Nursing Diagnosis and Management
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of the nursing process, emphasizing the critical role of accurate nursing diagnoses in patient care. Students will learn to gather and analyze patient data, identify health problems, and develop prioritized nursing diagnoses using evidence-based frameworks such as NANDA-I. The course covers the formulation of individualized care plans, the selection of appropriate nursing interventions, and the evaluation of patient outcomes. Through case studies and clinical scenarios, students will develop practical skills in diagnostic reasoning, clinical judgment, and collaborative management to promote optimal health outcomes for diverse patient populations.
Recommended Textbook
Critical Care Nursing Diagnosis and Management 8th Edition by Linda D. Urden
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41 Chapters
1210 Verified Questions
1210 Flashcards
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2
Chapter 1: Critical Care Nursing Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) A practitioner and nurse are performing a dressing change on an unresponsive patient in room 14.The practitioner asks the nurse for an update on the patient in room 13.Which action should the nurse take next?
A) Give the update to the practitioner.
B) Refuse to give the update because of Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) requirements.
C) Give the update because the is patient's unconscious.
D) Refuse to give the update because of Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) requirements.
Answer: B
Q2) Designing therapeutic activities that move a patient from one state of health to another is an example of which of the following?
A) Nursing diagnosis
B) Nursing interventions
C) Nursing outcomes
D) Nursing process
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is using the SFNO approach to case analysis to facilitate ethical decision making.Which question is important to ask when considering stakeholders?
A) Are there reasons to give priority to one stakeholder over another?
B) Will the stakeholders abide by the decision?
C) Will the stakeholders want to be present during the ethics consultation?
D) Do the stakeholders understand how to use the SFNO model?
Answer: A
Q2) Which situations are early signs of an ethical dilemma?
A) Disagreements among health care team members
B) Failure to discuss end-of-life issues with patient
C) Aggressive pain management
D) Belief that treatment is harmful
E) Following the patient's advance directive despite family objections
F) Providing hope to the patient's family
Answer: A,B,D
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Chapter 3: Legal Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) During transport to the operating room for mitral valve replacement,a patient with a signed consent form says that she does not want to go through with the surgery and asks to be returned to her room.What is the best response from the nurse?
A) "The operating room is prepared; let's not keep the surgeon waiting."
B) "You have the right to cancel surgery, but it could be weeks before you are rescheduled."
C) "You sound frightened; tell me what you are thinking."
D) "Your preoperative medications will have you feeling more relaxed in a minute; it will be OK."
Answer: C
Q2) Which agency is responsible for maintaining the expectations and limits of nursing practice?
A) State Hospital Association
B) Court system
C) State Board of Nursing
D) State Department of Health
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Genetic Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) A specialized class of proteins that organizes the double-stranded DNA into what looks like a tightly coiled telephone cord is known which of the following?
A) Chromatids
B) Karyotype
C) Genomics
D) Histones
Q2) What is the study of heredity particularly as it relates to the transfer heritable physical characteristics called?
A) Chromatids
B) Karyotype
C) Genetics
D) Histones
Q3) What is a genetic variant that exists in greater than 1% of the population termed?
A) Genetic mutation
B) Genetic polymorphism
C) Genetic deletion
D) Tandem repeat
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Chapter 5: Patient and Family Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs,the need to know and understand information is considered what type of need?
A) High-level
B) Low-level
C) Physiologic
D) Critical
Q2) What topic should be included in the education of a patient's family members during their first visit?
A) When to call the practitioner
B) Availability of support groups
C) Expectations about self-care
D) What the patient may look like
Q3) According to Malcolm Knowles' andragogy,what are characteristics of the adult learner?
A) Autonomy
B) Experience
C) Instructor-driven assessments
D) Peer-directed motivation
E) Individualism
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Psychosocial and Spiritual Alterations and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement regarding patients with an external locus of control is true?
A) They believe that they can influence the outcome of their illness.
B) They should be forced to take control of their discharge planning.
C) They usually start out with an internal locus of control until a major illness occurs.
D) They believe that events are related to chance or fate.
Q2) According to the transactional theories on stress,what does a person do first when confronted by stress?
A) Determines coping mechanisms to deal with the stress
B) Determines the perceived degree of threat imposed
C) Determines what the response will be to the stress
D) Denies the stress exists
Q3) Anxiety can cause emotional changes in which part of the brain?
