Nursing Fundamentals
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Nursing Fundamentals introduces students to the essential principles and skills that form the foundation of professional nursing practice. This course covers core concepts such as patient safety, infection control, basic patient care techniques, communication, critical thinking, and ethical and legal considerations within healthcare settings. Through a combination of classroom instruction, laboratory simulations, and clinical experiences, students gain the knowledge and confidence necessary to deliver compassionate, evidence-based care to individuals across the lifespan, setting the stage for more advanced nursing coursework and clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Care of the Patient in Surgery 14th Edition by Jane C. Rothrock
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
30 Chapters
784 Verified Questions
784 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2039
Page 2
Chapter 1: Concepts Basic to Perioperative Nursing
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40551
Sample Questions
Q1) Accurate documentation is an integral part of all phases of the nursing process.For this reason,perioperative nursing care documentation:
A) should not include technical care.
B) must include a description of patient care delivered and patient response to that care.
C) must be aligned with appropriate PNDS elements.
D) will have PNDS integrated into all mandatory fields.
Answer: B
Q2) The nursing excellence center for education at Sunny Shores Hospital developed standards for nursing advancement that would reflect high-level achievement of professional performance.They developed a clinical advancement ladder based on the leading skill and knowledge acquisition model and established worthy criteria for each level.Select the response that might best describe the highest level of achievement for a perioperative staff nurse.
A) CNOR credential,BSN,and chair of the nursing research committee
B) Published article in the Sunny Shores newsletter and 15 years' service pin
C) BCLS instructor and weekend EMT transport
D) All of the options are correct.
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 3
Chapter 2: Patient Safety and Risk Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40552
Sample Questions
Q1) As the pediatric cardiac team prepared to cannulate for a coarctation repair,their neonate patient presented with a sudden dysrhythmia,ectopy,and failure to respond to digitalis.Point-of-care serum electrolyte measurements revealed low potassium,sodium,and magnesium levels.On anesthesia induction,only 35 minutes earlier,these values were at normal levels and the patient status was secure.The electrolyte levels were treated to normal and the patient was cannulated and placed on cardiopulmonary bypass.As the procedure continued the team pondered the cause to prevent a recurrence.What possible event could have caused,or contributed to,this loss of electrolytes?
A) Unreported patient diarrhea before surgery
B) Unnoticed arterial bleeding from disconnected arterial line
C) Sterile water from back table switched with heparinized saline
D) Missed breast-feeding 2 hours before procedure
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 3: Infection Prevention and Control in the
Perioperative Setting
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40553
Sample Questions
Q1) Decontamination of the hands can be done by a variety of methods.The Joint Commission (TJC)states that a thorough handwash with an antimicrobial agent may be as effective as the traditional surgical scrub using a brush or sponge.Facility infection control procedures govern the selection of materials and the methods used for surgical hand hygiene.Select the best practice for surgical hand hygiene.
A) Alcohol-based hand rub
B) Anatomic counted strokes with 4% chlorhexidine gluconate brush
C) Anatomic timed strokes with povidine iodine sponge
D) Any of the options with an antimicrobial hand wash
Answer: D
Q2) Positive-pressure air handling systems with unidirectional flow of non-recirculated air from the ceiling to the floor are designed to:
A) create mild air turbulence to prevent dust from settling on surfaces.
B) augment the oxygen-enriched environment with dust-free air.
C) flow clean air over the patient and prevent corridor air intake.
D) All of the options are correct.
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 5
Chapter 4: Anesthesia
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40554
Sample Questions
Q1) While a sudden drop in the SpO level may result from systemic hypoxia,blood flow to the distal extremity may be inadequate because of:
A) hypothermia.
B) malposition.
C) constriction by blood pressure cuff inflation.
D) All of these options may decrease SpO level.
Q2) Which statement best explains the mechanism of action of general anesthetic agents?
A) Inhibition of synaptic transmission of nerve impulses
B) Regional depression of the CNS with resultant narcosis
C) Suppression of myoneural and musculoskeletal junctions
D) Analgesia,amnesia,anesthesia,and systemic hyporeflexus
Q3) In the past,MH mortality ranged up to 80%,but the immediate infusion of dantrolene (Dantrium)and proper treatment have reduced the death rate to about 7%.What is dantrolene's mechanism of action that reverses the hypermetabolic state and crisis?
