Nursing Fundamentals
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Nursing Fundamentals introduces students to the essential principles and practices of the nursing profession, focusing on foundational knowledge, core competencies, and ethical standards required for effective patient care. This course covers topics such as basic nursing skills, patient assessment, infection control, safety measures, communication techniques, and the nursing process. Emphasis is placed on developing critical thinking, clinical reasoning, and compassionate care through both theoretical learning and hands-on experience in simulated and real healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology Global 10th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a response increases a disturbance,the control system is classified as a ________ feedback system.
A)deficit
B)negative
C)neutral
D)polarized
E)positive
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following organs is described as retroperitoneal?
A)stomach
B)kidney
C)urinary bladder
D)large intestine
E)spleen
Answer: B
Q3) Name the organs found in the thoracic cavity.
Answer: lungs,heart,trachea,esophagus,thymus,major blood vessels connected to the heart
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) A high-energy bond in ATP is present between A)adenine and ribose.
B)adenine and a phosphate group.
C)the first and second phosphate group.
D)the second and third phosphate group.
E)phosphate groups 1 and 2 and between phosphate groups 2 and 3.
Answer: E
Q2) The most important metabolic fuel molecule in the body is A)sucrose.
B)caffeine.
C)protein.
D)vitamins.
E)glucose.
Answer: E
Q3) What role do buffer systems play in the human body?
Answer: Buffer systems help maintain pH within normal limits by removing or replacing hydrogen ions as needed.
Q4) Explain the role of water molecules in polysaccharide formation.
Answer: Water molecules are removed in the dehydration synthesis of polysaccharides.
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient suffers blood loss and is given IV fluids that contain an impermeable carbohydrate called dextran,which serves to
A)provide nutrition.
B)increase the osmolarity of the blood.
C)make the blood hypertonic.
D)decrease the osmolarity of the blood.
E)reduce blood clotting.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is false about DNA fingerprinting?
A)determined by repetitive protein sequences
B)unique to each individual with the exception of identical twins
C)used extensively during crime scene investigations
D)may be obtained from blood,semen,hair,and other tissues
E)based on short tandem repeats (STRs)in the DNA
Answer: A
Q3) Define osmosis.
Answer: Osmosis is the transfer of water across a semipermeable membrane due to a difference in concentration of impermeable solute.
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dead skin cells are shed in thin sheets because they are held together by "spots" of proteoglycan reinforced by intermediate filaments.Such strong intercellular connections are called
A)gap junctions.
B)intermediate junctions.
C)tight junctions.
D)desmosomes.
E)junctional complexes.
Q2) Wharton's jelly is a form of
A)Marfan's syndrome.
B)mucous connective tissue.
C)ground substance.
D)collagen fiber.
E)embryonic epithelium.
Q3) Transitional epithelium is found
A)lining the urinary bladder.
B)lining the ducts that drain sweat glands.
C)lining kidney tubules.
D)lining the stomach.
E)at the surface of the skin.
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about hairs is false?
A)Eyebrows are terminal hairs.
B)Terminal hairs are in the axilla.
C)Vellus hairs are on the limbs of children until puberty.
D)A terminal hair can detach but remain in the hair follicle as a club hair.
E)Club hairs are ingrown hairs.
Q2) The combination of blood clot,fibroblasts,and extensive capillary network that is formed in injured skin is called ________ tissue.
A)germinative
B)spinous
C)fibrocytic
D)granulation
E)abscess
Q3) The protein that permits stretching and recoiling of the skin is A)collagen.
B)melanin.
C)keratin.
D)elastin.
E)carotene.
Q4) Why is regional infection or inflammation of the skin usually very painful?
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Chapter 6: Osseous Tissue and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) When production of sex hormones increases at puberty,epiphyseal plates
A)widen.
B)become narrower.
C)increase slowly.
D)accelerate rapidly,but mostly in thickness.
E)are hardly affected.
