Nursing Fundamentals Exam
Bank
Course Introduction
Nursing Fundamentals introduces students to the basic principles and concepts essential for nursing practice. This course covers foundational topics such as the nursing process, patient care techniques, safety, infection control, communication, and legal and ethical considerations in nursing. Emphasis is placed on developing critical thinking, clinical reasoning, and basic technical skills necessary for providing safe and effective care to diverse patient populations. Through a combination of theory, laboratory, and clinical experiences, students gain confidence and competence in the core responsibilities of entry-level nursing professionals.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology An Integrative Approach 2nd Edition by McKinley
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29 Chapters
3928 Verified Questions
3928 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Sciences of Anatomy and Physiology
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128 Verified Questions
128 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The body system that provides support and protection as well as being a site of blood cell production (hemopoiesis)is the ____________ system.
A)skeletal
B)muscular
C)cardiovascular
D)respiratory
E)lymphatic
Answer: A
Q2) The urinary system filters the blood,concentrates waste products,and removes waste products from the body.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The mediastinum is within the ventral cavity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The hypogastric region is located ______ to the right iliac region. Answer: medial
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Chapter 2: Atoms,Ions,and Molecules
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128 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared to a solution with a pH of 7,a solution with a pH of 4 is
A)more acidic and has a 1,000-fold increase in [H<sup>+</sup>].
B)more acidic and has a 300-fold increase in [H<sup>+</sup>].
C)more basic and has a 1,000-fold increase in [H<sup>+</sup>].
D)more basic and has a 300-fold increase in [H<sup>+</sup>].
E)more basic and has a 300-fold decrease in [H<sup>+</sup>].
Answer: A
Q2) When two atoms with very different electronegativity share electrons a polar covalent bond is formed.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) To neutralize a base,a(n)________ must be added.
A)acid
B)buffer
C)weak base
D)hydroxide ion
Answer: A
Q4) An atom with a positive or negative charge is known as a(n)________.
Answer: ion
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Chapter 3: Energy,Chemical Reactions,and Cellular
Respiration
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125 Verified Questions
125 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) At rest,muscle tissue prefers to use _________ molecules as sources of fuel.
A)pyruvate
B)fatty acid
C)insulin
D)protein
E)simple carbohydrate
Answer: B
Q2) Which stage of cellular respiration is catalyzed by pyruvate dehydrogenase
A)Electron transport system
B)Intermediate stage
C)Citric acid cycle
D)Glycolysis
E)Fermentation to lactate
Answer: B
Q3) The region of an enzyme into which the substrate fits is a
A)one-size-fits-all active site.
B)highly specific active site.
C)highly specific antibody.
D)one-size-fits-all antibody.
Answer: B
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Biology of the Cell
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151 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When ligands bind to them,___________ receptors directly phosphorylate enzymes within the cell.
A)enzymatic
B)channel-linked
C)G protein-coupled
D)phosphatase
Q2) The term used to describe the fluid within a cell is _______________,or intracellular fluid.
Q3) Which choice describes the activation steps of a G protein-coupled receptor properly (and in correct order)
A)Ligand binds to receptor,G protein activated,effector protein activated,second messenger made available
B)Ligand binds to receptor,second messenger activated,G protein turned on,protein kinase activated
C)Protein kinase activated,ion channel opened,ions enter and activate second messenger,G protein turned on
D)Ion channel opened,G protein activated,second messenger synthesized,phosphatase ends signal
Q4) The two identical cells that arise from mitosis are called ____________ cells.
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Chapter 5: Tissue Organization
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111 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) With age,connective tissues
A)become more flexible.
B)become thinner.
C)lose their blood supply.
D)lose their pliability and resiliency.
E)increase in mass.
Q2) Groups of similar cells and extracellular products that carry out a common function are called A)organs.
B)organ systems.
C)matrices.
D)tissues.
Q3) In this image showing connective tissue components,what structure does number 1 indicate
A)Mesenchymal cell
B)Fibroblast
C)Adipocyte
D)Macrophage
E)Extracellular matrix
Q4) The term used to describe tissue death is _________.
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thick skin contains
A)seven epidermal strata and lacks sweat glands.
B)five epidermal strata and lacks sweat glands.
C)four epidermal strata and lacks sebaceous glands.
D)six epidermal strata and lacks sweat glands.
