (less than body requirements).
C)fluid volume deficit.
D)altered peripheral tissue perfusion.
Q3) What is the major advantage of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) over other types of antidepressant therapy?
A)They are less expensive than the other classes of antidepressants.
B)They cure major depressive illnesses.
C)They do not cause the anticholinergic and cardiovascular adverse effects.
D)Therapeutic relief is immediate.
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Q1) Dystonic reactions, pseudoparkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia are types of which effect?
A)Extrapyramidal symptoms
B)Allergic reactions
C)Idiosyncratic reactions
D)Therapeutic responses
Q2) A patient admitted to a psychiatric facility is hallucinating, pacing, and acting highly suspicious.Based on this information, the nurse will take which action(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A)Use the most restrictive restraints available to subdue the patient.
B)Be open and direct when handling the patient.
C)Encourage a variety of interactions with others.
D)Provide high-protein, high-calorie foods.
E)Reinforce hallucinations.
Q3) What is the most common cause of nonadherence to antipsychotic pharmacologic treatment?
A)Expense
B)Increased symptoms of chemical dependency
C)Extrapyramidal effects
D)Inability of the patient to understand the need to take medications
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Q1) A patient on anticonvulsant therapy confides to the nurse at an outpatient clinic that she suspects she may be pregnant.The nurse should encourage the patient to take which action(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A)Consult an obstetrician.
B)Discontinue medications.
C)Carry an identification card.
D)Provide a list of seizure medications.
E)Consider oral contraception.
Q2) What information would be most important for the nurse to provide to a patient when teaching about the adverse effects of succinimide therapy?
A)Nausea, vomiting, and indigestion are common during the initiation of therapy.
B)Avoid taking the medication with food or milk to minimize adverse effects.
C)Sedation, drowsiness, and dizziness tend to worsen with continued therapy.
D)Reducing the dosage of medication will relieve symptoms of nausea.
Q3) For which condition may carbamazepine (Tegretol) be used?
A)Tardive dyskinesia
B)Psychotic episodes
C)Trigeminal neuralgia pain
D)Sedation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about neuropathic pain?
A)This pain is the result of a stimulus to pain receptors.
B)Patients describe it as dull and aching.
C)It commonly originates in the abdominal region.
D)The pain is a result of nerve injury.
Q2) What is the advantage of taking a nonsteroidal anti inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is a COX 2 inhibitor?
A)The medication is cheaper than aspirin.
B)There are fewer GI adverse effects.
C)They are more effective than COX 1 inhibitors.
D)They have no known adverse effects.
Q3) Which patient assessment would indicate to the nurse that salicylate toxicity is occurring?
A)Gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding
B)Increased bleeding times
C)Tinnitus
D)Occasional nausea
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Q1) What lifestyle choice(s) may aggravate metabolic syndrome? (Select all that apply.)
A)Excessive tobacco smoking
B)Inadequate hydration
C)Excessive exercise
D)Inadequate caloric intake
E)Excessive consumption of alcohol
Q2) Which instruction by the nurse is accurate to include in a patient's care to manage metabolic syndrome?
A)Encourage the client to exercise 20 minutes every day.
B)Eliminate alcohol intake.
C)Increase simple carbohydrates in the diet.
D)Reduce stress.
Q3) Which cardiovascular condition(s) is/are related to coronary artery diseases (CADs)? (Select all that apply.)
A)Angina pectoris
B)Pulmonary stenosis
C)Acute myocardial infarction
D)Pericarditis
E)Venous stasis ulcers

24
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer niacin for the first time to a patient being treated for dyslipidemia.Before administering this medication, the nurse will assess: (Select all that apply.)
A)blood glucose levels.
B)blood pressure.
C)heart rate.
D)temperature.
E)oxygen saturation.
Q2) Which lipoprotein contributes to the development of atherosclerosis?
A)Chylomicrons
B)Very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL)
C)Low-density lipoprotein chylomicron (LDL C)
D)High-density lipoprotein chylomicron (HDL C)
Q3) Which vitamin has antilipemic actions?
A)C
B)A
C)D
D)B<sub>3</sub>
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Q1) The nurse is explaining to a patient how ACE inhibitors affect blood pressure.Which statement accurately describes the action of these medications?
A)They increase aldosterone secretion.
