Nursing Fundamentals
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Nursing Fundamentals introduces students to the essential concepts and foundational skills required for safe, effective, and compassionate patient care. This course covers core topics such as the nursing process, basic patient assessment, hygiene, mobility, vital signs, infection control, communication, and documentation. Students learn principles of health promotion, ethical and legal considerations in nursing, and the role of the nurse as part of the healthcare team. Through a combination of classroom instruction, simulation, and clinical experiences, students develop critical thinking abilities and hands-on competencies necessary for beginning professional nursing practice.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology 11th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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29 Chapters
4487 Verified Questions
4487 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The quadrants of the abdominopelvic region include all of the following except
A) right upper quadrant (RUQ).
B) right lower quadrant (RLQ).
C) left upper quadrant (LUQ).
D) left lower quadrant (LLQ).
E) pelvic quadrant.
Answer: E
Q2) The study of the first two months of development is termed A) histology.
B) embryology.
C) cytology.
D) pathology.
E) organology.
Answer: B
Q3) Name the two upper abdominal quadrants and list the organs that lie in each. Answer: right upper quadrant (RUQ): right lobe of liver, gallbladder, right kidney, portions of stomach, large and small intestines; left upper quadrant (LUQ): left lobe of liver, stomach, pancreas, left kidney, spleen, portions of large intestine
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is both an anion and a compound?
A) Na+
B) Cl-
C) K+
D) HCO3-
E) NaCl
Answer: D
Q2) The three structural components of a nucleotide are a pentose, a phosphate group, and a ________ base.
A) nucleic
B) hydrophilic
C) hydrochloric
D) nitrogenous
E) sulfuric
Answer: D
Q3) What role do buffer systems play in the human body?
Answer: Buffer systems help maintain pH within normal limits by removing or replacing hydrogen ions as needed.
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the surface area of a plasma membrane consists of
A) a protein bilayer.
B) a phospholipid bilayer.
C) carbohydrate molecules.
D) DNA.
E) cells.
Answer: B
Q2) Cancer cells
A) are indistinguishable from normal body cells.
B) have a slow mitotic rate.
C) may exhibit metastasis.
D) do not form neoplasms.
E) generally form benign tumors.
Answer: C
Q3) Define osmosis and tell in what direction it occurs.
Answer: Osmosis is the transfer of water across a semipermeable membrane due to a difference in concentration of impermeant solutes. Water moves from lower to higher solute concentration (or from higher to lower water concentration, or from lower to higher osmolarity, or from lower to higher tonicity).
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Epithelia and connective tissues combine to form ________ that cover and protect other structures and tissues in the body.
A) fasciae
B) aponeuroses
C) organ capsules
D) cutaneous layers
E) tissue membranes
Q2) Dead skin cells are shed in thin sheets because they are held together by "spots" of proteoglycan reinforced by intermediate filaments. Such strong intercellular connections are called
A) gap junctions.
B) intermediate junctions.
C) tight junctions.
D) desmosomes.
E) junctional complexes.
Q3) Harriet had liposuction several years ago, but has since gained back all the weight lost through the procedure. She does not understand her weight gain because adipocytes are incapable of dividing. Provide a plausible explanation.
Q4) Explain why sunburned skin peels rather than being shed as a powder.
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements concerning hair is false?
A) The medulla is the soft core of the hair.
B) The cortex of the hair is composed of hard keratin.
C) Terminal hairs are heavy and more darkly pigmented than other types of hair.
D) Club hair is hair that has ceased growing.
E) Scalp hairs grow constantly throughout life.
Q2) Skin cancer that starts in the mitotically most active epidermal layer is called
A) keratosis.
B) psoriasis.
C) squamous cell carcinoma.
D) melanoma.
E) basal cell carcinoma.
Q3) Which tissue is located in the region labeled "2"?