Q2) During the process of ________,an existing tissue is replaced by bone.
A)phosphorylation
B)resorption
C)ossification
D)osteopropagation
E)remodeling
Q3) How would removing hydroxyapatite from bone matrix affect the physical properties of a bone?
A)The bone would be less flexible.
B)The bone would be stronger.
C)The bone would be more brittle.
D)The bone would be more flexible.
E)The bone would be less compressible.
Q4) What is osteopenia? Name and define two forms of osteopenia.
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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infection of the large process on the temporal bone would be called A)tinitis.
B)encephalitis.
C)meningitis.
D)petrositis.
E)mastoiditis.
Q2) While playing softball,Gina is struck in the frontal bone by a wild pitch.Which of the following complaints would you expect her to have?
A)a broken jaw
B)a black eye
C)a headache
D)a sore chest
E)a sore back
Q3) Which bone(s)include(s)a manubrium?
A)scapula
B)clavicle
C)sternum
D)cervical vertebrae #1 and #2
E)all of the vertebrae
Q4) What role do the fontanelles play in infant development?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following adapts the pectoral girdle to a wide range of movement?
A)heavy bones
B)relatively weak joints
C)tough ligaments and tendons
D)strong joint between scapula and ribs
E)flexible sternum
Q2) Identify the bone labeled "7."
A)cuboid
B)cuneiform I
C)navicular
D)talus
E)calcaneus
Q3) The three sides of what bone form a broad triangle?
A)radius
B)clavicle
C)vertebra
D)sternum
E)scapula
Q4) Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female.
Q5) What is the distinction between the false pelvis and the true pelvis?
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the inferior region of the shoulder joint most vulnerable to dislocation?
Q2) Structurally,the pubic symphysis is classified as a ________ articulation.
A)cartilaginous
B)bony
C)synovial
D)fibrous
E)diarthrotic
Q3) A herniated disc occurs when the A)nucleus pulposus breaks through the anulus fibrosus.
B)disc slips out from between the adjacent vertebrae.
C)adjacent bones fuse.
D)knee is hyperextended.
E)inner core of the disc is squeezed to one side.
Q4) Which structure acts as a cushion and consists of fibrous cartilage?
Q5) How are osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis different?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) After heavy exercise,if energy reserves in a muscle are depleted,________ occurs.
A)an oxygen debt
B)paralysis
C)treppe
D)tetanus
E)atrophy
Q2) The muscle weakness of myasthenia gravis results from
A)insufficient acetylcholine release from presynaptic vesicles.
B)loss of acetylcholine receptors in the end-plate membrane.
C)the motor neuron action potential being too small to stimulate the muscle fibers.
D)excessive acetylcholinesterase that destroys the neurotransmitter.
E)inability of the muscle fiber to produce ATP.
Q3) Which of the following is a recognized function of skeletal muscle?
A)produce movement
B)maintain posture
C)maintain body temperature
D)guard body entrances and exits
E)All of the answers are correct.
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscles including the term capitis would be found within or attached to the A)head.
B)neck.
C)thorax.
D)abdomen.
E)groin.
Q2) Identify the muscle labeled "20."
A)biceps brachii
B)brachioradialis
C)triceps brachii
D)pronator teres
E)deltoid
Q3) If the anterior compartment of the lower leg was suffering from "compartment syndrome," which of these muscles would be at risk of injury?
A)tibialis anterior and tibialis posterior
B)gastrocnemius and soleus
C)extensor digitorum longus
D)tibialis anterior,extensor hallucis longus,and extensor digitorum longus
E)rectus femoris and the adjacent vastus muscles
Q4) How do first-,second-,and third-class levers differ?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Neural Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord.
A)autonomic
B)peripheral
C)central
D)efferent
E)afferent
Q2) Voltage-gated sodium channels have both an activation gate and a(n)________ gate.
A)inactivation
B)ion
C)swinging
D)repolarization
E)threshold
Q3) A neuron that receives neurotransmitter from another neuron is called
A)the presynaptic neuron.
