Nursing Fundamentals
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Nursing Fundamentals provides an essential introduction to the core principles, knowledge, and skills required in the nursing profession. The course covers the theoretical foundations of nursing practice, patient care techniques, safety measures, basic human needs, and the nursing process. Students learn how to perform routine nursing procedures, communicate effectively with patients and health care teams, and uphold ethical and professional standards. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, holistic assessment, and evidence-based decision-making, preparing students to deliver competent, compassionate care in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Evolve Resources for Medical Surgical Nursing 7th Edition by Sharon L. Lewis
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69 Chapters
1786 Verified Questions
1786 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Nursing Practice Today
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse writes a complete nursing diagnosis statement by including
A) a problem, its cause, and objective data that support the problem.
B) a problem with all its possible causes and the planned interventions.
C) a problem and the suggested patient goals or outcomes.
D) a problem with its etiology and the signs and symptoms of the problem.
Answer: D
Q2) A nursing activity that is carried out during the evaluation phase of the nursing process is
A) documenting the nursing care plan in the progress notes.
B) asking whether the patient's health problems have been completely resolved.
C) determining the effectiveness of nursing interventions toward meeting patient outcomes.
D) asking the patient to evaluate whether the nursing care provided was satisfactory. Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Health Disparities
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5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When interviewing a patient about health history, the nurse obtains information about all these areas. When developing a plan to promote the patient's health, the nurse's primary focus will be the patient's
A) family history of diabetes.
B) refined carbohydrate intake.
C) Hispanic/Latino ethnicity.
D) age and gender.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of these strategies should be a priority when the nurse is planning care for a hypertensive patient who is uninsured?
A) Follow evidence-based national guidelines.
B) Obtain less expensive antihypertensive medications.
C) Assist with dietary changes as the first action.
D) Teach about the impact of exercise on hypertension.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Culturally Competent Care
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing a cultural assessment with a patient of a different culture, the nurse's first action should be to
A) tell the patient what the nurse already knows about the patient's culture.
B) wait until a cultural healer is available to help with the assessment.
C) obtain a list of any cultural remedies that the patient currently uses.
D) ask the patient about any affiliation with a particular cultural group.
Answer: D
Q2) When doing an admission assessment for a patient, the nurse notices that the patient pauses before answering questions about the health history. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to
A) ask the patient why the questions require so much time to answer.
B) stop doing the assessment and return later.
C) give the patient an assessment form listing the questions and a pen.
D) wait for the patient to answer the questions.
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Health History and Physical Examination
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to perform a screening physical examination for a patient. The assessment technique that will require a stethoscope is
A) inspection.
B) percussion.
C) auscultation.
D) palpation.
Q2) A patient is seen in the emergency department with acute nausea and vomiting. The nurse obtains information about the length of time that the patient has been nauseated, the approximate amount of the emesis, and performs a physical assessment of the patient's abdomen. This will be described as a/an
A) comprehensive database.
B) episodic assessment.
C) follow-up database.
D) subjective assessment.
Q3) In performing a physical examination, it is most important for the nurse to use
A) the head-to-toe approach.
B) a consistent, systematic approach.
C) the body-systems model.
D) a model based on a nursing theory.
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Chapter 5: Patient and Family Teaching
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient admitted to the hospital with hyperglycemia and diagnosed with diabetes mellitus is scheduled for discharge the second day after admission. In view of the patient's limited hospitalization, the nurse should plan to A) include detailed information about diet and medication use in patient teaching. B) use every interaction to teach the patient about the details of glucose control. C) focus on teaching the family instead of the patient about diabetic management. D) teach the patient about how to monitor glucose and self-administer insulin.
Q2) When the nurse is planning teaching for a patient who needs to improve skills in being more assertive, the most effective teaching strategy will be A) lecture-discussion.
B) role playing.
C) peer teaching.
D) printed materials.
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Chapter 6: Older Adults
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23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While obtaining a health history from a 68-year-old patient, the nurse learns that the patient takes daily supplements of antioxidants beta carotene, selenium, and vitamin E. The nurse recognizes that the use of these substances in slowing the aging process is related to the biologic aging theory of
A) telomere-telomerase decrease.
B) free radicals.
C) somatic mutation.
D) programmed cell death.
Q2) To obtain the most complete information when doing an assessment for an 81-year-old patient, the nurse will
A) review the patient's chart for the history of medical problems.
B) interview both the patient and the primary patient caregiver.
C) use a geriatric assessment instrument to evaluate the patient.
D) ask the patient to write down medical problems and medications.
Q3) Ageism is an important concept for the nurse to understand because it
A) provides statistical information regarding the older population.
B) promotes consideration of the diversity of the older population.
C) may lead to poorer health care for older individuals.
D) increases social awareness of the needs of older people.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Community-Based Nursing and Home Care
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11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When practicing as a home health care nurse, the RN (Select all that apply.)
A) plans for the health needs of community groups.
B) provides direct care for an individual patient.
C) participates in group screening for common health problems such as hypertension.
D) teaches patients' family members how to provide care such as giving medications.
E) administers chemotherapy and antibiotics through long-term intravenous catheters.
F) instructs groups about special health care needs such as contraception or baby care.
Q2) Which of these patients should the nurse refer for Medicare-reimbursed home health services?
A) A 67-year-old who requires assistance with shopping, housework, and cooking
B) A 71-year-old with dementia who needs 24-hour care to prevent injury
C) A 79-year-old who needs to have medications placed in a marked pillbox weekly
D) An 82-year-old whose family has asked for respite care for a few days a month
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9
Chapter 8: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a routine health examination, the patient tells the nurse that about using a variety of herbal therapies for health maintenance. In discussing the use of herbs, the nurse cautions the patient that
A) herbs should be purchased only from manufacturers with a history of quality control of their products.
B) herbs are no better than conventional drugs in maintaining health and may be less safe.
C) most herbs are toxic and carcinogenic and should be used only when proven effective.
D) frequent medical evaluation is required during the use of herbs to avoid adverse effects.
Q2) A patient with fibromyalgia has chronic pain and stiffness. The nurse suggests that a therapy that might be appropriate for this patient is A) acupuncture.
B) aromatherapy.
C) magnetic therapy.
D) Therapeutic Touch.
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Chapter 9: Stress and Stress Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hospitalized patient is very anxious about missing work and is afraid of being fired because of this illness. An appropriate nursing diagnosis for the patient is
A) insomnia related to anxiety about work.
B) ineffective denial related to lack of effective coping resources.
C) risk for strain of the caregiver role related to lack of family support.
D) complicated grieving related to prolonged stressful situation.
Q2) An overweight patient who enjoys active outdoor activities develops arthritis in the knees. To help the patient cope with the diagnosis, the most helpful intervention by the nurse is to
A) ask the patient to discuss feelings about the diagnosis.
B) encourage the patient to think about how weight loss might improve symptoms.
C) teach the patient how to use imagery to decrease pain and decrease stress.
D) have the patient practice frequent relaxation breathing.
Q3) When assessing patients for the possible health impact of stressors, the most important information to obtain is
A) the importance of religious influences for the patient.
B) how long the patient has been exposed to the stressor.
C) medications that the patient is taking to control anxiety.
D) any family history of stress-related physical illnesses.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Pain
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with chronic abdominal pain has learned to control the pain with the use of imagery and hypnosis. A family member asks the nurse how these techniques work. The nurse's reply will be based on the information that these strategies
A) impact the
B) prevent transmission of nociceptive stimuli to the cortex.