A) It is a succinylcholine reversal agent.
B) It is a skeletal muscle relaxant.
C) It is a metabolic antagonist.
D) None of the options is correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 6
Chapter 5: Positioning the Patient for Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40555
Sample Questions
Q1) Albert Janson,a 325-pound patient,is scheduled for a 6-hour abdominal surgery.While assessing Mr.Jennings in the preoperative holding area,the perioperative nurse is concerned about the risk for pressure injury because of the weight of the patient's body pressing against the surface of the OR bed for a long surgery.Which of these other factors may also produce pressure?
A) The scrub person leaning with his or her forearm on the Mayo stand
B) A self-retaining retractor post clamped to the OR bed rail and tightened against the patient's side
C) A Deaver retractor and two right angle clamps placed on the patient's thighs when draped
D) Full-leg sequential compression wraps on both legs throughout the entire surgery
Q2) A patient undergoing a laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication procedure will be positioned in both high and low lithotomy during the procedure.After the patient is repositioned into low lithotomy,the perioperative nurse should:
A) position the patient back in supine before repositioning in low lithotomy.
B) reposition as quickly as possible to avoid pressure latency.
C) reprep and redrape after repositioning.
D) reassess the patient for body alignment,tissue integrity and pressure areas.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: Sutures, Needles, and Instruments
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40556
Sample Questions
Q1) Dr.Schuman decided to convert to an open instead of the laparoscopic approach for the colectomy because the patient was morbidly obese and he needed a larger incision.He asked the circulating nurse to bring the largest self-retaining retractor in the sterile storage room.Select the appropriate retractor.
A) Large wide Deavers
B) Bookwalter
C) Weitlaner
D) Balfour
Q2) During the draping procedure,Dr.Martin Newhouse (the anesthesia provider)asked the scrub person for two towel clamps to secure the top of the drape to the IV poles.The scrub person had two penetrating and two nonpenetrating clamps on her back table.She knew she would need to secure the suction and electrosurgical pencil to the sterile field as soon as draping was finished.How should the scrub person respond to Dr.Newhouse's request for towel clips?
A) Refuse to give him any towel clamps because they are counted.
B) Give him two Allis clamps instead.
C) Give him the penetrating towel clamps.
D) Give him the nonpenetrating towel clamps.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Surgical Modalities
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40557
Sample Questions
Q1) The challenge of suturing intra-abdominally is not as great as the process needed to tie and tighten the surgical knot.The knot-tying process can be achieved within or outside of the abdominal compartment.One technique uses laparoscopic grasping forceps and a laparoscopic needle holder only,and another uses the same instruments plus two obturator sleeves to push,slide,and tighten the knot into place.When sutures are tied and knotted during an open procedure,the surgeon may tie the knot with gloved fingers,called a one- or two-handed tie,or wrap the suture around the tip of a needle holder and grasp the other end of the suture to pull it through the wrapped coils;this is called an instrument tie.The intracorporeal suture technique uses the suture-tying process analogous to the:
A) instrument tie.
B) two-handed tie.
C) one-handed tie.
D) All of these techniques could be accomplished through the intracorporeal approach.
Q2) Angulation knobs,air-water channel buttons,biopsy port
Q3) Distal tip,flexible movement,lenses,air-water nozzle,CCD chip
Q4) Flexible tube with channels for suction,biopsy,irrigation,light
Q5) Suction,air,water,and light connection adaptors to energy source
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: Wound Healing, Dressings, and Drains
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40558
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the criteria below are appropriate when determining whether an incisional surgical site infection (SSI)is superficial or deep? Select all that apply.
A) Where the purulent drainage comes from,superficial or deep
B) Where the positive wound culture comes from,superficial or deep
C) Whether the wound dehisces and/or is deliberately opened by a surgeon
D) The diagnosis by the surgeon or attending physician
Q2) Surgical site infections (SSIs)account for 14% to 16% of all hospital-acquired infections.Perioperative nurses and surgical technologists are responsible for understanding the factors that contribute to SSIs and preventive measures.Which of the following is a true statement about preparation of the patient?
A) Hair removal should be accomplished in the OR with a sterile razor.
B) The patient should be required to bathe or shower the night before surgery.
