Nursing Fundamentals Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Nursing Fundamentals introduces students to the essential concepts, skills, and roles of nursing practice. The course covers the history and evolution of nursing, ethical and legal considerations, communication techniques, and the nursing process. Students learn foundational clinical skills such as vital sign measurement, hygiene care, safety principles, infection control, basic assessment, and documentation. Emphasis is placed on promoting patient-centered care, critical thinking, and the development of professional behaviors necessary for effective nursing practice in a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology An Integrative Approach 2nd Edition by McKinley
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29 Chapters
3928 Verified Questions
3928 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Sciences of Anatomy and Physiology
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128 Verified Questions
128 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reinforcement of a stimulus so that a climax is reached is known as ____________.
Answer: positive feedback
Q2) Respiratory physiology is primarily the study of
A)cell shape within the alveoli of the lungs.
B)the branching pattern of the small airways of the lungs.
C)the tissue composition of the airways,air sacs,and blood vessels.
D)how gases are transferred between the lungs and the blood vessels supplying them.
Answer: D
Q3) In the anatomic position,the specimen rests horizontally on the examination table and the arms are extended away from the torso.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The level of organization one step more complex than the organ level is the______ level.
Answer: organ system
Q5) The hypogastric region is located ______ to the right iliac region.
Answer: medial
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Chapter 2: Atoms,Ions,and Molecules
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128 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All isotopes of a given element have the same atomic mass.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Within DNA,adenine makes hydrogen bonds with thymine,and guanine makes hydrogen bonds with cytosine.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Elements in the first column of the periodic table contain one electron in their outer shell.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Steroid hormones are nonpolar molecules that travel in the blood.Explain how such molecules interact with the water of the plasma.
Answer: Because they are nonpolar,steroids are hydrophobic and are excluded from dissolving within the watery plasma.Like other nonpolar plasma solutes,they require carrier proteins to be transported through the blood.
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Chapter 3: Energy,Chemical Reactions,and Cellular
Respiration
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125 Verified Questions
125 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which answer lists the steps of enzyme action in correct order
A)Formation of enzyme-substrate complex,induced fit,formation or breakage of chemical bonds,release of product
B)Induced fit,formation of enzyme-substrate complex,formation or breakage of chemical bonds,release of product
C)Formation or breakage of chemical bonds,induced fit,formation of enzyme-substrate complex,release of substrate
D)Induced fit,formation or breakage of chemical bonds,formation of enzyme-substrate complex,release of product
Answer: A
Q2) Enzymes that remove phosphate groups from their substrates are called
Answer: phosphatases phosphatase
Q3) Allosteric inhibitors are also called noncompetitive inhibitors.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Biology of the Cell
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151 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a skin wound is healing,cell contact on all sides is a strong stimulus for cell division.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Movement of a substance from an area of higher concentration to one where it is less concentrated is known as
A)equilibrium.
B)active transport.
C)diffusion.
D)facilitation.
E)selective transport.
Q3) Which statement is accurate
A)DNA is made up entirely of genes;a chromosome is the unwoven form of chromatin.
B)A sequence of nucleotides in DNA constitutes a gene;DNA and associated proteins form chromatin.
C)Human cells contain 46 genes;another name for a gene is a nucleosome.
D)Each nucleotide in a gene is bound by hydrogen to the next nucleotide in the sequence;chromatin is a nitrogenous base.
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6
Chapter 5: Tissue Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) What specialized feature of an epithelium consists of a reticular lamina,a lamina densa,and a lamina lucida
A)Microfilament
B)Desmosome
C)Fenestrated membrane
D)Basement membrane
E)Plasma membrane
Q2) Which connective tissue cells produce antibodies
A)Mast cells
B)Fibroblasts
C)Plasma cells
D)Mesenchymal cells
E)Fixed macrophages
Q3) Mucous connective tissue is found only in
A)the cartilage of the nose.
B)certain bones of the skull.
C)the umbilical cord.
D)serous fluid.
E)fibers of the respiratory system.
Q4) The term used to describe tissue death is _________.
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Freckles are the result of
A)melanocyte number and genetic inheritance.
B)melanocyte number and sun exposure.
C)melanocyte activity,genetic inheritance,and sun exposure.
D)melanocyte number,genetic inheritance,and diet.
E)melanocyte activity and diet.
Q2) After about 10 weeks of development,hair follicles begin to appear as pockets of cells,called hair _________.