C) increase the modulating effect of the efferent pathways.
D) slow the release of transmitter chemicals in the dorsal horn.
Q2) A patient who has just started taking sustained-release morphine sulfate (MS Contin) for chronic pain complains of nausea and abdominal fullness. The most appropriate initial action by the nurse is to
A) consult with the health care provider about using a different opioid.
B) administer the ordered metoclopramide (Reglan) 10 mg IV.
C) tell the patient that the nausea will subside in about a week.
D) order the patient a clear liquid diet until the nausea decreases.
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Chapter 11: End Of Life and Palliative Care
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hospice nurse who has become very close to a terminally ill patient and family is present in the home when the patient dies. The family members are crying softly, and the nurse also feels like crying. The nurse recognizes that
A) it is acceptable and healthy to cry with the family during this phase of the grief process.
B) personal expression of sorrow and loss is appropriate to share with peers rather than burdening the patient's family.
C) it would be unprofessional to cry at this time when the family's feelings need to be addressed.
D) the family should be allowed to grieve together at this time and the nurse's presence will be felt as invasive to the family.
Q2) A nursing student who is caring for a dying patient asks the nurse, "How will we know when the patient has died?" The nurse explains that the patient will be considered legally dead when
A) the patient is flaccid and unresponsive.
B) respiratory efforts cease and no apical pulse is audible.
C) the patient is comatose, apneic, and without brainstem reflexes.
D) CPR is ineffective in restoring heartbeat.
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Chapter 12: Addictive Behaviors
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of heavy alcohol use is seen at the clinic with acute gastritis. Which statement by the patient indicates that the patient is in the contemplation stage of change?
A) "Alcohol has never bothered my stomach. I think it's likely that I have the flu."
B) "I am older and wiser now, and I know I can change my drinking behavior."
C) "I think my drinking is affecting my stomach, but maybe some drugs will help."
D) "People say that I drink too much, but I really feel pretty good most of the time."
Q2) A disoriented and agitated patient has come to the emergency department after using methamphetamine. Vital signs are blood pressure 162/98, heart rate 142 and irregular, and respirations 32. The most important intervention by the nurse is to A) monitor the patient's ECG and vital signs.
B) reorient the patient at frequent intervals.
C) obtain a health history including prior drug use.
D) keep the patient in a quiet and darkened room.
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Chapter 13: Inflammation and Wound Healing
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted to the hospital with an infected pressure ulcer on the left buttock. The pressure ulcer is 5 cm long by 2.5 cm wide and is 1.5 cm deep. The base of the wound is yellow and involves subcutaneous tissue. The nurse classifies the pressure ulcer as stage
A) I.
B) II.
C) III.
D) IV.
Q2) A patient with an open abdominal wound has a complete blood cell (CBC) count and white blood cell (WBC) differential, which indicates a shift to the left. The nurse will anticipate that the next collaborative intervention will be to A) redress the wound with wet-to-dry dressings.
B) obtain wound cultures.
C) start antibiotic therapy.
D) continue to monitor the wound for purulent drainage.
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15
Chapter 14: Genetics, Altered Immune Responses, and Transplantation
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient seen in the outpatient clinic has an immune deficiency involving the T-lymphocytes. The nurse should teach the patient about the need for more frequent screening for A) malignancy.
B) allergies.
C) autoimmune disorders.
D) antibody deficiency.
Q2) A pregnant patient with a family history of cystic fibrosis (CF) asks for information about genetic testing. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to A) refer the patient to a qualified genetic counselor.
B) remind the patient that genetic testing has many social implications.
C) tell the patient that cystic fibrosis is an autosomal-recessive disorder.
D) ask the patient why genetic testing is important to her.
Q3) A patient is being evaluated for possible atopic dermatitis. The nurse will review the patient's laboratory values for the level of A) IgE.
B) neutrophils.
C) basophils.
D) IgA.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Infection and Human Immunodeficiency Virus
Infection
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 24-year-old woman who uses injectable illegal drugs asks the nurse about preventing AIDS. The nurse informs the patient that the best way to reduce the risk of HIV infection from drug use is to
A) participate in a needle-exchange program.
B) clean drug injection equipment before use.
C) ask those who share equipment to be tested for HIV.
D) avoid sexual intercourse when using injectable drugs.
Q2) At the health promotion level of care for HIV infection, which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask?
A) "Are you having any symptoms such as severe weight loss or confusion?"
B) "Are you experiencing any side effects from the antiretroviral medications?
C) "Do you need any assistance to obtain antiretroviral drugs or other treatments?"
D) "Do you use any injectable drugs or have sexual activity with multiple partners?"
Q3) To evaluate the effectiveness of ART, the nurse will schedule the patient for
A) viral load testing.
B) enzyme immunoassay.
C) rapid HIV antibody testing.
D) immunofluorescence assay.
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Chapter 16: Cancer
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hospitalized patient who has received chemotherapy for leukemia develops neutropenia. Which observation by the RN caring for the patient indicates that the nurse should take action?
A) The patient's visitors bring in some fresh peaches from home.
B) The patient ambulates several times a day in the room.
C) The patient uses soap and shampoo to shower every other day.
D) The patient cleans with a warm washcloth after having a stool.
Q2) A chemotherapeutic agent known to cause alopecia is prescribed for a patient. To maintain the patient's self-esteem, the nurse plans to
A) suggest that the patient limit social contacts until regrowth of the hair occurs.
B) encourage the patient to purchase a wig or hat and wear it once hair loss begins.
C) have the patient wash the hair gently with a mild shampoo to minimize hair loss.
D) inform the patient that hair loss will not be permanent and that the hair will grow back.
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18
Chapter 17: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) The long-term-care nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of protein supplements on a patient who has low serum total protein level. Which of these data indicate that the patient's condition has improved?
A) Absence of peripheral edema
B) Good skin turgor
C) Hematocrit 28%
D) Blood pressure 110/72 mm Hg
Q2) Following a thyroidectomy, a patient complains of "a tingling feeling around my mouth." The nurse will immediately check for
A) elevated serum potassium level.
B) decreased thyroid hormone level.
C) bleeding on the patient's dressing.
D) the presence of Chvostek's sign.
Q3) The nurse in the outpatient clinic who notes that a patient has a decreased magnesium level will ask the patient about
A) intake of dietary protein.
B) use of OTC laxatives.
C) multivitamin/mineral use.
D) daily alcohol intake.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Nursing Management: Preoperative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is to receive atropine before surgery. The nurse teaches the patient to expect
A) weakness.
B) dry mouth.
C) forgetfulness.
D) dizziness.
Q2) During the preoperative interview with the nurse, a patient scheduled for an elective hysterectomy to treat benign tumors of the uterus tells the nurse that she just does not know whether she can go through with the surgery because she knows she will die in surgery as her mother did. The most appropriate response by the nurse is
A) "Tell me more about what happened to your mother."
B) "You will receive medications to reduce your anxiety."
C) "Surgical techniques have improved a lot in recent years."
D) "Many people have fears and anxieties about surgery."
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Chapter 19: Nursing Management: Intraoperative Care
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Data obtained during the perioperative nurse's assessment of a patient in the preoperative holding area that would indicate a need for special protection techniques during surgery include
A) a history of spinal and hip arthritis.
B) verbalization of anxiety by the patient.
C) a stated allergy to cats and dogs.
D) having a sip of water 2 hours previously.
