Nursing Concepts Exam Review
Course Introduction
Nursing Concepts introduces fundamental principles essential to the nursing profession, focusing on core concepts such as patient-centered care, safety, evidence-based practice, and ethical considerations. The course explores the roles and responsibilities of nurses in diverse healthcare settings, emphasizing the development of critical thinking, clinical reasoning, and effective communication skills. Students will learn about health and illness, wellness promotion, cultural competence, and interdisciplinary collaboration, providing a strong foundation for advanced nursing practice and patient advocacy.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 17th Edition by Clayton
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49 Chapters
915 Verified Questions
915 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/959
Chapter 1: Drug Definitions, Standards, and Information
Sources
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18857
Sample Questions
Q1) Meperidine (Demerol)is a narcotic with a high potential for physical and psychological dependency.Under which classification does this drug fall?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Answer: B
Q2) An older adult experiencing shortness of breath is brought to the hospital by her daughter.While obtaining the medication history from the patient and her daughter,the nurse discovers that neither has a list of the patient's current medications or prescriptions.All the patient has is a weekly pill dispenser that contains four different pills.The prescriptions are filled through the local pharmacy.Which resource(s)would be appropriate to use in determining the medication names and doses?
A) Martindale-The Complete Drug Reference
B) Physicians' Desk Reference, Section 4
C) Senior citizens' center
D) Patient's home pharmacy
Answer: B,D
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Chapter 2: Basic Principles of Drug Action and Drug
Interactions
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What will the nurse need to determine first in order to mix two drugs in the same syringe?
A) Absorption rate of the drugs
B) Compatibility of the drugs
C) Drug blood level of each drug
D) Medication adverse effects
Answer: B
Q2) A patient receives 200 mg of a medication that has a half-life of 12 hours.How many mg of the drug would remain in the patient's body after 24 hours?
Answer: 50
The half-life is defined as the amount of time required for 50% of the drug to be eliminated from the body.If a patient is given 200 mg of a drug that has a half-life of 12 hours,then 50 mg of the drug would remain in the body after 24 hours.
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4
Chapter 3: Drug Action Across the Life Span
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which intervention would be considered to reduce accumulation of a drug in a patient who has decreased liver function?
A) Decreasing the time interval between dosages
B) Reducing the dosage
C) Administering the medication intravenously
D) Changing the drug to one that has a longer half-life
Answer: B
Q2) The nurse is teaching an elderly patient with difficulty swallowing about his medications.Which explanation by the nurse is most helpful?
A) "Enteric coated tablets can be crushed and taken with applesauce."
B) "Tablets that are scored can be broken in half."
C) "Medications labeled 'SR' can be crushed."
D) "Avoid taking medications in liquid form."
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: The Nursing Process and Pharmacology
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary purpose of the nursing assessment?
A) Identifying underlying pathologic conditions
B) Assisting the physician in identifying medical conditions
C) Determining the patient's mental status
D) Exploring patient responses to health problems
Q2) Prior to the administration of a nephrotoxic drug,the nurse determines that the kidney lab data are within normal range.Which step of the nursing process is being used?
A) Assessment
B) Nursing diagnosis
C) Planning
D) Evaluation
Q3) An obese patient did not meet the goal of "by the end of the second week,is able to follow a 1500 calorie diet." What will the nurse and the patient reassess?
A) Patient's weight
B) Patient's understanding of the 1500 calorie diet
C) Nurse's feelings about obese patients
D) Health care agency's ability to provide the prescribed diet
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Chapter 5: Patient Education to Promote Health
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most important nursing consideration when teaching an older adult patient about a newly prescribed medication?
A) Provide detailed information.
B) Lengthen the time of each teaching session.
C) Present information slowly.
D) Limit discussion on the necessity of learning the information.
Q2) Which action(s)by the nurse can foster patient responsibility for adhering to the therapeutic regimen?(Select all that apply.)
A) Assessing the patient's readiness to learn
B) Determining the patient's level of understanding of content
C) Determining the patient's education level and learning style
D) Maintaining an aloof attitude toward presented content
E) Documenting expected outcomes independently
Q3) In preparing for health teaching with a patient who has an auditory learning style,which would be most appropriate?
A) Pamphlets from a pharmaceutical company
B) Models of equipment used in a procedure
C) Verbal description of the steps of a procedure
D) A workbook with space to record actions and results
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Principles of Medication Administration and Medication Safety
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where would the procedures and treatments directed by the health care provider be found?
A) Summary sheet
B) Physician's order form
C) Physician's progress notes
D) History and physical examination form
Q2) Which lab test(s)would be used to assess liver and/or renal function before administering medications?(Select all that apply.)
A) CBC
B) LDH
C) ALT
D) Crs
E) BUN
F) aPTT
Q3) Which example best demonstrates safe drug administration by the nurse?
A) Administering an oral medication with the patient sitting upright
B) Asking children to say their name before administering the medication
C) Leaving the medications on the bedside stand after verifying patient identification
D) Returning the unused portion of a medication to a stock supply bottle
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Percutaneous Administration
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action(s)will the nurse perform when preparing to administer a topical medication?(Select all that apply.)
A) Wash hands before and after administration.
B) Maintain a dry environment to encourage wound healing.
C) Wear gloves during the application process.
D) Use sterile dressings for all wounds.
Q2) Where would the nurse apply nitroglycerin ointment on a male patient?
