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Nursing Fundamentals introduces students to the essential principles, concepts, and skills that form the foundation of professional nursing practice. The course covers the history and scope of nursing, the nursing process, patient safety, communication, infection control, and legal and ethical considerations. Students will learn about holistic patient care, including physical, emotional, cultural, and spiritual needs, while developing basic clinical skills such as vital sign measurement, hygiene, mobility assistance, and documentation. Through classroom learning and hands-on practice, this course prepares students to deliver safe, compassionate, and evidence-based care in a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology An Integrative Approach 2nd Edition by McKinley
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3928 Verified Questions
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128 Verified Questions
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Q1) The life characteristic of reproduction may be interpreted at both the cellular and organismal levels.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Fortunately for science,there is but one single property that defines life.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) ______ anatomy examines both superficial anatomic markings and internal body structures as they relate to the skin covering them.
A)Regional
B)Surface
C)Radiographic
D)Surgical
E)Systemic
Answer: B
Q4) The antecubital region is ______ to the brachial region.
Answer: distal
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Q1) A molecule with polar and nonpolar parts that only partially dissolves in water is described as __________.
Answer: amphipathic
Q2) An atom with a positive or negative charge is known as a(n)________.
Answer: ion
Q3) The hydrogen bonds in a sample of water result in ________ cohesion and a _____ heat of vaporization.
A)increased;high
B)increased;low
C)decreased;high
D)decreased;low
Answer: A
Q4) When elements found in column VIA of the periodic table become ions,they usually have a charge of A)-2. B)-1. C)+1. D)+2. E)+3.
Answer: A

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Sample Questions
Q1) If oxygen is in short supply,the activity of the electron transport chain increases in order to compensate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Pyruvate dehydrogenase is a multienzyme complex that brings together a molecule of pyruvate and a molecule of coenzyme A.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The term "activation energy" refers to the amount of energy
A)released by an exergonic reaction.
B)released by an endergonic reaction.
C)released by a catabolic reaction.
D)required to initiate any chemical reaction.
E)required to initiate only catabolic reactions.
Answer: D
Q4) The reaction by which lactate is formed from pyruvate is catalyzed by lactate
Answer: dehydrogenase
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Q1) The term "codon" refers to
A)a three-nucleotide sequence of DNA that codes for a protein.
B)an amino acid that is coded for by three bases of DNA.
C)a three-base sequence of mRNA.
D)the part of a rRNA molecule where a new amino acid is added.
E)the part of tRNA that is a triplet of bases that forms hydrogen bonds with complementary sequences.
Q2) Lysosomes contain enzymes that prepare the vesicles that will be used by the Golgi apparatus to package its secretory products.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The last part of interphase is called
A)the first "gap" phase.
B)the second "gap" phase.
C)telophase.
D)the S phase.
E)anaphase.
Q4) _________ are barrel-shaped,protein-digesting organelles in both the nucleus and the cytoplasm.
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Q1) In this image showing connective tissue components,what structure does number 2 indicate
A)Mesenchymal cell
B)Fibroblast
C)Adipocyte
D)Macrophage
E)Extracellular matrix
Q2) The type of tissue that helps mechanically mix materials within the digestive system organs is ________ muscle.or or
Q3) The epithelial linings of the respiratory and digestive systems develop from the A)ectoderm.
B)endoderm.
C)mesoderm.
D)lumenoderm.
Q4) Fibronectin is an example of a(n)
A)adherent glycoprotein.
B)glycosaminoglycan.
C)proteoglycan.
Q5) Describe three functions of connective tissue and provide an example for each.
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Q1) The epidermis derives from A)mesoderm.
B)ectoderm.
C)mesenchyme.
D)granulation tissue.
Q2) In order to retain heat,what occurs in the skin on a cold day
A)Blood vessels of the dermis constrict.
B)Blood vessels of the dermis dilate.
C)Blood vessels of the epidermis constrict.
D)Blood vessels of the epidermis dilate.
Q3) When the body is too warm,dermal blood vessels will undergo _______ in order to increase heat loss.or
Q4) Blood capillaries that supply nourishment for the epidermis are located in the A)dermal papillae.