Q2) The physical environment and traffic control measures of the operating room are designed primarily to
A) protect the privacy of the patient.
B) prevent transmission of infection.
C) ensure efficient completion of surgical procedures.
D) allow smooth functioning of the operating room team.
Q3) The intraoperative activity that is performed by the perioperative nurse and is specific to the circulating function is
A) admitting, identifying, and assessing the patient.
B) counting sponges, needles, and surgical instruments.
C) passing instruments to the surgeon and assistants.
D) preparing the instrument table and sterile equipment.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Nursing Management: Postoperative Care
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24 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nasogastric (NG) tube is removed on the second postoperative day for a patient who had abdominal surgery. A clear liquid diet is ordered. Four hours later, the patient complains of abdominal distention and sharp, cramping gas pains. The most appropriate nursing action is to
A) place the patient on NPO status.
B) assist the patient to ambulate in the hall.
C) administer the ordered as-needed morphine sulfate.
D) reinsert the NG tube.
Q2) When a patient is transferred from the PACU to the clinical surgical unit, the first action by the nurse on the surgical unit should be to
A) assess the patient's pain.
B) take the patient's vital signs.
C) check the rate of the IV infusion.
D) read the postoperative orders.
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22
Chapter 21: Nursing Assessment: Visual and Auditory Systems
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse working in the outpatient clinic receives a new order to check the visual acuity for a patient. The nurse will need to obtain a (an)
A) Snellen chart.
B) ophthalmoscope.
C) penlight.
D) Amsler grid.
Q2) The nurse is assessing a 48-year-old patient for presbyopia. Which equipment will the nurse need to obtain prior to the examination?
A) Snellen chart
B) Jaeger chart
C) Penlight
D) Tono-pen
Q3) When taking a health history from a new patient in the outpatient clinic, which information may indicate the need to perform a focused hearing assessment?
A) The patient has a 20-year history of rheumatoid arthritis.
B) The patient uses acetaminophen (Tylenol) frequently.
C) The patient takes atenolol (Tenormin) to prevent angina.
D) The patient had a scalp laceration about a year ago.
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Chapter 22: Nursing Management: Visual and Auditory
Problems
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with an extensive left retinal detachment is scheduled for a scleral buckling with cryopexy and pneumatic retinopexy. Which information will be included in the discharge teaching plan?
A) The need to wear dark or tinted glasses to protect the eyes from ultraviolet light
B) The use of bilateral eye patches to reduce movement of the operative eye
C) The procedure for sterile dressing changes when the eye dressing is saturated
D) The purpose of maintaining the head in a prescribed position for several weeks
Q2) The nurse obtains all these data when assessing a patient who has left-sided labyrinthitis. Which information should be reported immediately to the health care provider?
A) The patient states, "My ears are really ringing."
B) The patient has jerking eye movements.
C) The patient complains about a stiff neck.
D) The patient's hearing is decreased on the left.
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24
Chapter 23: Nursing Assessment: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) During assessment of the patient's skin, the nurse observes a ring of small, raised, blister-like lesions filled with serous fluid on the patient's right temple. The nurse should document the configuration and distribution of these lesions as
A) discoid and symmetric.
B) annular and grouped.
C) gyrate and diffuse.
D) linear and zosteriform.
Q2) When reading the admission assessment for a patient, the nurse notes that the patient has an excoriated area on the skin of the right forearm. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?
A) Apply moisturizing lotion to the area.
B) Assess the area daily for atrophy.
C) Scrub the affected area vigorously.
D) Cover the area with a sterile dressing.
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Chapter 24: Nursing Management: Integumentary
Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 21-year-old woman with cystic acne who has been taking isotretinoin (Accutane) for 2 weeks has a follow-up appointment at the dermatology clinic. Which information obtained by the nurse is of most concern?
A) The patient and her husband are using condoms as a birth control method.
B) The patient's skin is dry and she says that itching has interfered with her sleep.
C) The patient's acne appears to be increased since the Accutane was started.
D) The patient has been training for a marathon by running 18 to 20 hours a week.
Q2) A patient who has developed a severe contact dermatitis of the hands, arms, and lower legs tells the nurse, "The itching is terrible. I just cannot keep from scratching." Which of the following suggestions will be appropriate for the nurse to include in teaching the patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Take cool or tepid baths several times daily to decrease pruritus.
B) Cool, wet cloths or dressings can be used to reduce itching.
C) Expose the areas to the sun to promote healing of the lesions.
D) Add oil to your bath water to aid in moisturizing the affected skin.
E) Rub yourself dry with a towel after bathing to prevent skin maceration.
F) Use of an OTC antihistamine with sedative effects can reduce scratching.
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Chapter 25: Nursing Management: Burns
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in the acute phase of burn injury requires frequent hydrotherapy sessions for wound débridement. To evaluate for complications of hydrotherapy, the nurse will plan to closely monitor
A) serum sodium level.
B) lung sounds.
C) pulse quality.
D) daily urine output.
Q2) The nurse admitting a patient with an extensive burn injury develops a nursing diagnosis of risk for imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to high caloric needs. The initial action by the nurse should be to A) encourage an oral intake of at least 5000 kcal per day. B) administer multiple vitamins and minerals in the IV solution.
C) infuse total parenteral nutrition via a central catheter.
D) insert a feeding tube and give 20 ml/hr enteral feedings.
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Chapter 26: Nursing Assessment: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When auscultating a patient's chest while the patient takes a deep breath, the nurse hears loud, high-pitched, "blowing" sounds at both lung bases. The nurse will document these as
A) adventitious sounds.
B) abnormal sounds.
C) vesicular sounds.
D) normal sounds.
Q2) While caring for a patient with respiratory disease, the nurse observes that the patient's SpO<sub>2</sub> drops from 94% to 85% when the patient ambulates in the hall. The nurse determines that
A) supplemental oxygen should be used whenever the patient exercises.
B) arterial blood gas analysis should be done to verify the patient's SpO<sub>2</sub>.
C) the response is normal and the patient should continue at this activity level.
D) the patient activity should be limited until the disease process is resolved.
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Chapter 27: Nursing Management: Upper Respiratory Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) An RN is observing a nursing student who is suctioning a hospitalized patient with a tracheostomy in place. Which action by the student requires the RN to intervene?
A) The student preoxygenates the patient for 2 minutes before suctioning.
B) The student applies suction for 10 seconds while withdrawing the catheter.
C) The student puts on clean gloves and uses a sterile catheter to suction.
D) The student inserts the catheter about 5 inches into the tracheostomy tube.
Q2) After discussing care of upper respiratory infections (URI) and prevention of secondary infections with a patient who has a URI, the nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the patient says
A) "I will drink lots of juices and other fluids to stay hydrated."
B) "I will watch for changes in nasal secretions or the sputum that I cough up."
C) "I can take acetaminophen (Tylenol) to treat discomfort."
D) "I can use my nasal decongestant spray until the congestion is all gone."
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Chapter 28: Nursing Management: Lower Respiratory
Problems
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30618
Sample Questions
Q1) The occupational nurse at a manufacturing plant where there is high worker exposure to beryllium dust will monitor workers for
A) shortness of breath.
B) chest pain.
C) elevated temperature.
D) barrel-chest.
Q2) When teaching the patient who is receiving standard multidrug therapy for TB about possible toxic effects of the antitubercular medications, the nurse will give instructions to notify the health care provider if the patient develops
A) yellow-tinged skin.
B) changes in hearing.
C) orange-colored urine.
D) thickening of the nails.