A) Hypothalamus
B) Limbic system
C) Cerebral cortex
D) Pituitary gland
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Chapter 7: Nutrition Alterations and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient on mechanical ventilation is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN).Which statement is true?
A) Excessive calorie intake can cause an increase in PaCO .
B) The patient's head should remain elevated at 45 degrees to avoid aspiration.
C) Lipid intake should be maintained at greater than 2 g/kg/day.
D) TPN is preferred over the use of enteral feeding to avoid the complication of aspiration.
Q2) A patient with heart failure is placed on a sodium and fluid restriction.What is the purpose of this order?
A) To enhance the metabolize of medications
B) To normalize the patient's weight
C) To reduce cardiac workload
D) To decrease serum lipids
Q3) The patient is receiving corticosteroid treatment for neurologic alterations.The patient should be routinely monitored for what common complication of this type of therapy?
A) Hyponatremia
B) Hyperalbuminemia
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hyperglycemia
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Chapter 8: Pain and Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best describes the concept of pain?
A) Pain is an uncomfortable experience present only in the patient with an intact nervous system.
B) Pain is an unpleasant experience accompanied by crying and tachycardia.
C) Pain is activation of the sympathetic nervous system from an injury.
D) Pain is whatever the patient experiencing it says it is, occurring when that patient says it does.
Q2) Which of the following patients is MOST likely to be experiencing a life-threatening opioid side effect?
A) Patient with respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min who is breathing deeply
B) Patient with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min who is snoring
C) Patient with blood pressure of 150/75 mm Hg and heart rate of 102 beats/min
D) Patient with a temperature of 100.5° F who is asleep but easily roused
Q3) A patient complains of pain at his incision site.The nurse is aware that four processes are involved in nociception.In what order do the processes occur?
A) Transmission, perception, modulation, and transduction
B) Perception, modulation, transduction, and transmission
C) Modulation, transduction, transmission, and perception
D) Transduction, transmission, perception, and modulation
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Sedation,Agitation,and Delirium Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).The patient has been intubated and is mechanically ventilated.The patient is becoming increasingly agitated,and the high-pressure alarm on the ventilator has been frequently triggered.Despite the nurse's actions,the patient continues to be agitated,triggering the high-pressure alarm on the ventilator.Which medication would be appropriate to sedate the patient this time?
A) Midazolam 2 to 5 mg intravenous push (IVP) every 5 to 15 minutes until the patient is no longer triggering the alarm
B) Haloperidol 5 mg IVP stat
C) Propofol 5 mcg/kg/min by IV infusion
D) Fentanyl 25 mcg IVP over a 15-minute period
Q2) What is a major side effect of benzodiazepines?
A) Hypertension
B) Respiratory depression
C) Renal failure
D) Phlebitis
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11
Chapter 10: End-Of-Life Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient's condition has deteriorated to the point where she can no longer make decisions about her own care.Which nursing interventions would be most appropriate?
A) Obtain a verbal do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order from the practitioner.
B) Continue caring for the patient as originally ordered because she obviously wanted this.
C) Consult the hospital attorney for recommendations on how to proceed.
D) Discuss with the family what the patient's wishes would be if she could make those decisions herself.
Q2) Hospice care is an option that should be considered,especially in end-stage illness.Hospice care can help families with which issue(s)?
A) Organ and tissue donations
B) Symptom management and family support
C) Procurement of advance directives and living wills
D) Legal and voluntary euthanasia
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Chapter 11: Cardiovascular Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the two important proteins contained within the cardiac cells that contribute to contraction?
A) Z-disk and A-band
B) Actin and myosin
C) I-band and M-band
D) Renin and angiotensin
Q2) A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction.The monitor pattern reveals bradycardia.Occlusion of which coronary artery most likely resulted in bradycardia from sinoatrial node ischemia?
A) Right
B) Left anterior descending
C) Circumflex
D) Dominant
Q3) Which factors influence stroke volume?
A) Afterload
B) Cardiac output
C) Contractility
D) Heart rate
E) Preload
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Cardiovascular Clinical Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses as weak and thready.What should the nurse document for the pulse volume?