E)five epidermal strata and lacks sebaceous glands.
Q2) Where on the human body is the hair thick enough to retain heat
A)Beard
B)Axillary region
C)Nose
D)Pubic region
E)Scalp
Q3) Which structure is indicated by number 1
A)Eponychium
B)Hyponychium
C)Free edge
D)Cuticle
E)Nail fold
Q4) ________ glands are modified sweat glands located only in the external ear canal.
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System: Bone Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osteons run perpendicular to the diaphysis of a long bone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The bones of the fingers and toes (phalanges)are categorized as _____ bones.
A)long
B)irregular
C)short
D)flat
E)sesamoid
Q3) Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells;osteoclasts are bone-dissolving cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Consider the classifications of bone,and examples of each.Which classification comprises bones used primarily for movement rather than protection
A)Short bones
B)Long bones
C)Flat bones
D)Irregular bones
E)Regular bones
Q5) Chondrocytes occupy spaces in the matrix called _________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Skeletal System: Axial and Appendicular
Skeleton
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194 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vertebral processes that are most easily palpated along the midline of the back are the _____ processes.
A)transverse
B)inferior articular
C)superior articular
D)lamellar
E)spinous
Q2) Which bone is unpaired
A)Lacrimal
B)Vomer
C)Inferior nasal concha
D)Palatine
E)Maxilla
Q3) The pterygoid spines and optic canals are features of the _____ bone.
A)ethmoid
B)temporal
C)sphenoid
D)occipital
E)frontal
Q4) A narrow,slit-like opening through a bone is called a _________.
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Chapter 9: Skeletal System: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not true about synovial joints
A)All articulating bone surfaces are covered with articular cartilage.
B)Synovial joints are enclosed by fibrous articular capsules.
C)Synovial fluid is secreted by the synovial membrane.
D)Ligaments strengthen and reinforce joints.
E)Blood circulates within the joint cavity to nourish the articular cartilage.
Q2) If you move your head in such a way to look up at the ceiling,you are _________ your neck.
A)hyperextending
B)rotating
C)circumducting
D)flexing
E)elevating
Q3) Adduction is an example of an angular motion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When considering joints in the human body,the most common lever type is the
A)first-class lever.
B)second-class lever.
C)third-class lever.
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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153 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Smooth muscle cells tend to be shorter but thicker than skeletal muscle cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is the neurotransmitter that causes the release of calcium ions from reservoirs within the muscle cell and thereby initiates the steps of contraction
A)Acetylcholinesterase
B)Acetylcholine
C)Serotonin
D)Norepinephrine
Q3) A flat,thin structure made of dense connective tissue that serves to attach a muscle to a bone (or to another muscle)is a(n)
A)aponeurosis.
B)tendon.
C)perimysium.
D)myolemma.
E)superficial fascia.
Q4) Lifting weights will cause muscles to enlarge.This is primarily due to A)an increase in the number of muscle cells.
B)an increase in the size of muscle cells.
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Chapter 11: Muscular System: Axial and Appendicular
Muscles
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183 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) These muscles elevate the ribs and have their origin on the inferior border of the superior rib and their insertion on the superior border of the inferior rib.
A)Internal intercostals
B)External intercostals
C)Transversus thoracis
D)Diaphragm
E)Serratus posterior inferior
Q2) Which extrinsic eye muscle is innervated by the abducens nerve (CN VI)
A)Inferior oblique
B)Superior oblique
C)Lateral rectus
D)Medial rectus
E)Superior rectus
Q3) The superficial layer of the urogenital triangle contains three muscles.Select the exception.
A)Puborectalis
B)Bulbospongiosus
C)Ischiocavernosus
D)Superficial transverse perineal
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Chapter 12: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue
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158 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Typically,a multipolar neuron has many dendrites and one axon extending from the cell body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The type of neuronal circuit in which several nerve impulses come together at a single postsynaptic neuron is a _____________ circuit.
A)converging
B)diverging
C)reverberating
D)parallel-after-discharge
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q3) As it moves from the tip of a dendrite to the axon hillock,a postsynaptic potential will maintain a constant amplitude.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Along an axon,the gaps between neurolemmocytes are called neurofibril
Q5) The spinal cord is part of the central nervous system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Nervous System: Brain and Cranial Nerves
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148 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Brain activity is decreased during sleep.In fact,the brainstem typically shows no activity at all.The brainstem is responsible for many vital body functions,and therefore its activities continue during sleep.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The cranial nerve responsible for movement of the medial rectus,superior rectus,inferior rectus,and inferior oblique muscles is the __________ nerve.