Q3) To promote airway clearance in a patient with pneumonia, the nurse instructs the patient to
A) splint the chest when coughing.
B) maintain fluid restrictions.
C) wear the nasal oxygen cannula.
D) try the pursed-lip breathing technique.
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Chapter 29: Nursing Management: Obstructive Pulmonary Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30619
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving 35% oxygen via a Venturi mask. To ensure the correct amount of oxygen delivery, it is most important that the nurse
A) give a high enough flow rate to keep the bag from collapsing.
B) use an appropriate adaptor to ensure adequate oxygen delivery.
C) drain moisture condensation from the oxygen tubing every hour.
D) keep the air entrainment ports clean and unobstructed.
Q2) When teaching a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about reasons to quit smoking, the nurse will explain that long-term exposure to tobacco smoke leads to a
A) weakening of the smooth muscle lining the airways.
B) decrease in the area available for oxygen absorption.
C) lesser number of red blood cells for oxygen delivery.
D) decreased production of protective respiratory secretions.
Q3) A 23-year-old with cystic fibrosis (CF) is admitted to the hospital. Which intervention will be included in the plan of care?
A) Schedule sweat chloride test to evaluate the effectiveness of therapy.
B) Arrange for a hospice nurse to visit with the patient regarding home care.
C) Place the patient on a low-sodium diet to prevent cor pulmonale.
D) Perform chest physiotherapy every 4 hours to mobilize secretions.
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Nursing Assessment: Hematologic System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30620
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse who is reviewing laboratory data for an 86-year-old patient will be most concerned about
A) WBC 3500/ml.
B) hemoglobin 11.8 g/dl.
C) platelets 400,000/ml.
D) hematocrit 37%.
Q2) During physical assessment of a patient, the nurse suspects a chronic, severe iron-deficiency anemia on finding
A) yellow-tinged sclerae.
B) gum bleeding and tenderness.
C) shiny, smooth tongue.
D) numbness of the extremities.
Q3) When evaluating the red cell indices of a patient, the nurse knows that a low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) indicates
A) small size of the red blood cells (RBCs).
B) inadequate numbers of RBCs.
C) low hemoglobin in the RBCs.
D) hypochromic RBCs.
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Chapter 31: Nursing Management: Hematologic Problems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30621
Sample Questions
Q1) The most appropriate nursing intervention to include in the care plan for a patient with neutropenia is to
A) omit fresh fruits or vegetables from the diet.
B) check the temperature q4hr.
C) avoid any IM or subcutaneous injections.
D) assess all wounds for redness and drainage.
Q2) Fifteen minutes after a transfusion of packed red cells is started, a patient develops tachycardia and tachypnea and complains of back pain and feeling warm. The nurse first action should be to
A) disconnect the transfusion and infuse normal saline.
B) obtain a urine specimen to send to the laboratory.
C) administer oxygen therapy at a high flow rate.
D) notify the health care provider about the transfusion reaction.
Q3) Which nursing intervention will be included in the care plan for a patient with ITP?
A) Use rinses rather than a toothbrush for oral care.
B) Restrict activity to passive and active range of motion.
C) Place patient in a private room.
D) Avoid intramuscular (IM) and subcutaneous injections.
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33
Chapter 32: Nursing Assessment: Cardiovascular System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30622
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has received the laboratory results for a patient who developed chest pain 2 hours ago and may be having a myocardial infarction. The most important laboratory result to review will be
A) troponins T and I.
B) creatine kinase-MB.
C) LDL cholesterol.
D) C-reactive protein.
Q2) A patient with syncope is scheduled for Holter monitoring. When teaching the patient about the purpose of the procedure, the nurse will explain that Holder monitoring provides information about the
A) ventricular ejection fraction during usual daily activities.
B) cardiovascular response to high-intensity exercise.
C) changes in cardiac output when the patient is resting.
D) HR and rhythm during normal patient activities.
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34
Chapter 33: Nursing Management: Hypertension
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30623
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with hypertension, and first-line drug therapy with a b-adrenergic blocking agent is planned. After reviewing the patient's history, the nurse consults with the health care provider about the use of this drug upon finding a history of A) asthma.
B) peptic ulcer disease.
C) alcohol dependency.
D) myocardial infarction (MI).
Q2) The nurse is evaluating the response to treatment for a patient has recently started taking furosemide (Lasix) to treat stage 2 hypertension. The information that will require the nurse to act most rapidly is a(n)
A) blood potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L.
B) blood glucose level of 180 mg/dl.
C) BP reading of 164/96.
D) orthostatic decrease of 12 mm Hg.
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Chapter 34: Nursing Management: Coronary Artery Disease
and Acute Coronary Syndrome
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30624
Sample Questions
Q1) Which information given by a patient admitted with chronic stable angina will help the nurse confirm this diagnosis?
A) The patient rates the pain at a level 3 to 5 (0-10 scale).
B) The patient states that the pain "wakes me up at night."
C) The patient indicates that the pain is resolved after taking one sublingual nitroglycerin tablet.
D) The patient says that the frequency of the pain has increased over the last few weeks.
Q2) In developing a teaching plan for a patient who has stable angina and is started on sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat), the nurse identifies an expected patient outcome of
A) stating that nitroglycerin is to be taken only if chest pain develops.
B) listing the side effects of nitroglycerin as gastric upset and dry mouth.
C) identifying the need to call the emergency medical services (EMS) if chest pain persists 5 minutes after taking nitroglycerin.
D) recognizes that taking the nitroglycerin is important to decrease the ongoing atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Nursing Management: Heart Failure
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30625
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse identifies the collaborative problem of potential complication: pulmonary edema for a patient in ADHF. When assessing the patient, the nurse will be most concerned about
A) an apical pulse rate of 106 beats/min.
B) an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air.
C) weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) over 24 hours.
D) decreased hourly patient urinary output.
Q2) Intravenous sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) is ordered for a patient with acute pulmonary edema. During the first hours of administration, the nurse will need to adjust the Nipride rate if the patient develops
A) a drop in heart rate to 54 beats/min.
B) a systolic BP <90 mm Hg.
C) any symptoms indicating cyanide toxicity.
D) an increased amount of ventricular ectopy.
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Chapter 36: Nursing Management: Dysrhythmias
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30626
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with diabetes mellitus is admitted unresponsive to the emergency department (ED). Initial laboratory findings are serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L), serum sodium 138 mEq/L (138 mmol/L), serum chloride 90 mEq/L (90 mmol/L), and blood glucose 628 mg/dl (34.9 mmol/L). Cardiac monitoring shows multifocal PVCs. The nurse understands that the patient's PVCs are most likely caused by
A) hyperglycemia.
B) hypoxemia.
C) dehydration.
D) hypokalemia.
Q2) A patient who has been successfully resuscitated after developing ventricular fibrillation asks the nurse about what happened. The most appropriate response by the nurse is,
A) "You almost died, but we were able to save you with electrical therapy."
B) "You had an episode of some cardiac dysrhythmias that are common after a heart attack."
C) "You had a serious abnormal heart rhythm, which treatment was able to reverse."
D) "Your heart stopped beating, and we shocked you to get it started again."
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Chapter 37: Nursing Management: Inflammatory and
Structural Heart Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30627
Sample Questions
Q1) The health care provider writes the following admitting orders for a patient with suspected IE who has fever and chills: ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 1.0 g intravenous piggyback (IVPB) q12hr, acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) for temperature above 102° F (38.9° C), and blood cultures * 2, complete blood cell count (CBC), and electrocardiogram (ECG). When admitting the patient, the nurse gives the highest priority to
A) obtaining the blood cultures.