B)epidermal ridges.
C)reticular connective tissue.
D)epidermis proper.
E)subcutaneous layer.
Q5) The police science of fingerprinting takes advantage of the unique pattern of ________ ridges found on human fingers,toes,palms,and soles.
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Q1) Further lengthwise bone growth cannot occur once the epiphyseal lines have formed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bone is considered an important storage reservoir for
A)calcium,phosphate,and lipids.
B)steroids,proteins,and complex carbohydrates.
C)glycogen,nitrogenous bases,and calcium.
D)phosphate,glycogen,and nonpolar amino acids.
E)calcium,complex carbohydrates,and polar amino acids.
Q3) The flat bones of the cranium form by intramembranous ossification.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Endochondral ossification is a form of bone growth in which a cartilaginous model is replaced by bone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells;osteoclasts are bone-dissolving cells.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The _________ process of the mandible articulates with the temporal bone.
A)alveolar
B)condylar
C)mastoid
D)temporal
E)coronoid
Q2) Which bone bears the infraorbital foramen
A)Frontal
B)Temporal
C)Mandible
D)Maxilla
E)Zygomatic
Q3) The palm of the hand is formed by the _________ bones.
Q4) What are you resting your hands on when you rest them on your hips,just below the waist
A)Iliac crests
B)Superior gluteal lines
C)Ischial spines
D)Ischial tuberosities
E)Arcuate lines
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Q1) When the arm is raised anteriorly,the movement at the shoulder is A)extension.
B)flexion.
C)abduction.
D)adduction.
E)rotation.
Q2) At the knee,the articular capsule encloses only the medial,lateral,and anterior regions of the joint.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When considering joints in the human body,the most common lever type is the A)first-class lever.
B)second-class lever.
C)third-class lever.
Q4) These figures show the coxal joint.What structure does number 6 indicate
A)Ischiofemoral ligament
B)Iliofemoral ligament
C)Articular capsule
D)Ligament of head of femur
E)Acetabular ligament
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Q1) During aging,muscle is often replaced by dense connective tissue,a process called
Q2) Cardiac muscle cells tend to be thicker and shorter than skeletal muscle cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The multiple nuclei in skeletal muscle cells are the result of the A)fusion of myoblasts.
B)cytokinesis of embryonic satellite cells.
C)spontaneous development of nuclei in embryonic cells.
D)stimulation of fibroblasts by hormones.
E)action of testosterone on mesenchyme cell.
Q4) When tension output exceeds resistance and the muscle exerts a constant force as it changes length,the contraction is described as _________.
Q5) Energy requirements for smooth muscle contractions are generally higher than those for skeletal muscle contractions.
A)True
B)False
Q6) On a muscle fiber,the two terminal cisternae and the centrally placed T-tubule form a structure called a ______________.
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Q1) What muscle is known as the "swimmer's muscle"
A)Deltoid
B)Latissimus dorsi
C)Trapezius
D)Coracobrachialis
E)Triceps brachii
Q2) Which is the longest muscle of the body
A)Sartorius
B)Gracilis
C)Quadriceps femoris
D)Biceps brachii
E)Brachioradialis
Q3) This figure shows superficial and deep arm muscles.What muscle does number 2 indicate
A)Biceps brachii
B)Brachialis
C)Coracobrachialis
D)Brachioradialis
E)Triceps brachii
Q4) The _________ of a muscle is its less movable attachment.
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Q1) A neuron conducting an impulse from the stomach wall to the CNS would be classified as a(n)__________ neuron.
A)autonomic motor
B)somatic sensory
C)somatic motor
D)visceral sensory
Q2) In a myelinated axon,the greatest concentration of voltage-gated ion channels is in the
A)myelinated regions.
B)neurofibril nodes.
Q3) The glial cell that myelinates and insulates axons in the peripheral nervous system is the
A)astrocyte.
B)ependymal cell.
C)neurolemmocyte.
D)microglial cell.
E)oligodendrocyte.
Q4) A nerve cell that has dendrites but no axons is categorized as a(n)___________ neuron.