B)They inhibit vasoconstriction.
C)They lower heart rate.
D)They promote sodium retention.
Q2) Which statement(s) about diuretics is/are true? (Select all that apply.)
A)A mechanism of action for the antihypertensive effects of diuretics includes volume depletion.
B)They have been shown to reduce cardiovascular morbidity associated with hypertension.
C)Thiazide diuretics are effective only if renal creatinine clearance is less than 30 mL/min.
D)Diuretics are sodium sparing.
E)Electrolytes must be evaluated periodically for patients on loop diuretics.
Q3) If blood pressure is 120/70, what is the MAP?
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Q1) A patient is taking amiodarone (Cordarone) for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and begins to complain of dizziness.What will the nurse instruct the patient to do?
A)Discontinue the medication immediately.
B)Decrease the medication dosage for 1 week, and then resume the original order.
C)Change positions slowly.
D)Increase the dosage per health care provider directions.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer procainamide hydrochloride for the first time to a patient newly diagnosed with atrial fibrillation.Before administering this medication, the nurse will assess: (Select all that apply.)
A)cardiac rhythm.
B)blood pressure.
C)oxygen saturation.
D)blood glucose levels.
E)liver function tests.
Q3) Amiodarone is contraindicated for patients with which condition?
A)Pulmonary edema
B)Severe sinus node dysfunction causing bradycardia
C)Atrial fibrillation
D)Premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)
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Q1) How do beta adrenergic blocking agents reduce myocardial oxygen demand?
A)By inhibiting the stimulation of norepinephrine and epinephrine
B)By increasing the production of dopamine and acetylcholine
C)By delaying the destruction of acetylcholinesterase and cholinesterase
D)By enhancing the sensitivity of alpha receptors and beta receptors
Q2) Which instruction will the nurse include when teaching a patient about the administration of translingual nitroglycerin spray?
A)Shake the container to disperse the medication evenly.
B)Inhale the medication slowly over 1 to 2 minutes.
C)Administer the medication under the tongue.
D)Close the mouth and "swallow" the spray.
Q3) What is the rationale behind administering calcium channel blockers to patients with angina?
A)They decrease heart rate.
B)They dilate blood vessels.
C)They increase cardiac contractility.
D)They promote fluid excretion.
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Q1) The nurse has admitted a resident with the diagnosis of PVD to a long term care facility.When providing care to this patient, the nurse will: (Select all that apply.)
A)initiate elevation of lower extremities.
B)implement pain management as ordered.
C)assess skin temperature.
D)vigorously dry feet after washing.
E)palpate pedal pulses.
Q2) Which patient statement indicates to the nurse that the patient has a good understanding of PVD?
A)"Symptoms are warning signs of the increased potential to develop diseases."
B)"Pharmacologic treatments can reverse the disease process."
C)"Surgical interventions will cure the disease."
D)"Controlling contributing factors may affect the progression of the disease."
Q3) What is the action of pentoxifylline (Trental), a hemorheologic agent used to treat chronic occlusive arteriole disease?
A)Vasodilates the peripheral arteries
B)Potentiates the blood clotting mechanism
C)Increases erythrocyte flexibility
D)Increases blood viscosity
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Q1) Which action will the nurse implement to decrease the risk of clot formation in an older patient on bed rest?
A)Assess peripheral pulses.
B)Encourage passive leg exercises.
C)Limit fluid intake.
D)Position pillows behind the knees.
Q2) Anticoagulant therapy may be used for which situation(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A)To prevent stroke in patients at high risk
B)Following a myocardial infarction
C)Following total hip or knee joint replacement surgery
D)With DVT
E)To prevent thrombosis in immobilized patients
F)Peptic ulcer disease
Q3) What is the mechanism of action of drugs used to treat thromboembolic disease?
A)Dissolving clots and preventing formation of new clots
B)Making platelets more flexible and preventing formation of new clots
C)Causing vasodilation and increased blood flow
D)Preventing platelet aggregation and inhibiting clot formation
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Q1) Which agents stimulate the heart to increase the force of contractions, thereby increasing cardiac output?
A)Inotropic
B)Chronotropic
C)Isotonic
D)Isopropyl
Q2) The nurse is providing teaching to a patient with heart failure who has been prescribed nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker.Which statement by the nurse is accurate?