A) 0
B) 1+
C) 2+
D) 3+
Q2) A patient was admitted 3 days ago with a myocardial infarction.The patient is complaining of increased chest pain when coughing,swallowing,and changing positions.The nurse hears a systolic scratching sound upon auscultation of the apical pulse.Based on the symptoms,the nurse suspects the patient may have developed what condition?
A) Acute mitral regurgitation
B) Aortic insufficiency
C) Chronic mitral regurgitation
D) Pericarditis
Q3) A patient's blood pressure is 90/72 mm Hg.What is the patient's pulse pressure?
A) 40 mm Hg
B) 25 mm Hg
C) 18 mm Hg
D) 12 mm Hg
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Chapter 13: Cardiovascular Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the major factor influencing the patient's response to atrial flutter?
A) Atrial rate
B) Ventricular response rate
C) PR interval
D) QRS duration
Q2) The patient's admitting 12-lead ECG shows tall,peaked P waves.What diagnosis could be responsible for this finding?
A) Mitral stenosis
B) Pulmonary edema
C) Ischemia
D) Pericarditis
Q3) Patient education for a patient with a Holter monitor should include which instruction?
A) Keep a diary of activities, symptoms, and any medications that are taken.
B) Do not drink coffee while the recorder is on.
C) Do not take a bath but a shower is alright.
D) Carry the monitor in a purse or backpack.
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Chapter 14: Cardiovascular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which value,when elevated,places the patient at lowest risk for coronary artery disease (CAD)?
A) Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs)
B) Triglycerides
C) Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)
D) High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)
Q2) A patient is admitted with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.The nurse would expect the medical management of this patient to include which intervention?
A) Administration of beta-blockers
B) Administration of positive inotropes
C) Plans for intensive exercise regimen
D) Plans for an aortic valve replacement
Q3) Which description best describes the pain associated with aortic dissection?
A) Substernal pressure
B) Tearing in the chest, abdomen, or back
C) Numbness and tingling in the left arm
D) Stabbing in the epigastric area
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Chapter 15: Cardiovascular Therapeutic Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which anticoagulant enhances the activity of antithrombin III and does not require activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)or activated clotting time (ACT)monitoring?
A) Heparin
B) Enoxaparin
C) Bivalirudin
D) Argatroban
Q2) Through what mechanism does enalapril decrease blood pressure?
A) Direct arterial vasodilation
B) Block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
C) Increase fluid excretion at the loop of Henle
D) Peripheral vasoconstriction and central vasodilation.
Q3) What is the rationale for administrating a fibrinolytic agent to a patient experiencing acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)?
A) Dilation of the blocked coronary artery
B) Anticoagulation to prevent formation of new emboli
C) Dissolution of atherosclerotic plaque at the site of blockage
D) Restoration of blood flow via lysis of the thrombus
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pulmonary Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what anatomic site does the trachea divide into the right and left mainstem bronchi?
A) Posterior larynx
B) Cricoid cartilage
C) Epiglottis
D) Major carina
Q2) Which artery(s)have the lowest oxygen saturation?
A) Aorta
B) Subclavian
C) Carotid
D) Pulmonary
Q3) The lobes are divided into 18 segments.How many are on the right lung?
A) 3
B) 8
C) 10
D) 15
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18
Chapter 17: Pulmonary Clinical Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Deviation of the trachea occurs in which conditions?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Pulmonary fibrosis
C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D) Emphysema
E) Pleural effusion
Q2) What is the sequence for auscultation of the anterior chest?
A) Right side, top to bottom, then left side, top to bottom
B) Left side, top to bottom, then right side, top to bottom
C) Side to side, bottom to top
D) Side to side, top to bottom
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient with respiratory failure.The nurse notes the patient's diaphragmatic excursing is 8 cm.What coexisting conditions could account for this finding?
A) Asthma and emphysema
B) Hepatomegaly and ascites
C) Atelectasis and pleural effusion
D) Pneumonia and pneumothorax
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Chapter 18: Pulmonary Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which blood gas parameter is the acid-base component that reflects kidney function?
A) pH
B) PaO
C) PaCO
D) HCO ¯
Q2) Which ABG values reflect compensation?