Q3) Granulation tissue is
A)vascular connective tissue.
B)avascular connective tissue.
C)vascular epithelial tissue.
D)avascular epithelial tissue.
Q4) Carotene,a pigment that contributes to skin color,is acquired in the body by eating various yellow-orange vegetables.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The mammary glands of the breasts are modified ______ sweat glands.
Q6) Sebaceous glands discharge an oily,waxy secretion called _______.
Q7) The dermis is derived from the germ layer known as _________.
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System: Bone Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) During bone repair,how long does the stage of the bony callus last
A)12-24 hours
B)3-4 months
C)1-2 years
D)8-10 days
E)1-2 weeks
Q2) About 80% of the human skeleton is replaced yearly as a result of bone remodeling.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a bone is immersed in a weak acid such as vinegar for several days,its inorganic components will dissolve.What will be the result of such an experiment
A)The bone will dissolve completely.
B)The compact bone will dissolve,leaving only the inner spongy bone.
C)The bone will become extremely brittle.
D)The bone will become soft and bendable.
E)The spongy bone will dissolve,leaving only the outer compact bone.
Q4) The shaft of a long bone is called the _________.
Q5) A fracture of the distal end of the radius is a _________ fracture.
Q6) The spongy bone found within a flat bone is called _________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Skeletal System: Axial and Appendicular
Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) This figure shows the bones of the ankle and foot.Which number indicates the cuboid bone
A)3
B)4
C)10
D)8
E)9
Q2) The portion of the lower limb between the knee and the ankle is known as the _________ region,or leg.
Q3) This figure shows the humerus.What is the feature indicated by number 3
A)Surgical neck
B)Anatomical neck
C)Greater tubercle
D)Lesser tubercle
E)Deltoid tuberosity
Q4) The sacrum articulates with the ilium at a rough area of the ilium known as the auricular surface.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The palm of the hand is formed by the _________ bones.
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Chapter 9: Skeletal System: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) This figure shows the knee joint.What structure does number 4 indicate
A)Posterior cruciate ligament
B)Fibular collateral ligament
C)Medial meniscus
D)Lateral meniscus
E)Anterior cruciate ligament
Q2) The joint movement called eversion involves
A)lateral rotation of the coxal joint.
B)medial rotation of the coxal joint.
C)turning the sole of the foot laterally.
D)turning the palm of the hand laterally.
E)turning the palm of the hand or sole of the foot laterally.
Q3) The sternoclavicular joint is a saddle joint with a _______ range of movement.
A)wide
B)narrow
Q4) When considering leverage,the part of the bone from the muscle attachment to the joint would be the
A)fulcrum.
B)effort arm.
C)resistance arm.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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153 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which protein makes up the thick filaments
A)Myosin
B)Actin
C)Tropomyosin
D)Troponin
E)Myopathy
Q2) This sarcomere depicts relaxed muscle.Which number identifies the M line
A)1
B)3
C)4
D)5
Q3) The spring-like property that returns muscle to its original length after a contraction ends is
A)extensibility.
B)elasticity.
C)contractility.
D)treppe effect.
E)conductivity.
Q4) An increase in the size of a muscle fiber is called _________________.
Q5) The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber is called the ______________.
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Chapter 11: Muscular System: Axial and Appendicular
Muscles
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183 Verified Questions
183 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) This figure shows the muscles of the anterior trunk.What muscle does number 3 indicate
A)Pectoralis major
B)Deltoid
C)Latissimus dorsi
D)Biceps brachii
E)Pectoralis minor
Q2) This figure shows the right anterior forearm.What muscle does number 2 indicate
A)Flexor carpi radialis
B)Brachialis
C)Pronator teres
D)Brachioradialis
E)Palmaris longus
Q3) This figure shows the muscles of the anterior trunk.What muscle does number 1 indicate
A)Pectoralis major
B)Deltoid
C)Latissimus dorsi
D)Biceps brachii
E)Pectoralis minor
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Chapter 12: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue
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158 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Action potentials are generated by the opening of ________ gated channels and they occur on the ________.
A)voltage-,axon
B)voltage-,dendrite
C)chemically,axon
D)chemically,dendrite
Q2) An action potential involves a temporary reversal of polarity across the plasma membrane (that is,the inside of the axon becomes relatively positive compared to the interstitial fluid).
