Nursing Fundamentals Lab
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Nursing Fundamentals Lab provides students with hands-on experience in essential nursing skills, emphasizing the practical application of theoretical concepts learned in the classroom. Through guided simulations and laboratory exercises, students develop proficiency in patient assessment, vital sign measurement, basic hygiene care, infection control, mobility assistance, and medication administration. The course fosters critical thinking and effective communication, preparing students to deliver safe, compassionate, and patient-centered care in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Nursing Skills and Techniques 7th Edition by Anne Griffin Perry
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44 Chapters
1516 Verified Questions
1516 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1753
2
Chapter 1: Using Evidence in Nursing Practice
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34912
Sample Questions
Q1) While caring for patients,the professional nurse must question
Answer: what does not make sense
Always think about your practice when caring for patients.Question what does not make sense to you,and question what you think needs clarification.
Q2) When a "PICO" question is developed,the letter that corresponds with the usual standard of care is:
A) P
B) I
C) C
D) O
Answer: C
Q3) The researcher explains how to apply findings in a practice setting for the type of subjects studied in the _________________ section of a research article.
Answer: "Clinical Implications"
A research article includes a section that explains if the findings from the study have "Clinical Implications." The researcher explains how to apply findings in a practice setting for the types of subjects studied.
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3
Chapter 2: Admitting, transfer, and Discharge
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34913
Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient's discharge is completed,an activity that may be delegated to assistive personnel is the:
A) Provision of prescriptions to the patient
B) Completion of the discharge summary
C) Gathering of the patient's personal care items
D) Provision of instructions on community health resources
Answer: C
Q2) The patient is an 83-year-old gentleman who has the beginning stages of dementia.To prevent the patient from falling or "escaping," the nurse should:
A) Have the patient stay in his room
B) Have the family take all of the patient's belongings home
C) Allow the patient to be as independent as possible
D) Give the patient antianxiety medication
Answer: C
Q3) The greatest challenge in effective discharge planning is _______________.
Answer: communication
The greatest challenge in effective discharge planning is communication.The communication problem is minimized when an organization has a discharge coordinator or case manager responsible for discharge planning
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Communication
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34914
Sample Questions
Q1) Anxiety that is the source of inattention,decreased perceptual field,and diaphoresis is classified as ____________________.
Answer: moderate anxiety
Moderate anxiety is characterized by selective inattention,decreased perceptual field,the ability to focus only on relevant information,muscle tension,and/or diaphoresis.
Q2) The patient is unable to cope with any problems because of his anxiety and his feelings of terror.The patient is suffering from a _______________________.
Answer: panic state of anxiety
A panic state of anxiety is suspected when the patient does not notice surroundings,has a constant feeling of terror,and is unable to cope with any problem.
Q3) Anxiety that is the source of poor recall and somatic complaints such as headache and nausea is classified as _________________.
Answer: severe anxiety
Severe anxiety is characterized by the ability to focus on fragmented details only,as well as headache,nausea,dizziness,inability to see connections between details,and poor recall.
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Chapter 4: Reporting and Recording
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34915
Sample Questions
Q1) Nursing documentation must have the following characteristics.It must be: (Select all that apply.)
A) Factual
B) Organized
C) Public
D) Complete
Q2) The abbreviation for every day (___ )is no longer used.
Q3) __________________ documentation should include your observations of patient behavior.
Q4) To limit liability,nursing documentation must clearly indicate that the nurse provided individualized,goal-directed nursing care to a patient based on the
Q5) The patient is a 24-year-old man who is diagnosed with possible HIV infection while being treated for active pneumonia.He has stated that the nurse may share test result information with his significant other but nothing else at this time.The nurse may:
A) Update the patient's parents as well
B) Update the patient's significant other only
C) Update no one in the hospital until the patient says so
D) Update the patient's physician, significant other, laboratory personnel
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Chapter 5: Vital Signs
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34916
Sample Questions
Q1) An irregular heartbeat,often found in children,that speeds up with inspiration and slows down with expiration is known as a sinus ___________.