A) stratified squamous epithelium
B) areolar connective tissue
C) adipose tissue
D) cartilage and blood
E) reticular connective tissues
Q4) Why is a subcutaneous injection with a hypodermic needle a useful method of administering drugs?
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Chapter 6: Bones and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Small bones that fill gaps between bones of the skull are called ________ bones.
A) irregular
B) sesamoid
C) sutural
D) sagittal
E) tendon
Q2) Blood is distributed from the surface of a bone to deeper central canals through channels known as
A) perforating canals.
B) canaliculi.
C) interstitial canals.
D) concentric ducts.
E) concentric canals.
Q3) Where in the body does the production of precursors for the synthesis of calcitriol occur?
A) bone
B) kidneys
C) small intestine
D) liver
E) skin
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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Give the clinical term for the condition in which the vertebral laminae fail to unite during development.
A) spina imperfecta
B) laminaecta
C) laminal cleft
D) ossificans imperfecta
E) spina bifida
Q2) Kristen went to the dentist complaining of jaw tenderness and popping noises when she opens and closes hermouth. He notices abnormal wearing on the articulating surfaces of her teeth. Which of the following conditions does she most likely suffer from?
A) deviated nasal septum
B) cleft palate
C) temporomandibular joint syndrome
D) dislocated jaw
E) sinusitis
Q3) Billy is injured during a high school football game. His chest is badly bruised and he is experiencing difficulty in breathing. What might the problem be?
Q4) What role do the fontanelles play in infant development?
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9
Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an age-related change in the skeleton?
A) closure of the fontanels
B) bone remodeling
C) reduction in mineral content
D) appearance of major vertebral curves
E) fusion of the coxal bones
Q2) Identify the bones named for their wedge shape.
A) 3
B) 8
C) 7
D) 1
E) 2
Q3) The clavicle articulates with the
A) coracoid process and the humerus.
B) glenoid cavity and scapular spine.
C) coracoid process and acromion.
D) manubrium and xiphoid process.
E) manubrium and acromion.
Q4) What is the distinction between the false pelvis and the true pelvis?
Q5) Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female.
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) The joint between the forearm bones and the wrist is a ________ joint.
A) saddle
B) glide
C) hinge
D) condylar
E) pivot
Q2) The most common athletic knee injury produces damage to the
A) patella.
B) lateral meniscus.
C) ligaments.
D) tendons.
E) medial meniscus.
Q3) The back of the knee joint is reinforced by ________ ligaments.
A) tibial collateral
B) anterior cruciate
C) posterior cruciate
D) patellar
E) popliteal
Q4) Explain how the structure of synovial fluid allows it to function as a lubricant in a joint.
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the term Z line?
A) protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle
B) repeating unit of striated myofibrils
C) storage site for calcium ions
D) thin filaments are anchored here
E) largely made of myosin molecules
Q2) Which of the following statements is/are false regarding human muscles?
A) Most have both slow and fast fibers.
B) Slow fibers are abundant in the muscles of the hand.
C) Eye muscles are composed entirely of fast fibers.
D) Slow fibers are abundant in the back muscles.
E) All of the answers are correct; none of them are true regarding human muscles.
Q3) Which of the following is not a function of smooth muscle tissue?
A) altering the diameter of the respiratory passageways
B) elevating hairs on the arm
C) forcing blood from the heart into the major arteries
D) moving food materials along the digestive tract
E) forcing urine out of the urinary tract
Q4) Describe a motor unit. How many fibers does a motor unit contain?
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Given its name, what does the levator anguli oris do? (Figure 11-5)
A) raise the eyebrows
B) raise the eyelids
C) raise the mouth
D) tense the mouth
E) close the eyelids
Q2) The muscle(s) that adduct(s) the humerus is/are the
A) coracobrachialis.
B) deltoid.
C) trapezius.
D) latissimus dorsi.
E) coracobrachialis and latissimus dorsi.
Q3) The iliac crest is the origin of the A) quadratus lumborum.
B) iliocostalis cervicis.