B)the motor neuron.
C)an oligodendrocyte.
D)a satellite cell.
E)the postsynaptic neuron.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The layer of the meninges in direct contact with the spinal cord is the A)dura mater.
B)subarachnoid space.
C)arachnoid.
D)pia mater.
E)choroid plexus.
Q2) Spinal nerves from the sacral region of the cord innervate the ________ muscles.
A)shoulder
B)intercostal
C)abdominal
D)leg
E)facial
Q3) Identify the structure labeled "4."
A)spinal nerve
B)gray ramus
C)white ramus
D)dorsal ramus
E)ventral ramus
Q4) What is a reflex arc? What components must be present to qualify?
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) A brain hemorrhage is life-threatening because
A)neurological changes will occur.
B)some areas of the brain will not be receiving blood.
C)the person can lose consciousness.
D)the pressure increase within the space can distort and potentially damage brain tissue.
E)All of these problems are related to brain hemorrhages.
Q2) At the optic chiasm,
A)axons from the medial halves of each retina cross.
B)axons from the lateral halves of each retina cross.
C)axons from the retinae synapse on those from the other half.
D)the olfactory nerve crosses to the opposite side of the brain.
E)the optic nerve enters the cerebellum.
Q3) Which of the following is/are true of the epithalamus?
A)contains the mammillary body
B)forms the roof of the diencephalon
C)processes sensory information and relays it to the cerebrum
D)forms the cerebrum
E)creates the lateral ventricles
Q4) Why is injury to the medulla oblongata frequently fatal?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sense of proprioception passes along the ________ pathway.
A)rubriocerebellar
B)corticospinal
C)spinocerebellar
D)decussation pathways
E)ganglion
Q2) The ________ nervous system carries impulses to skeletal muscles.
A)somatic
B)sympathetic
C)parasympathetic
D)afferent
E)primitive
Q3) Damage to the tectospinal tracts would interfere with the ability to A)position the arms.
B)monitor body position.
C)make reflex responses of the head and neck in response to sudden movements or loud noises.
D)control motor units located in the leg.
E)coordinate eating and swallowing movements.
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Chapter 16: The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher-Order Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Collateral ganglia contain neurons that innervate tissues and organs in which cavity?
A)thoracic
B)pelvic
C)abdominal
D)craniosacral
E)abdominopelvic
Q2) A neuron with nicotinic receptors is exposed to acetylcholine.This will lead to
A)activation of chemically-gated ion channels.
B)excitation of the neuron.
C)entry of sodium ions into the neuron.
D)depolarization of the neuron.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) The neurotransmitter ACH is
A)always excitatory when used in the synapses of the sympathetic nervous system.
B)secreted by the postganglionic nervous.
C)going to reduce the activity of the other neurotransmitter norepinephrine.
D)broken down by monoamine oxidase.
E)a chemical similar to the structure of adrenalin.
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Q4) Why is the suprarenal medulla considered to be a modified sympathetic ganglion?
Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vestibular nuclei at the boundary of the pons and the medulla function in all of the following except
A)integrating the vestibular information arriving from each side of the head.
B)relaying vestibular information to the cerebellum.
C)relaying vestibular information to the cerebral cortex.
D)sending commands to motor nuclei in the brain stem and spinal cord.
E)sending information to the vestibular complex of the inner ear.
Q2) An adult has approximately ________ taste buds.
A)100
B)5,000
C)4,000,000
D)300
E)30,000
Q3) The formal term for the sense of balance and equilibrium is the ________ sense.
A)nociception
B)proprioception
C)olfactory
D)gustatory
E)vestibular
Q4) What six basic steps are involved in the process of hearing?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cushing's disease results from an excess of A)growth hormone.
B)parathyroid hormone.
C)ADH.
D)glucocorticoids.
E)epinephrine.
Q2) A structure known as the corpus luteum secretes
A)testosterone.
