Nursing Fundamentals
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Nursing Fundamentals provides students with a comprehensive introduction to the essential concepts, skills, and professional standards required for nursing practice. This course covers foundational topics such as the nursing process, patient safety, infection control, communication, ethical and legal principles, and basic patient care techniques. Students will gain hands-on experience in performing essential nursing procedures, fostering critical thinking, and developing the compassionate, patient-centered care approach that is vital to the profession. Through a combination of classroom instruction, lab practice, and clinical experiences, learners build the knowledge and confidence needed to excel in subsequent nursing courses and clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Surgical Nursing Clinical Management for Positive Outcomes Single Volume 8th Edition
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82 Chapters
1873 Verified Questions
1873 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Health Promotion and Disease Prevention
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse encourages a Native American to seek health counsel from the tribe's shaman, the nurse is following the tenets of
A) King.
B) Leninger.
C) Pender.
D) Rogers.
Answer: B
Q2) The nurse recognizes the activity that reflects primary prevention is
A) a self-initiated walking regimen.
B) collaboration with a physical therapist.
C) physician-prescribed exercise after a heart attack.
D) tuberculosis screening.
Answer: A
Q3) Strategies a nurse should use when teaching a client include (select all that apply)
A) using plain, lay language.
B) providing comprehensive information at each session.
C) having the client "teach back" what has been taught.
D) using written material written at a low literacy level.
Answer: A, C, D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Health Assessment
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is collecting a health history on a middle-aged African American male. The nurse asks about past blood pressure screening because the incidence of hypertension is higher in this ethnic group than in others. This is an example of A) a generalization based on the nurse's limited experience with African Americans. B) bias, and the nurse should not question the client about blood pressure screening. C) stereotyping the client based on the client's ethnic/racial group.
D) using valid research data to focus questions on the client's specific risks.
Answer: D
Q2) To assess precipitating factors, the nurse interviewer would ask
A) "Do you remember the first time you had this problem?"
B) "How many times has the problem been related to activity?"
C) "What measures relieve this problem for you?"
D) "What were you doing when you first noticed the problem?"
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Critical Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is working in the intensive care unit. When assessing the clients, the nurse notes one of them, who was scheduled to transfer to a step-down unit as soon as a bed becomes available, has a respiratory rate change from 18 to 20 breaths/min and an oxygen saturation (O<sub>2</sub> sat) of 92%, when earlier it was 93%. The client denies complaints. The nurse calls the physician and requests a chest x-ray and arterial blood gases (ABGs). This nurse is working at which Benner Level of Competency in Nurses?
A) Advanced beginner
B) Competent
C) Expert
D) Proficient
Answer: C
Q2) The process by which a nurse uses purposeful thinking, informed reasoning, reflections, and thinking about thinking in clinical situations is called A) clinical judgment.
B) critical thinking.
C) decision making.
D) problem solving.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An elderly Chinese woman tells the nurse that she must improve the flow of her Qi. The nurse asks the client how long she has been using A) acupuncture.
B) Ayurveda.
C) Tai Chi.
D) yoga.
Q2) The nurse cautions that, when consumed in large quantities, antioxidants can become pro-oxidants, which
A) absorb large quantities of free radicals.
B) can produce free radicals.
C) create a free radical "shield."
D) enhance the immune system.
Q3) According to the National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine, complementary medicine is
A) prescribed and overseen by a medical physician.
B) treatment of a physical illness by a spiritual intervention.
C) used in place of conventional medicine.
D) used together with conventional medicine.
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6
Chapter 5: Ambulatory Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that to work at an independent, nurse-supervised ambulatory care center, there is a minimum requirement of a(n)
A) associate degree.
B) bachelor's degree.
C) LVN/LPN.
D) master's degree.
Q2) In a telephone consultation, the ambulatory care center nurse may
A) assess cardiac or fetal monitoring.
B) decide how soon the client should be seen at the center.
C) give advice based on the nurse's phone assessment.
D) teach a specific procedure based on approved protocols.
Q3) One challenge for nurses working in ambulatory care centers is
A) clients give overall responsibility for self-care to the center.
B) duties are rigidly defined within the interdisciplinary team.
C) length of client visit is short, reducing assessment time.
D) use of telephones and computers eases assessment potential.
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Chapter 6: Acute Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a nurse is able to work effectively in more than one care area (e.g., general medical-surgical, and cardiac care unit), the nurse is said to be
A) cross-trained.
B) flexibly assigned.
C) nursing intense.
D) skill mixed.
Q2) A client injured in an automobile accident is now stable but permanently ventilator-dependent and has little potential for further improvement. The client is to be transferred to post-acute care services. The nurse manager recommends a
A) general medical-surgical unit.
B) long-term care unit.
C) rehabilitation unit.
D) transitional unit.
Q3) A planned program of loss prevention and liability control best defines A) client satisfaction.
B) clinical pathway.
C) quality assurance.
D) risk management.
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8
Chapter 7: Critical Care
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse working in the critical care unit would assess the client's complexity by asking questions related to
A) ability of the client and family to make sound decisions.
B) effect of family, stress, and environmental factors on the client.
C) interplay of multiple medical problems on the current condition.
D) the client's ability to use compensatory coping mechanisms.
Q2) The ICU nurse planning care for a critically ill client tries to arrange care to minimize the most disruptive stressor for the client, which is
A) alteration in sleep.
B) fear of the unknown.
C) persistent pain.
D) sense of isolation.
Q3) The nurse admitting clients to an intensive care unit understands that research demonstrates best client outcomes when clients
A) are in an area that allows liberal family visitation.
B) have consistent nurses caring for them.
C) have state of the art physiologic monitoring.
D) receive multidisciplinary care led by an intensivist.
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Chapter 8: Home Health Care
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains to a client that the person who would be most likely to receive home health care is the client who is
A) 65-years-old with a wrist fracture.
B) 68-years-old with a cataract in one eye.
C) 72-years-old with diabetes mellitus.
D) 74-years-old with a hearing impairment.
Q2) An experienced home health care nurse explains to a client about safety in the community. One difference the nurse emphasizes that home health care has over hospital-based health care is that with home health care (Select all that apply)
A) "always be prepared" is a good motto.
B) disasters can occur while the nurse is in the community.
C) needed help may not be immediately available.
D) the central location of most staff during the day can provide assistance.
E) the nurse is usually on his/her own.
Q3) The component that is not part of the Omaha System is
A) Intervention Scheme.
B) Problem Classification Scheme.
C) Problem Rating Scale for Outcomes.
D) Rating Scale for Client Satisfaction.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Long-Term Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transfer from a long-term care facility is being considered for a combative resident.OBRA Resident Rights that impact this decision include
A) a legitimate and documented reason for the transfer.
B) addressing the problem behavior in the care plan.
C) the family preventing the discharge through litigation.
D) the resident has the right to delay the transfer for 20 days.
Q2) The nurse admitting a new resident to a long-term care facility is mindful that after the resident is assessed, a care plan must be written within A) 1 day.
B) 3 days.
C) 5 days.
D) 7 days.
Q3) After a long-term care facility nurse receives a phone order from the physician, the nurse must ensure that the order is countersigned in A) 8 hours.
B) 12 hours.
C) 24 hours.
D) 48 hours.
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11
Chapter 10: Rehabilitation
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rehabilitation nurse ensures that teaching is (Select all that apply)
A) designed, delivered, and reinforced in ways that are meaningful.
B) designed to cover all aspects of the rehabilitation process.
C) individualized to the client and family even when standardized material is used.
D) presented in appropriate levels and formats.
E) readily available so that learning can occur when the learner is ready.
Q2) The rehabilitation nurse uses the Functional Independence Measures (FIM) tool to assess the client's
A) attitude.
B) physical strength.
C) rehabilitation goals.
D) self-care capabilities.
Q3) A nurse incorporating a client's psychosocial reaction to a disabling illness into the plan of care would use a staging model because the model
A) allows the nurse to group the client with peers for socializing.
B) describes the process of adaptation as a standardized process.
C) explains some common reactions to the disabling condition.
D) predicts the experience of psychosocial adaptation.
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Chapter 11: Clients with Fluid Imbalances
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse who is caring for a client prescribed diuretics and fluid restriction to control edema can most easily evaluate the effectiveness of the medical protocol by
A) calculating plasma osmolality.
