Nursing Fundamentals Exam
Bank
Course Introduction
Nursing Fundamentals introduces students to the foundational principles, skills, and knowledge essential for professional nursing practice. The course covers topics such as basic patient care, the nursing process, communication techniques, safety and infection control, and ethical and legal considerations in healthcare. Emphasizing both theory and practice, students learn how to assess patient needs, provide comfort and hygiene, administer medications, and document care effectively. Through lectures, simulations, and clinical experiences, students gain confidence in performing essential nursing interventions, laying the groundwork for more advanced coursework and clinical roles in the nursing profession.
Recommended Textbook
Goulds Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 5th Edition by VanMeter
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28 Chapters
1204 Verified Questions
1204 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term disease refers to:
A) the period of recovery and return to a normal healthy state.
B) a deviation from the normal state of health and function.
C) the treatment measures used to promote recovery.
D) a basic collection of signs and symptoms.
Answer: B
Q2) Which term is used to describe a new and secondary or additional problem that arises after the original disease has been established?
A) Symptoms
B) Occurrence
C) Manifestations
D) Complication
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Alteration of DNA does not change cell function.
B) Damaged cells may be able to repair themselves.
C) All types of cells die at the same rate.
D) Mild ischemia causes immediate cell death.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alkalosis increases irritability and spontaneous stimulation of nerves by:
A) blocking normal nerve conduction.
B) increasing the permeability of nerve membranes.
C) blocking movement of calcium ions.
D) decreasing phosphate ion levels.
Answer: B
Q2) Hypocalcemia causes weak cardiac contractions because:
A) permeability of nerve membranes increases.
B) insufficient calcium ions are available for muscle contraction.
C) low phosphate ion levels prevent muscle contraction.
D) excessive amounts of calcium are stored in cardiac muscle.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is the primary control of serum Na<sup>+</sup> levels?
A) ADH
B) Aldosterone
C) Serum H<sup>+</sup> levels
D) serum K<sup>+</sup> levels
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other Common Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antagonistic drugs may be used to:
A) increase the effectiveness of selected drugs.
B) prolong the action of a drug.
C) act as an antidote when necessary.
D) speed up the excretion of a drug.
Answer: C
Q2) A medical history should include all:
1) legally prescribed drugs.
2) vitamin or mineral supplements.
3) any medication not requiring a prescription (over-the-counter items).
4) herbal treatments.
A) 1 only
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) The brain is more aware of pain impulses when the reticular activating system is depressed.
B) Acute pain does not cause a reflex response at the spinal cord synapses.
C) Young infants typically respond to pain with tachycardia and increased blood pressure.
D) Chronic pain is easier to tolerate without negative effects.
Q2) Ibuprofen is classified as an NSAID and is particularly useful in treating:
A) severe pain.
B) pain caused by inflammation.
C) intracranial pain.
D) pain in young infants.
Q3) A headache that results from pressure on the meninges surrounding the brain is referred to as a/an:
A) intracranial headache.
B) intrameningeal headache.
C) migraine headache.
D) cerebral headache.
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6
Chapter 5: Inflammation and Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which chemical mediator is involved in prolonging the inflammatory response?
A) Bradykinin
B) Histamine
C) Leukotrienes
D) Chemotactic factors
Q2) Purulent exudates usually contain:
A) small amounts of plasma protein & histamine in water.
B) red blood cells & all types of white blood cells.
C) numerous leukocytes, bacteria, and cell debris.
D) large amounts of water containing a few cells.
Q3) Mechanisms to bring an elevated body temperature down to the normal level include:
A) general cutaneous vasodilation.
B) generalized shivering.
C) increased heart rate.
D) increased metabolic rate.
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Chapter 6: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement applies to yeasts?
A) They are usually considered to be pathogenic.
B) They seldom contain a distinct nucleus.
C) They may cause opportunistic infection in the body.
D) They are normally not found in large numbers in resident flora.
Q2) What does leukocytosis frequently indicate?