C) The antimicrobial skin prep should proceed in concentric circles toward the incision.
D) Diabetic patients are recommended to have a short hospital stay to control glucose levels.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Postoperative Patient Care and Pain Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40559
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the patient that is the most vulnerable and at high risk for hypothermia in the perianesthesia phase based on diagnosis or surgical procedure.
A) A thin,malnourished 92-year-old patient having a cataract extraction
B) A 3-year-old child with otitis media having bilateral myringotomy with tube placement
C) A 3-week-old neonate undergoing surgery for a cardiac anomaly
D) A 26-year-old patient undergoing escharotomy (fasciectomy) of an ankle with second- and third-degree burns
Q2) A key component of postoperative discharge instructions requires verification of patient/family understanding of the instructions.A recent study found that only 67% of the discharge instruction comprehension was retained by day 3 postdischarge.What strategy best ensures patient/family understanding and comprehension of the discharge instructions?
A) Written and signed instruction sheet with emergency and information contact numbers
B) Follow-up e-mailed video clip of the patient/family teaching encounter
C) Follow-up e-mail or telephone review of the discharge instructions on day 1 post discharge
D) Patient/family teach-back of the discharge instructions to the nurse
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 11
Chapter 10: Gastrointestinal Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40560
Sample Questions
Q1) Goodloe Frazier is scheduled for a total colectomy with ileostomy in the morning.The wound ostomy care nurse (WOCN)has consulted Goodloe to initiate his ostomy teaching,answer his questions,and mark the site on his abdomen that would be ideal placement for the ileostomy.An appropriate nursing diagnosis for Goodloe at this time would be:
A) Risk for Impaired Tissue Integrity.
B) Deficient Knowledge related to impending surgery.
C) Disturbed Body Image related to intestinal diversion.
D) All of the options are correct.
Q2) As the surgeon prepared to clamp and transect the bowel during a small bowel resection for tumor,the scrub person transferred instruments from the Mayo stand to the back table and prepared the sterile field for bowel isolation technique.The rationale for this application involves which nursing diagnosis and matched stage of the nursing process?
A) Risk for Infection/implementation
B) Risk for Metastasis/implementation
C) Risk for Tissue injury/planning
D) Risk for Infection/planning
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 12
Chapter 11: Surgery of the Liver, Biliary Tract, Pancreas, and Spleen
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40561
Sample Questions
Q1) Jarvin Patel,a 42-year-old woman from Mumbai,India,is visiting her daughter and new grandson.She is a devout follower of Hindu religious practices and has been diagnosed with splenomegaly,possibly from idiopathic thrombocytopenia.Jarvin is scheduled for a total splenectomy.During the preoperative assessment,the perioperative nurse,an observant Hindu herself,is concerned about the possibility of significant bleeding because of Jarvin's coagulopathy and the need for hemostatic agents that are typically used to stop bleeding.Many of these products are manufactured from bovine source products and it would be in conflict with Jarvin's religion to use products from a cow.An appropriate risk reduction strategy for selection of hemostatic agents that would not be in conflict with Jarvin's belief system would be:
A) substitute absorbable gelatin and oxidized collagen products;soak in thrombin.
B) substitute absorbable gelatin and oxidized collagen products;use high ESU settings. C) substitute absorbable gelatin and oxidized collagen products;use regular ESU settings.
D) substitute microfibrillar collagen soaked in thrombin;add epinephrine 1:1000.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
13
Chapter 12: Repair of Hernias
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40562
Sample Questions
Q1) The mesh-plug open hernia repair technique is indicated for which type(s)of hernias?
A) Femoral hernias
B) Indirect inguinal hernias
C) Direct inguinal hernias
D) All of the options are correct
Q2) Aubrey Scheel,a 37-year-old physically active male,is getting dressed to return home from the emergency department (ED)after he experienced a large,tender bulge in his scrotum while straining at the toilet.The emergency physician reduced Aubrey's indirect inguinal hernia and referred him to a general surgery practice for elective herniorrhaphy.The ED nurse prepared Aubrey for his discharge.An appropriate nursing intervention by the ED nurse would be to:
A) explain the signs and symptoms of an incarcerated hernia and appropriate action.
B) demonstrate how to reduce the hernia until he can see the surgeon.