A)"This medication dilates your coronary arteries."
B)"This medication will help your kidneys get rid of fluid."
C)"This medication reduces volume returning to your heart so it doesn't overstretch."
D)"This medication reduces the resistance your heart has to pump against."
Q3) Which drug is used to obtain vasodilation in the treatment of chronic heart failure?
A)ACTH
B)ACE inhibitors
C)ARBs
D)ANB agents
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Q1) Which condition warrants the use of acetazolamide (Diamox) as a diuretic?
A)Increased intracranial pressure
B)Increased extravascular fluid pressure
C)Increased intraocular pressure
D)Periorbital edema
Q2) A patient who has heart failure and difficulty breathing is being admitted.Which physical assessment(s) indicate(s) fluid volume excess? (Select all that apply.)
A)Rapid, bounding, irregular pulse rate
B)Clear lung sounds
C)3+ pitting ankle edema
D)Neck vein engorgement
E)Shortness of breath
Q3) The nurse is reviewing lab work received on a patient admitted with the diagnosis of dehydration.The nurse will notify the physician of which lab value?
A)Serum sodium level: 115 mEq/L
B)Serum potassium level: 5.0 mEq/L
C)Serum sodium level: 140 mEq/L
D)Serum potassium level: 3.5 mEq/L
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Q1) Which is a serious adverse effect of decongestants?
A)Hypotension
B)Hypertension
C)Orbital edema
D)Facial flushing
Q2) Which medication may be given to patients with allergic seasonal rhinitis who do not respond to antihistamines and sympathomimetics?
A)Leukotrienes
B)Mineralocorticoids
C)Corticosteroids
D)Cortisol
Q3) Which topically active aerosol steroids are highly effective for reducing sneezing, nasal itching, stuffiness, and rhinorrhea? (Select all that apply.)
A)Beclomethasone (Beconase AQ)
B)Prednisone (Deltasone)
C)Fluticasone (Flonase)
D)Flunisolide (Nasarel)
E)Budesonide (Rhinocort Aqua)
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Q1) A child has been diagnosed with asthma and the nurse is providing education to the family.Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further teaching?
A)"I will place the stuffed animals in the freezer overnight."
B)"We will confine our dog to the kitchen area."
C)"I should wash bedding in hot water."
D)"A damp cloth should be used when I dust."
Q2) A patient is seen in the emergency department.The patient had been maintained on theophylline (Theo Dur), and a blood sample reveals the serum theophylline level is subtherapeutic.Which may cause a subtherapeutic serum level?
A)Cimetidine use
B)Drug tolerance
C)Smoking
D)Overuse of the inhaler
Q3) What is the reason for administering potassium iodide to a patient with emphysema?
A)To increase blood iodide levels
B)To decrease mucus viscosity
C)To reduce metabolic needs of the body
D)To decrease bronchial irritation
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Q1) Which infection is often called the "disease of the diseased" because it appears in debilitated patients?
A)Aspergillosis
B)Candidiasis
C)Trichomoniasis
D)Brucellosis
Q2) In addition to discomfort, which are adverse effects of xerostomia? (Select all that apply.)
A)Reduced taste and appetite
B)Excessive salivation
C)Difficulty chewing and swallowing food
D)Increase in dental caries
E)Difficulty with speech
F)Improved taste and enjoyment of food
Q3) Which local anesthetic is used for inflammation of oral mucous membranes?
A)Chlorhexidine (Peridex)
B)2% viscous lidocaine
C)Nystatin (Mycostatin)
D)Hydrogen peroxide
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Q1) Which factor(s) contribute(s) to the development of PUD? (Select all that apply.)
A)Cigarette smoking
B)Stress
C)Genetics
D)Excessive ingestion of milk products
E)H.pylori
Q2) A patient with PUD asks the nurse about the action of prokinetic medications.Which explanation by the nurse is accurate?
A)It blocks the formation of hydrochloric acid, reducing irritation of the gastric mucosa.
B)It increases the lower esophageal sphincter muscle pressure and peristalsis.
C)It reduces the secretion of saliva, hydrochloric acid, pepsin, bile, and other enzymatic fluids.
D)It decreases the volume of hydrochloric acid produced, increasing the gastric pH.
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Q1) Why is drug therapy important for selected causes of nausea and vomiting? (Select all that apply.)