Q2) The patient is an 86-year-old woman who is being admitted for dehydration and pneumonia.The patient is lying in bed but tells the nurse that she needs to go to the bathroom.The nurse tells the patient that she will stay with her and will help her get there.The patient states,"That's OK.I can make it on my own." The nurse should:
A) Help the patient to the bathroom and stay with her
B) Allow the patient to get up on her own and go to the bathroom
C) Allow the patient to go to the bathroom and call for help if needed
D) Insert a Foley catheter
Q3) The patient has been in the hospital for several days for urosepsis.He has been responding favorably to treatment,and his vital signs have been "normal" for 2 days.When the nurse takes his vital signs,however,the patient's apical pulse is 152 and regular.The nurse suspects that:
A) He is having a reaction to his narcotic medication
B) He may be suffering from hypothermia
C) His fever may have returned
D) The patient may be an athlete
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7
Chapter 6: Health Assessment
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34917
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction.While providing cardiac education,the nurse realizes that the patient needs more education when he:
A) Describes changes in his behavior that may improve cardiovascular function
B) Describes the schedule, dosage, and purpose of his medication
C) States that he will take his medication when he has chest pain or when his heart rate is greater than 100
D) Describes the benefits of taking his medication regularly
Q2) An unexpected finding during the assessment of the pupils of the eyes is:
A) A round shape
B) Slight opacity
C) A brisk response to light
D) Consensual constriction
Q3) A nurse is documenting a patient's breath sounds.Crackles are heard as:
A) Loud, low-pitched, coarse sounds
B) High-pitched, musical squeaks
C) Dry, grating sounds on inspiration
D) High-pitched, fine sounds at the end of inspiration
Q4) An increased amount of deoxygenated hemoglobin may cause a change in skin color known as _____________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Medical Asepsis
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34918
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following measures is appropriate when a nurse is washing her/his hands?
A) Use very hot water.
B) Leave rings and watches in place.
C) Lather for at least 10 to 15 seconds.
D) Keep the fingers and hands up and the elbows down.
Q2) The nurse is applying for a position at a local hospital.As part of the employment criteria,she will be required to be assessed for TB exposure.She should be prepared for the ______________ blood test to be scheduled.
Q3) OSHA and CDC guidelines require health care workers who care for suspected or confirmed TB patients to wear special ________________.
Q4) __________________ are designed to prevent the spread of infection from blood,body fluids,secretions,excretions,nonintact skin,and mucous membranes.
Q5) The patient is admitted with mumps.The nurse knows that she will have to:
A) Put the patient in a private room
B) Place the patient on Standard Precautions
C) Wear a mask when closer than 3 feet to the patient
D) Place the patient on Contact Precautions
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Chapter 8: Sterile Technique
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34919
Sample Questions
Q1) Nurses commonly use surgical asepsis in which of the following situations? (Select all that apply.)
A) In labor and delivery areas
B) When inserting an intravenous catheter
C) When treating patients with surgical incisions or burns
D) When inserting a urinary catheter
E) None of above
Q2) The nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter.The package is dry but shows signs of yellowing inside the plastic wrapper,as if the package was wet at one time.The nurse should:
A) Use the package since it is dry at present
B) Consider the outer package contaminated, but the inner package sterile
C) Discard the entire package as contaminated
D) Open the package and consider the 1-inch border as contaminated
Q3) When removing the mask following an aseptic procedure,the nurse should:
A) Remove gloves first
B) Untie top strings of mask first
C) Untie bottom strings last
D) Untie top strings and let mask hang
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Safe Patient Handling, transfer, and Positioning
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34920
Sample Questions
Q1) Plantar flexion contracture,otherwise known as _____________,is caused when the force of gravity pulls an unsupported,weakened foot into a plantar-flexed position.
Q2) Patients at risk for complications and/or injury from improper positioning include patients with which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Poor nutrition
B) Loss of sensation
C) Impaired muscle development
D) Poor circulation
E) None of above
Q3) Awareness of posture and changes in equilibrium is known as _______________.
Q4) A nurse should be aware of safety measures to prevent personal injury when lifting or moving patients.An appropriate principle to follow is:
A) Bend at the waist for lifting
B) Tighten the stomach muscles and pelvis
C) Keep the weight to be lifted away from the body
D) Carry or hold the weight 1 to 2 feet above the waist
Q5) Body balance is achieved when a wide _____________ exists.
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Chapter 10: Exercise and Ambulation
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34921
Sample Questions
Q1) _________________ increase muscle tension but do not change the length of muscle fibers.
Q2) An appropriate technique for the nurse to use when performing range of motion (ROM)exercises is to:
A) Repeat each action five times during the exercise
B) Perform the exercises quickly and firmly
C) Support the proximal portion of the extremity being exercised
D) Continue the exercise slightly beyond the point of resistance
Q3) When using a SCD,the nurse should:
A) Apply powder to the patient's skin if redness and itching are present
B) Leave a two-finger space between the patient's leg and the compression stocking
C) Keep the patient connected to the compression device when transferring into and out of bed
D) Remove the elastic stockings before putting on the sequential pneumatic compression stockings
Q4) Virchow's triad (hypercoagulability of blood,venous wall damage,and stasis of blood flow)has been found to contribute to ________________.
Q5) A person's inability to move about freely is known as _______________.
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Chapter 11: Orthopedic Measures
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34922
Sample Questions
Q1) After application of the cast,the nurse ensures that plaster crumbs are removed and rough edges are _________ to prevent skin breakdown.
Q2) An appropriate technique for the nurse to implement for the client who is being casted is to:
A) Apply ice to the top of the cast
B) Maintain the extremity below heart level
C) Handle the wet cast with the fingertips
D) Fold the stockinette or padding over the outer cast edges
Q3) The patient has a broken leg and needs to have a cast applied.When plaster of Paris is compared and contrasted versus the newer synthetic casts,which of the following statements is true?