A) Immunosuppression
B) Bone marrow damage
C) Presence of bacterial infection
D) An allergic or autoimmune reaction
Q3) What does "bacteremia" refer to?
A) Numerous pathogens circulating and reproducing in the blood
B) Uncontrolled sepsis throughout the body
C) Multiple infections, primary and secondary, established in the body
D) Microbes present in the blood
Q4) Which of the following is a local sign of infection?
A) Fever and leukocytosis
B) Headache and anorexia
C) Pain, erythema, and swelling
D) Nausea, weight loss, and fatigue
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Chapter 7: Immunity
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements applies to the complement system?
A) It is activated by IgE.
B) It blocks the inflammatory response.
C) It consists of proteins in the blood that must be activated.
D) It may destroy antibodies in the circulation.
Q2) A diagnosis of HIV positive means that:
A) the number of T lymphocytes in the circulating blood is decreased.
B) significant opportunistic infection is present in the body.
C) the individual has AIDS.
D) the virus and its antibodies are present in the blood.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a cause of immunodeficiency?
A) Hypoplasia of the thymus
B) Delayed hypersensitivity
C) Immunosuppressive drugs
D) Atrophy of the lymph nodes
Q4) Which of the following are the target cells for HIV?
A) Helper T lymphocytes (CD4 lymphocytes)
B) B lymphocytes
C) Natural killer cells
D) Macrophages
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Skin Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors has contributed to the increased incidence of Kaposi's sarcoma?
A) Excessive sun exposure
B) Increased number of nevi
C) Increase in immunosuppressed individuals
D) Presence of more seborrheic keratoses
Q2) Which of the following statements applies to impetigo?
A) Lesions usually appear on the hands and arms.
B) The cause is usually a virus.
C) The infection is highly contagious.
D) Scar tissue is common following infection.
Q3) Which of the following applies to actinic keratoses?
A) They predispose to malignant melanoma.
B) They arise on skin exposed to ultraviolet radiation.
C) They occur primarily on dark-skinned persons.
D) They are malignant and invasive.
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Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the two types of bone tissue?
A) Vascular and nonvascular
B) Spongy and calcified
C) Compact and cancellous
D) Dense and pliable
Q2) Which of the following describes a Colles' fracture?
A) The distal radius is broken.
B) The distal fibula is broken.
C) A vertebra appears crushed.
D) A spontaneous fracture occurs in weakened bone.
Q3) How does the joint appear during an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Relatively normal
B) Enlarged, firm, crepitus with movement
C) Deformed, pale, and nodular
D) Red, warm, swollen, and tender to touch
Q4) What is the basic pathology of rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Degenerative disorder involving the small joints
B) Chronic inflammatory disorder affecting all joints
C) Systemic inflammatory disorder due to an autoimmune reaction
D) Inflammatory disorder causing damage to many organs
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Blood and Circulatory System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used to describe a deficit of all types of blood cells?
A) Leucopenia
B) Neutropenia
C) Pancytopenia
D) Erythrocytosis
Q2) What causes numbness and tingling in the fingers of individuals with untreated pernicious anemia?
A) Persistent hyperbilirubinemia
B) Increasing acidosis affecting metabolism
C) Vitamin B<sub>12 </sub>deficit causing peripheral nerve demyelination
D) Multiple small vascular occlusions affecting peripheral nerves
Q3) What is the cause of sickle cell anemia?
A) A defective gene inherited from both parents
B) A chronic bacterial infection
C) Bone marrow depression
D) An autoimmune reaction
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Chapter 11: Lymphatic System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic disease of unknown etiology occurring in older adults and involving:
A) plasma cells.
B) T cells.
C) NK cells.
D) monocytes.
Q2) Non-Hodgkin's lymphomas are increasing in incidence, partly due to the numbers associated with:
A) an increase in resistant microorganisms.
B) an increase in adult obesity.
C) an increase in high cholesterol levels.
D) an increase in HIV infections.
