
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Nursing Fundamentals introduces students to the foundational concepts and skills essential for a career in nursing. This course covers the basic principles of patient care, including health assessment, safety, hygiene, mobility, and vital signs. Students will learn about the nursing process, effective communication in healthcare, and ethical and legal considerations within the nursing profession. Through lectures, demonstrations, and hands-on practice in skills labs, learners develop critical thinking and competency in basic nursing procedures, preparing them for more advanced clinical experiences and direct patient care.
Recommended Textbook Human Diseases 8th Edition by Mark Zelman
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17 Chapters
1439 Verified Questions
1439 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A remission may last days, months, or years, after which the disease can recur.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Infectious diseases are caused by _____, like bacteria and viruses.
Answer: pathogens
Q3) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention acts as a coordinating authority on international public health.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The _____ is the chief epidemiologic institution in the United States.
A)American Medical Association
B)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
C)Department of Health and Human Services
D)World Health Organization
Answer: B
Q5) _____ is the condition in which the human body performs its vital functions normally.
Answer: Health
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the two major forms of scleroderma, the more common is systemic sclerosis scleroderma.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Specific immunity is also known as adaptive immunity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) AIDS indicator diseases are infections that do not normally occur in a person protected by a healthy immune system.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) _____ is the body's ability to resist infectious disease. Answer: Immunity
Q5) Allergy problems arise because the IgE binds to mast cells and induces them to release _____ and other potent chemicals responsible for allergy symptoms. Answer: histamine
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90 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an epidemic has spread to include several areas worldwide, it is said to be
Answer: pandemic
Q2) Tracking the _____ of a disease is tracking the number of new cases of a disease in a population.
A)incidence
B)outbreak
C)pandemic
D)prevalence
Answer: A
Q3) Healthcare facilities are a major reservoir for opportunistic pathogens that can cause nosocomial infections.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Bacteria that have spiral-shaped cells are called _____.
Answer: spirilla
Q5) Fungi use specialized filaments called _____ to absorb nutrients from their surroundings.
Answer: mycelia

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Sample Questions
Q1) A benign tumor may grow and enlarge in an area but will not invade surrounding tissue or spread to other parts of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _____ is the use of x-rays to form a still or moving picture of the inside of the body.
A)Computed tomography
B)Magnetic resonance imaging
C)Radiography
D)Ultrasonography
Q3) _____ tell cells when not to divide.
A)DNA repair genes
B)Oncogenes
C)Suicide genes
D)Tumor suppressor genes
Q4) _____ cause uncontrolled cell division that may result in cancer.
A)DNA repair genes
B)Oncogenes
C)Suicide genes
D)Tumor suppressor genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ are made from sequences of A, T, G, and C, arranged in different orders and in different lengths.
A)Autosomes
B)Chromosomes
C)Genes
D)Haploids
Q2) Abnormalities of sex-linked inheritance tend to occur more frequently in _____.
Q3) The loss of an autosomal chromosome is usually incompatible with life.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Phenylketonuria (PKU)is an inborn error of metabolism that leads to buildup of toxic products in the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Hemochromatosis is an _____-storage disorder.
Q6) The complete set of DNA in a living thing is known as its _____.
Q7) An amniocentesis can only detect about 50 of the thousands of known genetic disorders.
A)True
B)False
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120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is the major cholesterol carrier in the blood, and is also known as "bad" cholesterol.
A)CAD
B)CVI
C)HDL
D)LDL
Q2) Symptoms of CHD include chest pain, or _____ pectoris.
Q3) Ventricular hypertrophy is the dominant feature of _____ cardiomyopathy.
A)Aneurysmic
B)Dilated
C)Hypertrophic
D)Restrictive
Q4) Raynaud's disease is a disorder of the arteries in the _____.
A)arms and legs
B)chest and abdomen
C)fingers and toes
D)neck and head
Q5) At birth, the ductus _____ normally closes.
Q6) _____ describes elevated lipids (fat)in the blood.
Q7) _____ is a loss of blood and oxygen supply.
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102 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In hemolytic anemia, the accumulation of _____ causes a jaundiced or yellow-orange appearance in the tissues, urine, and feces.
A)bilirubin
B)erythrocytes
C)hemoglobin
D)platelets
Q2) The _____ stage in the development of iron-deficiency anemia is a negative iron balance, in which the demands for iron exceed the body's ability to absorb iron from the diet.
A)first
B)second
C)third
D)fourth
Q3) It would take approximately three to six _____ for a normal individual to become deficient in vitamin B if absorption were to cease abruptly.
A)days
B)weeks
C)months
D)years
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) On average _____ square feet of the respiratory membrane is lost each year after age 30.
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
Q2) In _____, the alveolar walls break down, adjacent alveoli fuse, and the lungs lose their elasticity.
A)atelectasis
B)COPD
C)emphysema
D)pleuritis
Q3) The most common treatment for _____ is anticoagulants.
A)CF
B)COPD
C)NSCLC
D)PE
Q4) Air enters the nasal and oral cavity, passes through the pharynx, and down the larynx to the _____.
Q5) _____ is inflammation of the mucous membrane lining of the sinuses.
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Irritable bowel syndrome is also known as _____ colon.
Q2) About 50% of older adults develop diverticulosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ is secreted by the liver and stored in the gallbladder.
A)Bile
B)Chyme
C)GERD
D)Varices
Q4) The pain associated with cholecystitis occurs _____.
A)in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen
B)in the lower thoracic cavity
C)midline of the umbilicus
D)under the right rib cage
Q5) _____ is diagnosed by the signs and symptoms as well as a biopsy of the small intestine.
A)Celiac disease
B)Diverticulitis
C)Intussusception
D)Malabsorption syndrome