C) advise him on the best surgeon for this hernia and give contact information.
D) include all of the information listed above in his discharge instructions.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 14
Chapter 13: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40563
Sample Questions
Q1) From the list below,select the statement that is true about fallopian tube cancer.
A) Fallopian tube cancer metastasizes to the ovaries and cervix.
B) Fallopian tube cancer is fast-growing in women with genital herpes.
C) Fallopian tube cancer is very rare,with an incidence of less than 1%.
D) Fallopian tube cancer is seen primarily as a metastasis from the small intestine.
Q2) Miranda Cox returned to her gynecologist's office for a second Pap smear when her routine exam showed dysplastic cells in her cervical cytology test.Miranda has a family history of cervical cancer and had laser ablation within the last 2 years for vulvar condylomata.She can expect her gynecologist to perform another Pap smear and:
A) colposcopy with endocervical biopsy.
B) hysteroscopy with cervical biopsy and frozen section.
C) colposcopy with cervical skinning procedure performed using a local anesthetic.
D) second-look vaginal exam with cervical Pap smear.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
15
Chapter 14: Genitourinary Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40564
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the statement about the prostate that best reflects its location,size,and weight.
A) The prostate sits adjacent to the urethra,is 2 to 4 cm in depth,and weighs about 25 g.
B) The prostate sits below the urethra,is 2 to 3 cm in depth,and weighs 25 to 30 g.
C) The prostate sits below the bladder,is 2 cm in depth,and weighs about 25 to 40 g.
D) The prostate sits below the base of the bladder,is 4 cm at the base,and weighs 20 to 30 g.
Q2) Patients having genitourinary surgery are at risk for impaired urinary elimination.Select the statement that best reflects a desired outcome for an adult patient.
A) The patient will be able to urinate before the bladder exceeds 350 ml of fullness.
B) The patient will regain his or her normal pattern of urinary elimination.
C) The patient will excrete 50 ml of urine per hour.
D) All of the options are desired outcomes.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
16
Chapter 15: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40565
Sample Questions
Q1) Norma Hightower,a 32-year-old thin and pale patient with hypothyroidism,is met by the Perioperative nurse for her preoperative assessment.The nurse notes Norma's thin frame and pale,fragile skin.Norma states that she is so cold that she has all of her clothes on under her patient gown.Based on her assessment,the nursing diagnosis for Norma will focus interventions on her:
A) risk for hypothermia.
B) risk for skin and tissue injury.
C) risk for injury related to surgical positioning.
D) All of the nursing diagnoses are correct.
Q2) Total thyroidectomy is the removal of both lobes of the thyroid and all thyroid tissue present.Total thyroidectomy is the desired surgical treatment for patients with:
A) hyperthyroidism with more than two episodes of thyroid storm.
B) thyroid cancer.
C) autoimmune inflammatory thyroid dysfunction.
D) hypothyroidism unresponsive to antithyroid medications.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
17
Chapter 16: Breast Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40566
Sample Questions
Q1) Gertrude Marshall,a 65-year-old recently retired nurse,was scheduled for a modified radical mastectomy.It has been over 40 years since she worked as a perioperative nurse and she vividly remembers the mutilating radical mastectomies of the past.She asks the perioperative nurse to describe the appearance of her incision at the end of the procedure.What description of the incision will the perioperative nurse explain to Gertrude?
A) A crescent incision extends from the mid-axillary line to the medial fourth rib attachment to the sternum.The incision will likely be closed with interrupted nylon sutures.
B) A horizontal elliptic incision with lateral extension toward the axilla is made through the subcutaneous tissue.The incision will likely be closed with subcuticular uninterrupted polypropylene sutures.
C) An oblique elliptic incision with lateral extension toward the axilla is made through the subcutaneous tissue.The incision may be closed with interrupted nonabsorbable sutures,staples,or a running subcuticular stitch.
D) A vertical elliptic incision extends along the mid-clavicular line.The incision may be closed with interrupted nonabsorbable sutures,staples,or a running subcuticular stitch.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18
Chapter 17: Ophthalmic Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40567
Sample Questions
Q1) Toxic anterior segment syndrome (TASS),also known as sterile endophthalmitis,is a sterile noninfectious form of acute inflammation that occurs after eye surgery (typically cataract surgery).It frequently begins within 24 hours after surgery and is characterized by decreased vision,significant corneal edema,and moderate to severe inflammation in the anterior chamber of the eye.Select all of the possible causes and risk reduction strategy statements.