A)Relieves the distress associated with nausea and vomiting
B)Prevents aspiration of gastric contents into the lung
C)Prevents dehydration
D)Prevents electrolyte imbalances
E)Increases intracranial pressure
Q2) The nurse is caring for a 27-year-old patient taking a cannabinoid during chemotherapy.Which consideration will the nurse take into account?
A)Antihistamines may potentiate the effects.
B)Monitor the patient for fluid volume excess.
C)Previous use of marijuana requires increased dosage.
D)Inform the patient to avoid the intake of potassium.
Q3) The nurse is assessing a patient with nausea and vomiting.Which additional autonomic symptoms that often accompany vomiting will the nurse observe?
A)Bradycardia, diarrhea, and flushing
B)Pallor, sweating, and tachycardia
C)Urinary urgency, chills, and dizziness
D)Fever, hyperventilation, and bradycardia
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51079
Sample Questions
Q1) Which instruction will the nurse include in the discharge teaching of a patient taking psyllium?
A)"Administer with a full glass of water."
B)"Limit the intake of high fiber foods."
C)"Avoid mixing in juice."
D)"Fat soluble vitamin deficiency is common."
Q2) Which drug would be most effective for an obstetric patient who is complaining of constipation as a result of her enlarging uterus and use of prenatal vitamins?
A)Saline laxative
B)Lubricant laxative
C)Stimulant laxative
D)Mineral oil
Q3) Which instruction by the nurse will assist in the patient's understanding of lactulose, an osmotic laxative?
A)"This medication draws water into the intestine and stimulates defecation."
B)"There is increased irritability directly on the intestinal wall."
C)"There is lubrication of the intestinal wall that softens the stool."
D)"There is an effect on the nerves to increase the peristalsis of the intestinal smooth muscle."
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Q1) A 65-year-old man is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus.Which patient symptom(s) would indicate type 1 diabetes mellitus, and not type 2? (Select all that apply.)
A)Impotence
B)Increased thirst over the past week
C)A 10-pound weight loss within the past month
D)Polyphagia
E)Ketoacidosis
Q2) What laboratory test is the preferred screening test for diabetes in children and nonpregnant adults?
A)FPG
B)ECG
C)GTT
D)A<sub>1c</sub>
Q3) What test determines glycemic control over the previous 8 to 10 weeks?
A)24 hour glucose clearance test (GTT)
B)Fructosamine test
C)Fasting blood sugar (FBS)
D)A<sub>1c</sub> test
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Q1) Which nursing diagnosis may be identified for a patient with hyperthyroidism?
A)Imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements
B)Constipation
C)Disturbed sleep pattern
D)Ineffective airway clearance
Q2) Which clinical symptom(s) would the nurse observe in a patient with thyrotoxicosis?
(Select all that apply.)
A)Decreased metabolic rate
B)Decreased heart rate
C)Decreased body temperature
D)Muscle tremors
E)Restlessness
F)Anxiety
G)Sweating
Q3) Which patient would be a candidate for radioactive iodine therapy?
A)A 17-year-old woman with Graves' disease
B)A 64-year-old woman with hypothyroidism
C)A 46-year-old man with heart disease and thyroid cancer
D)An 82-year-old man with myxedema crisis
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Q1) A patient who has been taking glucocorticoids over the past 3 months for Crohn's disease comes in for a follow up visit.On assessment, the nurse notes facial edema, thinning extremities, and a fatty deposition (buffalo hump) on the scapular area.The patient reports the symptoms of the Crohn's disease are "somewhat better." What will the nurse expect the treatment to be?
A)Decrease the steroid dosage by one half.
B)Increase the steroid dosage.
C)Maintain the steroid dosage.
D)Immediately stop the steroid dosage.
Q2) What is the rationale for administering glucocorticoid therapy as an adjunct to chemotherapeutic agents?
A)Assists with pain control
B)Raises blood sugar to meet the increased metabolic needs
C)Produces immunosuppression effects
D)Reduces mucositis
Q3) Which condition would require mineralocorticoid replacement?
A)Addison's disease
B)Diabetes insipidus
C)Myxedema
D)Glomerulonephritis
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Q1) Which statement is true regarding androgen therapy?
A)Androgen use may cause hyperglycemia.
B)Androgen should be administered with food or milk to avoid gastric irritation.