A) Plaster of Paris can tolerate earlier weight bearing than synthetic casts.
B) Plaster of Paris is more expensive than synthetic casts.
C) Synthetic casts can withstand contact with water better than plaster.
D) Synthetic casts are lighter but take longer to set than plaster of Paris.
Q4) _________________ may occur when pressure within a casted extremity increases.
Q5) A _______________ is an externally applied structure that holds musculoskeletal tissues in a specific position to permit healing of injuries or fractures or to align malpositioned tissues.
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Chapter 12: Support Surfaces and Special Beds
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34923
Sample Questions
Q1) It is recommended that the Rotokinetic bed stay in the rotation mode for at least _______hours a day.
Q2) When working with a patient who is being placed on an air mattress overlay,a nurse should:
A) Apply the preinflated overlay over the standard mattress
B) Bring any plastic strips or flaps around the corners of the bed mattress
C) Administer an analgesic after the patient is moved onto the mattress
D) Keep clamps or pins attached to the sheets to keep them in place over the mattress
Q3) ___________________ is the ability of a support surface to conform to irregularities such as clothing,bedding,and bony prominences,without causing a substantial increase in pressure.
Q4) ____________ are defined as localized injury to the skin and/or underlying tissue,usually over a bony prominence,as a result of pressure,or pressure in combination with shear and/or friction.
Q5) A ______________ serves as an artificial layer of fat to protect bony surfaces.
Q6) When focusing on pressure ulcer prevention,it is important to note that __________ refers to pressure being spread out over the surrounding area instead of directly over a bony prominence.
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Chapter 13: Safety
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34924
Sample Questions
Q1) A safe environment is one in which: (Select all that apply.)
A) Patient's basic needs are met
B) Physical hazards are reduced
C) Transmission of microorganisms is reduced
D) Sanitary measures are carried out
E) None of above
Q2) Effective fall prevention programs include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Risk assessment
B) Medication reviews
C) Use of assistive devices
D) Exercise and strength training
E) None of above
Q3) A nurse enters the room,and the patient,who is sitting in a chair,begins to have a seizure.The nurse should:
A) Run for help
B) Guide the patient to the floor
C) Put the patient back into the bed
D) Insert a padded tongue blade into the patient's mouth
Q4) __________ are the most common type of inpatient accident.
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Chapter 14: Disaster Preparedness
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34925
Sample Questions
Q1) When the following biological agent exposures are compared,which requires the use of an antitoxin?
A) Anthrax
B) Plague
C) Botulism
D) Typhoid
Q2) An ______________ is an infectious disease or condition that attacks many people at the same time in the same geographical area.
Q3) The terrorist act of releasing a biological agent into a specified environment is known as _____________________.
Q4) The patient is brought into the emergency department as part of an MCI.The patient has white powder on his clothes,and it is suspected that the patient has been exposed to anthrax.The nurse should:
A) Cut off patient's clothing and place it in a plastic bag
B) Have patient remove his sweater by pulling it over his head
C) Avoid using oxygen that could decrease the patient's oxygen drive
D) Provide patient with an antitoxin
Q5) An epidemic that occurs in many parts of the world is known as a
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Chapter 15: Pain Assessment and Basic Comfort Measures
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34926
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse frequently must assess a patient experiencing pain.When assessing the intensity of the pain,the nurse should:
A) Ask about what precipitates the pain
B) Question the patient about the location of the pain
C) Offer the patient a pain scale to objectify the information
D) Use open-ended questions to find out about the sensation
Q2) The patient is in the hospital and has gone for major abdominal surgery.When the patient returns from the recovery room,the nurse expects that he most likely will be receiving pain medication:
A) By mouth
B) Intramuscularly
C) Via epidural route
D) Intravenously
Q3) Pain that extends beyond the period of healing and often lacks an identified pathology is known as _______________.
Q4) Massaging upward and outward from the vertebral column and back again is known as __________________.
Q5) ___________ has an identifiable cause and rapid onset and generally disappears with healing.
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Chapter 16: Palliative Care
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34927
Sample Questions
Q1) An _______________ is the surgical dissection of a body after death.
Q2) After the patient dies,and before other activities are begun,the nurse should:
A) Place the patient in a supine position and elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees
B) Wait an hour to prepare the patient for viewing
C) Place the patient in a side-lying position to allow drainage
D) Exclude the family while the body is being prepared
Q3) Hospice care can be provided in which of the following settings? (Select all that apply.)
A) At home
B) In freestanding hospice facilities
C) In extended care facilities
D) In acute care facilities
E) None of above
Q4) A nurse-initiated or independent activity for promotion of respiratory function in a terminally ill patient is to:
A) Limit fluids
B) Position the patient in semi-Fowler's or Fowler's position
C) Reduce narcotic analgesic use
D) Administer bronchodilators
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Chapter 17: Personal Hygiene and Bedmaking
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34928
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a gentleman who has dry skin.When the following interventions are compared,which would be most appropriate for this patient?