A)Introduction of an infectious,toxic substance into the anterior chamber during surgery
B)Introduction of a noninfectious,toxic substance into the anterior chamber during surgery
C)Introduction of sterile lint or debris into the anterior chamber during surgery
D)Introduction of sterile mineral deposits into the anterior chamber during surgery
E)Educate patient/family about signs and symptoms of TASS before discharge.
F)Practice vigilant compliance with cleaning,disinfection,and sterilization of equipment and instrumentation.
Q2) Exenteration
Q3) Enucleation
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 19
Chapter 18: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40568
Sample Questions
Q1) Microlaryngoscopy facilitates improved diagnosis and allows the laryngologist to view,with relative ease,areas that previously were inaccessible or difficult to visualize.What are the two most common indications for microlaryngoscopy?
A) Chronic hoarseness and cough
B) Laryngeal polyps and nodules
C) Epiglottitis and frequent choking
D) Laryngeal injury and cancer
Q2) Benign or small malignant tumors of the oral cavity may be excised without a neck dissection,though in the presence of diagnosed or highly suspicious metastatic disease,a selective neck dissection may be performed in an effort to control a cancerous growth in the upper jugular lymphatic chain of the neck.Typically,endotracheal anesthesia is used and a pharyngeal pack of moist gauze may be inserted in the mouth.The perioperative nurse must be prepared for which additional procedure when head and neck surgery is performed?
A) Tracheostomy
B) Microscopic free flap graft
C) Laryngoscopy
D) Difficult airway protocol
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20
Chapter 19: Orthopedic Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40569
Sample Questions
Q1) The scaphoid,also called the navicular,links the proximal row of carpal bones as it:
A) articulates with each metacarpal head.
B) attaches its rough surfaces to the ligaments.
C) stabilizes and coordinates the movement of the proximal and distal rows.
D) articulates proximally with its matching carpal row.
Q2) An objective assessment of the patient's condition,in terms of assigning an appropriate preoperative surgical diagnosis and plan of care,would be obtained from:
A) the physician consult with history,physical,and medical clearance.
B) the patient's own statements about symptoms,pain,onset,and disability.
C) the signed surgical consent form.
D) radiographic films and imaging studies.
Q3) Remodeling
Q4) Identify the layer of connective tissue that covers all bone.
A) Periosteum
B) Calcium
C) Cartilage
D) Fascia
Q5) Callus formation
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: Neurosurgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40570
Sample Questions
Q1) A familiarity with basic neurologic assessment tools gives the nurse the ability to perform a standardized neurologic exam that can be used preoperatively to establish a baseline assessment and postoperatively to establish a return to baseline or assess postoperative neurologic stability.The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)is commonly used to assess patients with brain injury using three indicators of cerebral function:eye opening,verbal communication,and motor response to verbal and noxious stimuli.Within the scoring range for the GCS,the best possible score is _ and the worst possible score is
A) 15;3
B) 12;0
C) 3;15
D) 0;12
Q2) Identify the dura fold that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres.
A) Falx cerebri
B) Tentorium cerebelli
C) Falx cerebelli
D) Tentorium cerebri
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
22
Chapter 21: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40571
Sample Questions
Q1) One of the most popular lasers used in plastic and reconstructive surgery is attracted to the water in the skin cells and ablates the cells at a predetermined depth.Collagen material beneath the skin surface is also heated,resulting in smoother and slightly tighter skin.Several lasers are attracted to areas of darker pigmentation.This treatment has virtually replaced dermabrasion,because of its consistency in terms of depth of penetration and also because this technique is less dependent on user technique or skill.Select the laser modality that would be the best option for ablation or removal of a pigmented red tattoo.
A) CO laser
B) Erbium:YAG laser
C) Nd:YAG laser
D) Excimer laser
Q2) The science of plastic and reconstructive surgery,which means to mold or create form and shape,improves appearance and body image through an understanding of: A) body geometry.
B) the anatomy and biology of tissue.
C) form and function.