C)Signs of masculinization will appear and are reversible.
D)Electrolyte imbalances are extremely rare.
Q2) When preparing a female patient for the endocrine changes that may occur as a result of androgen changes, the nurse will include information regarding:
A)priapism.
B)voice changes.
C)gynecomastia.
D)fluid retention.
Q3) Which patient on oral contraceptive therapy will be at greatest risk for heart attack?
A)A 34-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis
B)A 28-year-old woman with a history of eczema
C)A 36-year-old woman who smokes half a pack per day
D)A 36-year-old woman who has a history of abnormal Pap smears
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Q1) Which drug will the nurse administer to prevent neonatal conjunctivitis in the newborn?
A)Silver nitrate
B)Dexamethasone
C)Erythromycin
D)Vitamin K
Q2) What will the nurse include when teaching a postpartum patient about expected adverse effects of Rh<sub>o</sub>(D) immune globulin? (Select all that apply.)
A)Nausea
B)Constipation
C)Fever
D)Insomnia
E)Aches
F)Diarrhea
G)Anorexia
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Q1) Why must caution be used when taking a phosphodiesterase inhibitor to enhance male sexual function?
A)It can become habit forming.
B)Life-threatening consequences can occur with cardiovascular disorders.
C)It is an ineffective treatment.
D)It is expensive and available only by special prescription.
Q2) Which type of drug is most effective in the treatment of erectile dysfunction (ED)?
A)Phosphodiesterase inhibitors
B)Antiandrogen agents
C)Sympathomimetic agents
D)Alpha<sub>1</sub> adrenergic blocking agents
Q3) Which is more likely to be experienced by women taking the mini pill as an oral contraceptive?
A)Ovulation, dysmenorrhea, and break-through bleeding
B)Excessive weight gain and breast tenderness
C)Increased estrogen related adverse effects
D)Difficulty breastfeeding after pregnancy
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Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient about the anticholinergic agent prescribed for urinary retention.Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A)"I will chew gum to relieve dry mouth."
B)"I will limit my fluid intake."
C)"I will eat fresh fruits."
D)"I will not drive if I develop blurred vision."
Q2) A 14-year-old male is taking tolterodine (Detrol).What is the action of this drug?
A)Restores bladder tone and function
B)Decreases the urge to void
C)Prevents urinary retention
D)Acidifies urine
Q3) The nurse is preparing to administer a single dose packet of fosfomycin to a patient diagnosed with a UTI.When preparing this medication, the nurse will:
A)pour contents into a souffle cup and administer by mouth.
B)mix with 3 mL of normal saline and inject subcutaneously.
C)pour contents into 90 mL of juice, stir, and administer by mouth.
D)mix contents with 120 mL of water and administer by mouth.
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Q1) A factory worker had a chemical inadvertently splashed into his right eye.An eyewash was used at the work site.Which nursing assessment(s) would be important to include? (Select all that apply.)
A)Visual acuity
B)Presence of pain, blurred or halo vision, or lack of vision
C)Type of chemical
D)Presence of nystagmus
E)Presence of contacts or use of eyeglasses
Q2) What information will the nurse include when teaching the patient and family about postoperative care for a trabeculectomy? (Select all that apply.)
A)Use aseptic technique for all dressing changes and medication administration.
B)Place the patient on the operated side.
C)Avoid heavy lifting.
D)Redness in the eye, pain, and swelling are common occurrences after surgery.
E)Avoid straining on defecation.
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Q1) Which treatment(s) may be used alone or in combination for the treatment of cancer? (Select all that apply.)
A)Surgery
B)Radiation
C)Chemotherapy
D)Immunotherapy
E)Phlebotomy
Q2) The cell cycle-specific agent vincristine sulphate (Oncovin) acts in which phase of the cell's life cycle?
A)S phase
B)Mitotic phase
C)Phase G<sub>1</sub>
D)Phase G<sub>0</sub>
Q3) Major chemotherapeutic agents include: (Select all that apply.)
A)alkylating agents.
B)antineoplastic antibiotics.
C)hormones.
D)antimetabolites.
E)antinuclear antibodies.
F)chelating agents.
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Q1) A patient taking antipsychotic medication for schizophrenia is admitted with a temperature of 106° F.The admitting diagnosis is neuroleptic malignant syndrome resulting from antipsychotic medication.Which drug is indicated in treatment of this condition?