Q5) The axon hillock makes up the ________ segment of a neuron.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most commonly,which cerebral hemisphere is responsible for controlling speech
A)Left
B)Right
Q2) The process by which the notochord induces the formation of the neural tube is known as _________.
Q3) This figure shows a frontal section of the cerebrum.What structure does number 1 indicate
A)Central canal
B)Lateral ventricle
C)Brainstem
D)Corpus callosum
E)Fourth ventricle
Q4) The major pathway of communication between the right and left hemispheres is the A)cerebral gyri.
B)cerebral sulci.
C)longitudinal fissure.
D)hypothalamus.
E)corpus callosum.
Q5) The type of glial cell that plays a critical role in the formation of CSF is the _________ cell.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reflexes are described as
A)slow and spontaneous.
B)spontaneous and self-initiating.
C)pre-programmed and voluntary.
D)rapid and involuntary.
Q2) The third cervical spinal nerve exits the vertebral column through the
A)intervertebral foramen between C2 and C3 vertebrae.
B)intervertebral foramen between C3 and C4 vertebrae.
C)transverse foramen of C3 vertebra.
D)vertebral canal of vertebrae C2,C3,and C4.
Q3) The fasciculus cuneatus is part of the
A)anterolateral pathway.
B)spinocerebellar pathway.
C)posterior funiculus--medial lemniscal pathway.
D)lateral spinothalamic tract.
E)fasciculus gracilis.
Q4) Axons of the anterior corticospinal tracts decussate in the medulla.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A specific segment of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve is a ___________.
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Q1) Postganglionic sympathetic axons are carried from the sympathetic trunk to the spinal nerve by the
A)white rami communicantes.
B)superior cervical ganglion.
C)gray rami communicantes.
D)splanchnic nerves.
E)pterygopalatine ganglion.
Q2) The circuitry of the autonomic system allows for control in activation.The characteristic that allows a small number of preganglionic cells to stimulate a large number of postganglionic cells is A)convergence.
B)reverberation.
C)divergence.
D)reciprocal innervation.
Q3) Neuronal divergence occurs when axons from one preganglionic cell synapse on numerous ganglionic cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All ANS preganglionic axons release _____________ as their neurotransmitter.
Q5) The axons that release norepinephrine are called _________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of receptor that readily adapts to a stimulus is known as a ________ receptor.
A)phasic
B)tonic
C)transducer
D)multimodal
Q2) There are three types of unencapsulated tactile receptors.Select the exception.
A)Free nerve endings
B)Sebaceous filaments
C)Root hair plexuses
D)Tactile discs
Q3) The part of the cochlea that converts pressure waves (from sounds)into changes in membrane potentials is the A)modiolus.
B)scala tympani.
C)spiral organ.
D)scala vestibuli.
E)helicotrema.
Q4) A receptor that is wrapped in connective tissue is referred to as being __________.Bloom's: Remember
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Q1) The pancreas has both endocrine and exocrine functions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The function of each of the regulatory hormones of the hypothalamus is to trigger the release of a tropic hormone from the pituitary.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is false
A)The pineal gland forms part of the epithalamus.
B)The pineal gland is found within the diencephalon of the brain.
C)The pineal gland secretes melatonin in a cyclical fashion.
D)Melatonin makes us feel alert and awake.
Q4) The pars distalis is part of the adenohypophysis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The thymus gland secretes erythropoietin in response to low blood oxygen.The kidneys secrete erythropoietin in response to low blood oxygen.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In hemopoiesis,granulocytes such as neutrophils are formed from the _________ line.
A)lymphoid
B)myeloid
C)monocyte
D)killer cell
Q2) An individual's hematocrit would vary with A)age.
B)sex.
C)altitude.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Movement of leukocytes between the endothelial blood vessel cells into the body tissues is called _____________.
Q4) The rupture of erythrocytes is called ____________.
Q5) Prostacyclin is an eicosanoid that acts as a A)platelet attractant.
B)platelet repellant.