A) Limiting the frequency of bathing
B) Use a fat-free soap for washing
C) Using warm water and moisturizers
D) Bathing with hot water to increase blood flow
Q2) When the following types of baths are considered,which would be considered a therapeutic bath?
A) Bed bath
B) Sponge bath at the sink
C) Sitz bath
D) Bag bath
Q3) Fifty-five percent of foot ulcers are due to repeat trauma over time,often caused by
Q4) Shaving a patient with a disposable razor is contraindicated for a patient with:
A) Heart disease
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) A head injury
D) A bleeding disorder
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Chapter 18: Pressure Ulcer Care
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34929
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is admitted with an open pressure ulcer with necrotic tissue covering the base.The nurse would classify this ulcer as a:
A) Stage III pressure ulcer
B) Stage IV ulcer
C) Wound cannot be staged
D) Stage II pressure ulcer
Q2) The nurse is turning a patient when she notices an area with nonblanchable redness over the patient's coccyx.The patient complains of pain at the site,and the site does feel cooler than the areas immediately around the site.The nurse recognizes that this patient has developed:
A) A stage I pressure ulcer
B) A stage II pressure ulcer
C) An unstageable pressure ulcer
D) Deep tissue injury
Q3) The removal of devitalized tissue in a wound is known as ______________.
Q4) A _______________ is a localized injury to the skin and/or underlying tissue,usually over a bony prominence,as a result of pressure,or pressure in combination with shear and/or friction.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Care of Eye and Ear Prostheses
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34930
Sample Questions
Q1) A client with an artificial eye identifies that the prosthesis is uncomfortable.The nurse should remove the prosthesis and:
A) Check the prosthesis for rough edges
B) Rinse the prosthesis with alcohol
C) Irrigate the eye socket with saline
D) Leave the prosthesis out of the eye for at least 24 hours
Q2) When cleansing and disinfecting contact lenses,the nurse:
A) Holds the lens over the sink
B) Rinses the lens with warm tap water
C) Uses an enzymatic cleaner per prescriber's instruction
D) Places rigid lenses in the storage case inside down
Q3) In teaching a patient with a new eye prosthesis on how to care for his eye,the nurse informs the patient: (Select all that apply.)
A) The artificial eye should be checked at least twice a year
B) The artificial eye should be cleansed daily using an alcohol product
C) An artificial eye usually is replaced every 5 years
D) If the prosthesis is not to be reinserted, it should be wrapped in a dry sterile towel
Q4) ____________ is the complete surgical removal of the eyeball.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Safe Medication Preparation
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34931
Sample Questions
Q1) The intended or desired physiological response of a medication is known as its
Q2) The patient has a diagnosis of chronic back pain that he has been treating at home for the past 2 years with oral morphine sulfate (MS Contin).Upon admission to the hospital,the patient is medicated with morphine sulfate for his back pain,but the patient states that he has received no relief.The nurse notifies the physician,realizing that the reason for the lack of relief may be:
A) A side effect of the morphine
B) A result of drug dependence
C) An idiosyncratic response to the morphine
D) A result of medication tolerance
Q3) A spoken order for a medication or treatment delivered by a prescriber directly to a nurse on a face-to-face basis is known as a _____________.
Q4) Aspirin is known as Aspergum 's:
A) Chemical name
B) Trade name
C) Generic name
D) United States Pharmacopeia
Q5) The most common type of medical error is a _______________.
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Chapter 21: Oral and Topical Medications
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34932
Sample Questions
Q1) ______________ medication is placed between the molar teeth and the cheek area and is allowed to dissolve.
Q2) The patient has returned from a gastroscopy procedure.He has been NPO since midnight last night and has not received his morning medications.What should the nurse do before giving him his medications?
A) Check for a gag reflex
B) Allow the patient to self-administer
C) Assess the ability to cough
D) Use straws and extra water for administration
Q3) Medication that is placed under the tongue and is allowed to dissolve is known as ____________ medication.
Q4) Which of the following tubes are used for long-term enteral feedings? (Select all that apply.)
A) PEG tube
B) Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube
C) Jejunostomy tube
D) Nasogastric decompression tube
Q5) Handheld devices that deliver inhaled medication in a fine powder to penetrate lung airways are known as ___________.
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Chapter 22: Parenteral Medications
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34933
Sample Questions
Q1) An appropriate technique for administration of a parenteral medication is observed when the nurse:
A) Uses strict aseptic technique
B) Tightly holds the inside surface of the syringe plunger
C) Injects medication as rapidly as possible
D) Slowly inserts the needle through the patient's tissue
Q2) ________________ administration of medication instills medications into body tissues and into the circulatory system by injection.