A)Edrophonium (Tensilon)
B)Dantrolene (Dantrium)
C)Baclofen (Lioresal)
D)Metaxalone (Skelaxin)
Q2) Which laboratory values will the nurse review prior to beginning medication therapy for skeletal and muscle disorders?
A)Sodium, magnesium, and chloride
B)C-reactive protein (CRP), human leukocyte antigen (HLA), and liver function tests
C)Arterial blood gases (ABGs), complete blood count (CBC), and electrolytes
D)Glucose, high density lipoproteins (HDL), and prothrombin time (PT)
Q3) Which common adverse effects occur with neuromuscular-blocking agents?
A)Fever
B)Flushing
C)Nausea
D)Ataxia
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult with a history of asthma, rhinitis, and no known drug allergies has been admitted to receive IV antimicrobial therapy for bronchitis.The patient has received the oral form of the antimicrobial agent in the past.Which factors increase the risk for an allergic reaction? (Select all that apply.)
A)Medical history of asthma
B)The patient's age
C)IV antimicrobial therapy
D)Medical history of rhinitis
E)Subsequent use of the same antimicrobial therapy
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient being treated with an antimicrobial agent for the diagnosis of a sexually transmitted infection.Which statement made by the patient shows a need for further education?
A)"I will use a barrier method when having sexual intercourse during therapy."
B)"I will increase fluid intake to 2000 to 3000 mL/day."
C)"I will increase protein in my diet."
D)"I will rest frequently."
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Q1) A newly admitted patient asks the nurse why the physician has ordered the DASH diet for him.The nurse informs the patient that this diet is ordered to encourage healthy eating specifically for the diagnosis of:
A)diabetes.
B)hypertension.
C)arthritis.
D)seizure disorder.
Q2) A patient is being discharged on psyllium (Metamucil).Which explanation(s) by the nurse would be accurate regarding fiber intake? (Select all that apply.)
A)It adds bulk to fecal content.
B)It enhances gastric emptying.
C)It decreases blood cholesterol concentration.
D)It decreases postprandial blood glucose concentration.
E)It stimulates the appetite.
Q3) Which food is a good source of vitamin A?
A)Sweet potatoes
B)Apples
C)Bananas
D)Whole grain bread
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Q1) A patient diagnosed with diabetes, hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and angina reports to the nurse that she is taking an aloe juice drink to treat constipation.When assessing this patient for adverse interactions, the nurse will prioritize:
A)pulse rate.
B)blood pressure.
C)lung sounds.
D)blood glucose monitoring.
Q2) What is St.John's wort used to treat?
A)Rheumatoid arthritis
B)Asthma
C)Depression
D)Viral infections
Q3) What is black cohosh used for?
A)Preventing miscarriage during the first trimester
B)Reducing symptoms of premenstrual syndrome
C)Providing antispasmodic activity of the gastrointestinal (GI) system
D)Controlling migraine headaches
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Q1) The nurse is transcribing an order for disulfiram on a patient in alcohol rehabilitation.When planning the time of day to administer this medication the nurse will document that disulfiram be given:
A)before breakfast.
B)with lunch.
C)before dinner.
D)at bedtime.
Q2) Which protects individuals who have been successfully rehabilitated from substance abuse from discrimination related to past addiction?
A)Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
B)National Council on Alcoholism and Drug Dependence
C)Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF)
D)American Medical Association (AMA)
Q3) What effect will occur if a patient being treated with naltrexone (ReVia) for substance abuse ingests opioids or alcohol?
A)Increased euphoria
B)Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
C)Deep sedation
D)An absence of the "high" associated with drugs
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Q1) Which common adverse effect will the nurse expect to assess in a patient recently prescribed tacrine (Cognex)?
A)Dyspepsia
B)Bradycardia
C)Jaundice
D)Rash
Q2) Which laboratory test result would the nurse observe when a patient has hepatotoxicity?
A)Decreased bilirubin
B)Increased albumin
C)Decreased alkaline phosphatase
D)Increased alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with gout who has elevated uric acid levels.Which medication will likely be administered?
A)Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
B)Disulfiram (Antabuse)
C)Lactulose (Cephulac)
D)Memantine (Namenda)
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