A)oculomotor
B)trochlear
C)abducens
D)trigeminal
E)hypoglossal
Q3) The mesencephalic (cerebral)aqueduct carries CSF from the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A memory that has lasted over a weekend is described as a
A)short-term memory.
B)long-term memory.
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Chapter 14: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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130 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some motor pathways originate in the cerebellum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) This figure shows neuron pathways and nuclei locations.What type of nuclei does number 2 indicate
A)Somatic motor nuclei
B)Autonomic motor nuclei
C)Visceral sensory nuclei
D)Somatic sensory nuclei
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q3) The largest and longest nerve in the body is the _________ nerve.
A)femoral
B)radial
C)sciatic
D)obturator
E)saphenous
Q4) The obturator nerve innervates muscles of the lateral thigh.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A specific segment of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve is a ___________.
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Chapter 15: Nervous System: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autonomic tone allows for a single division of the autonomic nervous system to control an organ by changing that division's activity levels up or down from baseline.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The second neuron in an autonomic pathway is called a _________ neuron.
Q3) Which system has long preganglionic axons and therefore ganglia that are relatively far from the central nervous system
A)Parasympathetic nervous system
B)Somatic nervous system
C)Sympathetic nervous system
Q4) The superior mesenteric ganglion receives preganglionic sympathetic neurons from the _______ segments of the spinal cord.
A)T1-T4
B)T2-T6
C)T5-T9
D)T7-T9
E)T10-T12
Q5) The axons that release norepinephrine are called _________.
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Chapter 16: Nervous System: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) When light strikes rhodopsin,the retinal is converted
A)from cis to trans,and retinal and opsin combine.
B)from cis to trans,and retinal and opsin disassociate.
C)from trans to cis,and retinal and opsin combine.
D)from trans to cis,and retinal and opsin disassociate.
Q2) The olfactory tracts project
A)directly to the primary olfactory cortex of the temporal lobe of the cerebrum.
B)directly to the primary olfactory cortex of the frontal lobe of the cerebrum.
C)to the thalamus and then to the primary olfactory cortex of the temporal lobe of the cerebrum.
D)to the thalamus and then to the primary olfactory cortex of the frontal lobe of the cerebrum.
Q3) Where is the greatest concentration of cones located
A)In the optic disc
B)In the ora serrata
C)In the fovea centralis
D)In the posterior retina
E)In the optic nerve
Q4) In the olfactory epithelium,______ cells act as stem cells to continually replace olfactory neurons.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of each of the regulatory hormones of the hypothalamus is to trigger the release of a tropic hormone from the pituitary.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pancreas is located ________ to the stomach,and it lies between the duodenum and the ________.
A)anterior,liver
B)anterior,spleen
C)posterior,liver
D)posterior,spleen
Q3) Somatostatin suppresses the release of pancreatic polypeptide.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which lobe of the pituitary is larger and secretes more hormones
A)Anterior pituitary
B)Posterior pituitary
Q5) Generally,there are two main factors that determine the levels of a hormone in the blood.Explain what those factors are and provide examples of how they might increase or decrease a hormone's level.
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Chapter 18: Cardiovascular System: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which leukocytes are derived from the myeloid line
A)Neutrophils
B)Basophils and eosinophils
C)Lymphocytes and monocytes
D)Lymphocytes
E)Neutrophils,basophils,eosinophils,and monocytes
Q2) Erythrocytes exhibit a limited lifespan due to their inability to synthesize the proteins necessary to repair themselves.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fibrin,which is produced from the plasma protein _______________,helps form blood clots.
Q4) The GM-CSF growth factor accelerates the formation of all granulocytes and monocytes from their progenitor cells.
A)True B)False
Q5) _______________ is a growth factor that stimulates both the production of megakaryocytes in the bone marrow and the subsequent formation of platelets.
Q6) The percentage of volume of red blood cells is called the _______________.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Cardiovascular System: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) This artery is sometimes referred to as the "widowmaker" because blockage of it often leads to fatal heart attack.It serves the front of the heart and is more formally called the (2 words)_________ __________ artery.or
Q2) An autorhythmic heart cell is one in which
A)action potentials fire spontaneoulsy.