B) careful weight assessment.
C) checking the lab report on serum sodium level.
D) measuring the ankle circumference.
Q2) A client with hyponatremia is on a fluid restriction diet and complains of extreme dry mouth. Interventions the nurse can include in the plan of care include (Select all that apply)
A) encouraging the client to take warm, not cold, fluids.
B) giving the client ice chips instead of water.
C) increasing the frequency of oral care.
D) instructing the client to hold ice chips in the mouth.
E) using a commercial mouthwash every 2 hours.
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13
Chapter 12: Clients with Electrolyte Imbalances
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is hypokalemic and the physician leaves an order for the nurse to infuse a bolus of 30 mEq of potassium in 100 ml of NS over 30 minutes. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to
A) administer the potassium as ordered.
B) clarify the order with the physician.
C) order an infusion pump to give the potassium.
D) request the pharmacy send 250 ml of saline instead.
Q2) The nurse caring for a client taking thiazide diuretics should be sure to observe for A) decreased urine output.
B) increased peristalsis.
C) neurologic depression.
D) neuromuscular irritability.
Q3) A client has been admitted with hypokalemia but all treatments have failed to raise the potassium level suitably. The nurse would assess the client further and report findings of
A) chronic insomnia. B) estrogen use.
C) laxative abuse.
D) recent leg fracture.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Acid-Base Balance
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with a diagnosis of chronic renal failure has pH of 7.35, PaCO<sub>2</sub> of 29 mm Hg, and bicarbonate level of 16 mEq/L. The nurse interprets these ABG results as
A) compensated metabolic acidosis.
B) compensated respiratory acidosis.
C) uncompensated metabolic acidosis.
D) uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
Q2) The nurse assesses that the client admitted in respiratory acidosis has compensated when the arterial blood gas (ABG) readings are
A) carbon dioxide level of 50 mm Hg and bicarbonate level of 30 mEq/L.
B) carbon dioxide level of 50 mm Hg and bicarbonate level of 20 mEq/L.
C) carbon dioxide level of 30 mm Hg and bicarbonate level of 30 mEq/L.
D) carbon dioxide level of 30 mm Hg and bicarbonate level of 24 mEq/L.
Q3) For a 34-year-old client in renal failure who develops acidosis, the nurse would assess for
A) drowsiness.
B) hypoventilation.
C) muscle hyperactivity.
D) paresthesias.
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Chapter 14: Clients Having Surgery
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client who is extremely overweight has been advised to lose weight before surgery. To encourage the client, the nurse knows that the most appropriate statement is
A) "It will decrease the operating room time by half if you lose weight."
B) "Surgery requires more anesthesia if you are overweight."
C) "With the weight loss, you decrease the chance of complications after surgery."
D) "You'll feel better after surgery if you lose the weight before."
Q2) The most appropriate explanation by the nurse to explain why a client cannot eat before surgery is
A) "Anesthesia works best on an empty stomach."
B) "The stomach should be empty to prevent complications."
C) "There is not enough time before surgery to digest the food."
D) "You will not have to go to the bathroom frequently before surgery."
Q3) Preoperative assessment data that should be reported to the surgeon include
A) complaining of mild anxiety.
B) having a sore throat.
C) potassium level within normal range.
D) using acetaminophen for headaches.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Perspectives in Genetics
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse explains to a family that if a man has a recessive gene on his X chromosome, that characteristic can be passed on to
A) any child of either gender.
B) his daughters.
C) his sons.
D) no child as it is a random mutation.
Q2) The nurse working with clients who seek genetic counseling or testing helps the client and family manage potential psychosocial distress that can accompany test results, including (Select all that apply)
A) disclosure of nonrelatedness.
B) disrupted family processes.
C) guilt feelings for passing on diseases.
D) impairment in self-esteem.
E) survivor guilt.
Q3) Autosomes are the chromosomes that
A) are common to males and females.
B) are inherited from the paternal side.
C) determine gender.
D) exist in paired forms.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Perspectives in Oncology
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of new cancer cases diagnosed has increased steadily since 1900. The nurse explains to a client that one of the reasons for this increase is that
A) cancer is related to most birth defects.
B) many false-positive cancer results are reported.
C) people who live longer are less prone to cancer.
D) statistical analysis and reporting are more accurate.
Q2) After explaining how malignant cells differ from normal cells to a client with breast cancer, the nurse knows the client understands the characteristics of malignant cells when the client says "Malignant cells
A) are larger than normal cells and have designated purposes."
B) cannot grow if inflammation is present."
C) develop chromosomal abnormalities as they mature."
D) develop the same antigens as normal cells do."
Q3) The nurse reviewing a research report recognizes that a discussion of oncogenes will address
A) a chemotherapeutic agent that eradicates viruses that cause cancer.
B) factors in the immune system protecting the client from malignant growths.
C) risk factors in cancer development.
D) segments of DNA that transform normal cells into malignant cells.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Clients with Cancer
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 31-year-old male client who is to receive chemotherapy for treatment of lymphoma has expressed concern about the possible side effects of chemotherapy on reproduction and fertility. An appropriate response by the nurse to these concerns is to A) discuss pretreatment sperm banking as a reproductive alternative. B) reassure the client that sexual function will return to normal after treatments. C) review sexual functioning and discuss the previous pregnancy.
D) suggest artificial insemination for the client's wife.
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the American Cancer Society (ACS) recommendations for breast cancer screening with a 50-year-old female client. The nurse should emphasize the recommendation for
A) breast examination by a health care professional semi-annually.
B) breast self-examination (BSE) monthly.
C) chest x-ray study yearly when the client is over age 40.
D) mammography when a lump is detected.
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Chapter 18: Clients with Wounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has a small, shallow wound with a red base that does not require debridement. The dressing the nurse would choose when covering this wound is a
A) dry woven gauze fastened with adhesive tape.
B) non-adhering dressing with antibiotic ointment.
C) wet nonwoven gauze.
D) wet-to-dry gauze dressing.
Q2) To assist in the healing of a large leg ulcer, the nurse applies wet dressings to the wound to promote
A) angiogenesis.
B) chemotaxis.
C) epithelialization.
D) wound contraction.
Q3) When caring for a client with a wound healing by secondary intention, the nurse considers during care planning that this type of wound is
A) healed with skin grafts.
B) prone to dehiscence.
C) sealed with sutures.
D) susceptible to infection.
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Chapter 19: Perspectives on Infectious Disease and Bioterrorism
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a group of clients about ways that infections are transmitted. The comment made by one of the clients that shows the need for further instruction is
A) "A vector transmits infection by biting someone who doesn't have the infection."
B) "Sneezing can put infected droplets in the air for someone else to breathe."
C) "The portal of entry and the portal of exit are always the same."
D) "You can get infections from touching something contaminated by a sick person."
Q2) The nurse caring for a client infected with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) should
A) discourage transfer to a long-term care facility.
B) encourage the client to increase fluid consumption.
C) place the client in protective isolation.
D) use standard precautions plus transmission-based precautions.
Q3) The nurse can best instruct a client to avoid the acquisition of hookworm by
A) advising the client not to eat raw pork products.
B) advising the client to drink only bottled water when traveling.
C) encouraging the client to wear shoes outdoors.
D) teaching the client good hand-washing technique.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Clients with Pain
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29 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most effective way for the nurse to administer pain medication to a client who is experiencing severe pain related to metastatic liver cancer is to
A) administer medication only when other methods of pain relief are ineffective.
B) dispense pain medications on a regular basis.
C) give only intravenous pain medications.
D) respond promptly to as-needed (prn) pain requests.
Q2) The nurse instructs the client taking ibuprofen that the drug is effective for pain relief because it acts to
A) interfere with the relay of pain information through the dorsal horn.
B) interrupt the transmission of pain impulses.
C) reduce inflammation and block prostaglandins.
D) slow painful stimuli through type A-delta pain fibers.
Q3) The client with neuropathic pain develops allodynia, which
A) can be relieved by daily doses of opioids.
B) is a vague pain that is difficult for the client to describe.
C) is pain due to a stimulus that does not normally cause pain.
D) responds to NSAIDs taken several times a day.
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Chapter 21: Perspectives in Palliative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse suggests that the client should try a mu-agonist type of opioid, which is often effective in managing pain, such as A) acetaminophen.