B) initiating the IV antibiotic.
C) scheduling the ECG.
D) administering the ASA.
Q2) A 21-year-old woman is scheduled for an open mitral valve commissurotomy for treatment of mitral stenosis. When explaining the advantage of valve repair instead of valve replacement to the patient, the nurse will include the information that A) mechanical mitral valves require replacement about every 10 years.
B) no antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent endocarditis is needed after valve repair.
C) biologic replacement valves require the use of life-long immunosuppressive drugs.
D) long-term anticoagulation is necessary after mechanical valve replacement.
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Chapter 38: Nursing Management: Vascular Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30628
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of a 4-cm abdominal aortic aneurysm is admitted to the emergency department with severe back pain and bilateral flank ecchymoses. The vital signs are blood pressure (BP) 90/58, pulse 138, and respirations 34. The nurse plans interventions for the patient based on the expectation that treatment will include A) immediate surgery.
B) a STAT angiogram.
C) a paracentesis when vital signs are stabilized with fluid replacement.
D) admission to intensive care for observation and diagnostic testing.
Q2) The nurse has initiated discharge teaching for a patient who is to be maintained on warfarin (Coumadin) following hospitalization for DVT. The nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the patient says,
A) "I should wear a Medic Alert bracelet to indicate I am on anticoagulant therapy."
B) "I should change my diet to include more green, leafy vegetables."
C) "I will check with my health care provider before I begin or stop any medication."
D) "I will need to have blood tests routinely to monitor the effects of the Coumadin."
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Chapter 39: Nursing Assessment: Gastrointestinal System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30629
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with an obstructed common bile duct has a T-tube placed in the common bile duct to drain bile produced by the liver. The nurse would expect daily bile drainage of _____ ml.
A) 50
B) 400
C) 1000
D) 2500
Q2) A patient is hospitalized for evaluation after vomiting bright red blood. During a physical assessment of the patient, the nurse will be most concerned about
A) the liver edge 3 cm below the costal margin.
B) tympany on percussion of the abdomen.
C) aortic pulsations visible in the epigastric area.
D) bowel sounds of 30/minute in each quadrant.
Q3) When a patient has a history of a total gastrectomy, the nurse will monitor for clinical manifestations of
A) dehydration.
B) elevated total cholesterol.
C) cobalamin (vitamin BB<sub>12</sub>) deficiency.
D) constipation.
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Nursing Management: Nutritional Problems
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30630
Sample Questions
Q1) Parenteral nutrition (PN) containing amino acids and dextrose was ordered and hung 24 hours ago for a malnourished patient. The nurse observes that about 50 ml remaining in the PN container. Which action is appropriate at this time?
A) Infuse the remaining 50 ml and then hang a new container of PN.
B) Hang a new container of PN and change the IV tubing and filter.
C) Continue to use the same tubing and filter and hang a new container of PN.
D) Clarify with the health care provider if the new PN also requires a tubing and filter change.
Q2) During assessment of a patient who is a vegan, the nurse observes for signs of nutritional deficiency. The most common nutritional deficiency related to a strict vegan diet would be manifested by
A) muscle wasting.
B) bleeding gums.
C) pallor and changes in sensation and movement of the extremities.
D) dry, scaly skin and cracked, painful oral mucous membranes.
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42
Chapter 41: Nursing Management: Obesity
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30631
Sample Questions
Q1) A few months after bariatric surgery, the patient tells the nurse, "My skin is hanging in folds. I think I need cosmetic surgery." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) "The skin folds will gradually disappear once most of the weight is lost."
B) "The important thing is that your weight loss is improving your health."
C) "Perhaps you would like to talk to a counselor about your body image."
D) "Cosmetic surgery is certainly a possibility once your weight has stabilized."
Q2) When developing a weight-reduction plan for an obese patient who is starting a weight-loss program, which question is most important for the nurse to ask?
A) "What kind of physical activities do you enjoy?"
B) "How long have you been overweight?"
C) "What factors do you think led to your obesity?"
D) "Have you been on any previous diets?"
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Chapter 42: Nursing Management: Upper Gastrointestinal
Problems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30632
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has intermittent epigastric distress, weight loss, and ascites is diagnosed with stomach cancer. The nurse plans care for the patient with the knowledge that these findings indicate that
A) the patient has a poor prognosis with any therapy.
B) surgical intervention is not indicated for the patient.
C) radiation therapy is the treatment of choice for the patient.
D) the patient will need a referral to hospice services.
Q2) The family member of a patient who has suffered massive abdominal trauma in an automobile accident asks the nurse why the patient is receiving famotidine (Pepcid). The nurse will explain that the medication will
A) decrease the risk for nausea and vomiting.
B) prevent aspiration of gastric contents.
C) inhibit the development of stress ulcers.
D) lower the chance for H. pylori infection.
Q3) The nurse will plan to teach the patient with newly diagnosed achalasia that A) drinking fluids with meals should be avoided.
B) lying down and resting after meals is recommended.
C) a liquid or blenderized diet will be necessary.
D) endoscopic procedures may be used for treatment.
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Nursing Management: Lower Gastrointestinal
Problems
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30633
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) tells the nurse, "My friends tell me this problem is all in my head." In caring for the patient, the nurse should A) discuss the new medications that are available to treat the condition.
B) inform the patient that IBS has a specific, identifiable cause.
C) explain that modifications to increase dietary fiber can control the symptoms.
D) encourage the patient to express feelings and ask questions about IBS.
Q2) Following an exploratory laparotomy and bowel resection, a patient has an NG tube to suction but complains of nausea and stomach distention. The nurse irrigates the tube PRN as ordered, but the irrigating fluid does not return. The first action by the nurse should be to
A) notify the patient's health care provider.
B) auscultate for bowel sounds.
C) reposition the tube and check for placement.
D) remove the tube and replace it with a new one.
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45
Chapter 44: Nursing Management: Liver, Pancreas, and Biliary Tract Problems
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30634
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with cirrhosis has a massive hemorrhage from esophageal varices. In planning care for the patient, the nurse gives the highest priority to the goal of
A) controlling bleeding.
B) maintenance of the airway.
C) maintenance of fluid volume.
D) relieving the patient's anxiety.
Q2) A patient who is admitted to the hospital with a sudden onset of severe right upper-quadrant pain that radiates to the right shoulder is diagnosed with cholecystitis. Which assessment information will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?
A) The patient has an increase in pain after eating.
B) The patient needs 4 mg of morphine for pain relief.
C) The patient's stools are clay colored.
D) The patient's urine is bright yellow.
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Chapter 45: Nursing Assessment: Urinary System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30635
Sample Questions
Q1) A 20-year-old patient who is employed as a hairdresser and has a 10 pack-year history of cigarette smoking is scheduled for an annual physical examination. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the increased risk for A) bladder cancer.
B) renal failure.
C) pyelonephritis.
D) kidney stones.
Q2) How will the nurse assess the flank area for tenderness?
A) Percuss the area between the iliac crest and ribs along the midaxillary line.
B) Palpate along both sides of the lumbar vertebral column.
C) Place one hand flat at the costovertebral angle (CVA) and strike it with the other fist.
D) Push gently into the two lowest intercostal spaces.
Q3) A patient with diabetic nephropathy is admitted for a right renal biopsy. Immediately after the biopsy, which of these is an essential nursing action?