B)action potentials are stimulated by internal stores of acetylcholine.
C)action potentials always occur at exactly the same frequency.
D)all filaments contract and relax with a high degree of synchrony.
E)action potentials are initiated by the autonomic nervous system.
Q3) Coronary vessels are open when the heart is
A)contracting.
B)relaxed.
Q4) All of the heart's sulci house blood vessels that supply the myocardium.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Atrial contraction occurs just before
A)isovolumetric relaxation.
B)atrial relaxation and ventricular filling.
C)ventricular ejection.
D)isovolumetric contraction.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Cardiovascular System: Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) _________________ capillaries have pores within each endothelial cell.
Q2) Increased cardiac output ______ the blood pressure.
A)decreases
B)increases
C)will not affect
Q3) The vessels that supply the lower limbs are the
A)common carotids.
B)internal iliac arteries.
C)subclavian arteries
D)external iliac arteries.
E)vertebral arteries.
Q4) To prevent excessive blood loss following tissue damage,local chemicals such as
A)bradykinins are released to trigger vasoconstriction.
B)nitric oxides are released to trigger vasoconstriction.
C)thromboxanes are released to trigger vasoconstriction.
D)prostaglandins are released to trigger vasodilation.
E)vasopressins are released to trigger vasodilation.
Q5) The azygos vein is located on the left side of the vertebrae.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although they are not a site of lymphocyte formation,_________ lymphatic structures provide sites where immune responses are initiated.2-21-2013
A)hemopoietic
B)primary
C)red marrow
D)secondary
Q2) The path that fluid takes as it enters a lymphatic capillary is through A)pores (fenestrations)in the cells of the capillary wall.
B)cell membrane leakage channels that allow diffusion.
C)vesicles that move the fluid across the cell (transcytosis).
D)spaces between capillary endothelial cells that are arranged as one-way flaps.
E)active transport protein pumps on endothelial cell membranes.
Q3) Which is not correct regarding lymph nodes
3-14-2013
A)They contain strands of lymphatic cells supported by medullary cords.
B)They are drained by efferent lymphatic vessels.
C)They contain macrophages.
D)They filter lymph.
E)No exceptions;all are true of lymph nodes.
Q4) Lymph from the head and neck is drained by the _________ trunks.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Immune System and the Bodys Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) As T-lymphocytes leave the thymus,they are
A)naive and not yet competent.
B)naive and immunocompetent.
C)activated but not yet competent.
D)activated and immunocompetent.
Q2) An immunoglobulin is a(n)
A)antibody,which is a white blood cell.
B)antibody,which is a protein molecule.
C)lymphocyte,which is a white blood cell.
D)lymphocyte,which is a protein molecule.
E)antigen,which is a cell receptor.
Q3) MHC class I molecules present peptide fragments that are either "self" or "nonself";in either case,the fragment becomes bound to the molecule while A)in the Golgi apparatus.
B)in the cytosol.
C)in a secretory vesicle.
D)in the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
Q4) Acquired immunity is a system in which lymphocytes respond to particular antigens they encounter during a lifetime.Another name for acquired immunity is _________ immunity.
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Chapter 23: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When someone exercises vigorously,their breathing is described as demonstrating
A)hyperpnea,involving deeper but not faster breathing.
B)hyperventilation,involving both deeper and faster breathing.
C)bradypnea,involving deeper and slower breathing.
D)hypopnea,involving shallower but faster breathing.
Q2) When central chemoreceptors detect a drop in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid,
A)medullary respiratory centers trigger an increase in rate and depth of breathing.
B)medullary respiratory centers trigger a decrease in rate and depth of breathing.
C)pontine respiratory centers trigger a decrease in rate and depth of breathing.
D)the vagus and phrenic nerves stimulate decreased production of the catalyst carbonic anhydrase.
Q3) The main function of serous fluid is to
A)lubricate and reduce friction between pleural membranes around the lung.
B)improve adhesion of the lungs to the thoracic wall.
C)facilitate the diffusion of oxygen across the respiratory membrane.