Q6) Most colony-stimulating factors are growth factors.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In this figure showing an anterior view of the heart,what is depicted by number 7
A)Aortic semilunar valve
B)Right atrium
C)Left ventricle
D)Right atrioventricular valve
E)Pulmonary semilunar valve
Q2) Which correctly describes the heart's apex
A)Projects slightly anteroinferiorly toward the left side of the body
B)Projects slightly anteroinferiorly toward the right side of the body
C)Projects slightly posteroinferiorly toward the left side of the body
D)Projects slightly posteroinferiorly toward the right side of the body
E)Projects slightly posteroinferiorly toward the midline of the body
Q3) As with action potentials in other types of cells,the repolarization of cardiac muscle cells involves the
A)entrance of calcium through voltage-gated channels.
B)exit of potassium through voltage-gated channels.
C)entrance of sodium through voltage-gated channels.
D)binding of ACh to ACh receptor.
E)simultaneous closure of sodium channels and opening of calcium channels.
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Q1) In the figure showing the veins of the lower extremity,which number indicates the great saphenous vein
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Q2) Blood colloid osmotic pressure is largely due to
A)the proteins in the blood,and it promotes reabsorption.
B)the high amount of water in the blood,and it promotes diffusion out of the capillaries.
C)the proteins in the blood,and it promotes filtration.
D)the pressure generated by the heart,and it favors osmosis into the arteriole end of the capillary bed.
E)the high amount of water in the blood,and it promotes filtration from arterioles.
Q3) Give the formula for net filtration pressure;then include typical values (at the arterial end of a capillary bed)for all variables and include units.
Q4) _________________ capillaries have pores within each endothelial cell.
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Q1) Structures that connect lymphatic capillary cells to surrounding tissue and prevent the capillaries from collapsing are called _________ filaments.
Q2) The thymus contains ______ lobes and is located _______.
A)2;anterior to the laryngeal prominence (Adam's apple)
B)2;in the mediastinum
C)4;anterior to the laryngeal prominence (Adam's apple)
D)4;in the mediastinum
Q3) Lymphatic organs
A)contain a complete capsule of dense irregular connective tissue.
B)contain an incomplete capsule of dense irregular connective tissue.
C)lack a connective tissue capsule.
Q4) The hilum of the spleen is part of its
A)concave anteromedial border.
B)concave posterolateral border.
C)convex anteromedial border.
D)convex posterolateral border.
Q5) The walls of lymphatic capillaries are only one cell thick.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Lymph from the head and neck is drained by the _________ trunks.
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Q1) Which type of antigen would have the greatest immunogenicity
A)One that is small,simple,familiar,and abundant
B)One that is small but complex and rare
C)One that is large,complex,foreign,and abundant
D)One that is large but simple and familiar
Q2) Nonspecific immunity is another name for
A)adaptive immunity.
B)innate immunity.
C)cell-mediated immunity.
D)acquired immunity.
Q3) Passive immunity lasts
A)from days to weeks,and involves development of memory cells.
B)from days to weeks,and does not involve development of memory cells.
C)from years to a lifetime,and involves the development of memory cells.
D)from years to a lifetime,and does not involve development of memory cells.
Q4) The constant region of the five classes of immunoglobulins are the same,and their names depend on their variable regions.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which sinus does the number 4 indicate
A)Frontal sinus
B)Maxillary sinus
C)Ethmoidal sinus
D)Sphenoidal sinus
E)Sagittal sinus
Q2) Also known as the pneumotaxic center,this area allows for smooth transitions between inspiration and expiration.
A)Dorsal respiratory group
B)Ventral respiratory group
C)Pontine respiratory center
D)Medullary respiratory center
E)Carotid body
Q3) In general,respiratory zone structures are lined with a thicker mucosa than conducting zone structures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The amount of air left in the lungs even after the most forceful expiration is referred to as the _________ volume.
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Q1) Extensions of the renal cortex that project into the medulla (and subdivide it)are known as the renal __________.
Q2) Which type of distal cell within kidney tubules and collecting ducts are responsive to aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone
A)Type A cells
B)Type B cells
C)Principal cells
D)Intercalated endocrine cells
Q3) Which is not correct regarding the innervation of the kidney
A)Parasympathetic innervation is from the vagus nerve.
B)The kidney is served by the renal plexus.