A) Check blood glucose to assess for hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia.
B) Obtain a urine specimen to check for hematuria.
C) Monitor the BUN and creatinine to assess renal function.
D) Place the patient on the right side to put pressure on the site.
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Chapter 46: Nursing Management: Renal and Urologic Problems
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30636
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in the hospital has a history of urinary incontinence. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?
A) Place a bedside commode near the patient's bed.
B) Use an ultrasound scanner to check urine residual after the patient voids.
C) Demonstrate the use of the Credé maneuver to the patient.
D) Teach the use of Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor.
Q2) A 78-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital with dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. The patient is confused and incontinent of urine on admission. In developing a plan of care for the patient, an appropriate nursing intervention for the patient's incontinence is to
A) insert an indwelling catheter.
B) apply absorbent incontinent pads.
C) assist the patient to the bathroom q2hr.
D) restrict fluids after the evening meal.
Q3) To prevent the recurrence of renal calculi, the nurse teaches the patient to A) avoid all sources of dietary calcium.
B) drink diuretic fluids such as coffee.
C) drink 2000 to 3000 ml of fluid a day.
D) use a filter to strain all urine.
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Nursing Management: Acute Renal Failure and Chronic Kidney Disease
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30637
Sample Questions
Q1) Two hours after a kidney transplant, the nurse obtains all these data when assessing the patient. Which information is most important to communicate to the health care provider?
A) The BUN and creatinine levels are elevated.
B) The urine output is 900 to 1100 ml/hr.
C) The patient's central venous pressure (CVP) is decreased.
D) The patient has level 8 (on a 10-point scale) incision pain when coughing.
Q2) In the immediate postoperative period, the nurse caring for a patient who is a recipient of a kidney transplant would expect that fluid therapy would involve administration of IV fluids
A) to be determined hourly, based on every milliliter of urine output.
B) at a minimum rate of 100 ml/hr to perfuse the kidney.
C) titrated to keep blood pressure within a normal range.
D) at a rate to keep urine clear and without blood clots.
Q3) A patient with acute renal failure (ARF) has an arterial blood pH of 7.30. The nurse will assess the patient for
A) tachycardia.
B) rapid respirations.
C) poor skin turgor.
D) vasodilation.
Page 49
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Chapter 48: Nursing Assessment: Endocrine System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30638
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse will plan patient care that will decrease the patient's physical and emotional stress when the patient is undergoing
A) a water deprivation test.
B) testing for serum T3 and T4 levels.
C) a 24-hour urine test for free cortisol.
D) a radioactive iodine (I-131) uptake test.
Q2) A patient has a total serum calcium level of 13.3 mg/dl (6.7 mEq/L, 3.3 mmol/L). The nurse understands that this level of calcium normally A) indicates hypothyroidism.
B) stimulates the secretion of calcitonin.
C) occurs when the parathyroid gland is surgically removed.
D) results from oversecretion of calcitonin from the thyroid gland.
Q3) When caring for a patient who has just had a parathyroidectomy, the nurse will plan to monitor the patient for A) low serum calcium level.
B) low magnesium level.
C) increased levels of active vitamin D.
D) increased levels of calcitonin.
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Chapter 49: Nursing Management: Diabetes Mellitus
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30639
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with type 1 diabetes has an unusually high morning glucose measurement, and the health care provider wants the patient evaluated for possible Somogyi effect. The nurse will plan to
A) administer an increased dose of NPH insulin in the evening.
B) obtain the patient's blood glucose at 3:00 in the morning.
C) withhold the nighttime snack and check the glucose at 6:00 AM.
D) check the patient for symptoms of hypoglycemia at 2:00 to 4:00 AM.
Q2) Cardiac monitoring is initiated for a patient in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse recognizes that this measure is important to identify
A) electrocardiographic (ECG) changes and dysrhythmias related to hypokalemia.
B) fluid overload resulting from aggressive fluid replacement.
C) the presence of hypovolemic shock related to osmotic diuresis.
D) cardiovascular collapse resulting from the effects of hyperglycemia.
Q3) A diabetic patient is started on intensive insulin therapy. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about mealtime coverage using _____ insulin.
A) NPH
B) lispro
C) detemir
D) glargine
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Nursing Management: Endocrine Problems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30640
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with suspected acromegaly is seen at the clinic. To assist in making the diagnosis, which question should the nurse ask?
A) "Have you had a recent head injury?"
B) "Do you have to wear larger shoes now?"
C) "Is there any family history of acromegaly?"
D) "Are you experiencing tremors or anxiety?"
Q2) Which information obtained when caring for a patient who has just been admitted for evaluation of diabetes insipidus will be of greatest concern to the nurse?
A) The patient has a urine output of 800 ml/hr.
B) The patient's urine specific gravity is 1.003.
C) The patient had a recent head injury.
D) The patient is confused and lethargic.
Q3) A patient has an adrenocortical adenoma causing hyperaldosteronism and is scheduled for laparoscopic surgery to remove the tumor. During care before surgery, the nurse should
A) monitor blood glucose level every 4 hours.
B) provide a potassium-restricted diet.
C) monitor the blood pressure every 4 hours.
D) relieve edema by elevating the extremities.
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Nursing Assessment: Reproductive System
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30641
Sample Questions
Q1) Which information found during the physical assessment of a 68-year-old woman should the nurse report to the health care provider?
A) Pendulous breasts
B) Nonpalpable ovaries
C) Serous nipple drainage
D) Atrophy of vaginal tissue
Q2) When scheduling a pelvic examination and Pap smear for a patient, the nurse instructs the patient that she should
A) plan to have the Pap smear just after her menstrual period.
B) shower, but not take a tub bath, before the examination.
C) not douche for at least 24 hours before the examination.
D) not have sexual intercourse the day before the Pap smear.
Q3) A woman calls the clinic because she is having an unusually heavy menstrual flow. She tells the nurse that she has saturated two pads in the past 2 hours. The nurse estimates that the amount of blood loss is ____ ml.
A) 10 to 20
B) 20 to 30
C) 30 to 40
D) 40 to 60
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Nursing Management: Breast Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30642
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse provides discharge teaching for a patient who has had a left modified radical mastectomy and axillary lymph node dissection. The nurse determines that teaching has been successful when the patient says,
A) "I should keep my left arm supported in a sling when I am up until my incision is healed."
B) "I may expose my left arm to the sun for several hours each day to increase circulation and promote healing."
C) "I can do whatever exercises and activities I want as long as I do not elevate my left hand above my head."
D) "I will continue to exercise my left arm with finger-walking up the wall or combing my hair."
Q2) A patient has a permanent breast implant inserted in the outpatient surgery area. Which instructions will the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
A) Resume normal activities 2 to 3 days after the mammoplasty.
B) Check wound drains for excessive blood or any foul odor.
C) Wear a loose-fitting bra to decrease irritation of the sutures.
D) Take aspirin every 4 hours to reduce inflammation.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Nursing Management: Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30643
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who is 20 weeks pregnant is diagnosed with primary syphilis. She tells the nurse that she is very worried about the effect of the disease on the fetus. The most appropriate response by the nurse to the patient's concern is
A) "Instillation of erythromycin into the eyes of the newborn will prevent any problems of transmission to the baby."
B) "A single intramuscular injection of penicillin at this point in your pregnancy will cure both you and the fetus of syphilis."
C) "If you have active genital lesions at the time you begin labor, a cesarean delivery will be performed to prevent transmission to the baby."