D) body image.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
23
Chapter 22: Thoracic Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40572
Sample Questions
Q1) Of all the equipment,tools,and studies available during the patient's preoperative diagnostic phase,which exam is the most indispensable diagnostic tool to outline thoracic lesions and define space-occupying nature and shape?
A) Virtual bronchoscopy
B) Ultrasound
C) Chest x-ray
D) Computed tomography (CT) scan
Q2) The perioperative nurse will need to collaborate with the anesthesia provider,since continuous hemodynamic monitoring,oximetry,and ventricular function assessment by transesophageal echocardiography (TEE)are all performed intraoperatively.Cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB)may also be required.Select all the procedures for which these preparations are indicated.
A) Donor harvesting
B) Living-related single-lung transplant
C) Cadaveric single-lung transplant
D) Double-lung transplant
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 23: Vascular Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40573
Sample Questions
Q1) Varicose veins are enlarged and distended veins that are visible and palpable beneath the skin.Secondary varicose veins are believed to be a result of insufficiency of the deep venous system.The primary objective of varicose vein surgery,for the patient with secondary disease,is to prevent:
A) thromboemboli,claudication,and unsightly blue clusters of veins.
B) ulceration,edema,pain,and fatigue.
C) venospasm,phlebitis,and vascular sacculations.
D) vasculitis,pitting edema,and sclerosed vein clusters.
Q2) Surgically created arteriovenous fistulas are also referred to as a(n)_ and are indicated for enabling __.
A) axillo-femoral bypass;end-stage renal disease
B) bridge shunt;peritoneal dialysis
C) arteriovenous shunt;hemodialysis
D) side-to-side anastomosis;cannulation
Q3) What drug is used to reverse the effects of heparin?
A) Prostigmine
B) Protonics hydrochloride
C) Protamine sulfate
D) Prothrombin
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 25
Chapter 24: Cardiac Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40574
Sample Questions
Q1) The temporary substitution of a pump oxygenator for the heart and lungs allows the surgeon to stop the heart and perform cardiac procedures under direct vision in a relatively dry,motionless field.It also allows the surgeon to manipulate the heart without the risk of producing ventricular fibrillation and reduced cardiac output that jeopardize perfusion to the myocardial,peripheral,and cerebral tissues.In traditional cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB),systemic venous return to the heart flows by gravity drainage through cannulae placed in the superior and inferior venae cavae or through a single two-stage cannula in the right atrium into tubing connected to the bypass machine.Blood is oxygenated,filtered,warmed or cooled,and pumped back into the systemic circulation through a cannula placed in the:
A) femoral artery.
B) axillary artery.
C) ascending aorta.
D) All of the arteries could be used for return flow.
Q2) What statements regarding vascular clamps are true? Select all that apply.
A) Vascular clamps are designed to partially occlude blood flow.
B) Vascular clamps are designed to totally occlude blood flow.
C) All vascular clamps are designed to hold vessels securely without trauma.
D) All vascular clamps have similar angles,box locks,ring handles,and ratchets.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 26
Chapter 25: Pediatric Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40575
Sample Questions
Q1) Pharyngeal obstruction is revealed by a history of sleep-disordered breathing.Mouth breathing,snoring,pauses in breathing,restless sleep,waking at night,and enuresis may be related to obstruction.Pharyngeal obstruction may also be caused by recurrent pharyngitis or tonsillitis.Select all the procedures that are designed for the relief of pharyngeal obstruction.
A) Tonsillectomy
B) Adenoidectomy
C) Flexible nasolaryngoscopy
D) Pharyngotomy
Q2) The toddler uses symbols and engages in creative play.Toddlers are beginning to develop free will and control over their bodies.Which of the interventions below is age-appropriate for toddlers?
A) Sing songs from your own childhood that the child may be able to learn.
B) Give only simple choices and involve them in actions when possible.
C) Make up a story about their personal comfort item as you give it to their parent to keep.
D) Ask them about their concerns and offer information to decrease their fears.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 26: Geriatric Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40576
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common causes of acute abdominal complaints in older patients are biliary tract disease,intestinal obstruction,GI hemorrhage,hernia,diverticulitis,and appendicitis.Common abdominal procedures in people older than 65 years include cholecystectomy,lysis of adhesions,appendectomy,and partial excision of the small bowel.Many important clinical signs of abdominal disease may be less obvious in the elderly patient.What would be an appropriate question for the perioperative nurse to ask during the preoperative interview and assessment?