Q3) The dorsogluteal injection site should not be avoided in favor of the ventrogluteal site because of the risk of damaging the _______________.
Q4) A method of medication delivery that involves a small intravenous (IV)bag or bottle connected by a short tubing line connected to the upper Y-port of a primary infusion line is called a _____________ infusion.
Q5) An ____________ injection is an injection into the dermis just under the epidermis.
Q6) A subcutaneous medication delivery system that allows for continuous administration of medication is known as ________________.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Oxygen Therapy
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34934
Sample Questions
Q1) Assessment of the proper functioning of an oxygen device includes:
A) No mist in the face tent
B) The reservoir of the rebreathing mask collapsing on inhalation
C) A flow rate between 1 to 6 L/min for the nasal cannula
D) The nasal cannula positioned below the nares
Q2) _______________ is a deficiency of arterial blood oxygen.
Q3) The nurse is working on a pulmonary unit at the local hospital.What is one of the early signs of hypoxia for which the nurse must be alert?
A) Cyanosis
B) Anxiety
C) Decreased respiratory rate
D) Decreased blood pressure
Q4) Common oxygen delivery systems include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Nasal cannula
B) Face mask
C) Noninvasive ventilation
D) Mechanical ventilation
E) None of above
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Chapter 24: Performing Chest Physiotherapy
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34935
Sample Questions
Q1) Studies have compared the effectiveness of newer airway clearance methods with manual chest physiotherapy (CPT)and have found that the CPT and the newer devices are safe and effective modalities for clearing airway secretions.The use of mechanical devices,however,does which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Reduce patient satisfaction
B) Reduce adherence
C) Allow for self-administration
D) Do not cause discomfort
Q2) An Acapella CPT device has been shown to be of greatest benefit to patients experiencing:
A) Empyema
B) Bronchopleural fistula
C) Cystic fibrosis (CF)
D) Pleural effusion
Q3) The _______________ provides positive expiratory pressure (PEP)with oral airway oscillations.
Q4) To move secretions from small distal airways into larger central airways,the nurse would utilize ________________ and _______________.
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Chapter 25: Airway Management
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34936
Sample Questions
Q1) Airway management involves maintaining the patency of which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Nose
B) Upper airway
C) Trachea
D) Lower airway
E) None of above
Q2) When performing nasotracheal suctioning,the nurse:
A) Inserts the catheter about 20 cm
B) Uses clean gloves and equipment to suction
C) Applies pressure to insert the catheter through the nares
D) Slants the catheter upward through the mouth
Q3) What is the purpose of the cuff that is molded onto the endotracheal (ET)tube? (Select all that apply.)
A) Prevents aspiration
B) Obstructs the escape of air from the ventilator
C) Allows gastric contents access to airways
D) Obstructs the escape of air from the lower airway
Q4) A device made of rigid plastic that is used for oropharyngeal suctioning is known as a _________________.
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Chapter 26: Closed Chest Drainage
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34937
Sample Questions
Q1) Chest tubes placed low (usually in the fifth or sixth intercostal space)and posterior or lateral are used to _________________.
Q2) A pneumothorax can be caused by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Trauma
B) Rupture of a blister
C) Emphysema
D) Dyspnea
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient with a chest tube connected to wall suction.To keep the tube patent,the nurse should implement which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Routinely "milk" the drainage tubing
B) Avoid dependent loops of the drainage tubing
C) Lift and clear the tube every 15 minutes
D) Coil the drainage tubing to prevent dependent loops
Q4) What should the nurse do to establish a two-chamber waterless chest tube system?
A) Add sterile water to the suction chamber
B) Add sterile solution to the water seal
C) Set the float ball to the correct drainage pressure
D) Connect directly to the chest tube and add nothing
Q5) The lungs are covered with a membrane called the _________________.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Emergency Measures for Life Support
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Q1) The nurse is working in the emergency department when an 8-year-old patient is brought in with respiratory distress.The nurse is preparing to insert an oral airway.Which of the following is the appropriate size for this patient?
A) Size 1
B) Size 2
C) Size 4
D) Size 7
Q2) Causes of a respiratory arrest include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Airway obstruction
B) Cardiopulmonary illness
C) Traumatic injury
D) Exposure to toxic substances
E) None of above
Q3) _______________ is the movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide into and out of cells and tissues.
Q4) A physician's order preventing cardiopulmonary resuscitation is known as a ______________ order.
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Chapter 28: Intravenous and Vascular Access Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pediatric patient has an IV with a microdrip.The order is for 40 mL/hour to infuse.The nurse regulates the microdrip at:
A) 10 gtt/min
B) 20 gtt/min
C) 40 gtt/min
D) 80 gtt/min
Q2) What is an appropriate technique for the nurse to implement when changing the dressing of a peripheral IV site?