D) "Syphilis will not affect the baby in any way because the microorganism does not cross the placental barrier."
Q2) When counseling a woman who is having difficulty conceiving, the nurse will be most concerned about a history of infection with A) Treponema pallidum.
B) N. gonorrhoeae.
C) condyloma acuminatum.
D) herpes simplex virus type 2.
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Nursing Management: Female Reproductive Problems
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30644
Sample Questions
Q1) When caring for a patient recently diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome, it is most important for the nurse to teach the patient
A) ways to reduce the occurrence of acne.
B) how to decrease facial hair growth.
C) methods to maintain appropriate weight.
D) reasons for a total hysterectomy.
Q2) An 18-year-old visits the health clinic for a routine check-up. To determine whether a Pap test is needed, which question should the nurse ask?
A) "How old were you when your menstrual periods started?"
B) "Do you have any pain or cramping with your menstrual periods?"
C) "Have you ever had sexual intercourse?"
D) "Do you use any illegal substances?"
Q3) A 56-year-old woman undergoes an anterior and posterior (A & P) colporrhaphy for repair of a cystocele and rectocele. Which nursing action will be included in the postoperative care plan?
A) Repositioning of the rectal tube for comfort
B) Teaching the patient correct pessary use
C) Repacking the vaginal wound with half-inch gauze
D) Performing indwelling catheter care daily
Page 56
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Chapter 55: Nursing Management: Male Reproductive Problems
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30645
Sample Questions
Q1) Leuprolide (Lupron) and bicalutamide (Casodex) are prescribed for a patient with cancer of the prostate. In teaching the patient about these drugs, the nurse informs the patient that side effects may include
A) low blood pressure.
B) decreased sexual drive.
C) urinary incontinence.
D) frequent infections.
Q2) A patient undergoing a TURP returns from surgery with a three-way urinary catheter with continuous bladder irrigation in place. The nurse observes that the urine output has decreased and the urine is clear red with multiple clots. The patient is complaining of painful bladder spasms. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to
A) administer the ordered IV morphine sulfate, 4 mg.
B) increase the flow rate of the continuous bladder irrigation.
C) give the ordered the belladonna and opium suppository.
D) manually instill 50 ml of saline and try to remove the clots.
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Chapter 56: Nursing Assessment: Nervous System
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30646
Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse administers gabapentin (Neurontin), a drug that increases the level of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the synapse, the effect the nurse would expect is
A) widespread increases in nervous system activity.
B) suppression of nervous system activity.
C) increased patient alertness and arousal.
D) excitation of the affected postsynaptic neurons.
Q2) When performing a focused assessment on a patient with a lesion of the left posterior temporal lobe, the nurse will assess for
A) reasoning and problem-solving abilities.
B) sensation on the left side of the body.
C) understanding of written and oral language.
D) voluntary movement on the right side.
Q3) When interviewing an acutely confused patient with a head injury, which of these questions will provide the most useful information?
A) "Have you ever been hospitalized for a neurologic problem?"
B) "Do you have any pain at the present time?"
C) "What have you had to eat in the last 24 hours?"
D) "Can you describe you usual pattern for coping with injury?"
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Page 58
Chapter 57: Nursing Management: Acute Intracranial Problems
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When admitting a patient who has a tumor of the right frontal lobe, the nurse would expect to find
A) expressive aphasia.
B) right-sided weakness.
C) judgment changes.
D) difficulty swallowing.
Q2) A patient is brought to the emergency department (ED) after being hit in the head with a baseball during a company picnic. On admission, the patient has a headache and cannot remember being hit but has no other signs of neurologic deficit. The nurse will plan to
A) send the patient for diagnostic testing with MRI.
B) admit the patient for observation for 24 hours.
C) discharge the patient with monitoring instructions.
D) observe the patient in the ED for several hours.
Q3) When caring for a patient who has had a head injury, which assessment information is of most concern to the nurse?
A) The blood pressure increases from 120/54 to 136/62.
B) The patient is more difficult to arouse.
C) The patient complains of a headache at pain level 5 of a 10-point scale.
D) The patient's apical pulse is slightly irregular.
Page 59
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Chapter 58: Nursing Management: Stroke
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30648
Sample Questions
Q1) On initial assessment of a patient hospitalized following a stroke, the nurse finds the patient's blood pressure to be 180/90 mm Hg. Which of the following orders by the health care provider should the nurse question?
A) Infuse normal saline at 75 ml/hr.
B) Keep head of bed elevated at least 30 degrees.
C) Administer tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) per protocol.
D) Titrate labetolol (Normodyne) drip to keep BP less than 140/90 mm Hg.
Q2) A 72-year-old is being discharged home following a stroke. The patient is able to walk with assistance but needs help with hygiene, dressing, and eating. Which statement by the patient's wife indicates that discharge planning goals have been met?
A) "I can provide the care my husband needs if I use the support and resources available in the community."
B) "Because my husband will have continuous improvement in his condition, I won't need outside assistance in his care for very long."
C) "I can handle all of my husband's needs thanks to the instructions you've given me."
D) "I have arranged for a home health aide to provide all the care my husband will need."
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Chapter 59: Nursing Management: Chronic Neurologic Problems
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient is being evaluated for new onset cluster-type headaches, the nurse will anticipate
A) scheduling a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain.
B) teaching the patient about electromyelography (EMG).
C) obtaining a detailed patient history.
D) arranging for a cerebral angiogram.
Q2) After experiencing a generalized tonic-clonic seizure in the classroom, an elementary school teacher is evaluated and diagnosed with idiopathic epilepsy. The patient cries and tells the nurse, "I can not teach anymore. It will be too difficult for the students if this happens again at work." The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the patient is
A) anxiety related to loss of control during seizures.
B) hopelessness related to diagnosis of chronic illness.
C) disturbed body image related to new diagnosis of a seizure disorder.
D) ineffective role performance related to misinformation about epilepsy.
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Chapter 60: Nursing Management: Alzheimers Disease and Dementia
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30650
Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching the spouse of a patient who is being evaluated for Alzheimer's disease (AD) about the disorder, the nurse explains that
A) the most important risk factor for AD is a family history of the disorder.
B) a diagnosis of AD can be made only when other causes of dementia have been ruled out.
C) new drugs have been shown to reverse AD dramatically in some patients.
D) the presence of brain atrophy detected by MRI confirms the diagnosis of AD in patients with dementia.
Q2) When developing a plan of care for a hospitalized patient with moderate dementia, which intervention will the nurse include?
A) Reminding the patient frequently about being in the hospital
B) Placing suction at the bedside to decrease the risk for aspiration
C) Providing complete personal hygiene care for the patient
D) Repositioning the patient frequently to avoid skin breakdown
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Chapter 61: Nursing Management: Peripheral Nerve and Spinal Cord Problems
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching patients who are at risk for Bell's palsy because of previous herpes simplex infection, which information should the nurse include?
A) "You should call the doctor if pain or herpes lesions occur near the ear."
B) "Treatment of herpes with antiviral agents will prevent development of Bell's palsy."
C) "Medications to treat Bell's palsy work only if started before paralysis onset."
D) "You may be able to prevent Bell's palsy by doing facial exercises regularly."
Q2) A patient with Bell's palsy refuses to eat while others are present because of embarrassment about drooling. The best response by the nurse to the patient's behavior is to
A) respect the patient's desire and arrange for privacy at mealtimes.