A)True
B)False
Q3) What type of circuit would you use to solve a higher-order mathematical problem
A)Converging
B)Diverging
C)Reverberating
D)Parallel-after-discharge
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q4) Which occurs first
A)Absolute refractory period
B)Relative refractory period
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Chapter 13: Nervous System: Brain and Cranial Nerves
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148 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arrange the primary brain vesicles in the correct anterior to posterior order.
A: Rhombencephalon
B: Mesencephalon
C: Prosencephalon
A)a,c,b
B)b,a,c
C)a,b,c
D)c,b,a
E)c,a,b
Q2) The portion of the adult brain that includes the medulla oblongata is derived from which secondary brain vesicle
A)Telencephalon
B)Diencephalon
C)Myelencephalon
D)Metencephalon
E)Mesencephalon
Q3) Endothelial cells within capillaries of the brain are linked to their neighbors by ______ junctions that prevent diffusion of some substances across the capillary wall.
Q4) Dull,emotionless speech is called _________.
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Chapter 14: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Motor pathways are also called ascending pathways.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Golgi tendon reflex
A)helps to overcome pain.
B)aids in sending sensory information to the muscles.
C)prevents skeletal muscles from tensing excessively.
D)prevents muscles from contracting.
E)helps to gain balance through a complex series of muscular contractions.
Q3) If a patient experiences numbness in the boundaries of a dermatome,it is suggestive of damage to
A)the somatosensory cortex.
B)the thalamus.
C)one of the spinal funiculi.
D)the anterior horn of grey matter in the spinal cord.
E)a spinal nerve.
Q4) The lateral funiculus contains both ascending and descending tracts.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A specific segment of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve is a ___________.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Nervous System: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statements are correct concerning the parasympathetic division of the ANS
A: Contains preganglionic cell bodies in brainstem nuclei
B: Contains preganglionic cell bodies in the lateral horns of the T1-L2 regions
C: Participates in the "fight-or-flight" response
D: Helps maintain homeostasis
E: Contains preganglionic cell bodies in the sacral region of the spinal cord
A)a,d,e
B)a,c,e
C)b,c,d
D)b,c
E)c,d,e
Q2) "Rest and digest," as well as the maintenance of homeostasis,is associated with the action of the _________ division of the ANS.
Q3) Which is false regarding the somatic nervous system (SNS)
A)The SNS is under voluntary control.
B)The SNS uses motor and sensory neurons.
C)The SNS innervates skeletal muscle fibers.
D)The SNS is part of both the CNS and the PNS.
E)The SNS is activated by visceral sensory neurons.
Q4) The second neuron in an autonomic pathway is called a _________ neuron.
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Chapter 16: Nervous System: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The opsin in rods is called _________.
Q2) Because numerous cutaneous and visceral sensory neurons conduct signals on _______ ascending tracts of the spinal cord,the brain sometimes falsely localizes the location of a pain stimulus.
A)the same
B)very different
Q3) The footplate of the stapes is
A)much larger than the tympanic membrane,and the ossicles therefore amplify sound waves.
B)much smaller than the tympanic membrane,and the ossicles therefore amplify sound waves.
C)much larger than the tympanic membrane,and the ossicles therefore dampen sound waves.
D)much smaller than the tympanic membrane,and the ossicles therefore dampen sound waves.
Q4) The bending of light as it passes through to different media (such as glass vs.water)is referred to as ___________.
Q5) When pain signals originating from visceral structures are perceived to be coming instead from the skin,the phenomenon is called ________ pain.
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Chapter 17: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) This figure shows the endocrine system.Which number indicates the thymus gland
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)6
Q2) How does aging affect the endocrine system
A)Secretory activity of endocrine glands decreases.
B)Normal levels of hormones,particularly growth hormone and sex hormones,often decrease.
C)Aging reduces the efficiency of endocrine system functions.
D)Endocrine system imbalances can lead to weight gain or muscle loss.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Where are the target cells for follicle-stimulating hormone
A)Thyroid follicles
B)Ovaries and testes
C)Mammary glands
D)Uterus
E)Hair follicles
Q4) Alpha cells of the pancreas secrete the hormone _________.
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Chapter 18: Cardiovascular System: Blood
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132 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of leukocyte that is very active during a bacterial infection is a(n)
A)eosinophil.
B)basophil.
C)lymphocyte.
D)neutrophil.
E)monocyte.