C) longissimus cervicis.
D) semispinalis capitis.
E) splenius.
Q4) How do first-, second-, and third-class levers differ?
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) When cholinergic receptors are stimulated,
A) sodium ions enter the postsynaptic neuron.
B) sodium ions leave the postsynaptic neuron.
C) chloride ions enter the postsynaptic neuron.
D) chloride ions leave the postsynaptic neuron.
E) norepinephrine deactivates acetylcholine.
Q2) A shift of the resting transmembrane potential toward 0 mV is called
A) potential difference.
B) depolarization.
C) hyperpolarization.
D) polarization.
E) repolarization.
Q3) ________ carry motor information to peripheral effectors.
A) Unipolar neurons
B) Efferent neurons
C) Multipolar neurons
D) Afferent neurons
E) Interneurons
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14
Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Preganglionic and postganglionic fibers of the autonomic nervous system that innervate internal organs arecollectively called
A) posterior rami.
B) anterior rami.
C) white rami.
D) gray rami.
E) sympathetic nerves.
Q2) The flexor reflex
A) prevents a muscle from overstretching.
B) prevents a muscle from generating damaging tension.
C) moves a limb away from a painful stimulus.
D) usually depends on cranial neurons.
E) is an example of a monosynaptic reflex.
Q3) The ________ nerve, which arises in the cervical plexus, innervates the diaphragm.
A) ansa cervicalis
B) lesser occipital
C) thoracic
D) phrenic
E) supraclaviculars
15
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is a temporary cerebral disorder accompanied by abnormal movements, unusual sensations, and/orinappropriate behavior.
A) Dyslexia
B) Apraxia
C) Aphasia
D) Parkinson's disease
E) A seizure
Q2) The dural sinuses form between which two layers of the cranial dura mater?
A) pia and arachnoid layers
B) periosteal and endosteal layers
C) meningeal and cranial layers
D) periosteal and meningeal layers
E) superior and inferior sagittal layers
Q3) Identify the spinal accessory nerve (XI).
A) 10
B) 11
C) 9
D) 6
E) 3
Q4) Why is injury to the medulla oblongata frequently fatal?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tactile receptor composed of highly coiled dendrites that are surrounded by modified Schwann cells andafibrous capsule is a
A) lamellar corpuscle.
B) Bulbous corpuscle.
C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle.
D) tactile (Merkel) disc.
E) root hair plexus.
Q2) The afferent neuron that carries the sensation and enters the CNS is a ________ neuron.
A) receptor
B) first-order
C) second-order
D) third-order
E) fourth-order
Q3) Identify the axon labeled "3."
A) axon of a lower motor neuron
B) axon of a upper motor neuron
C) axon of a first-order neuron
D) axon of a second-order neuron
E) axon of a ganglionic neuron
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Chapter 16: The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher-Order Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure labeled "6."
A) somatic motor neuron
B) preganglionic neuron
C) sensory neuron
D) ganglionic neuron
E) astrocyte
Q2) A pedestrian narrowly avoids being hit by an oncoming car. He notices that it takes a little while for hisheart rate and respiratory rate to return to normal. This is likely because
A) the parasympathetic nervous system has become activated.
B) sympathetic activation of the adrenal medulla has released epinephrine and norepinephrine into the bloodstream.
C) the splanchnic nerves have become activated.
D) somatic motor neurons have increased the heart and respiratory rate.
E) the corticospinal pathway has become activated.
Q3) Martin is suffering from a condition known as ventricular tachycardia, in which his heart beats too quickly. Would an alpha-blocker or a beta-blocker help alleviate his problem? Why?
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A period of adjustment is required when moving from a dark room into bright light because
A) the breakdown of rhodopsin to opsin occurs slowly.
B) the lens requires time to accommodate dim light.
C) rods exposed to strong light need time to regenerate rhodopsin.
D) rhodopsin does not function in dim light.
E) only cones function in dim light.