A) pH, 7.26; PaCO , 55 mm Hg;HCO ¯ , 24 mEq/L
B) pH, 7.30; PaCO , 32 mm Hg;HCO ¯ , 18 mEq/L
C) pH, 7.48; PaCO , 30 mm Hg;HCO ¯ , 22 mEq/L
D) pH, 7.38; PaCO , 58 mm Hg;HCO ¯ , 30 mEq/L
Q3) A 75-kg patient is on a ventilator and may be ready for extubation.A respiratory therapist assesses the patient's rapid shallow breathing index (RSBI).Which result best suggests that the patient is ready for a spontaneous breathing trial?
A) RSBI = 150
B) RSBI = 125
C) RSBI = 110
D) RSBI = 90
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medical management of a patient with status asthmaticus includes which treatments?
A) Oxygen therapy
B) Bronchodilators
C) Corticosteroids
D) Antibiotics
E) Intubation and mechanical ventilation
Q2) Which finding confirms the diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism (PE)?
A) Low-probability ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan
B) Negative pulmonary angiogram
C) High-probability V/Q scan
D) Absence of vascular markings on the chest radiograph
Q3) What are the most common presenting signs and symptoms associated with a pulmonary embolism (PE)?
A) Tachycardia and tachypnea
B) Hemoptysis and evidence of deep vein thromboses
C) Apprehension and dyspnea
D) Right ventricular failure and fever
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Chapter 20: Pulmonary Therapeutic Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best describes the effects of positive-pressure ventilation on cardiac output?
A) Positive-pressure ventilation increases intrathoracic pressure, which increases venous return and cardiac output.
B) Positive-pressure ventilation decreases venous return, which increases preload and cardiac output.
C) Positive-pressure ventilation increases venous return, which decreases preload and cardiac output.
D) Positive-pressure ventilation increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return and cardiac output.
Q2) Which of the following are complications of endotracheal tubes?
A) Tracheoesophageal fistula
B) Cricoid abscess
C) Tracheal stenosis
D) Tube obstruction
E) Hemorrhage
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22
Chapter 21: Neurologic Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which lobe of the brain deals primarily with sensory function?
A) Frontal lobe
B) Temporal lobe
C) Occipital lobe
D) Parietal lobe
Q2) Which area of the ventricular system is usually cannulated for intracranial pressure monitoring?
A) Frontal horn of the lateral ventricle
B) Aqueduct of Sylvius
C) Foramen of Monro
D) Fourth ventricle
Q3) Which neurologic structure carries nerve impulses from the central nervous system (CNS)to the periphery to produce a response such as contraction of the skeletal muscles?
A) Efferent fibers
B) Afferent fibers
C) Sensory fibers
D) Neurotransmitters
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23
Chapter 22: Neurologic Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic
Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient's intracranial pressure (ICP)reading has gradually climbed from 15 to 23 mm Hg.The nurse's primary action is to:
A) drain off 7 mm of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the catheter.
B) notify the physician.
C) place the patient in a high Fowler position to decrease the pressure.
D) check level of consciousness.
Q2) A patient is being prepared for a neurologic work-up.The practitioner is getting ready to perform a lumbar puncture.What is the best position for the nurse to place the patient in for the procedure?
A) Prone
B) Reverse Trendelenburg
C) High Fowler
D) Lateral recumbent position with knees and head slightly tucked.
Q3) The nursing management plan for a patient undergoing a water-based contrast myelogram should include intervention?
A) Maintain the patient flat in bed for 4 to 6 hours
B) Observe the puncture sight every 15 minutes for 2 hours for signs of bleeding
C) Keep the patient's head elevated 30 to 45 degrees for 8 hours
D) Administer a sedative to keep the patient from moving around
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Neurologic Disorders and Therapeutic Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ventriculoperitoneal shunt may be placed in a post-stroke patient to treat which complication?
A) Hyponatremia
B) Intracerebral hemorrhage
C) Spontaneous intracerebral hemorrhage
D) Hydrocephalus
Q2) How often should lubricating eye drops be administered to a patient in coma to prevent corneal epithelial breakdown?
A) 2 hours
B) 4 hours
C) 8 hours
D) 12 hours
Q3) When an object is placed in the hand of a patient with neurologic impairment during assessment,the patient is unable to recognize the placement.What is this complication called?
A) Homonymous hemianopsia
B) Aphasia
C) Agnosia
D) Apraxia
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Chapter 24: Kidney Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been admitted with acute kidney injury.Which serum laboratory values would the nurse expect to be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?