B)progesterone.
C)aldosterone.
D)cortisone.
E)androstenedione.
Q3) Hormone release may be controlled by which of the following factors?
A)blood level of an ion like calcium
B)blood level of glucose
C)blood level of a hormone
D)nervous stimuli
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q4) What does it mean to say that the pancreas is both an endocrine and an exocrine organ?
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider the following results from a blood lab test.Which value is most likely abnormal?
A)RBCs-5.2 million/µl
B)platelets-280,000/µl
C)leukocytes-8600/µl
D)hemoglobin-10.7 g/100 ml
E)hematocrit-44 percent
Q2) A person whose platelet count is 40,000/µl is suffering from A)thrombocytosis.
B)leukocytosis.
C)hemocytosis.
D)thrombocytopenia.
E)leukopenia.
Q3) The most abundant component of plasma is A)ions.
B)proteins. C)water.
D)gases.
E)nutrients.
Q4) Why do people with advanced kidney disease commonly become anemic?
21
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Chapter 20: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pulmonary veins carry blood to the A)heart.
B)lungs.
C)brain.
D)intestines.
E)liver.
Q2) The first heart sound ("lubb")is associated with A)atrial systole.
B)closing of the atrioventricular valves.
C)opening of the atrioventricular valves.
D)closing of the semilunar valves.
E)opening of the semilunar valves.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true regarding cardiac muscle?
A)Its main source of ATP production is glycogen.
B)The actin and myosin myofilaments are not arranged in sarcomeres.
C)Cardiac muscle preferentially metabolizes anaerobically.
D)There are specialized gap junctions in cardiac muscle not found in skeletal or smooth muscles.
E)Cardiac muscle goes into sustained contractions faster than skeletal muscle.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) As blood circulates from arteries into capillaries,the total cross-sectional area of capillaries
A)decreases and causes the blood velocity to decrease.
B)is the same as the total cross-sectional area of arteries and blood velocity is equal between arteries and capillaries.
C)increases and causes the blood velocity to decrease.
D)increases and causes the blood velocity to increase.
E)decreases and causes the blood velocity to increase.
Q2) Which of the following affects blood flow through the body?
A)blood viscosity
B)vessel diameter
C)turbulence
D)vascular resistance
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) The ________ vein ascends along the radial side of the forearm.
A)cephalic
B)basilic
C)brachial
D)median cubital
E)ulnar
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fixed macrophages that are found in the central nervous system are called A)astrocytes.
B)oligodendrocytes.
C)microglia.
D)Kupffer cells.
E)ventricular macrophages.
Q2) The white pulp of the spleen is populated by A)lymphocytes.
B)trabeculae.
C)arteries.
D)veins.
E)fibrous connective tissue.
Q3) Areas of the spleen that contain large aggregations of lymphocytes are known as A)Peyer's patches.
B)adenoids.
C)white pulp.
D)red pulp.
E)lymph nodes.
Q4) What is MALT? What role does it play in the body's defenses?
Q5) List and briefly describe the components of the lymphatic system.
24
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term bronchiolar smooth muscle?
A)accessory muscle of expiration
B)accessory muscle of inspiration
C)primary muscle of inspiration
D)contraction increases airway resistance
E)affects lung compliance
Q2) Tina is singing a song.At a certain point in the song,she forces a large volume of air out of the glottis and at the same time increases the tension on her vocal cords.The sound that she produces is
A)low pitched and loud.
B)high pitched and loud.
C)low pitched and soft.
D)high pitched and soft.
E)medium pitched and soft.
Q3) What is hypercapnia? How does it affect respiration? What are common causes?
Q4) What are the primary functions of the respiratory system?
Q5) A newborn infant is found dead,abandoned by the road.Among the many questions that the police would like answered is whether the infant was stillborn.How could the medical examiner tell?
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The oral cavity is also known as the ________ cavity.