Q3) The staging system typically used in determining the stage of the Hodgkin's lymphoma is the:
A) Reed-Sternberg system.
B) sequential staging system.
C) Ann Arbor system.
D) differential landmark system.
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13
Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most likely to cause left-sided congestive heart failure?
A) Incompetent tricuspid heart valve
B) Chronic pulmonary disease
C) Infarction in the right atrium
D) Uncontrolled essential hypertension
Q2) A very rapid heart rate reduces cardiac output because:
A) venous return is increased.
B) ventricular fibrillation develops immediately.
C) conduction through the AV node is impaired.
D) ventricular filling is reduced.
Q3) More extensive permanent damage is likely when a myocardial infarction is caused by:
A) a hemorrhage.
B) an embolus.
C) a thrombus.
D) an arrhythmia.
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14
Chapter 13: Respiratory System Disorders
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103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the pathophysiology of an acute attack of extrinsic asthma?
A) Gradual degeneration and fibrosis
B) Continuous severe attacks unresponsive to medication
C) A hypersensitivity reaction involving release of chemical mediators
D) Hyperresponsive mucosa
Q2) Areas in the United States that show higher rates than the national rate of TB are areas that have a high incidence of:
A) HIV and homelessness.
B) obesity and tobacco use.
C) elderly persons and radon.
D) steroid use and alcoholism.
Q3) In addition to effects on the lungs and pancreas, cystic fibrosis results in:
A) excess bile production.
B) high sodium chloride content in saliva and sweat.
C) gastric ulcers.
D) frequent ear and sinus infections.
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Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors predispose(s) an individual to a CVA?
1) Hypertension
2) Smoking cigarettes
3) History of coronary artery disease
4) Diabetes mellitus
A) 1, 3
B) 1, 2, 4
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which statement best describes herniation resulting from increased intracranial pressure?
A) Movement of brain tissue into ventricles
B) Movement of brain stem upward
C) Pushing of excess CSF and blood down around the spinal cord
D) Displacement of brain tissue downward toward the spinal cord
Q3) How does the heart rate change as intracranial pressure increases?
A) Rate decreases
B) Rate increases
C) No change in rate
D) Irregular heart rate
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Chapter 15: Disorders of the Eye, Ear, and Other Sensory Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The area providing the greatest visual acuity is the:
A) Macula lutea
B) Fovea centralis
C) Optic disc
D) Lens
Q2) Which disorder is manifested by loss of peripheral vision?
A) Retinal detachment
B) Chronic (wide-angle) glaucoma
C) Cataract
D) Macular degeneration
Q3) Which term refers to near-sightedness?
A) Hyperopia
B) Presbyopia
C) Myopia
D) Diplopia
Q4) Why does vertigo occur with Ménière's syndrome?
A) Fluid is lost from the inner ear.
B) Increased blood pressure causes edema in the middle and inner ears.
C) Damage occurs to the vestibular branch of the auditory nerve.
D) Excessive endolymph impairs the function of hair cells in the labyrinth.
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes diabetes insipidus?
A) Increased insulin
B) Decreased glucocorticoids
C) Deficit of ADH
D) Deficit of T<sub>3</sub> and T<sub>4</sub>
Q2) Why does hypocalcemia cause tetany?
A) Skeletal muscle contractions are weaker.
B) Nerves to skeletal muscle are more excitable.
C) Calcium is not stored in skeletal muscle cells.
D) Serum phosphate levels are low.
Q3) What causes loss of consciousness in a person with diabetic ketoacidosis?
A) Toxic effects of excessive insulin
B) Excessive glucose in the blood
C) Metabolic acidosis
D) Lack of glucose in brain cells
Q4) Which of the following conditions may cause immunosuppression?
A) Graves' disease
B) Acromegaly
C) Cushing's disease
D) Diabetes insipidus
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Digestive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) With acute appendicitis, localized pain and tenderness in the lower right quadrant results from:
A) increased peristalsis in the adjacent colon.
B) inflammation and stretching of the appendiceal wall.