A) Sodium and potassium
B) Creatinine and calcium
C) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatine
D) Potassium and magnesium
Q2) Stimulation from what receptors will cause contraction of the detrusor muscle of the bladder?
A) Bladder wall and ureters
B) Bladder wall and urethra
C) Ureters and urethra
D) Urethra and bladder neck
Q3) What substance is the most responsible for maintaining the colloid osmotic pressure?
A) Intravascular plasma proteins
B) Intracellular potassium
C) Extracellular sodium
D) Interstitial potassium
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Chapter 25: Kidney Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient was admitted with acute kidney failure.Which urinalysis value reflects a decreased ability of the kidneys to concentrate urine?
A) pH of 5.0
B) Specific gravity of 1.000
C) No casts
D) Urine sodium of 140 mEq/24 h
Q2) A patient has been on complete bed rest for 3 days.The practitioner has left orders to get the patient out of bed for meals.The patient complains of feeling dizzy and faint while sitting at the bedside.The nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing what problem?
A) Orthostatic hypertension
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Hypervolemia
D) Electrolyte imbalance
Q3) When calculating the anion gap,what is the predominant cation?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Chloride
D) Bicarbonate
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Chapter 26: Kidney Disorders and Therapeutic Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with chronic kidney disease receives hemodialysis treatments 3 days a week.Every 2 weeks,the patient requires a transfusion of 1 or 2 U of packed red blood cells.What is the probable reason for this patient's frequent transfusion needs?
A) Too much blood phlebotomized for tests
B) Increased destruction of red blood cells because of the increased toxin levels
C) Lack of production of erythropoietin to stimulate red blood cell formation
D) Hemodilution secondary to fluid retention
Q2) What is the dose for low-dose dopamine?
A) 1 to 2 mcg/kg/min
B) 1 to 2 mg/kg/min
C) 2 to 3 mcg/kg/min
D) 2 to 3 mg/kg/min
Q3) What is the most common site for short-term vascular access for immediate hemodialysis?
A) Subclavian artery
B) Subclavian vein
C) Femoral artery
D) Radial vein
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Chapter 27: Gastrointestinal Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been admitted in acute liver failure.The nurse knows that the synthesis of fibrinogen is affected and will result in what problem?
A) Jaundice
B) Fluid retention and ascites
C) Delayed clotting
D) Hepatomegaly
Q2) What vessel delivers nutrient-rich blood from the gut,pancreas,spleen,and stomach to the liver?
A) Hepatic artery
B) Hepatic vein
C) Portal vein
D) Interlobular veins
Q3) What is the name of the portion of the stomach that allows for expansion and secretion of gastric juice?
A) Serosa
B) Muscularis
C) Submucosa
D) Mucosa
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29
Chapter 28: Gastrointestinal Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common location for a male to have a hernia?
A) Femoral
B) Umbilical
C) Inguinal
D) Abdominal
Q2) A patient has been admitted with abdominal pain.The practitioner suspects the patient has gallstones.Which diagnostic procedure would the nurse expect the practitioner to order to confirm this diagnosis?
A) Ultrasonography
B) Abdominal radiography
C) Angiography
D) Liver scan
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient with an upper gastrointestinal bleed.What procedure would the nurse expect the practitioner to order to confirm this diagnosis?
A) Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
B) Colonoscopy
C) Endoscopy
D) Angiography
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Chapter 29: Gastrointestinal Disorders and Therapeutic Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of chronic alcoholism was admitted with acute pancreatitis.The nurse is developing a patient education plan.Which topic would the nurse include in the plan?
A) Diabetes management
B) Alcohol cessation
C) Occult blood testing
D) Anticoagulation management
Q2) A patient was admitted with acute pancreatitis.The nurse understands that pancreatitis occurs as a result of what pathophysiologic mechanism?
A) Uncontrolled hypoglycemia caused by an increased release of insulin
B) Loss of storage capacity for senescent red blood cells
C) Premature activation of inactive digestive enzymes, resulting in autodigestion
D) Release of glycogen into the serum, resulting in hyperglycemia
Q3) How would the nurse administer sucralfate through a gastric tube?