B) hydromorphone.
C) ibuprofen.
D) naproxen.
Q2) The nurse alerts a family member about the client's imminent death because the nurse has assessed the cardiovascular indicator of A) bradycardia.
B) fluctuating blood pressure.
C) irregular heart rate.
D) narrowing pulse pressure.
Q3) A client on the hospice service is experiencing nausea and vomiting as the result of pain management using opioids. The nurse should attempt to minimize this adverse effect by using the
A) intramuscular route.
B) intravenous route.
C) oral route.
D) subcutaneous route.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Clients with Sleep and Rest Disorders and Fatigue
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with chronic fatigue syndrome is crying and says "I can't do anything anymore. I can't even walk up a flight of stairs because I am so tired all the time. My spouse thinks I am just lazy, but I simply can't do anything that requires physical activity."
Nursing interventions for this client should focus on
A) discovering the cause of the fatigue and correcting it.
B) helping the client manage and cope effectively.
C) showing the client how to plan and group activities.
D) working with the client to improve communicating needs to the spouse.
Q2) The nurse arranges the client care to prevent waking the older adult because the sleep patterns of older clients are characterized by
A) increased REM sleep.
B) increased time spent in stage 1 sleep.
C) increased time spent in stage 4 sleep.
D) decrease in time to fall asleep.
Q3) The nurse teaching a client with narcolepsy should include the A) importance of avoiding caffeine.
B) need to increase exercise.
C) proper way to use continuous positive-airway pressure (CPAP).
D) recommendation to take regular naps.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Clients with Psychosocial and Mental Health
Concerns
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a client with schizophrenia would assess for manifestations of this disorder, including (Select all that apply)
A) disorganized speech and behavior.
B) excessive and rapid speech.
C) flat or inappropriate affect.
D) sad moods and crying spells.
Q2) A client has been taking thioridazine (Mellaril) for acute schizophrenia for a month when she comes to the hospital with a broken leg. The nurse notices that the client is slurring her words, keeps wiping her mouth with tissues to control the drooling, and has trouble holding a glass of water. The nurse documents the client's assessment and notifies the physician that the nurse suspects
A) alcohol abuse.
B) drug abuse.
C) extrapyramidal symptoms.
D) tardive dyskinesia.
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25
Chapter 24: Clients with Substance Abuse Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse reminds the client that in the United States, the most widely used psychoactive substance is
A) alcohol.
B) amphetamines.
C) caffeine.
D) marijuana.
Q2) The school nurse is called into an art class by the teacher to observe a student who is smiling and giggling as he sprays fixative on his charcoal picture. The student's eyes and nose are red, and he is coughing. The school nurse assesses that the student may be experiencing
A) a seasonal cold.
B) an allergic reaction.
C) inhalant abuse.
D) use of an opioid.
Q3) The nurse evaluates that the client has learned an important fact about cocaine use when he says
A) "Cocaine is not addictive. I can use it as a recreational drug."
B) "Cocaine withdrawal is relatively easy. There is only mild fatigue."
C) "I know a young person can have a heart attack from using cocaine."
D) "Since cocaine is a depressant, one should not drive under its influence."
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Chapter 25: Assessment of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with a new cast for his fractured ulna tells the nurse that he cannot feel his fingers. The nurse should initially
A) check for capillary refill in the client's fingers.
B) notify the physician immediately.
C) reassure the client that this is normal.
D) remove the padding around the fingers to increase space.
Q2) The nurse preparing a client for a dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) test explains that the purpose of this test is to measure A) amount of joint deformity.
B) degree of bone loss.
C) degree of fracture healing.
D) presence of bone infection.
Q3) A client describes ripping sounds in his knee during a fall while skiing. The nurse explains to the client that the diagnostic test that will provide the best data is a(n) A) arthrogram.
B) bone scan.
C) myelogram.
D) x-ray film.
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Chapter 26: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse admitting a 22-year-old client with septic arthritis in the knees would inquire about recent infection with
A) a respiratory tract virus.
B) gonorrhea.
C) strep throat.
D) urinary tract manifestations.
Q2) A client with osteoporosis complains that avoiding coffee will be very difficult. To offset coffee consumption, the nurse might suggest that for every cup of coffee consumed, the client should
A) add 1 serving of leafy green vegetables.
B) combine 20 minutes of exercise to the daily program.
C) drink 1 glass of orange juice or grapefruit juice.
D) take 40 mg of over-the-counter calcium.
Q3) On admission assessment of a client with Paget's disease, the nurse would anticipate the client to complain of
A) continuous bone pain.
B) fever in the afternoon.
C) pain on ambulation.
D) swelling at site of deformity.
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Chapter 27: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal
Trauma or Overuse
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a 68-year-old client with a new full-leg cast exhibits bilateral pedal edema, the nurse would assess for A) compartment syndrome.
B) cardiovascular disease.
C) local leg trauma.
D) thrombophlebitis.
Q2) The nurse explains to the client that in addition to approximating the bone fragments, traction also
A) increases blood supply to the fracture site.
B) increases speed of bone healing.
C) reduces muscle spasm.
D) reduces neuromuscular dysfunction.
Q3) Important self-care measures the nurse should teach to the client who is expected to be immobile in a wheelchair for a lengthy period of time include A) learning how to inspect all skin surfaces for friction or pressure.
B) massaging bony prominences four times a day.
C) sitting upright in a chair or wheelchair on the sacrum.
D) using a gel wheelchair cushion to prevent pressure ulcers.
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Chapter 28: Assessment of Nutrition and the Digestive System
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4026
Sample Questions
Q1) For a client having all the following GI tests, which test should the nurse schedule last?
A) Barium swallow
B) Computed tomography scan
C) Flat plate of abdomen
D) Ultrasound
Q2) The nurse assessing clients for nutritional status is aware that a client would need a more in-depth analysis when the client complains of frequent nutrition-related manifestations, including (Select all that apply)
A) abdominal pain.
B) changes in weight or appetite.
C) diarrhea.
D) indigestion.
E) nausea and vomiting.
Q3) The amount of calories and protein that a client weighing 185 pounds would require is at least
A) 1575 calories and 53 g of protein.
B) 2394 calories and 62 g of protein.
C) 2520 calories and 67 g of protein.
D) 2743 calories and 73 g of protein.
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Chapter 29: Management of Clients with Malnutrition
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4027
Sample Questions
Q1) A client who is diagnosed with bulimia would be most likely to manifest the psychosocial alteration of A) denial.
B) depression.
C) self-mutilation.
D) social withdrawal.
Q2) At 8 AM a nurse hangs a bag containing enteral nutrition formula for a client. The nurse will return at
A) 9 AM to change the tubing and bag and add new formula.
B) 10 AM to discard remaining formula and replace it with new.
C) 12 noon to replace formula after rinsing the bag and tubing.
D) 1 PM to flush the bag and tubing and add formula.
Q3) The nurse's action that will best prevent clogging of a gastric feeding tube is to
A) adhere to the tube flushing protocol.
B) apply intermittent suction.
C) check tube placement every 4 hours.
D) periodically reposition the tube.
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Chapter 30: Management of Clients with Ingestive Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4028
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a client about oral care. Which action should the nurse recommend that will most likely result in a reduction of dental caries?
A) Avoid fluoride rinses.
B) Brush and floss regularly.
C) Eliminate carbonated beverages.
D) See the dentist once a year.
Q2) A client with oral Candidiasis has the nursing diagnosis Acute Pain related to altered oral mucous membrane and ulcerations. To rinse the mouth and provide comfort, the nurse should instruct the client to use
A) a commercial mouthwash.
B) Dakin's solution.
C) half-strength peroxide.
D) saline mouth rinses.
Q3) The nurse would assess the client with an early mechanical obstruction of the esophagus for
A) aspiration.
B) coughing.
C) dysphagia.
D) vomiting.
32
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Chapter 31: Management of Clients with Digestive Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4029
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a client with severe burns. The client complains of abdominal pain and begins vomiting blood. The nurse anticipates diagnostic testing to determine if the client has developed
A) a Curling's ulcer.
B) chronic gastritis.
C) H. pylori infection.
D) pyloric stenosis.
Q2) A nurse is teaching health promotion measures to a support group for clients who are at high risk for gastric cancer. Important health promotion measures to advise the clients include (select all that apply)
A) avoiding alcohol.