C) increased gas and fluid inside the appendix.
D) local inflammation of the parietal peritoneum.
Q2) How may a fistula form with Crohn's disease?
A) Lack of peristalsis, leading to dilated areas of intestine
B) Fibrosis and thickening of the wall, causing obstruction
C) Erosion of the mucosa, causing bleeding
D) Recurrent inflammation, necrosis, and fibrosis, forming a connection between intestinal loops
Q3) Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?
A) Stomach
B) Duodenum
C) Ileum
D) Ascending colon
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19
Chapter 18: Urinary System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The normal pH of urine is:
A) 7.35-7.45.
B) 4.5- 8.0.
C) 1.5-7.5.
D) 1.0-7.0.
Q2) When acidosis becomes decompensated in renal failure, a key indicator is:
A) increased PCO<sub>2</sub>.
B) increased bicarbonate ion.
C) serum pH dropping below 7.35.
D) serum buffer ratio of 20 bicarbonate ions to 1 carbonic acid.
Q3) Which of the following would likely cause chronic renal failure?
A) Cystitis with pyelonephritis in the right kidney
B) Circulatory shock
C) Diabetes
D) Obstruction of a ureter by a renal calculus
Q4) Which of the following is a predisposing factor to bladder cancer?
A) Prostatic cancer
B) Hormonal abnormalities
C) Exposure to chemicals and cigarette smoke
D) Presence of embryonic tissue
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Specific genetic links have been shown for:
1) cervical cancer.
2) testicular cancer.
3) breast cancer.
4) prostatic cancer
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of leukorrhea during the reproductive years?
A) It is clear or whitish.
B) It has a pH of 4 to 5.
C) It does not contain any cells.
D) It contains mucus.
Q3) Testicular cancer usually spreads first to the:
A) lungs.
B) bone.
C) pelvic lymph nodes.
D) brain.
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Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy are:
A) thrombocytopenia and leucopenia.
B) headache and lethargy.
C) nausea and constipation.
D) alopecia and weight loss.
Q2) Remission for cancer is generally defined as a period in which:
A) chemotherapy cannot be used.
B) signs and symptoms are absent.
C) complications are evident.
D) metastases occur.
Q3) Glucocorticoids are often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy and radiation because:
A) glucocorticoids greatly potentiate the effect of chemotherapy.
B) the immune system is stimulated.
C) skeletal muscle atrophy will be decreased.
D) inflammation around the tumor may be reduced.
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Chapter 21: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Developmental disorders can result from all the following EXCEPT:
A) exposure to radiation.
B) mercury in foods and water.
C) drugs and alcohol.
D) folic acid.
Q2) TORCH is an acronym for routine prenatal screening tests for high-risk maternal infections; TORCH stands for:
A) toxoplasmosis, other (hepatitis B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis), rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes.
B) tuberculosis, other (hepatitis B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis), rabies, cytomegalovirus, and HIV.
C) toxoplasmosis, other (hepatitis B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis), rabies, cytomegalovirus, and HIV.
D) tuberculosis, other (hepatitis B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis), rabies, cytomegalovirus, and herpes.
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23
Chapter 22: Complications due to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term primigravida refers to:
A) length of time since the first day of the last menstrual period.
B) a woman who is pregnant for the first time.
C) estimated date of delivery.
D) withdrawal of a small amount of amnionic fluid.
Q2) What is the likely cause of painless, bright red, vaginal bleeding during the last trimester?
A) Ectopic pregnancy
B) Abruptio placentae
C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
D) Placenta previa
Q3) Adolescent pregnancy is often considered high risk because of:
A) inadequate prenatal care.
B) poor nutrition and lack of vitamin supplements.
C) iron deficiency anemia.
D) All of the above
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Chapter 23: Complications due to Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bulimia nervosa is characterized by:
A) a refusal to eat.
B) extreme weight loss.
C) alternating binge eating and purging.
D) chronic diarrhea.
Q2) How is scoliosis identified?