Q2) During hemopoiesis,the lymphoid line forms lymphocytes only.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Leukocytes are the _______ of the formed elements,and leukocytes have
A)largest,no nucleus
B)largest,prominent nuclei
C)smallest,no nucleus
D)smallest,prominent nuclei
Q4) Macrophages are the converted monocytes that phagocytize bacteria,cell fragments,dead cells,and debris.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The rupture of erythrocytes is called ____________.
20
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Chapter 19: Cardiovascular System: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Norepinephrine is considered a positive chronotropic agent because it causes
A)less calcium to enter heart cells,which leads to lower risk of heart attack.
B)more forceful contractions during each heart rate.
C)an increase in the firing rate of SA node cells.
D)thyroid hormone to have a steadying effect on heart activity.
E)heart cell membrane potentials to become more positive during action potentials.
Q2) Which correctly describes the heart's apex
A)Projects slightly anteroinferiorly toward the left side of the body
B)Projects slightly anteroinferiorly toward the right side of the body
C)Projects slightly posteroinferiorly toward the left side of the body
D)Projects slightly posteroinferiorly toward the right side of the body
E)Projects slightly posteroinferiorly toward the midline of the body
Q3) Cardiac muscle is able to use a variety of fuel types for cellular respiration.
A)True
B)False
Q4) It is the contraction of the atria during atrial systole that completes the filling of the ventricles while the ventricles are in diastole.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Cardiovascular System: Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) If someone were to have abnormally low levels of protein in their blood,then net filtration pressure would A)be higher than normal. B)be lower than normal.
Q2) Aldosterone and atrial natriuretic peptide have ________ effects on blood pressure. A)similar B)opposite
Q3) A vasodilator causes a decrease in local blood flow at a capillary bed. A)True B)False
Q4) The hepatic portal system allows for the processing of A)drugs and toxins in the blood so that they are secreted directly into the urine. B)bacteria that grow in the large intestine but need to be regulated. C)nutrients and toxins absorbed from the gastrointestinal system into the blood. D)hormones that are secreted by glands and must be directed to their target organs.
Q5) The azygos vein merges with the _____________ vena cava.
Page 22
Q6) The formation of new blood vessels is a process known as __________.
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Chapter 21: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The germinal center of a lymphatic nodule contains proliferating B-lymphocytes and macrophages.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which area does not contain MALT
A)Urinary tract
B)Respiratory tract
C)Genital tract
D)Gastrointestinal tract
E)No exceptions;all choices contain MALT
Q3) B-lymphocytes are
A)antibody-producing red blood cells.
B)platelets that are generated in the thymus.
C)white blood cells that are generated in red bone marrow.
D)immune system cells that are generated in the tonsils.
E)blood cells found only in people with type B blood.
Q4) The ossa coxae contain red marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Lymph from the head and neck is drained by the _________ trunks.
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Chapter 22: Immune System and the Bodys Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some biologists have criticized the traditional analogy of the immune system to an army,arguing that it is unnecessarily militaristic.They have proposed other analogies that compare immune functioning to gardening or housekeeping.Develop one of these or create your own analogy for immune function and describe the roles of helper T-lymphocytes,cytotoxic T-lymphocytes,and B-lymphocytes using language that fits your metaphor.
Q2) The clumping of foreign cells that occurs when antibodies cross-link their antigens is known as
A)agglutination.
B)neutralization.
C)precipitation.
D)opsonization.
E)fixation.
Q3) Once a helper T-lymphocyte recognizes an antigen,it begins the immune response by secreting chemical signals called A)antibodies.
B)immunoglobulins.
C)memory B-lymphocytes.
D)memory T-lymphocytes.
E)cytokines.
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Chapter 23: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) You may have noticed that after a large meal you have had some difficulty breathing.Which explanation is most accurate with regard to this situation
A)The food presses on the bronchi,making air flow difficult.
B)The large quantity of food retards pulmonary blood flow.
C)Oxygen to the lungs is restricted due to fullness in the stomach.
D)A full stomach impedes contraction of the diaphragm,limiting inhalation.
Q2) Which statement accurately describes alveolar exchange of oxygen
A)Oxygen diffuses from the alveolus to the blood because the alveolus has a higher partial pressure of oxygen.
B)Oxygen diffuses from the alveolus to the blood because the alveolus has a lower partial pressure of oxygen.
C)Oxygen diffuses from the blood to the alveolus because the alveolus has a higher partial pressure of oxygen.
D)Oxygen diffuses from the blood to the alveolus because the alveolus has a lower partial pressure of oxygen.