B) eating a diet high in nitrites.
C) limiting salted fish and pickled foods.
D) quitting smoking.
Q3) The nurse planning to irrigate a nasogastric (NG) tube prepares to use
A) half-strength peroxide.
B) normal saline.
C) sterile water.
D) tap water.
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Chapter 32: Assessment of Elimination
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4030
Sample Questions
Q1) Percussion
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q2) For a client who has just undergone cystourethroscopy with biopsy, the nurse should A) encourage the client to drink fluids to flush the dye from the renal system.
B) instruct the client that strict bed rest will be needed after the procedure.
C) offer throat lozenges to help with the client's sore throat.
D) plan care for a client having general anesthesia.
Q3) A large, frothy, foul-smelling stool that floats in toilet water indicates to the nurse that the client has an alteration in the metabolism of
A) carbohydrates.
B) fats.
C) milk products.
D) protein.
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Chapter 33: Management of Clients with Intestinal Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4031
Sample Questions
Q1) When a client is admitted to the emergency department with a hernia, the classification of hernia that would represent a surgical emergency is A) incisional.
B) inguinal.
C) reducible.
D) strangulated.
Q2) A 13-year-old client with ulcerative colitis says, "I am so glad I will grow out of this disease. It's so embarrassing at school." Which action by the nurse would best address this statement?
A) Ask the client to explain what he/she means.
B) Encourage the client to become active in school activities or sports.
C) Review the pathophysiology of ulcerative colitis.
D) Tell the client about other people who live successfully with the disease.
Q3) A client recovering from a recent colostomy is very reluctant to participate in self-care. To initiate the client's interaction, the nurse should
A) allow care to be deferred until the client will participate.
B) evaluate the level to which the client can tolerate participation.
C) insist the client become involved in self-care.
D) provide the client with a mirror to observe the stoma.
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Management of Clients with Urinary Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4032
Sample Questions
Q1) Nursing care for a client with urinary bladder calculi should include
A) checking for abdominal distention.
B) collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for calcium.
C) encouraging fluid intake up to 4000 ml/day.
D) maintaining bed rest.
Q2) For a client experiencing urinary retention with overflow, the factor in the client's history that would prompt the nurse to question an order for a cholinergic medication is
A) bladder outlet obstruction.
B) diabetes mellitus.
C) frequent UTIs.
D) multiple pregnancies.
Q3) A client has an autonomous neurogenic bladder. The nurse plans care for this client understanding that the client
A) cannot perceive bladder fullness or initiate or maintain urination.
B) feels no bladder-filling sensation but empties the bladder reflexively.
C) feels the sensation of the bladder filling but cannot initiate micturition.
D) has a temporary problem with initiating micturition.
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Chapter 35: Management of Clients with Renal Disorders
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25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4033
Sample Questions
Q1) An 88-year-old client has glomerulonephritis, is quite edematous, and has an order for large doses of diuretics. Before administering the first dose, the most appropriate action by the nurse would be to
A) call the physician to clarify the order.
B) educate the client as to the drug's effects.
C) have the unlicensed assistive personnel take a set of vital signs.
D) plan to administer the diuretics evenly spaced throughout the day.
Q2) A client with nephrotic syndrome is being taught about self-care at home. The teaching plan should include information on
A) a high-protein diet.
B) diligent skin care.
C) forcing fluids.
D) prophylactic antibiotics.
Q3) As part of the care plan for a client with pyelonephritis, the nurse should
A) assess for manifestations of fluid overload.
B) encourage increased activity.
C) increase fluid intake to 3 to 4 L/day.
D) watch for early manifestations of anaphylaxis.
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Chapter 36: Management of Clients with Renal Failure
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4034
Sample Questions
Q1) A client had an episode of acute renal failure after heart surgery but seems to have recovered now. What is an important health promotion strategy the nurse could teach the client? The nurse should teach the client to
A) avoid aminoglycosides and IVP dye in the future.
B) drink lots of fluids on an ongoing basis.
C) have a BUN and creatinine drawn every 6 months.
D) monitor his/her temperature daily.
Q2) The nurse assesses the client for the electrolyte imbalance that tends to occur in the earlier stages of chronic renal failure, which is
A) hypercalcemia.
B) hypocalcemia.
C) hypokalemia.
D) hyponatremia.
Q3) The nurse explains that a cation exchange resin such as Kayexalate will A) decrease diastolic blood pressure.
B) stimulate diuresis by osmosis.
C) increase appetite by decreasing insulin degradation. D) increase gastrointestinal potassium excretion.
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Chapter 37: Assessment of the Reproductive System
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4035
Sample Questions
Q1) During palpation of a client's testes, the nurse notes a small, hard lump on the anterior aspect of one testis. The nurse's most appropriate action would be to
A) do nothing, since this is a normal finding.
B) palpate the groin for an associated hernia.
C) perform transillumination of the scrotum.
D) recommend the client take antibiotics.
Q2) The nurse teaches a client scheduled for semen examination that in order to provide an adequate sample, the client should
A) abstain from ejaculating 2 to 5 days before the test.
B) drink plenty of liquids for 24 hours before the test.
C) get plenty of sleep the night before the test.
D) increase intake of red meat 3 days before the test.
Q3) The client who has a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) density of 0.13 ng/ml is considered to have
A) a contaminated specimen.
B) the presence of cancer cells.
C) the need for a follow-up examination.
D) no risk for prostate cancer.
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Chapter 38: Management of Men with Reproductive Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4036
Sample Questions
Q1) A young man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of scrotal swelling and acute pain. The nurse would plan care suspecting treatment for this client will consist of
A) admission and IV antibiotics.
B) emergency surgery.
C) ice, analgesics, and scrotal support.
D) NSAIDs and local heat.
Q2) The nurse explains that if left untreated, BPH could result in (Select all that apply).
A) bladder cancer.
B) prostatic cancer.
C) renal failure.
D) upper urinary tract infection.
Q3) For a client with mild benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) who will be treated conservatively, the nurse would advise the client to
A) avoid alcoholic beverages.
B) limit fluid intake.
C) limit sexual intercourse.
D) void every couple of hours.
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Chapter 39: Management of Women with Reproductive Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4037
Sample Questions
Q1) A clinic nurse is assessing a 16 year-old girl with menstrual complaints. When the nurse learns that the client has had a recent infibulation, the nurse should A) call the local authorities.
B) find a smaller speculum.
C) educate the client about perineal hygiene.
D) tell the parents this is not done in this country.
Q2) The assessment that would alert the nurse to vulvar carcinoma is A) lichen sclerosa.
B) reduced libido.
C) vaginal atrophy.
D) white, frothy vaginal discharge.
Q3) The nurse would be aware that a client with the diagnosis of endometriosis may require additional emotional support, because the major complication of this disease is A) cervical cancer.
B) endometrial cancer.
C) infertility.
D) pelvic inflammatory disease.
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Management of Clients with Breast Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4038
Sample Questions
Q1) Teaching a client who will soon begin radiation therapy for treatment of breast cancer, the nurse would tell the client that she should expect
A) a low-residue diet to decrease diarrhea.
B) dry, itchy skin changes to develop.
C) pain in the long bones, especially the legs.
D) permanent pigment changes to the breast.
Q2) When a client with stage I breast cancer asks the nurse about the usual treatment for her problem, the nurse would base an answer on the fact that
A) breast-conserving surgery is appropriate at this stage.
B) mastectomy is done as soon as possible.
C) radiation and chemotherapy are used instead of surgery.
D) radiation therapy is given before surgery.
Q3) For a client receiving cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) as part of chemotherapy for her breast cancer, the nurse would include the instruction to A) drink eight glasses of water daily.
B) eat iron-rich foods.
C) practice good skin care.
D) take high-fiber laxatives.
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42
Chapter 41: Management of Clients with Sexually
Transmitted Infections
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4039
Sample Questions
Q1) A client with uncomplicated gonorrhea who is treated with ceftriaxone and doxycycline asks if a follow-up examination and culture will be necessary. The most appropriate response by the nurse is
A) "No, because the disease cannot recur."
B) "No, because treatment failure with these medications is rare."
C) "Yes, because monthly cultures are now recommended."
D) "Yes, because reinfection is very probable."