A) Wear sterile gloves to remove the old dressing
B) Keep one finger over the IV catheter until the tape is replaced
C) Cleanse with an antiseptic solution in a circular manner toward the site
D) Tape the connection between the IV catheter port and the tubing
Q3) The nurse is preparing to draw blood from a central venous access device for blood cultures.Which of the following steps is part of that process?
A) Apply sterile gloves
B) Flush the port with 5 to 10 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride
C) Slowly aspirate 5 mL of blood and discard the syringe
D) Use the proximal lumen to draw blood
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Chapter 29: Blood Transfusions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is concerned about the type of blood that a patient is to receive.Which type blood may a patient with an O blood type safely receive?
A) Type A blood
B) Type B blood
C) Type AB blood
D) Type O blood
Q2) Under the ABO system,the blood type __________ can be given to any individual and is known as the "Universal Donor."
Q3) The average adult has about _______ liters of blood.
Q4) A transfusion in which the donor is the patient is known as an ______________ transfusion or autotransfusion.
Q5) What is the purpose of administering a transfusion? (Select all that apply.)
A) Restore intravascular volume
B) Restore oxygen-carrying capacity of blood
C) Provide clotting factors
D) Improve blood pressure
Q6) Although six common types of Rh antigen may be present on the surface of red blood cells,the _______________ antigen is widely prevalent and is most likely to elicit an immune response.
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Chapter 30: Oral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) An impairment in swallowing is known as _____________.
Q2) The patient is placed on a clear liquid diet.Which of the following foods may the patient select?
A) Coffee with milk and sugar
B) Jell-O, popsicles, apple juice
C) Water, orange juice, Jell-O
D) Black coffee, popsicles, ice cream
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who is believed to be suffering from malnutrition.The nurse calculates that the patient's body mass index (BMI)is 16.4 kg/m².What does this indicate about the patient's weight?
A) The patient is underweight
B) The patient's weight is normal
C) The patient is overweight
D) The patient is obese (class 1)
Q4) _________________ diets include modifications in the number or size of meals served or the amounts of specific nutrients,such as six small feedings or.
Q5) The __________________ was a multidisciplinary endeavor to incorporate nutritional screening and intervention into the nation's health care delivery system for older Americans.
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Chapter 31: Enteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has inserted a nasogastric (NG)feeding tube.The feeding tube has a stylet in place to aid in insertion.What should the nurse do once the tube is in place?
A) Remove the stylet immediately
B) Reinsert the stylet if radiograph determines incorrect placement
C) Fasten the end of the NG tube to the patient's gown using tape and a safety pin
D) Leave the stylet in place and obtain a chest/abdomen radiography
Q2) ______________,commonly called tube feeding,is the administration of nutrients through the gastrointestinal tract when a patient cannot ingest,chew,or swallow,but can digest and absorb nutrients.
Q3) The nurse determines that a nasogastric (NG)tube needs irrigation when she:
A) Obtains more than 200 mL of residual volume
B) Obtains a small amount of thin watery residual
C) Does not encounter resistance when aspirating the residual
D) Obtains a reduced volume of thick secretions
Q4) A tube passed through the nose or mouth with the end terminating in the stomach or the small bowel,and used for feeding the patient for short periods of time is known as a _________________.
Q5) Gastrostomy feeding tubes require that the patient has normal _____________.
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Chapter 32: Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving PN.As part of the patient's therapy,the patient receives routine bedside glucose monitoring.Why is this done?
A) To keep the blood glucose lower than normal since the PN is delivering glucose directly to the bloodstream
B) To keep the blood glucose slightly higher than normal to meet the needs of the increased cellular need
C) To keep the blood glucose slightly higher than normal to prevent infection or systemic sepsis
D) To keep the blood glucose in the normal range to prevent associated complications
Q2) Examples of central venous access devices include: (Select all that apply.)
A) Peripherally inserted central catheters (PICCs)
B) Implanted infusion ports
C) Antecubital lines
D) Peripheral lines
Q3) The essential fatty acid that cannot be made from other fats in human metabolism and therefore must be supplied is known as ______________.
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Chapter 33: Urinary Elimination
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Sample Questions
Q1) When inserting a urinary catheter into a female patient,how far should the nurse initially insert the catheter?
A) 1 to 2 inches
B) 2 to 3 inches
C) 4 to 6 inches
D) 7 to 9 inches
Q2) Which of the following must the patient use when in the home care setting?
A) Sterile technique for insertion
B) Clean technique for insertion
C) Only hydrophilic catheters
D) Catheters that are preconnected to drainage bags
Q3) A single-lumen catheter that is inserted into the bladder through the urethra only to empty the bladder and then is removed is known as a _______________ catheter.
Q4) The nurse determines that the patient may have fluid overload as a result of assessing:
A) Oliguria
B) Distended neck veins
C) Increased skin temperature
D) Increased urine specific gravity
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Chapter 34: Bowel Elimination
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Sample Questions
Q1) How far should the nurse insert the tube or nozzle of a prepared enema into an adult patient?