Q2) During accommodation, the ciliary muscle ________ causing the ciliary body to move ________ and apply ________ tension on the lens.
A) relaxes; toward the lens; more
B) contracts; toward the lens; less
C) contracts; away from the lens; more
D) relaxes; inward; less
E) contracts; away from the lens; less
Q3) A sudden increase of light into the eye would cause
A) contraction of the sphincter pupillary muscles.
B) contraction of the radial pupillary muscles.
C) conversion of 11-trans to 11-cis retinal.
D) an increase in the size of the pupil.
E) parasympathetic stimulation to the pupil.
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two lobes of the pituitary gland together produce or store how many hormones?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
E) 16
Q2) The main action of antidiuretic hormone is
A) increased water conservation by kidneys.
B) to stimulate kidney cells to secrete renin.
C) increase urine output to remove excess fluid.
D) increased blood pressure by increased Na+ reabsorption.
E) inhibition of aldosterone.
Q3) TSH plays a key role in the ________ of thyroid hormones.
A) inhibition
B) synthesis
C) release
D) inhibition and secretion
E) synthesis and release
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Chapter 19: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common blood type is
A) type A.
B) type B.
C) type AB.
D) type O.
E) type AO.
Q2) A cross-match test is performed between donor blood and recipient blood, even though the ABO and Rh blood types match between the two because A) there are many more surface antigens on red blood cells other than A, B and Rh.
B) all antibodies of the donor blood and the recipient blood must be identified.
C) coagulation can occur even in a small percentage of cases.
D) one has to make sure that the same agglutinogens have to be on both donor and recipients red blood cells.
E) errors are commonly made by the clinical staff regarding donor-recipient matches.
Q3) Which of the formed elements would increase after the donation of a pint of blood?
Q4) Why do people with advanced kidney disease commonly become anemic?
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Page 21
Chapter 20: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) What occurs at the circle labeled "7" on the graph?
A) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
B) sympathetic stimulation
C) isovolumetric ventricular contraction
D) ventricular ejection
E) ventricular filling
Q2) The ________ circuit carries blood to and from the lungs.
A) pulmonary
B) systemic
C) oxygen
D) portal
E) primary
Q3) The heart spends most of the cardiac cycle in which phase?
A) atrial systole
B) atrial diastole
C) ventricular systole
D) ventricular diastole
E) isovolumetric contraction
Q4) Apatient's ECG recording shows a very long P-R interval. What is the cause of this abnormal wave pattern?
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two common iliac veins form the A) femoral vein.
B) greater saphenous vein.
C) inferior vena cava.
D) hepatic portal vein.
E) innominate vein.
Q2) Venous valves are responsible for
A) preventing anterograde flow.
B) channeling blood away from the heart.
C) channeling blood toward the heart.
D) preventing blood from re-entering a ventricle.
E) regulating blood pressure in veins.
Q3) Pulmonary arteries carry blood to the A) right atrium.
B) left atrium.
C) lungs.
D) aorta.
E) systemic circuit.
Q4) Compare the hearts of a trained athlete and a nonathlete.
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is a physical barrier to infection except A) body hair.
B) epithelium.
C) secretions.
D) complement.
E) basement membranes.
Q2) The effects of activating the complement system include all of the following except
A) destruction of target cell plasma membranes.
B) stimulation of inflammation.
C) inhibition of the immune response.
D) opsonization.
E) chemotaxis.
Q3) The cell that dominates the deep cortical region of a lymph node is the ________ cell.
A) B
B) T
C) plasma
D) nodule
E) NK
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contraction of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles can
A) move the cricoid cartilage.
B) close the glottis.
C) constrict the trachea.
D) move food from the larynx to the esophagus.
E) assist in breathing during exercise.
Q2) The ________ of the lungs is an indication of their expandability, how easily the lungs expand and contract.
A) compliance
B) ventilation
C) volume
D) intrapulmonary pressure
E) cellular respiration
Q3) An elastic ________ ligament and the ________ muscle connect the ends of tracheal cartilage.