A) Bowed or hunched-over position of head and shoulders
B) Unevenly aligned hips and shoulders
C) A swayback posture
D) One arm and leg shorter than the other
Q3) Acne vulgaris can best be described as an infection involving the:
A) sweat glands of the upper body.
B) dermis and epidermis of the skin.
C) apocrine glands.
D) sebaceous glands and hair follicles.
Q4) Which statement applies to testicular cancer?
A) It often develops in untreated, undescended testes.
B) It is related to chromosome abnormalities such as monosomy X.
C) The tumor presents as a painful red lump in the scrotum.
D) The cancer usually causes sterility.
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Chapter 24: Complications due to Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following changes are associated with aging EXCEPT:
A) loss of elastic fibers.
B) decreased metabolic rate.
C) decreased secretion of all hormones.
D) degenerative vascular changes.
Q2) Which of the following does NOT contribute to the increasing life span of the general population?
A) Reduced cognitive and social activities
B) Improved living conditions
C) Better nutrition
D) Advancements in health care
Q3) With advancing age, the major change in the cardiovascular system involves:
A) irregular impulse conduction in the heart.
B) a reduced number of collagen fibers to support cardiac muscle.
C) vascular degeneration, leading to arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis.
D) the heart valves becoming thin and weak.
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26
Chapter 25: Immobility and Associated Problems
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Q1) The major problem associated with immobility and the gastrointestinal tract is:
A) constipation.
B) diarrhea.
C) nausea.
D) increased rate of peristalsis.
Q2) Prolonged immobility may predispose to ___________ in the kidneys.
A) urinary stasis
B) renal calculi
C) infection
D) All of the above
Q3) Inactive muscle quickly loses strength as it becomes _____________.
A) less elastic.
B) atrophied.
C) contracted.
D) spastic.
Q4) Which of the following frequently causes decubitus ulcers?
A) Infection by resident flora
B) Ischemia at pressure points
C) Normal degenerative changes
D) Allergic reaction to adhesive tape or dressings
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Chapter 26: Stress and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Possible complications caused by prolonged, severe stress include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) hypertension.
B) tension headache.
C) diabetes mellitus.
D) blindness.
Q2) In which of the following situations would the stress response be used to prevent blood pressure from dropping too low?
A) Increasing anger during an argument
B) Writing a final examination
C) Fear about a medical diagnosis
D) Internal hemorrhage from injuries in a car accident
Q3) Which of the following may alter a person's perception of a stressor?
A) The presence of several stressors at the same time
B) Past experiences
C) Lack of effective coping mechanisms
D) A, B, and C
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28
Chapter 27: Substance Abuse and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following applies to abuse of anabolic steroids?
A) They cause CNS depression, deep sleep, and amnesia.
B) They often cause permanent damage to the cardiovascular system.
C) They help to relax skeletal muscle spasms.
D) They help to relieve the pain of athletic injuries.
Q2) Synergism can cause an emergency situation when:
A) antidotes for respiratory depression are given too quickly.
B) a combination of alcohol and drugs has been taken.
C) a large dose of a drug affects the CNS.
D) an individual involuntarily develops a habit.
Q3) Which of the following drugs causes headache and vomiting when an alcoholic ingests small amounts of alcohol?
A) Methadone
B) Diazepam
C) Disulfiram
D) Naloxone
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Chapter 28: Environmental Hazards and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement applies to food poisoning?
1) It results from consuming contaminated food and water.
2) It often causes gastroenteritis, including vomiting and diarrhea.
3) Outbreaks occur frequently in institutions.
4) It is often caused by Escherichia coli, normally found in the stomach.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) Illness in institutions may be traced back to food handlers who:
A) are carriers of pathogens.
B) do not practice adequate hand-washing or sanitization.
C) bring in pathogens from home or the community.
D) A, B, and C
Q3) A common illness for tourists in developing countries is "traveler's diarrhea," often caused by:
A) Salmonella
B) Shigella
C) E. coli
D) Listeria
30
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