A) 1 to 1½ inches
B) 2 to 3 inches
C) 3 to 4 inches
D) 4 to 5 inches
Q2) The patient having a nasogastric (NG)tube inserted is disoriented.What action should the nurse take?
A) Halt the procedure
B) Request assistance with insertion
C) Administer a hypnotic medication
D) Continue the procedure as with any other patient
Q3) Stool softeners often are prescribed for which of the following patients? (Select all that apply.)
A) Patients who have had gynecological surgery
B) Patients with a history of cardiovascular disease
C) Patients with glaucoma
D) Patients who have had rectal surgery
E) None of above
Q4) _____________ is the absolute inability to pass stool.
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Chapter 35: Ostomy Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immediately after a fecal surgical diversion,it is necessary to:
A) Place a pouch over the newly created stoma
B) Place a dressing over the stoma
C) Wait several days before placing a pouch
D) Prepare several pouches in advance
Q2) Which of the following actions is appropriate procedure for the nurse to use when pouching a noncontinent urinary diversion?
A) Empty the pouch when it is one-third to one-half full
B) Remove the ureteral stents after 2 days
C) Pouch the stoma with the patient sitting up
D) Dispose of used pouches in the toilet
Q3) A temporary device placed by the surgeon during the creation of a urostomy and designed to prevent stenosis of the ureters at the site where the ureters are attached to the conduit is called a ______________.
Q4) The opening created into the abdominal wall for fecal or urinary elimination is known as a _______________.
Q5) ____________ of a urinary diversion is the only way to obtain an accurate culture and sensitivity specimen for screening for infection.
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Chapter 36: Preoperativepostoperative Care
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Q1) The nurse is assisting the patient with diaphragmatic breathing exercises.Which of the following is part of the proper technique? (Select all that apply.)
A) Have patient inhale slowly
B) Have patient inhale through his mouth
C) Have patient inhale through his nose
D) Have patient use chest and shoulder muscles
Q2) How should a patient who has received spinal anesthesia be positioned?
A) Prone
B) Lying on the side
C) Supine, with the head flat
D) In Trendelenburg's position
Q3) The second phase of recovery for inpatients is the period of time that extends from the time the patient is discharged from the recovery room or postanesthesia care unit (PACU)to the time the patient is discharged from the hospital; this is known as the__________________ period.
Q4) The first phase of postoperative care takes place during the ____________period.
Q5) The term _____________ is now used because it incorporates both DVT and PE.
Q6) Preoperative antibiotics may be ordered prophylactically but are given within ______________ minutes of incision.
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Chapter 37: Intraoperative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an appropriate sterile technique for the operating room?
A) Keep the hands below the waist
B) Tuck the hands under the axilla
C) Use sterile gloved hands to move a sterile drape under a table
D) Have anyone who is unscrubbed stay at least 1 foot away from the sterile field
Q2) If any question arises about the sterility of an item,the item is ___________.
Q3) Which of the following is true about the circulating nurse's primary responsibilities?
A) She is a "sterile" member of the surgical team
B) She provides the surgeon with instruments
C) She is a "nonsterile" member of the surgical team
D) She performs delegated medical functions or skills
Q4) The _____________________ is a "sterile" team member and provides the surgeon with instruments and supplies,disposes of soiled sponges,and accounts for sponges,sharps,and instruments on the surgical field.
Q5) The _______________ phase begins when the patient enters the operating room suite and ends with admission to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU).
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Chapter 38: Wound Care and Irrigations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Jackson-Pratt (JP)drain relies on the presence of a vacuum to withdraw drainage and is considered a __________ drainage system.
Q2) The nurse answers the patient's call light to find the patient agitated and stating that she "felt something pop." The nurse finds that the patient's abdominal surgical wound has eviscerated.What should the nurse do?
A) Try to reinsert the abdominal contents
B) Cover the wound with a dry sterile dressing
C) Notify the surgeon when he makes rounds
D) Cover the wound with a moist saline dressing
Q3) ___________ are threads of wire or other materials used to sew body tissues together.
Q4) Wounds that have been approved for treatment using NPWT include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pressure ulcers
B) Diabetic ulcers
C) Traumatic wounds
D) Venous stasis ulcers
E) None of above
Q5) ___________ are stainless steel wires used to hold body tissues together.
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Chapter 39: Dressings,bandages,and Binders
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Sample Questions
Q1) ______ dressings (e.g.,Allevyn,PolyMem,Lyofoam)absorb light to heavy amounts of exudate,are conformable,and can easily be made to fit a wound.These properties make them especially useful for treating draining ulcers.
Q2) A __________ dressing comes in direct contact with the wound bed.
Q3) Moist-to-dry dressings consist of gauze moistened with an appropriate solution.What should the nurse do when caring for a patient who has a pressure wound that requires debridement?