Q2) The physician has prescribed ceftriaxone (Rocephin) administered intramuscularly, followed by doxycycline (Vibramycin) orally for 7 days, to treat a client with gonorrhea. The nurse would explain that the rationale for the second medication is
A) because some strains of Neisseria gonorrhoeae are resistant to antibiotics.
B) that two drugs are better tolerated than one large dose.
C) to prevent reinfection.
D) to treat a chlamydial co-infection.
Q3) The nurse conducting health education about gonorrhea would teach a client that A) gonorrhea is difficult to treat effectively.
B) gram-negative organisms multiply rapidly.
C) the organisms can survive for a long period outside the body.
D) there is a large carrier population because it can be asymptomatic in women.
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Assessment of the Endocrine and Metabolic Systems
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4040
Sample Questions
Q1) A client presents with complaints of fatigue and the nurse notes dry, brittle hair. The nurse would anticipate which of the following laboratory tests?
A) Bilirubin, AST, ALT
B) Serum cortisol and ACTH
C) Serum glucose, hemoglobin A1c
D) Tests of thyroid function
Q2) In preparing a client for urine collection in the evaluation of urinary ketosteroids, the nurse would
A) place an indwelling catheter.
B) place a preservative in the collection bottle.
C) measure hourly urine outputs.
D) use a new collection bag.
Q3) The nurse preparing a client for a T? and T? radioimmunoassay would recognize that the medication with the potential to influence test results, making readings unreliable, is
A) aspirin.
B) digitalis.
C) gentamicin.
D) heparin.
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Chapter 43: Management of Clients with Thyroid and Parathyroid Disorders
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4041
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism should assign priority to A) averting infection.
B) coughing hourly.
C) encouraging exercise.
D) preventing falls.
Q2) As part of the care plan to meet the needs of a client with mild hypothyroidism, the nurse would
A) apply an astringent to the client's skin to promote dryness.
B) plan a strenuous exercise regimen to decrease weight.
C) set the thermostat between 75° and 80° F to provide a comfortable climate.
D) suggest the consumption of dense fruit to decrease diarrhea.
Q3) A client just returned from surgery for a thyroid disorder and complains that his/her mouth has an odd sensation. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?
A) Calcium gluconate
B) Epinephrine
C) Potassium chloride
D) Rectal aspirin
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Chapter 44: Management of Clients with Adrenal and Pituitary Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains the pathophysiology of diabetes insipidus as arising from a deficiency in
A) antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
B) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
C) growth hormone (GH).
D) oxytocin.
Q2) In reviewing laboratory data for a client with Cushing's syndrome, the nurse might expect to see the laboratory abnormalities of (Select all that apply)
A) hypercalcemia.
B) hyperglycemia.
C) hyperproteinemia.
D) hypoglycemia.
E) hypokalemia.
F) hyponatremia.
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Chapter 45: Management of Clients with Diabetes Mellitus
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse teaching a diabetic client who has just started insulin therapy would include the instruction to
A) draw up short-acting insulin before longer-acting insulin.
B) inject at a 30-degree angle.
C) routinely aspirate before injecting.
D) shake short-acting insulin vigorously to mix it.
Q2) Evaluating a young man with type 1 diabetes, the nurse would consider a classic clinical manifestation of diabetes to be the client's A) excessive thirst.
B) gradual weight gain.
C) overwhelming fatigue.
D) recurrent blurred vision.
Q3) For a client with diabetes mellitus scheduled for surgery at 8 AM, the nurse would plan to check the client's blood glucose level on the day of surgery between A) 12 midnight and 2 AM.
B) 2 and 4 AM.
C) 4 and 6 AM.
D) 7 and 8 AM.
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Chapter 46: Management of Clients with Exocrine
Pancreatic and Biliary Disorders
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a client is admitted to the hospital for treatment of acute cholecystitis, the nurse would anticipate that the immediate medical management will be
A) antibiotic therapy.
B) provided by a medical nutritionist.
C) systemic corticosteroid administration.
D) total parenteral nutrition.
Q2) The nurse recognizes that the individual at highest risk for development of gallstones is
A) a 20-year-old black man with sickle cell disease.
B) a 35-year-old white woman being treated for breast cancer.
C) a 49-year-old white man with a sedentary lifestyle.
D) a 60-year-old white woman being treated for obesity.
Q3) The nurse recognizes that the client with gallstones who would be the best candidate for treatment with extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ECSL) is a client with A) common bile duct stones.
B) liver disease.
C) stones that are 6 cm in diameter.
D) two gallstones.
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Chapter 47: Management of Clients with Hepatic Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4045
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would counsel a client that the portosystemic shunt will
A) eliminate the danger of hepatic failure.
B) reduce ascites.
C) reduce portal hypertension only.
D) reverse effects of cirrhosis.
Q2) The nurse is working in an area experiencing an outbreak of hepatitis. The manifestations that the nurse would identify as early manifestations of the disease are
A) clay-colored stools and dark urine.
B) epigastric pain and flu-like manifestations.
C) jaundice and severe pruritus.
D) petechiae and purpura.
Q3) The factor in a client's history that the nurse would recognize as placing the client at risk for developing hepatitis A is
A) donating blood frequently.
B) eating fish caught in the pond on the client's farm.
C) working as a nursing assistant in a nursing home.
D) having multiple colorful tattoos.
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Chapter 48: Assessment of the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is undergoing a lengthy series of treatments for a skin disorder. The best method of documenting the client's experience with the treatments is for the nurse to A) document the lesions clearly at each visit using proper terminology.
B) draw the distribution and characteristics of the lesions occasionally.
C) have the client record ongoing changes and include them in the record.
D) photograph the lesions at each clinic visit and use them for comparison.
Q2) In a highly pigmented client, the nurse would best assess for erythema by A) follicular accentuation.
B) induration.
C) reddening of the skin.
D) striation.
Q3) When the client taking chlorpromazine (Thorazine), phenytoin (Dilantin), penicillin, and a multivitamin complains of a sunburn-like rash on the face and arms, the nurse would suspect the cause to be the A) dilantin.
B) multivitamin.
C) penicillin.
D) tetracycline.
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Chapter 49: Management of Clients with Integumentary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is to have a basal cell carcinoma removed with Mohs' surgery. During preoperative teaching, it would be important for the nurse to explain that
A) liquid nitrogen will be applied to the lesion.
B) no dressing will be necessary.
C) scarring is rare.
D) the procedure may be long.
Q2) A nurse is caring for a client who had a musculocutaneous flap reconstruction. The nurse assesses the flap to be cool with dark dermal blood on lancing. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to
A) document the findings and continue care.
B) elevate the affected body part if possible.
C) notify the surgeon immediately.
D) rewrap the pressure dressing.
Q3) Before a client has blepharoplasty, the nurse would assess the client for
A) ability to close eyes completely.
B) extraocular movement in each eye.
C) facial symmetry and muscle strength.
D) near and distant vision in each eye.
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Chapter 50: Management of Clients with Burn Injury
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30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4048
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a client with burns covering the entire surface of both arms and the anterior trunk. Using the rule of nines, the nurse would estimate the percentage of burn surface area to be
A) 18%.
B) 27%.
C) 36%.
D) 45%.
Q2) The nurse would stress to the ancillary staff that the most important means of preventing the spread of infection in the burn unit is A) prophylactic antibiotics.
B) restricting visitors with respiratory tract infections.
C) strict hand-washing.
D) using clean gowns, gloves, and masks.
Q3) To reduce contractures of the knee in a client with extensive burns of the knee and mid-leg, the nurse would position the client with the knee
A) extended.
B) flexed.
C) adducted.
D) abducted.
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Assessment of the Vascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has a suspected DVT. The nurse would prepare the client to undergo a A) air plethysmography.
B) ankle-brachial index measurement.
C) computed tomography (CT) scan.
D) ultrasonic duplex scan.
Q2) When assessing a client with arterial insufficiency, the nurse would expect A) bounding arterial pulses.
B) cool, pale skin.
C) muscular atrophy.
D) warm, erythematous legs.
Q3) When a female client tells the nurse, "I always get pains in my legs when walking," the nurse would question her about A) amount of activity required to cause pain.
B) history of hypertension.
C) number of pregnancies.
D) presence of swelling.