A) "Do you take nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medications like ibuprofen?"
B) "Do you smoke cigarettes?"
C) "Have you ever had,or have,peptic ulcer disease?"
D) All of the options are relevant for this population.
Q2) The predominant reason for urologic surgery in elderly men is benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH).What appropriate assessment question would the perioperative nurse ask the patient scheduled for a TURP during the preoperative interview?
A) If he has symptoms that describe evidence of straining at urination (micturition)
B) If he has symptoms that describe evidence of painful urination (dysuria)
C) If he has symptoms that describe evidence of blood in the urine (hematuria)
D) All of the options are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28
Chapter 27: Trauma Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40577
Sample Questions
Q1) If cervical spine precautions were not implemented before arrival at the hospital,the emergency department team initiates them before performing any other procedures on the patient.A trauma team member can stabilize the head and neck,if necessary,until a cervical collar is placed.What event needs to take place before the team removes the cervical collar and continues care?
A) A halo traction apparatus is applied.
B) A cervical radiograph is obtained to rule out injury to the neck.
C) A CT scan with contrast of the upper body is obtained to rule out vascular involvement.
D) A myelogram of the cervical spinal canal is obtained to rule out injury to the spinal cord.
Q2) What special consideration should be made when assessing a pediatric trauma patient for level of consciousness?
A) Use the modified Glasgow Coma Scale for children.
B) Use the Broslow tape.
C) Stimulate the child gently in case he or she is a victim of shaken baby syndrome.
D) Use the universal Glasgow Coma Scale for all ages.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 29
Chapter 28: Interventional Radiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40578
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the statement that correctly describes the mechanism of action of contrast media.
A) Contrast media are used to enhance visualization of anatomic structures by influencing tissue radiopacity with different concentrations of iodine.
B) A contrast agent works by attenuating (absorbing) the x-ray beam either more than or less than the surrounding tissue.
C) Contrast media radiopacity is related to its iodine concentration.
D) A contrast agent works by the speed of delivery affecting blood flow and hemodilution.
Q2) Select the diagnostic and interventional radiology procedure that is not classified as a vascular procedure.
A) Percutaneous nephrolithotomy
B) Carotid interventions
C) Portal hypertension management (TIPS)
D) Uterine artery embolization
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 30
Chapter 29: Integrated Health Practices:Complementary and Alternative Therapies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40579
Sample Questions
Q1) Progressive relaxation techniques,biofeedback,meditation,and cognitive-behavioral approaches have a well-documented theoretical basis with supporting scientific evidence.What is the theoretical clinical justification for this relationship categorized as mind-body medicine?
A) Targeted therapies can balance the equality of the mind with the body.
B) The mind has the ability to affect the body.
C) The body has the ability to positively and negatively affect the mind.
D) All of these scientific theories have been supported by high-level research.
Q2) Select the herbal supplement that may cause potential adverse cardiac effects such as palpations and hypertension.
A) Lavender
B) Garlic
C) Ephedra
D) Ginger
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 30: Workplace Issues and Staff Safety
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40580
Sample Questions
Q1) What one factor describes the high incidence of musculoskeletal disorders among surgical technologists and perioperative nurses?
A) Pulling a large,heavy piece of equipment rather than pushing it
B) The cumulative effect of repeated patient handling events
C) The growing high obesity rate and heavier patients and care providers
D) The cumulative effect of pushing,pulling,and carrying heavy instrument sets and rolling carts
Q2) Waste anesthetic gases are small amounts of gases that may leak either from the patient's anesthetic breathing circuit into the OR air while anesthesia is being administered or from exhalation of the patient during recovery.Both mechanisms of exposure create risks for OR personnel.Select the appropriate risk reduction strategy that protects the environment and perioperative worker from exposure to ambient waste anesthetic gas.
A) Check the anesthetic delivery system for irregularities or breaks.
B) Turn off the room or local ventilation system.
C) Ensure that the scavenging system is properly connected to the gas outlet.
D) Ensure proper facemask fit before delivering anesthesia gas.
E) Turn the breathing system off before turning off the gas.f.Use high-flow gas delivery for more rapid induction.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 32