A) Saturate the primary dressing with saline or lactated Ringer's solution
B) Moisten the primary dressing with saline or lactated Ringer's solution
C) Moisten the primary dressing with acetic acid
D) Moisten the primary dressing with povidone-iodine
Q4) Dressings serve several functions.Which of the following is a function of a dressing?
(Select all that apply.)
A) Maintains a moist environment
B) Prevents the spread of microorganisms
C) Increases patient comfort
D) Controls bleeding
E) None of above
Q5) A _________ bandage is a temporary treatment to control excessive bleeding.
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Chapter 40: Warm and Cold Therapy
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Q1) A section of sterile or clean gauze moistened with a prescribed heated solution is known as a warm _________.
Q2) For which patient should the nurse consider an application of cold?
A) The patient with menstrual cramping
B) The patient with an infected wound
C) The patient with a fractured ankle
D) The patient with degenerative joint disease
Q3) Because reduction of inflammation is the primary goal,cryotherapy is the treatment of choice for the first __________ hours after an injury.
Q4) Hot applications are used with caution in which of the following conditions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pregnancy
B) Laminectomy sites
C) Malignancy
D) Spinal cord injury
E) None of above
Q5) ___________ exerts a profound physiological effect on the body,reducing inflammation caused by injury to the musculoskeletal system.
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Chapter 41: Home Care Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has been brought to the emergency department by a family member who states that she just "doesn't know what to do." The patient often forgets where he is and refuses to bathe or change clothes.He will put things on the stove and forget that he has something cooking.She is obviously concerned for her loved one's safety.How is the nurse likely to interpret these symptoms?
A) As signs of depression
B) As signs of amnesia
C) As signs of aphasia
D) As signs of Alzheimer's disease
Q2) When teaching an elderly patient about safety in the bathroom,which of the following recommendations should the nurse make?
A) Use bath oils to maintain skin integrity and suppleness
B) Hang towels on grab bars for easy access
C) Make sure bathroom door can be locked from inside only for privacy
D) Shower using shower stool and handheld sprayer
Q3) Activities of daily living (ADLs)include the patient's ability to bathe,dress,go to the toilet,transfer,maintain continence,and feed himself,while _______ include the ability to use a telephone,prepare meals,travel,do housework,take medication,and shop.
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Chapter 42: Home Care Teaching
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an appropriate step when teaching temperature monitoring in the home?
A) Suggest aspirin to decrease fevers
B) Recommend using only tympanic membrane sensors
C) Encourage the use of alcohol rubs to reduce fevers
D) Demonstrate the technique on yourself or a family member rather than on the patient
Q2) In teaching older adult patients how to exercise safely,the nurse realizes that cardiac output is lower in older adults,and that the heart of the older adult cannot adapt as well to sudden demands for increased oxygen.Therefore,the nurse uses the following calculation to determine a safe maximum heart rate during exercise in the older adult population: _______________.
Q3) OCDs reduce the amount of oxygen the patient uses,resulting in an overall cost reduction to the patient.The type of OCD that delivers oxygen only during inspiration is called a _______________.
Q4) A ___________________ delivers oxygen through a catheter permanently inserted into the trachea,thus allowing the patient to speak and bypassing anatomical dead space.
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Chapter 43: Specimen Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks what food may be eaten before a stool specimen is obtained for occult blood.What food should the nurse allow the patient to eat?
A) Fish
B) Apples
C) Red meats
D) Green, leafy vegetables
Q2) When collecting specimens,the nurse should: (Select all that apply.)
A) Wear gloves and perform hand hygiene
B) Handle excretions discreetly
C) Explain the procedure to the patient
D) Allow patients to collect their own urine specimens
E) None of above
Q3) The patient asks why he has to obtain a "clean catch" urine specimen.The nurse explains that the purpose of the "clean catch" is to obtain a culture and sensitivity measurement that will tell: (Select all that apply.)
A) The amount of protein in the urine
B) Whether bacteria are present
C) The color of the urine
D) Which antibiotics will be effective
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45
Chapter 44: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has undergone a cardiac catheterization.It has been 2 hours since the catheter and sheath have been removed.Which of the following would be a concern for the nurse recovering the patient after the procedure? (Select all that apply.)
A) Swelling and hardness at the catheter insertion site
B) Complaints of itching and urticaria
C) Urine output less than 30 mL/hour
D) Low back pain radiating to both sides of the body
E) None of above
Q2) The nurse is discussing the patient's upcoming elective lumbar puncture,and explains that the patient will probably need to have computerized tomography of the brain before the procedure is done.What is the reason for this?
A) Diagnose CNS infection
B) Rule out increased intracranial pressure
C) Visualize cerebral spinal fluid
D) Measure pressure in the subarachnoid space
Q3) ____________allows direct visualization of an internal organ or structure by means of a long,flexible fiberoptic scope with a light source attached
Q4) The aspiration of peritoneal fluid from the abdomen is known as ____________.
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