C)Sympathetic innervation is from segments T10-T12 of the spinal cord.
D)Sympathetic stimulation causes vasoconstriction of the renal blood vessels.
E)Parasympathetic stimulation decreases the rate of filtrate formation.
Q4) The reabsorption of both sodium and potassium is carefully regulated.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Sympathetic fibers inhibit micturition.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Distention of the stomach causes thirst to A)increase.
B)decrease.
Q2) When physiological systems cannot compensate for an acid-base disturbance,and the deviation from normal pH becomes more persistent,it is referred to as an acid-base ________.
Q3) When bicarbonate acts as a weak base and accepts a proton,the molecule ________ acid is formed.
Q4) An individual who consumes many antacids for stomach upset and many diuretics for high blood pressure will be at risk for metabolic A)acidosis.
B)alkalosis.
Q5) When bicarbonate levels fall due to an accumulation of fixed acids in the body,the result is
A)metabolic acidosis.
B)metabolic alkalosis.
C)insufficient respiration.
D)respiratory acidosis.
E)respiratory alkalosis.
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Q1) The term "retroperitoneal" may be used to describe the location of certain abdominal organs.This means that such organs are located
A)between the visceral and parietal layers of the peritoneum.
B)posterior to the parietal peritoneum.
C)in the peritoneal cavity.
D)between folds of the parietal peritoneum.
E)deep to the visceral peritoneum.
Q2) What is the primary function of the large intestine
A)Storage of vitamins and minerals
B)Protein digestion and nutrient absorption
C)Water and electrolyte absorption
D)Secretion of water,salts,sodium bicarbonate,and enzymes
Q3) Which is not a function of the digestive system
A)Absorption
B)Ingestion
C)Secretion
D)Micturition
E)Elimination
Q4) Chewed food mixed with saliva is called a _____________,which is swallowed once mastication is complete.
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Q1) Iron is considered a
A)major mineral,because it has a crucial physiological role.
B)trace mineral,because less than 100 milligrams are required daily in the diet.
C)major mineral,because it is extremely abundant in the Earth.
D)trace mineral,because it is rare on the Earth.
Q2) Vitamin C is a
A)fat-soluble,essential vitamin.
B)fat-soluble,nonessential vitamin.
C)water-soluble,essential vitamin.
D)water-soluble,nonessential vitamin.
Q3) Recommended daily allowances established by the Food and Nutrition Board are based on
A)individual needs and factor in sex,age,and body mass.
B)averages obtained from population studies.
Q4) Proteins that supply all of our essential amino acids are described as ________ proteins.
Q5) A water-filled chamber into which someone is placed in order to measure her basal metabolic rate is called a __________.
Q6) Removal of the amine group from amino acids is a process that occurs in the liver known as ___________.
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Q1) During the resolution phase,the central artery of the penis decreases in diameter.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The stages that appear during spermatogenesis are
A: spermatid
B: primary spermatocyte
C: spermatogonium
D: spermatozoon
E: secondary spermatocyte
What is the correct order of appearance of these stages
A)b,e,c,d,a
B)c,e,d,a,b
C)c,b,e,a,d
D)a,c,b,e,d
E)d,b,c,e,a
Q3) The channels that convey milk from the mammary glands to the nipples are called __________ ducts.
Q4) During fetal development,the vagina forms from the _________ sinus.
Q5) The anterior pituitary hormone that facilitates milk production is _________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The outermost extraembryonic membrane that eventually helps form the placenta is the A)amnion.
B)chorion.
C)yolk sac.
D)hypoblast.
Q2) Consider a mother with normal vision who has a son with red-green color blindness.The mother was a "carrier" of the affected gene,as she had a normal phenotype but
A)two recessive alleles.
B)two dominant alleles.
C)one dominant and one recessive allele.
D)a codominant set of alleles.
E)an incompletely penetrating genotype.
Q3) Sickle-cell disease exhibits strict dominant-recessive inheritance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During fertilization,the nuclei of the sperm and the ovum are referred to as _________,before they come together and fuse to form a single nucleus.
Q5) The germ layer between the ectoderm and the endoderm is the __________.
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