A) Crushed and mixed with 10 mL of water
B) Dissolved in 10 mL of water to form a slurry
C) Mixed in 15 mL of water to form a solution
D) Administered as a whole pill with a 35-mL water flush
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Chapter 30: Endocrine Anatomy and Physiology
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25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41328
Sample Questions
Q1) Decreased insulin and increased glucagon result in what physiologic process?
A) Increased glycogenolysis
B) Decreased fat mobilization
C) Decreased ketosis
D) Increased glycogen storage
Q2) A patient with thyrotoxicosis has been admitted.The nurse knows that when levels of T and T are elevated,the pituitary gland inhibits what hormone?
A) Thyroglobulin
B) Thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH)
C) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D) Calcitonin
Q3) Through what mechanism does the endocrine system help maintain equilibrium?
A) Control of smooth muscle
B) Control of skeletal muscle
C) Hormones
D) Neuronal control
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Chapter 31: Endocrine Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic
Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted with hypernatremia secondary to diabetes insipidus (DI).The practitioner suspects the patient has neurogenic DI.Which finding would confirm that diagnosis?
A) A slight increase in urine osmolality
B) A decrease in urine output
C) A decrease in serum osmolality
D) No change in urine osmolality
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with a traumatic brain injury.Yesterday the patient weighed 62 kg and today the patient weighs 60 kg.How much fluid loss does this change in weight reflect?
A) 1 L
B) 2 L
C) 4 L
D) 10 L
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Chapter 32: Endocrine Disorders and Therapeutic Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient weighs 140 kg and is 60 inches tall.The patient's blood sugar is being controlled by glipizide.Which topic would be important for the nurse to include in the patient's discharge education plan?
A) Signs of hyperglycemia
B) Proper injection technique
C) Weight loss
D) Increased caloric intake
Q2) A patient is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).The nurse knows that the lack of insulin results in which process?
A) Decreased glucagon release
B) Decreased glycogenolysis
C) Decreased ketone production
D) Increased gluconeogenesis
Q3) Which pathophysiologic mechanism occurs in the patient with type 2 diabetes?
A) Lack of insulin production
B) Imbalance between insulin production and use
C) Overproduction of glucose
D) Increased uptake of glucose in the cells
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Chapter 33: Trauma
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Sample Questions
Q1) Older trauma patients have a higher mortality than younger trauma patients.The nurse understands that this fact is probably related to what physiologic change?
A) Deterioration of cerebral and motor skills
B) Poor vision and hearing
C) Diminished pain perception
D) Limited physiologic reserve
Q2) A patient who was an unrestrained driver in a high-speed,head-on motor vehicle collision presents with dyspnea,tachycardia,hypotension,jugular venous distention,tracheal deviation to the left,and decreased breath sounds on the right side.The nurse suspects these findings are indicative of which disorder?
A) Tension pneumothorax
B) Cardiac tamponade
C) Simple pneumothorax
D) Ruptured diaphragm
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Chapter 34: Shock,sepsis,and Multiple-Organ Dysfunction Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in cardiogenic shock is being treated in the critical care unit.Which findings would the nurse expect to note in the patient to support this diagnosis?
A) Warm, dry skin
B) Heart rate greater than 100 beats/min
C) Weak, thready pulse
D) Increased right atrial pressure
E) Decreased pulmonary artery occlusion pressure
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient in septic shock due to urinary sepsis.Which pathophysiologic mechanism results in septic shock?
A) Bacterial toxins lead to vasodilation.
B) White blood cells are released to fight invading bacteria.
C) Microorganisms invade organs such as the kidneys and heart.
D) Decreased red blood cell production and fluid loss
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Chapter 35: Burns
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify in the correct order the five layers of the skin from the surface inward.
1)Stratum granulosum
2)Stratum corneum
3)Stratum germinativum
4)Stratum lucidum
5)Stratum spinosum
A) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
B) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
C) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
D) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2
Q2) The nursing management plan for a patient with full-thickness burns includes which intervention?
A) Daily replacement of autografts
B) Daily wound care with premedication
C) Weekly wound care until all eschar is debrided
D) Surgical skin grafting within 8 hours of admission
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Chapter 36: Organ Donation and Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing a patient for a liver transplant.The patient asks which stage of the procedure is the longest and most difficult.What would the nurse tell the patient?