B) offer the patient liquid nutritional supplements at frequent intervals.
C) discuss the patient's concerns with visitors who arrive at mealtimes.
D) teach the patient to chew food on the unaffected side of the mouth.
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63
Chapter 62: Nursing Assessment: Musculoskeletal System
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During assessment of the musculoskeletal system of a 74-year-old woman, the nurse notes that the patient has lost 1 inch in height since the previous visit two years ago. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about
A) diskography studies.
B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
C) dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA).
D) myelographic testing.
Q2) The nurse is assessing the passive range of motion of a patient's shoulder. The patient complains of pain during circumduction when the nurse moves the arm behind the patient. Which question should the nurse ask?
A) "Do you ever have trouble making it to the toilet?"
B) "Do you have difficulty in putting on a jacket?"
C) "Are you able to feed yourself without difficulty?"
D) "How well are you able to sleep at night?"
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Chapter 63: Nursing Management: Musculoskeletal
Trauma and Orthopedic Surgery
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30653
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is to be discharged from the hospital 4 days after undergoing a total hip arthroplasty. A statement by the patient that indicates a need for additional discharge instructions is
A) "I should not cross my legs while sitting."
B) "I can sleep in any position that is comfortable for me."
C) "I will use a toilet elevator on the toilet seat."
D) "I will have someone else put on my shoes and socks."
Q2) A patient in the emergency department is diagnosed with a patellar dislocation. The initial patient teaching by the nurse will focus on the need for
A) conscious sedation.
B) a knee immobilizer.
C) gentle knee flexion.
D) cast application.
Q3) When preparing a patient to ambulate the day after an ORIF for a hip fracture, which action is most important for the nurse to take?
A) Administering the ordered oral opioid pain medication
B) Instructing the patient about the benefits of ambulation
C) Ensuring that the incisional drain has been discontinued
D) Changing the hip dressing and document the appearance of the site
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Chapter 64: Nursing Management: Musculoskeletal
Problems
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with an open fracture of the left tibia and soft tissue damage underwent a surgical reduction and fixation of the tibia with debridement of nonviable tissue and drain placement. When assessing the patient during the postoperative period, the nurse will be most concerned about
A) fever with chills and night sweats.
B) light yellow drainage from the wound.
C) pain on movement of the affected limb.
D) muscle spasms around the affected bone.
Q2) When evaluating the effectiveness of treatment for a patient who is being treated for Paget's disease with calcitonin (Cibacalcin) and ibandronate (Boniva), the nurse will ask the patient about
A) weight loss.
B) skeletal pain.
C) decreased appetite.
D) frequent cough.
Q3) When administering alendronate (Fosamax) to a patient, the nurse will first
A) administer the ordered calcium carbonate.
B) be sure the patient has recently eaten.
C) assist the patient to sit up at the bedside.
D) ask about any leg cramps or hot flashes.
Page 66
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Chapter 65: Nursing Management: Arthritis and Connective
Tissue Diseases
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When helping a patient with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) plan a daily routine, the nurse informs the patient that it is most helpful to start the day with A) a warm bath followed by a short rest.
B) a 10-minute routine of isometric exercises.
C) stretching exercises to relieve joint stiffness.
D) active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises.
Q2) A 58-year-old patient has been diagnosed with osteoarthritis (OA) of the hands and feet. The patient tells the nurse, "I am afraid that I will be hopelessly crippled in just a few years!" The best response by the nurse is that
A) progression of OA can be prevented with a regimen of exercise, diet, and drugs.
B) OA is an inflammatory process with periods of exacerbation and remission.
C) joint degeneration with pain and deformity occurs with OA by age 60 to 70.
D) OA is common with aging, but usually it is localized and does not cause deformity.
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Chapter 66: Nursing Management: Critical Care
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30656
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted to the emergency department comatose and apneic with suspected head and neck injuries after falling from a roof. Which equipment will the nurse anticipate needing for emergency airway maintenance?
A) Nasal endotracheal (ET) tube
B) Oral ET tube
C) Tracheostomy tube
D) Oropharyngeal airway
Q2) To inflate the cuff of an endotracheal tube (ET) when the patient is on mechanical ventilation, the nurse
A) uses the minimal occluding volume technique by inflating the cuff with 10 ml of air.
B) injects air into the cuff until a manometer indicates a pressure of 15 mm Hg.
C) injects air into the cuff until no leak is heard at the peak inspiratory pressure.
D) inflates the cuff until the pilot balloon cannot be easily compressed with the fingers.
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Chapter 67: Nursing Management: Shock, Systemic
Inflammatory Response Syndrome, and Multiple Organ
Dysfunction Syndrome
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30657
Sample Questions
Q1) To monitor a patient with severe acute pancreatitis for the early organ damage associated with MODS, the most important assessments for the nurse to make are
A) stool guaiac and bowel sounds.
B) lung sounds and oxygenation status.
C) serum creatinine and urinary output.
D) serum bilirubin levels and skin color.
Q2) The nurse caring for a patient in shock notifies the health care provider of the patient's deteriorating status when the patient's ABG results include
A) pH 7.48, PaCO<sub>2</sub> 33 mm Hg.
B) pH 7.33, PaCO<sub>2</sub> 30 mm Hg.
C) pH 7.41, PaCO<sub>2</sub> 50 mm Hg.
D) pH 7.38, PaCO<sub>2</sub> 45 mm Hg.
Q3) An assessment finding indicating to the nurse that a 70-kg patient in septic shock is progressing to MODS includes
A) respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min.
B) fixed urine specific gravity at 1.010.
C) MAP of 55 mm Hg.
D) 360-ml urine output in 8 hours.
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Chapter 68: Nursing Management: Respiratory Failure and
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A finding indicating to the nurse that a 22-year-old patient with respiratory distress is in acute respiratory failure includes a
A) shallow breathing pattern.
B) partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO<sub>2</sub>) of 45 mm Hg.
C) partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial gas (PaCO<sub>2</sub>) of 34 mm Hg.
D) respiratory rate of 32/min.
Q2) When assessing a patient with chronic lung disease, the nurse finds a sudden onset of agitation and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Monitor the patient every 10 to 15 minutes.
B) Notify the patient's health care provider immediately.
C) Attempt to calm and reassure the patient.
D) Assess vital signs and pulse oximetry.
Q3) It will be most important for the nurse to check pulse oximetry for which of these patients?
A) A patient with emphysema and a respiratory rate of 16
B) A patient with massive obesity who is refusing to get out of bed
C) A patient with pneumonia who has just been admitted to the unit
D) A patient who has just received morphine sulfate for postoperative pain
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Chapter 69: Nursing Management: Emergency and Disaster Nursing
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30659
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is brought to the hospital in cardiac arrest by emergency personnel who are performing resuscitation. The spouse arrives as the patient is taken into a treatment room and asks to stay with the patient. The nurse should
A) have the spouse wait outside the treatment room with a designated staff member to provide emotional support.
B) bring the spouse into the room and ensure him or her that a member of the team will explain the care given and answer questions.
C) explain that the presence of family members is distracting to staff and might impair the resuscitation efforts.
D) advise the spouse that if the resuscitation effort is unsuccessful, the memories may have an adverse impact on grieving.
Q2) All of the following actions are needed for a patient admitted with multiple bee stings to the hands. Which one will the nurse accomplish first?
A) Give diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 100 mg po.
B) Apply calamine lotion to any itching areas.
C) Place ice packs on both hands.
D) Remove the patient's rings.
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