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Chapter 52: Management of Clients with Hypertensive Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would consider referring a hypertensive client for step-down therapy when the blood pressure has been effectively controlled for at least
A) 3 months.
B) 6 months.
C) 1 year.
D) 2 years.
Q2) The nurse working with hypertensive clients knows that what factor is most important in order for the client's treatment plan to be successful?
A) A sound treatment plan created by the health care team
B) Consultation with specialists like physical therapy and a dietitian
C) Long-term compliance and adherence to therapy
D) Provider willingness to try different medications
Q3) In an exercise program for weight reduction in a hypertensive client, the nurse would discourage the use of heavy weights because this may cause
A) lactic acid buildup.
B) muscle strain.
C) rapid vasodilation.
D) vasovagal response.
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Chapter 53: Management of Clients with Vascular Disorders
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4051
Sample Questions
Q1) For a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT), the nurse would include in the plan of nursing care the intervention of
A) applying cool compresses to the area.
B) maintaining the legs in the dependent position.
C) raising the foot of the bed 6 inches.
D) restricting fluids.
Q2) For the first 24 hours after a client's leg amputation, the nurse would place the stump
A) Below the level of the heart.
B) elevated on a pillow.
C) flat on the bed.
D) in external rotation.
Q3) A client is scheduled for a guillotine amputation and is crying, stating that he/she cannot live with "such an ugly leg." The information from the nurse that would best help the client cope with the upcoming surgery is to tell the client that
A) in another operation, the stump edge will be covered with a skin flap.
B) it is either have the amputation or die from the infection.
C) later cosmetic surgery is an option if the amputation cures the infection.
D) while wearing a prosthesis, no one will be able to see the "ugly leg."
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Chapter 54: Assessment of the Cardiac System
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4052
Sample Questions
Q1) In doing a breath sound assessment on a client who has left ventricular failure, the nurse would anticipates the finding of
A) audible S3 and S4.
B) crackles in the lung bases.
C) inspiratory wheeze.
D) pericardial friction rub.
Q2) The critical piece of information related to the client's myocardium that is obtained through a PET scan is
A) electrical activity of the heart.
B) myocardial viability.
C) patency of coronary arteries.
D) status of valves.
Q3) Important information the nurse should collect when a client complains of chest pain includes (Select all that apply)
A) aggravating and relieving factors.
B) associated manifestations.
C) characteristics.
D) duration.
E) location.
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Management of Clients with Structural
Cardiac Disorders
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4053
Sample Questions
Q1) In counseling a client who is considering a heart transplant, the nurse would know the client has an accurate perception of this treatment option when the client says
A) "Less than half of those who survive a heart transplant live 10 years."
B) "People under 75 years of age may have a heart transplant."
C) "The survival rate for patients having a heart transplant is about 80%."
D) "This is an experimental treatment, but I want to take the chance."
Q2) For a client waiting for a heart transplant who has been fitted with a left ventricular assist device (LVAD), the nurse would explain that the purpose of this device is to
A) electrically stimulate the left ventricle to contract.
B) extract blood from the left ventricle and propel it into the systemic circulation.
C) measure hemodynamics of cardiac output occurring because of dysrhythmias. D) sound an alarm when the intraventricular pressure drops.
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Chapter 56: Management of Clients with Functional
Cardiac Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4054
Sample Questions
Q1) When the a client with left ventricular heart failure complains that she has to get up several times during the night to urinate, the nurse would explain that this bothersome event is
A) a late clinical manifestation of heart failure.
B) an indication that the right ventricle is being affected.
C) caused by an increase in blood flow to the kidneys when lying down.
D) the result of increased secretion of aldosterone at night.
Q2) When the client who had a myocardial infarction develops dependent edema, the nurse would assess that this could be an early manifestation of A) fluid deficit.
B) left ventricular failure.
C) renal failure.
D) right ventricular failure.
Q3) The nurse would assess that the individual most at risk for death from coronary heart disease (CHD) is a
A) 30-year-old Hispanic woman.
B) 42-year-old Caucasian woman.
C) 55-year-old Asian man.
D) 62-year-old African American woman.
Page 58
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Chapter 57: Management of Clients with Dysrhythmias
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4055
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would explain to a client who has a demand pacemaker in place that this pacemaker functions by
A) demanding the heart to contract at a preset rate.
B) firing after the SA node has started the cycle.
C) firing if the heart's electrical activity drops below a preset rate.
D) stimulating the SA node to fire.
Q2) A client is being discharged after unsuccessful cardioversion for atrial fibrillation. An important self-care measure the nurse should include in the discharge teaching plan is to tell the client to
A) be sure to get plenty of rest balanced with activity.
B) not eat too much red meat and other high-fat foods.
C) reschedule the cardioversion in 2 weeks.
D) take the Coumadin as scheduled.
Q3) The nurse would assess a heart rate of 55 beats/min as a normal finding in a client who
A) is an athlete.
B) is obese.
C) takes a diuretic.
D) weighs less than 90 pounds.
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Page 59
Chapter 58: Management of Clients with Myocardial Infarction
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4056
Sample Questions
Q1) In order to be most effective, the nurse planning a new cardiac rehabilitation program for the community hospital realizes to be most successful, the program
A) cannot begin until the clients go home.
B) needs to be cost-effective.
C) only should address physical problems.
D) should use a case management approach.
Q2) A client has received thrombolytic therapy after an ST segment myocardial infarction (STEMI). A half-hour later, the nurse notices frequent PVCs. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to
A) administer lidocaine per the dysrhythmia protocol.
B) document the finding and conclude the therapy worked.
C) prepare to send the client for emergent PTCA.
D) request an order for an anxiolytic medication.
Q3) Four hours after the onset of pain from an MI, the nurse would expect an increase in which laboratory result?
A) Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
B) CK-MB
C) Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
D) Leukocyte count
Page 60
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Chapter 59: Assessment of the Respiratory System
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4057
Sample Questions
Q1) A 44-year-old man with active pulmonary tuberculosis is experiencing hemoptysis, which the nurse understands describes
A) bloody sputum.
B) chest pain.
C) constant cough.
D) dyspnea.
Q2) When a 49-year-old client tells the nurse he has smoked half a pack of unfiltered cigarettes a day since he was 19 years old, the nurse would record the pack-years as A)15.
B)20.
C)25.
D)30
Q3) Evaluating the respiratory status of a 59-year-old man with vague complaints of respiratory problems, the nurse would know the assessment that is normal is A) an inspiratory wheeze heard only with a stethoscope.
B) dyspnea with mild exertion.
C) reports of loud snoring by the client's spouse.
D) the absence of sputum production after coughing.
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Chapter 60: Management of Clients with Upper Airway Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4058
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explaining the pieces of a tracheostomy to a client would note that the portion of the tracheostomy apparatus used to round the end of the tube for insertion is the
A) flange.
B) inner cannula.
C) obturator.
D) pilot tube.
Q2) During a direct visual examination of the larynx, the best intervention the nurse could offer is to
A) give the client anti-anxiety medication.
B) help the client hold still.
C) hold the client's hand.
D) tell the client to "pant like a puppy."
Q3) A client has frequent bouts of laryngitis. When assessing the client the nurse should specifically ask questions regarding the presence of
A) a family history of idiopathic hoarseness.
B) frequent upper respiratory tract infections.
C) gastroesophageal reflux disorder.
D) a history of stomach cancer.
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Chapter 61: Management of Clients with Lower Airway and Pulmonary Vessel
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client tells the nurse that he read something about "dead space" in an article about emphysema and asks the nurse to explain it to him. The nurse's most accurate answer would be the following:
A) "Any part of your lungs that contains mucous secretions is called dead space."
B) "Dead space is an area of your lung that does not participate in air exchange."
C) "Parts of the lower airway that serve as a conduit for fresh air."
D) "This is a small area of necrotic tissue that can cause infection."
Q2) The nurse is assessing the lab work of a client with a pulmonary embolism. The client's INR is 5.8. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to
A) call the physician and ask to increase the Coumadin.
B) document the findings as normal and continue care.
C) encourage the client to order green leafy vegetables for dinner.
D) institute safety precautions for the client.
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63
Chapter 62: Management of Clients with Parenchymal and Pleural Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4060
Sample Questions
Q1) A young female client with cystic fibrosis (CF) wishes to become pregnant but is concerned about the effect of CF on fertility. The nurse bases a response with the understanding that
A) breastfeeding will not be possible because of plugged milk glands.