Q4) The bronchial circulation is a component of the pulmonary circulation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which layer is not found in the wall of the urinary bladder
A)Adventitia
B)Muscularis
C)Mucosa
D)Submucosa
E)No exceptions;all layers are found in the wall of the urinary bladder
Q2) For glucose to be reabsorbed from the tubule lumen,it is transported into the tubule cell by means of a A)glucose uniporter.
B)Na<sup>+</sup>/glucose symporter.
C)glucose protein channel.
D)Na<sup>+</sup>/glucose antiporter.
Q3) The muscularis layer of the urinary bladder is commonly called the _____ muscle.
A)detrusor
B)trigone
C)extrusor
D)extrinsic
Q4) The hormone atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)causes an increase in GFR.
A)True
B)False
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Fluid and Electrolytes
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a strong acid were to add H<sup>+</sup>to the intracellular fluid,the effect would most likely be buffered,because
A)HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>would act as a weak acid and donate an H<sup>+</sup>to become PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>.
B)HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>would act as a weak base and accept an H<sup>+</sup>to become H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>.
C)H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>would act as a weak acid and accept an H<sup>+</sup>to become H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>.
D)PO<sub>4</sub>would act as a strong base and accept an H<sup>+</sup>to become HPO<sub>4</sub>.
Q2) Diabetes mellitus,profuse sweating,and hyposecretion of ADH can each lead to A)volume excess.
B)dehydration.
C)hypotonic plasma.
D)overhydration.
Q3) An elevated level of potassium in the blood is referred to as __________.
Q4) When bicarbonate acts as a weak base and accepts a proton,the molecule ________ acid is formed.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The transverse colon is part of the upper gastrointestinal tract.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The largest salivary gland is the ________ gland,and its duct opens near the second upper molar.
Q3) The presence of food in the stomach triggers the release of a hormone that stimulates contraction of the pyloric sphincter.Specifically,these events involve release of
A)secretin in the cephalic phase of digestion.
B)gastrin in the gastric phase of digestion.
C)CCK in the intestinal phase of digestion.
D)lipase in the intestinal phase of digestion.
E)chyle in the secretory phase of digestion
Q4) Maltase is a brush border enzyme of the small intestine that digests the sugar maltose.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The sinusoids of the liver are lined by phagocytic reticuloendothelial cells,also called ___________ cells.
Q6) The process of swallowing is also called _____________.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect does glucagon have on protein metabolism
A)It directly stimulates catabolism of proteins.
B)It stimulates the buildup of proteins from amino acids.
C)It increases absorption of amino acids in the intestine.
D)It has no effect on body proteins.
Q2) At the middle of a liver lobule is a central
A)artery.
B)arteriole.
C)vein.
D)sinusoidal capillary.
E)biliary ductule.
Q3) One of the products of tryglyceride breakdown is glycerol;glycerol enters the cellular respiration pathway by being converted to glucose (in the liver)and then undergoing glycolysis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Recommended daily allowances established by the Food and Nutrition Board are based on
A)individual needs and factor in sex,age,and body mass.
B)averages obtained from population studies.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Reproductive System
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146 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Puberty is initiated when a region of the brain begins secreting A)luteinizing hormone.
B)estrogen or testosterone.
C)follicle-stimulating hormone.
D)gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
E)androgens.
Q2) How many secondary oocytes ultimately develop from each primary oocyte
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Q3) Ovulation occurs when an oocyte is released from a ruptured _____ follicle. A)secondary
B)primary
C)mature
D)primordial
E)oogonial
Q4) The ______________ is a comma-shaped structure that lies on the surface of the testis,and includes a head,body,and tail.
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Chapter 29: Development,Pregnancy,and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) During pregnancy,a woman's areolae and nipples become darker under the influence of
A)melanin from the pineal gland.
B)vasopressin from the posterior pituitary gland.
C)melanocyte-stimulating hormone from the placenta.
D)estrogen and progesterone from the ovary.
Q2) In pregnant women,the high levels of estrogen and progesterone secretion seem to lead to
A)stronger nails and fuller hair.
B)weaker nails and thinner hair.
Q3) After childbirth,lochia lasts for
A)3-4 days.
B)2-3 weeks.
C)3-5 months.
Q4) In the late stages of pregnancy,estrogen stimulates increased A)release of hCG.
B)secretion of atrial natriuretic factor by the heart.
C)growth of the corpus luteum.
D)production of oxytocin receptors in the uterus.
Q5) An alternate term for labor is ___________.
Page 31
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