A) tracheal; trachealis
B) anular; trachealis
C) tracheal; anular
D) cricoid; anular
E) cricoid; trachealis
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An intestinal hormone that stimulates gastric secretion is A) secretin.
B) cholecystokinin.
C) enteropeptidase.
D) gastrin.
E) gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP).
Q2) The intestinal hormone that stimulates the pancreas to release a watery, bicarbonate-rich fluid is
A) enterocrinin.
B) secretin.
C) cholecystokinin.
D) GIP.
E) gastrin.
Q3) The mesocolon is
A) a section of the large intestines between the sigmoid colon and the rectum.
B) a thick mesenteric sheet associated with the small intestines.
C) a ligament that suspends the liver from the diaphragm.
D) a serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity.
E) a mesentery associated with a portion of the large intestine.
Q4) Leon has gallstones. His doctor puts him on a diet low in fat. Why?
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Metabolism, Nutrition, and Energetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vitamin that is a constituent of coenzyme A is
A) folic acid (folate).
B) pantothenic acid.
C) pyridoxine (B6).
D) riboflavin.
E) niacin.
Q2) The major anion in body fluids is
A) chloride.
B) bicarbonate.
C) sulfate.
D) iodide.
E) phosphate.
Q3) In oxidative phosphorylation, energy for the synthesis of ATP is directly obtained from the
A) splitting of oxygen molecules.
B) breaking of the covalent bonds in glucose.
C) movement of hydrogen ions through channels in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
D) combination of two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen to form water.
E) oxidation of acetyl-CoA.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eighty percent of nephrons in the human kidney are located in the ________ and have short nephron loops.
A) cortex
B) medulla
C) pyramids
D) capsule
E) pelvis
Q2) The renal threshold for glucose is approximately ________ mg/dl.
A) 75
B) 90
C) 100
D) 140
E) 180
Q3) The area of the urinary bladder bounded by the openings of the two ureters and the urethra is called the
A) renal pelvis.
B) JG apparatus.
C) pyramid.
D) trigone.
E) vasa recta.
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most dangerous problems with electrolyte balance are caused by an imbalance between gains and lossesof
A) calcium ions.
B) chlorine ions.
C) potassium ions.
D) sodium ions.
E) electrons.
Q2) Which of the following is not a renal response to acidosis?
A) secretion of H+
B) increase tubule buffer activity
C) reabsorption of NaHCO3
D) release of HCl into peritubular capillary fluid
E) removal of CO2
Q3) ________ acid is an acid that can leave solution and enter the atmosphere.
A) respiratory
B) volatile
C) metabolic
D) inorganic
E) fixed
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Page 29
Chapter 28: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pampiniform plexus of the testicular vein is found within the A) epididymis.
B) raphe.
C) spermatic cord.
D) cremaster muscle.
E) rete testis.
Q2) A typical ejaculation releases approximately ________ sperm.
A) 1 million
B) 250 million
C) 100,000
D) 20 million
E) 800 million
Q3) The portion of the urethra that passes through the pelvic cavity floor is called the A) membranous urethra.
B) bulbo-urethral.
C) penile urethra.
D) ureter.
E) prostatic urethra.
Q4) How are male and female reproductive systems functionally different?
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood flows from the fetus to the placenta through paired
A) umbilical vein.
B) iliac veins.
C) umbilical arteries.
D) uterine veins.
E) uterine arteries.
Q2) Immediately after birth, a newborn's health is assessed by an Apgar score. Which of the following is not part of the Apgar assessment?
A) heart rate
B) breathing
C) muscle tone
D) hearing
E) skin color
Q3) An infant born ________ prematurely has a good chance of survival.
A) 1.5 months
B) 3 months
C) 4 months
D) 5 months
E) 6 months
Q4) List and briefly characterize the three trimesters of gestation.
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