A)gingivae
B)pharyngeal
C)digestive
D)buccal
E)lingual
Q2) If the lingual frenulum is too restrictive,an individual
A)has a condition called ankyloglossia.
B)has difficulty eating.
C)cannot speak normally.
D)cannot protract the tongue as far as most individuals.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) Which structure controls the contraction of the muscularis externa?
A)2
B)8
C)9
D)10
E)11
Q4) Outline the usual pathway for digestion and absorption of triglycerides (fats).
Q5) Leon has gallstones.His doctor puts him on a diet low in fat.Why?
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Chapter 25: Metabolism and Energetics
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Q1) The condition when excessive fluid loss from sweating disrupts thermoregulatory mechanisms is known as A)thermoneogenesis.
B)heat exhaustion.
C)hydrosis.
D)heat stroke.
E)hypothermia.
Q2) Inorganic ions released through the dissociation of electrolytes are called A)nutrients.
B)vitamins.
C)trace minerals.
D)free radicals.
E)minerals.
Q3) ________ are the largest lipoproteins,ranging in diameter up to 0.5 µm,produced by intestinal epithelial cells from the fats in food.
A)Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs)
B)Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)
C)Intermediate-density lipoproteins (IDLs)
D)High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)
E)Chylomicrons
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What physiological process occurs at the structure labeled "1"?
A)reabsorption
B)excretion
C)secretion
D)filtration
E)micturition
Q2) The ________ test is often used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate.
A)inulin
B)glucose tolerance
C)CBC or complete blood count
D)SGOT
E)creatinine clearance
Q3) Which of the following statements is false regarding micturition?
A)When you relax the external urethral sphincter,the internal sphincter will relax.
B)Urination will be completed despite voluntary opposition.
C)Parasympathetic nervous control is involved with the micturition reflex.
D)Stretch receptors in the bladder are stimulated by the warm temperature of the urine.
E)Bladder contractions can force open the internal urethral sphincter.
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Chapter 27: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) Severe kidney damage,such as glomerulonephritis,often leads to
A)respiratory acidosis.
B)respiratory alkalosis.
C)metabolic acidosis.
D)metabolic alkalosis.
Q2) A person who consumes large amounts of sodium bicarbonate (baking soda)to settle an upset stomach risks
A)respiratory acidosis.
B)respiratory alkalosis.
C)metabolic acidosis.
D)metabolic alkalosis.
Q3) Angiotensin II produces a coordinated elevation in the ECF volume by
A)stimulating thirst.
B)causing the release of ADH.
C)triggering the production and secretion of aldosterone.
D)stimulating the kidneys to conserve sodium.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q4) Why does potassium concentration rise in patients with acidosis? What is this called? What effects does it have?
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term endometrium?
A)thick layer of smooth muscle cells
B)supports the uterus anteriorly
C)supports the uterus laterally
D)consists of a functional zone and a basilar zone of epithelium
E)After ovulation,the ovum is captured by it.
Q2) The paired erectile bodies in the penis are the
A)membranous urethra.
B)penile urethra.
C)corpus spongiosum.
D)corpora cavernosa.
E)prepuce.
Q3) The ductus deferens is approximately ________ cm long.
A)15-20
B)50-60
C)40-45
D)31-35
E)12
Q4) Imagine that a seven-year-old girl develops a hormone-secreting ovarian tumor derived from granulosa cells.What signs of the disease would you expect?
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
140 Verified Questions
140 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34567
Sample Questions
Q1) The mesoderm forms
A)muscle.
B)epidermis.
C)the brain.
D)the lining of the digestive tract.
E)respiratory epithelium.
Q2) Which embryonic germ layer forms the linings of the respiratory and digestive tracts?
A)mesoderm
B)ectoderm
C)trophoderm
D)endoderm
E)epiderm
Q3) During the ________ stage,the placenta is expelled from the uterus.
A)expulsion
B)dilation
C)crowning
D)exit
E)placental
Q4) List and briefly characterize the three trimesters of gestation.
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