B) only about 20% of women with CF are infertile.
C) pregnancy carries a high risk of spontaneous abortion (miscarriage).
D) women with CF are unlikely to become pregnant.
Q2) A client is admitted with flu-like symptoms that developed after hunting rabbits. The nurse anticipates which of the following initial orders for this client?
A) Intubation and mechanical ventilation
B) Mantoux TB testing
C) Rapid infusion of IV fluids
D) Respiratory isolation room
Q3) A client is being discharged after treatment for a bronchopleural fistula. Important self-care measures the nurse should teach include
A) improving the client's nutrition.
B) management of the chest tube system.
C) preventing a recurrence.
D) smoking cessation resources.
Page 64
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Chapter 63: Management of Clients with Acute Pulmonary Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4061
Sample Questions
Q1) As part of the care of a mechanically ventilated client, the nursing action that would be inappropriate is
A) providing oral care every 2 hours.
B) keeping the head of the bed flat while intubated.
C) using aseptic technique for suctioning.
D) washing the hands before and after care.
Q2) A client has severe adult (acute) respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and has not responded to several different treatments. An independent nursing action that might help the client would be to
A) administer antioxidants as ordered.
B) place the client in a prone position.
C) turn the client every 2 hours.
D) use meticulous hand-washing before client care.
Q3) When a client is admitted to the ED with a sucking chest wound, the nurse initially would
A) cover the wound with whatever is available.
B) leave the wound open.
C) notify the physician.
D) obtain a sterile gauze petroleum dressing to cover the wound.
Page 65
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Chapter 64: Assessment of the Eyes and Ears
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4062
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse performing an assessment of a client with a neuromuscular disorder finds that the left upper eyelid sags and covers a portion of the pupil. The nurse would note this finding on the client record as A) amblyopia.
B) lid eversion.
C) presbyopia.
D) ptosis.
Q2) Using a Snellen chart, the nurse would credit a client with reading the line of print if the client has correctly read more than
A) 50% of the characters.
B) 60% of the characters.
C) 80% of the characters.
D) 90% of the characters.
Q3) An important primary prevention activity the nurse could teach a community group for vision is (Select all that apply)
A) having an annual ophthalmologic examination.
B) keeping blood pressure under control.
C) taking medication for glaucoma as prescribed.
D) wearing safety goggles and sunglasses.
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Page 66
Chapter 65: Management of Clients with Visual Disorders
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4063
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse evaluating a client's retinal arterioles during a funduscopic examination would record a grade indicating severe hypertensive retinopathy as
A) grade D.
B) grade 1.
C) grade 4.
D) grade 10.
Q2) The nurse would instruct a client being taught to administer pilocarpine eye drops for glaucoma that the client
A) may feel some tingling in the fingers after administering the drops.
B) may have some blurring of vision after the drops are instilled.
C) will need to keep the eyes closed for 20 minutes after the drops are instilled.
D) will need to take the pulse before administering the drops.
Q3) In planning the care of a client with Crohn's disease for 10 years who has developed Sjögren's syndrome, the nurse would include
A) applying frequent cool soaks.
B) cleansing the eye to remove crusts.
C) instilling lubricating eye drops frequently.
D) reducing lighting in the room.
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Chapter 66: Management of Clients with Hearing and Balance Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4064
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assessing a client with an inner ear disorder would be aware that the presenting clinical manifestation will be
A) conductive hearing disorder.
B) otorrhea.
C) sensorineural hearing loss.
D) severe headache.
Q2) The occupational health nurse evaluating a factory where the noise level is high would recommend noise abatement or use of earplugs when the noise level exceeds A) 47 dB.
B) 64 dB.
C) 72 dB.
D) 80 dB.
Q3) The nurse providing instructions to a client after ear surgery would tell the client that for the next 4 to 6 weeks, he/she should avoid
A) any physical activity.
B) blowing the nose.
C) flying in an aircraft.
D) getting the ear wet.
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Chapter 67: Assessment of the Neurologic System
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20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4065
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is having a client sign the informed consent form before having an electromyography (EMG). What is the most appropriate response by the nurse when the client says "The doctor will use little needles to take samples to send to the lab."
A) Agree and have the client sign the form.
B) Ask if the client has any questions before signing.
C) Request the physician re-educate the client.
D) Tear up the consent form because now it is invalid.
Q2) In assessing the cause of the decreased level of consciousness in a client in a coma, the diagnostic procedure that would provide the most accurate information is
A) computed tomography (CT) scan.
B) detailed history of the accident.
C) physical examination.
D) skull x-ray film.
Q3) The nurse asking a client questions that test orientation would include
A) "Can you count backward from 100 by 7s?"
B) "Do you have any brothers and sisters?"
C) "What would you do if you lost your house key?"
D) "What year is this?"
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Page 69
Chapter 68: Management of Comatose or Confused
Clients
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4066
Sample Questions
Q1) Before the evacuation of a fecal impaction from a comatose client, the nurse applies an anesthetic jelly to the rectum in order to
A) decrease the risk of rectal tearing.
B) lessen the discomfort to hemorrhoids.
C) prevent possible seizures.
D) reduce discomfort of dislodging the fecal mass.
Q2) A nurse is assessing a client and considering the use of physical restraints to keep the client safe. In making this decision, which factors should the nurse consider? (Select all that apply.)
A) A goal is to use the least restrictive device for the shortest possible time.
B) Alternatives to restraint should be tried first as death and injury can occur.
C) How to communicate with the physician so an order is signed every 48 hours.
D) The frequency with which the client must be re-assessed.
E) The types and sizes of restraints the facility has available.
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Chapter 69: Management of Clients with Cerebral Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4067
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse observes for manifestations of typical migraine headaches, which include A) aura, visual disturbances, and nausea.
B) bilateral pain, abrupt onset, and tinnitus.
C) diarrhea, nasal congestion, and eye redness.
D) scalp tenderness, sensation of pressure, and nighttime onset.
Q2) The nurse clarifies that a generalized seizure, unlike a partial seizure, involves A) areas of special senses.
B) both hemispheres.
C) only one hemisphere.
D) the autonomic system.
Q3) The nurse assesses for the most common manifestations of a post-traumatic brain abscess, which are
A) headache and lethargy.
B) photophobia and dizziness.
C) muscle spasms and tingling.
D) sluggish pupillary reactions.
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Chapter 70: Management of Clients with Stroke
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28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client had a stroke. A nurse has arranged a consultation with an occupational therapist in order to enhance the client's ability to
A) acquire job skills.
B) feed himself.
C) swallow.
D) use a walker.
Q2) To best help the client who has the nursing diagnosis Ineffective Coping after a stroke, the nurse would
A) break a long-term goal into smaller pieces.
B) listen to the client carefully and try to understand.
C) place familiar items, such as photos, near the bed.
D) redirect the client when inappropriate behavior occurs.
Q3) The nursing action that would be appropriate in caring for a client who has experienced stroke because of hemorrhage is to A) maintain the head of the bed in a flat position.
B) monitor rectal temperature every 4 hours.
C) teach isometric exercises.
D) teach the client to avoid the Valsalva maneuver.
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Chapter 71: Management of Clients with Peripheral Nervous System
Disorders
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client's medical record notes a forward slipping of the L5 vertebra. The nurse expects that the diagnosis at the end of the report will state A) back strain.
B) disk herniation.
C) lordosis.
D) spondylolisthesis.
Q2) A client with acute disk herniation began using ice for analgesia along with medication therapy. The nurse explains that the client will be switched to heat therapy after
A) 24 hours.
B) 48 hours.
C) 72 hours.
D) 96 hours.
Q3) When the client who had a cervical spinal fusion this morning complains of a sudden radicular pain, the nurse is
A) alerted because this indicates possible infection.
B) concerned because this indicates possible meningitis.
C) distressed because of the possible need to repeat the surgery.
D) relieved because this indicates a reduction in edema.
Page 73
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Chapter 72: Management of Clients with Degenerative Neurologic Disorders
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is being treated in the clinic for an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. The nurse would anticipate administering which drug?