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Sample Questions
Q1) Kidney stones, called urinary _____, occur in 9% of adults in the United States.
Q2) The functional unit of the kidney is the _____.
A)glomerulus
B)loop of Henle
C)nephron
D)renal pelvis
Q3) IgA neuropathy is more common in women than in men.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ is inflammation of the kidney.
A)Cystitis
B)Glomerulonephritis
C)Pyelonephritis
D)Urethritis
Q5) Wilm's tumors have a genetic basis.
A)True
B)False
Q6) _____ is inflammation of the urinary bladder.
Q7) Most cases of nephrotic syndrome are due to glomerulonephritis and _____.
Q8) _____ is a condition of urine retention within dilated kidney tubules.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Starting in their _____, women are strongly urged to examine their breasts monthly for signs of cancer.
A)20s
B)30s
C)40s
D)50s
Q2) The tightly coiled _____ are the sperm-producing factories within the testes.
A)epididymis
B)glans penis
C)seminiferous tubules
D)smegma
Q3) A spontaneous abortion, commonly called a _____, is a loss of a fetus before the twentieth week of pregnancy.
Q4) The reproductive cycle averages 1 month and includes the ovarian cycle and menstrual cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Uterine _____ is falling or sliding of the uterus from its normal position into the vaginal canal.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Simple goiter may be caused by a deficiency in _____.
A)carbohydrates
B)iodine
C)magnesium
D)protein
Q2) There are two types of DI: central DI and nephrogenic DI.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hypothyroid of the newborn is known as _____.
Q4) _____ is an enlargement of the thyroid gland.
Q5) _____ is a result of hypersecretion of GH in children.
Q6) The classic signs of _____ include fat accumulation behind the shoulders, known as a buffalo hump, and a round "moon-shaped" face.
A)Addison's disease
B)Cushing's syndrome
C)hypergonadism
D)myxedema
Q7) Hyperadrenalism can be due to an overproduction of cortison, known as _____ syndrome.
Q8) ADH, also known as _____, stimulates water absorption in the kidneys.
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Q1) Bell's palsy is a paralysis of facial muscles caused by _____ of the facial nerve.
A)demyelination
B)hemorrhage
C)infection
D)inflammation
Q2) _____ is an acute inflammation of the first two meninges that cover the brain and spinal cord.
Q3) _____ palsy is a congenital disorder characterized by impaired muscle movement, tone, and posture.
Q4) Falls are the leading cause of traumatic brain injury.
A)True
B)False
Q5) As a child born with cerebral palsy gets older, the disorder continues to progress with increasing muscle rigidity.
A)True
B)False
Q6) _____ is a condition of acute muscle rigidity caused by a bacterial nerve toxin.
Q7) _____ disease is the most common form of dementia.
Q8) An _____ is a diagnostic tool that records the brain's electrical activity. Page 15
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vitamin supplementation may help slow _____, but should only be done under a doctor's supervision.
A)cataracts
B)cerumen impaction
C)dry macular degeneration
D)glaucoma
Q2) _____ is a condition of increased pressure within the eye.
Q3) Retinal detachment is an emergency condition in which the retina pulls away from the front of the eyeball.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Retinoblastoma is a rare, _____ tumor of the retina.
A)dominantly inherited adult
B)dominantly inherited childhood
C)recessively inherited adult
D)recessively inherited childhood
Q5) Viral conjunctivitis cannot be treated.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The middle ear begins at the _____ membrane (eardrum).
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ disorders are the most common class of mental disorders present in the population.
A)Anxiety
B)Attention-deficit
C)Bipolar
D)Personality
Q2) A deeply ingrained, inflexible pattern of relating, perceiving, and thinking that is serious enough to cause distress or impaired functioning describes _____ disorders.
A)anxiety
B)attention-deficit
C)bipolar
D)personality
Q3) _____ is seeing or hearing things that are not there.
A)Delusions
B)Hallucinations
C)Mania
D)Psychosis
Q4) _____ distorts the way a person thinks, acts, expresses emotions, perceives reality, and relates to others.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kyphosis first occurs in adulthood and becomes quite noticeable in the elderly.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Carpal tunnel syndrome is one of a larger class of problems known as _____.
A)muscular autoimmune diseases
B)repetitive motion injuries
C)repetitive strain injuries
D)skeletal autoimmune diseases
Q3) _____ is used to visualize the inside of a joint cavity, such as the knee.
Q4) One type of bone tissue is _____ bone, which contains many bone marrow-filled spaces.
Q5) _____percent of those affected by osteoporosis are women.
A)Twenty
B)Forty
C)Sixty
D)Eighty
Q6) Tuberculosis of the bone is rare and associated with untreated pulmonary tuberculosis.
A)True
B)False

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111 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is a loss of melanin resulting in white patches of skin.
Q2) Skin cancer is the most common of all cancers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The skin is the largest organ of the human body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____-degree burns affect the epidermis and portions of the dermis.
A)First
B)Second
C)Third
D)Fourth
Q5) Herpes complex (HSV-2)is the etiological agent of skin infections known as cold sores or fever blisters.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In _____-degree burns, the burned area itself will not be painful.
Q7) _____, also called boils, are a deeper infection of the hair follicle.
Q8) _____, or ringworm, is a superficial fungal infection of the skin or nail. Page 21
Q9) _____ is an infestation of lice, external parasites that feed on blood.
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