A) Stage 1-recipient hepatectomy
B) Stage 2-vascular anastomoses
C) Stage 3-biliary anastomosis
D) Stage 4-induction therapy
Q2) A patient who has received a transplant is being taught about azathioprine.Which statement made by the patient would indicate the teaching was effective?
A) "I will notify my health care provider if my gums start to bleed."
B) "I will make sure to increase the amount of fiber in my diet."
C) "I realize I may have an increase in hair growth."
D) "I know the flulike symptoms will go away as I get used to the drug."
Q3) A patient has had a kidney transplant.The nurse knows that monitoring of which parameter would have the highest priority?
A) Fluid volume
B) Electrolytes
C) Complete blood count
D) Temperature
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Chapter 37: Hematologic and Oncologic Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a critically ill patient who is receiving heparin and understands that the patient is at risk for developing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT).Which previous medical conditions places this patient at risk for developing HIT?
A) Sepsis
B) Deep vein thrombosis
C) Cardiac arrest
D) Pneumonia
Q2) Which pathophysiologic event contributes to renal failure associated with tumor lysis syndrome?
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Elevated white blood cell count
C) Metabolic acidosis
D) Crystallization of uric acid in the renal tubules
Q3) What is the primary mechanism in the development of tumor lysis syndrome?
A) Destruction of platelets by lymphocytic antibodies
B) Destruction of malignant cells through radiation or chemotherapy
C) Formation of heparin antibodies
D) Damage to the endothelium
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Chapter 38: The Obstetric Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is 32 weeks pregnant is admitted with a pneumothorax.What must the practitioner consider when placing a chest tube?
A) The diaphragm has been displaced 4 cm upward from its original location.
B) The diaphragm has been flattened and displaced 2 cm downward.
C) The lungs have shrunk to accommodate for the increase in abdominal size.
D) The lower lobes are one-half of their original size.
Q2) A patient has been admitted with preeclampsia.The nurse understands that this disorder is characterized by what widespread physiologic changes?
A) Increase in circulating plasma volume
B) Vasospasms in the arterial system
C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D) High systemic vascular resistance
Q3) What are some of the unique causes of septic shock in pregnant patients?
A) Postpartum pyelonephritis
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Chorioamnionitis
D) Septic abortion
E) Postpartum hemorrhage
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Chapter 39: The Pediatric Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the initial treatment for hypoxia,acidosis,or hypothermia?
A) Vasopressin
B) Bronchodilators
C) Oxygenation and ventilation
D) Hydration
Q2) A 4-year-old child is admitted with fever,chills,headache,vomiting,lethargy,photophobia,and nuchal rigidity.Nursing management for this patient would include which intervention?
A) Measuring and documenting head circumference.
B) Allowing the patient's siblings to visit.
C) Isolating the patient during initial antibiotic treatment and for 24 hours thereafter.
D) Administering anticonvulsant medications every 6 hours.
Q3) Which anatomic and physiologic findings are normal in infants younger than 1 year old?
A) The epiglottis is large and floppy.
B) The basal metabolic rate is lower than that of an adult.
C) The size of the head is smaller compared with the rest of the body.
D) The hormonal and metabolic response to pain is the same as that of an adult.
E) A positive Babinski reflex is a normal finding.
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Page 41
Chapter 40: The Older Adult Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the chemical change in a drug called that renders it active or inactive?
A) Absorption
B) Metabolism
C) Excretion
D) Distribution
Q2) The focus on the relief of a patient's suffering,in all of its dimensions,is referred to as what type of care?
A) Aggressive
B) Comfort
C) Hospice
D) Palliative
Q3) Hospitalized critically ill older adults undergo a number of function changes each day they are in the hospital.What changes might the nurse expect to see by day 3?
A) Decreased stroke volume
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Decreased heart rate
D) Decreased total lung capacity
E) Visible muscle weakness
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Chapter 41: The Perianesthesia Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is administering a benzodiazepine to a patient to facilitate relaxation prior to surgery.Which benzodiazepine has a slow onset of action and long duration?
A) Diazepam
B) Midazolam
C) Lorazepam
D) Droperidol
Q2) Which stage of general anesthesia begins with the initiation of an anesthetic agent and ends with loss of consciousness?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q3) A postoperative patient has developed laryngeal edema.What medication would the nurse anticipate being administered to the patient?
A) Racemic epinephrine
B) Succinylcholine
C) Albuterol
D) Morphine
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