A) Diazepam (Valium)
B) Interferon b1b (Betaseron)
C) Lioresal (Baclofen)
D) Methylprednisolone (Solu-Cortef)
Q2) A client is receiving donepezil (Aricept) for moderate Alzheimer's disease. The nurse would assess that teaching goals for this medication have been met when the client's spouse says
A) "Aricept works by blocking oxygen free radicals in the brain."
B) " Depression has been the worst part so I'm glad this pill will control it."
C) "I'm anxious to see how much improvement the medications allows."
D) "This medicine will prevent further deterioration in condition."
Q3) When a client is admitted to the hospital with Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), the most important assessment the nurse should make is for A) decreasing alertness.
B) respiratory difficulty.
C) seizure activity.
D) urinary retention.
Page 74
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Chapter 73: Management of Clients with Neurologic
Trauma
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An elderly client who was found unresponsive at home now opens his eyes when spoken to and answers simple questions when asked; and left alone usually sleeps. The nurse would document this information in the Glasgow Coma Scale using the categories of
A) best verbal response and best motor response.
B) eye opening and best verbal response.
C) eye opening and motor activity.
D) motor activity and motor response.
Q2) The client with a spinal cord injury asks the nurse why he must stand on the tilt table every day. The nurse should base the answer on the fact that weight-bearing
A) decreases leg spasms.
B) improves circulation.
C) prevents bone demineralization.
D) strengthens muscles in the legs.
Q3) The emergency department nurse should position the client with cranial injuries
A) in high-Fowler position and knees elevated.
B) side-lying with head of bed elevated 20 degrees.
C) supine with head of bed elevated 30 degrees.
D) supine with the bed completely flat.
Page 75
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Chapter 74: Assessment of the Hematopoietic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse notes that a client has a higher than normal reticulocyte count. This would indicate
A) bone marrow depression.
B) dehydration.
C) increased erythrocyte production.
D) polycythemia vera.
Q2) The nurse assesses the client who underwent partial removal of the stomach a year ago for the manifestations of A) anemia.
B) high white blood cell count.
C) low platelet count.
D) shortened bleeding times.
Q3) The nurse discovers a client is taking the herb St. John's wort. The nurse cautions that this herb reduces the effectiveness of A) lanoxin.
B) prednisone.
C) theophylline.
D) warfarin.
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Chapter 75: Management of Clients with Hematologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is conducting a wellness seminar on healthy eating and prevention of iron deficiency anemia. The food the nurse would describe as being high in iron is
A) citrus fruits.
B) grains.
C) green leafy vegetables.
D) milk products.
Q2) The nurse assessing a client with sickle cell anemia would recognize the common manifestation of the disease is A) confusion.
B) diarrhea.
C) hypertension.
D) leg ulcers.
Q3) The nurse explains that the definitive laboratory finding confirming the diagnosis of sickle cell anemia is
A) folate deficiency.
B) hemoglobin level of less than 9 g/dl.
C) increase in hemoglobin G (Hgb G).
D) presence of hemoglobin S (Hgb S).
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Chapter 76: Management of Clients with Immune Disorders
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with urticaria is frustrated with the chronic nature of the problem. To enhance coping, which intervention by the nurse would be most effective?
A) Assist the client in identifying and eliminating triggers for outbreaks.
B) Demonstrate to the client measures to increase comfort.
C) Let the client vent frustrations and remain supportive.
D) Teach the client the proper way to take antihistamines.
Q2) The nurse instructs a client diagnosed with urticaria on common self care measures, which include
A) antihistamines.
B) corticosteroids.
C) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
D) warm oatmeal baths.
Q3) A nurse would observe the client for how long to determine whether there is an immediate reaction to a skin test?
A) 1 to 2 minutes
B) 2 to 5 minutes
C) 5 to 10 minutes
D) 10 to 20 minutes
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Chapter 77: Management of Clients with Rheumatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that one of the few rheumatic joint diseases about which we know the infectious etiology is
A) ankylosing spondylitis.
B) Lyme disease.
C) rheumatoid arthritis.
D) Sjögren's syndrome.
Q2) A client has advanced systemic sclerosis and presents with a mask-like face and limited ROM of the mouth. Which nursing diagnosis is most important to address an important concept related to this client?
A) Altered Body Image
B) Impaired Skin Integrity
C) Risk for Constipation
D) Risk for Imbalanced Nutrition
Q3) The caution the nurse should give the client who is taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) as a remedy for arthritis is to
A) avoid taking NSAIDs with milk.
B) liberalize fluids while taking NSAIDs.
C) take NSAIDs with food.
D) watch for manifestations of skin damage.
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Chapter 78: Management of Clients with Acquired
Immunodeficiency Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) When planning a community teaching event, the nurse should recognize that the group in which HIV infection is growing most rapidly is
A) adults older than 50 years.
B) blacks and Hispanics.
C) black teenagers.
D) gay white men.
Q2) A client with AIDS is experiencing fever with night sweats. A suggestion the nurse could make is to
A) drink all liquids in the morning.
B) keep liquids at the bedside to drink.
C) limit fluid intake after supper.
D) take aspirin if awakened in the night.
Q3) A client is afraid of a recent possible HIV exposure. The nurse should explain that the period of time it takes before HIV antibodies can be detected by laboratory tests is generally
A) 1 to 3 days.
B) 7 to 10 days.
C) 1 to 3 weeks.
D) 4 to 12 weeks.
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Chapter 79: Management of Clients with Leukemia and Lymphoma
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with acute leukemia has an extremely high white count and is going to receive chemotherapy. The nurse should anticipate administering which agents to this client? (Select all that apply.)
A) Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
B) Increased IV fluids
C) Rasburicase (Elitek)
D) Urine acidifiers
Q2) The nurse preparing a client with acute leukemia for the induction phase of chemotherapy explains that the objective of this phase is to
A) decrease the number of monocytes.
B) induce complete remission.
C) reduce long bone pain and splenomegaly.
D) "shock" the marrow into producing normal cells.
Q3) The nurse reviewing a hematology report recognizes pancytopenia, which is when
A) cellular components of the blood are reduced.
B) platelets are immature and dividing rapidly.
C) red cells have become polymorphic.
D) white cells are poorly undifferentiated.
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Chapter 80: Management of Clients Requiring
Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is confused about Medicare coverage post-transplant. The nurse clarifies that in 1996 Medicare extended insurance coverage for A) all organ transplants.
B) postoperative immunosuppressants.
C) preoperative immunosuppressive protocol.
D) relocation expenses.
Q2) The nurse warns a client who has been found to be an acceptable candidate for a kidney transplant, that now the greatest impediment to renal transplantation is A) high potential for rejection.
B) high risk for infection.
C) insufficient financial resources.
D) lack of sufficient donor organs.
Q3) The nurse working in an emergency department assesses that the client near death who would be the best candidate for organ donation is the client with A) cancer.
B) cirrhosis.
C) coronary heart disease.
D) subarachnoid hemorrhage.
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Chapter 81: Management of Clients with Shock and Multisystem
Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is receiving fluid replacement for treatment of shock and the nurse assesses a central venous pressure (CVP) of 15 cm water. The nurse anticipates which of the following interventions?
A) Administration of vasoconstrictors
B) Administration of vasodilators
C) Decreasing fluid infusion
D) Increasing fluid infusion
Q2) Distributive shock is primarily due to
A) a fluid shift from the vascular space.
B) an increase in the size of the vascular space.
C) inadequate circulating blood volume.
D) inadequate pumping action of the heart.
Q3) A client is at risk for MODS. In caring for this client, the nurse should place the highest priority on
A) assisting with incentive spirometry.
B) hourly monitoring of urinary output.
C) maintaining adequate oral intake.
D) performing range-of-motion exercises.
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Chapter 82: Management of Clients in the Emergency Department
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4080
Sample Questions
Q1) A client is brought to the ED with a suspected neck injury. The nurse should
A) adjust the table to sit the client upright.
B) apply a hard cervical collar to the nuchal area.
C) check for full range of motion of the head.
D) place a rolled towel under the client's neck.
Q2) The ED triage nurse identifies the client who can have treatment delayed for a few hours as the client with a
A) avulsed (knocked-out) tooth.
B) broken finger.
C) head injury from a fall.
D) large laceration that needs suturing.
Q3) After stabilizing a trauma victim's airway, breathing, and circulation, the next item for the ED nurse to assess is
A) abdomen.
B) broken bones.
C) integument.
D) neurologic status.
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