Q3) Histamine release results in increased airway resistance and decreased airflow.
A)True
B)False
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25
Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) To test someone's glomerular filtration rate,the individual is injected with the polysaccharide _____________.
Q2) Generally,the higher a substance's transport maximum is,the lower its renal threshold will be.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is not correct regarding the innervation of the kidney
A)Parasympathetic innervation is from the vagus nerve.
B)The kidney is served by the renal plexus.
C)Sympathetic innervation is from segments T10-T12 of the spinal cord.
D)Sympathetic stimulation causes vasoconstriction of the renal blood vessels.
E)Parasympathetic stimulation decreases the rate of filtrate formation.
Q4) The renal corpuscle is located within the A)collecting duct.
B)renal medulla.
C)renal cortex.
D)renal pelvis.
Q5) The presence of proteins in the plasma tends to A)push fluid across the filtration membrane.
B)draw fluid back into the glomerulus.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Fluid and Electrolytes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insensible water loss is an example of facultative water loss.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Collectively,the renal and respiratory systems comprise the chemical buffering system of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Interstitial fluid composes about ________ of the body's extracellular fluid.
A)one-tenth
B)one-third
C)one-half
D)two-thirds
E)nine-tenths
Q4) Blockage of lymphatic vessels or surgical removal of lymphatic vessels increases the likelihood of
A)ascites,which is an example of volume depletion.
B)ascites,which is an example of hypertonicity.
C)edema,which is a an example of fluid sequestration.
D)edema,which is a an example of volume depletion.
E)pleural effusion,which is an example of hypertonic hydration.
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Chapter 26: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which duct transports bile to and from the gallbladder
A)Common bile duct
B)Pancreatic duct
C)Hepatopancreatic duct
D)Cystic duct
E)Hepatic duct
Q2) What structures compose a portal triad
A)Branches of the hepatic artery,hepatic vein,and hepatic duct
B)Branches of the common bile duct,central vein,and hepatic artery
C)Branches of the hepatic duct,cystic duct,and central vein
D)Branches of the hepatic artery,hepatic portal vein,and hepatic duct
E)Branches of the cystic duct,central vein,and hepatic artery
Q3) The buccal,lingual,and labial salivary glands are __________ salivary glands.
A)extrinsic
B)intrinsic
Q4) Bile catalyzes the breakdown of triglyceride into a monoglyceride and two free fatty acids.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The process of swallowing is also called _____________.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) A deficiency in vitamin ______ may lead to bleeding problems.
A)A
B)K
C)D
D)E
E)C
Q2) Because basal metabolic rate is constant across individuals,everyone has a core body temperature of 98.6<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>F.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Vitamin C is a
A)fat-soluble,essential vitamin.
B)fat-soluble,nonessential vitamin.
C)water-soluble,essential vitamin.
D)water-soluble,nonessential vitamin.
Q4) Frostbite results from peripheral _________ due to exposure to cold temperatures.
A)vasoconstriction
B)vasodilation
Q5) The major regulatory hormone of the postabsorptive state is ___________.
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Chapter 28: Reproductive System
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146 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Male embryos develop both Wolffian and Mullerian ducts,but only the Wolffian ducts remain in the male fetus.
A)True B)False
Q2) During the excitement phase of the female sexual response,the uterus shifts to a more _________ position.
A)anteverted B)erect
Q3) The corpus luteum secretes the hormones estrogen and progesterone.
A)True B)False
Q4) A replicated chromosome consists of two identical structures known as A)centromeres. B)sister chromatids.
C)telomeres. D)haploids. E)tetrads.
Q5) Mitosis involves crossing over and the production of haploid daughter cells. A)True B)False
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Chapter 29: Development,Pregnancy,and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The uterine enlargement that occurs during the first 10 weeks of pregnancy is mostly the result of
A)growth of the conceptus from a zygote to a fetus.
B)amniotic fluid production as well as growth of uterine muscle and the placenta.
Q2) Cephalocaudal folding occurs because of the rapid growth of the A)amnion and embryonic disc.
B)yolk sac.
Q3) The third through eighth weeks of development are known as the ___________ period.
A)fetal
B)pre-embryonic
C)embryonic
D)cleavage
Q4) During pregnancy,a woman's areolae and nipples become darker under the influence of
A)melanin from the pineal gland.
B)vasopressin from the posterior pituitary gland.
C)melanocyte-stimulating hormone from the placenta.
D)estrogen and progesterone from the ovary.
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