A) The same site that was previously used
B) A hairy area of the chest
C) The upper arm
D) The back of the knee
Q3) Where does the nurse correctly administer ophthalmic medication?
A) At the inner canthus of the eye
B) In the lower conjunctival sac
C) Directly onto the eyeball
D) To the outer corner of the eyelid
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Chapter 8: Enteral Administration
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing action(s)would be appropriate when administering a disposable enema?(Select all that apply.)
A) Position the patient on the left side.
B) Allow the solution to flow in by gravity.
C) Instruct the patient to hold the solution 30 minutes before defecating.
D) Maintain the six rights of medication administration.
E) Lubricate the rectal tube.
Q2) In which position would the nurse place a patient before the administration of an enteral feeding?
A) Supine
B) Semi-Fowler's
C) Left lateral
D) Prone
Q3) Which action by the nurse is appropriate when administering enteric coated tablets?
A) Administer with an antacid.
B) Crush the tablet and mix with applesauce.
C) Encourage the patient to drink a full glass of water.
D) Instruct the patient to place the medication between the cheek and teeth.
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Chapter 9: Parenteral Administration: Safe Preparation of Parenteral
Medications
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18865
Sample Questions
Q1) Which principle(s)is/are correct for mixing insulin?(Select all that apply.)
A) Insulin orders and calculations must be checked with another nurse.
B) Air is injected into the vial of the shorter-acting insulin first.
C) The longer-acting insulin is drawn up first.
D) The nurse must verify the compatibility of the insulin types.
E) Withdraw the shorter-acting insulin first.
Q2) After teaching a diabetic patient about proper disposal of used syringes and needles,which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Even needles with sleeves should be disposed of appropriately."
B) "It is unusual that anyone could get a needle injury or disease from used needles."
C) "It is important for me to use the designated container to dispose of my syringes and needles."
D) "I am going to purchase the 'Sharps by Mail Disposal System' once I am home."
Q3) What is an advantage of administering a drug parenterally?
A) The duration of action is longer.
B) Medications given by this route are inexpensive.
C) The onset of action is more rapid.
D) The dose is usually larger than an oral dose.
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Chapter 10: Parenteral Administration: Intradermal,
Subcutaneous, and Intramuscular Routes
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18866
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse administers B IM to a patient in a long-term care facility.After administering this medication,the nurse will(Select all that apply.)
A) carefully recap the needle.
B) identify the patient.
C) massage site of injection.
D) dispose of the used needle according to policy.
E) apply a small bandage to the site.
Q2) The nurse is educating a patient about diabetes.Based on recommendations from the American Diabetes Association,which statement by the nurse is best regarding site rotation?
A) "Insulin injection sites should always be in the abdomen to ensure absorption into the stomach."
B) "It is important to rotate injection sites systematically within one area before progressing to a new site for injection."
C) "Following exercise, site rotation is not indicated because the circulation in the muscles will absorb the medication efficiently."
D) "If you aspirate, site rotation can be done every other day to avoid developing problems with absorption."
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Chapter 11: Parenteral Administration: Intravenous Route
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A diabetic patient requires the administration of insulin continuously at home.Which system would most likely be used in this instance?
A) Central line catheter
B) Microdrip set
C) Piggyback system
D) Syringe pump
Q2) Which condition would the nurse expect to be treated with an isotonic solution?
A) Fluid overload
B) Hemorrhagic shock
C) Cellular dehydration
D) Cerebral edema
Q3) A patient has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)line inserted to continue
IV antibiotic therapy at home.With proper care,how long can this type of venous access device remain in place?
A) 2 months
B) 4 months
C) 6 months
D) 12 months
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Chapter 12: Drugs That Affect the Autonomic Nervous System
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which disorder(s)would indicate the use of anticholinergic agents?(Select all that apply.)
A) Glaucoma
B) Benign prostatic hypertrophy
C) Bradycardia
D) Parkinson's disease
E) Preparation for surgery
F) Stimulation of the vagus nerve
Q2) Which category of medications is used for peripheral vascular diseases characterized by excessive vasoconstriction,such as Raynaud's disease?
A) Adrenergic agents
B) Alpha-adrenergic blocking agents
C) Beta-adrenergic blocking agents
D) Cholinergic agents
Q3) Which nerve endings liberate norepinephrine?
A) Cholinergic
B) Adrenergic
C) Anticholinergic
D) Muscarinic
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Chapter 13: Drugs Used for Sleep
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for an older patient recently admitted to an assisted living center who is experiencing insomnia associated with the recent relocation.At bedtime,which nursing action will assist the patient to sleep?
A) Offering the patient hot tea
B) Encouraging the patient to ambulate in the hallway
C) Performing back massage
D) Administering an analgesic
Q2) Which sleep pattern stage diminishes as an effect of aging?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q3) The nurse is assessing a patient who is being evaluated in an outpatient clinic for complaints of back pain.The patient reports taking diphenhydramine for insomnia related to job stress.Which statement by the nurse is accurate regarding this medication?
A) "This medication should only be taken for 1 week."
B) "This medication can cause nausea."
C) "The medication should not be taken after eating a high-fat meal."
D) "This is an herbal medication that has been used for hundreds of years."
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Chapter 14: Drugs Used for Parkinsons Disease
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which adverse effects associated with levodopa therapy would support the nursing diagnosis risk for injury?
A) Nausea and vomiting
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Anorexia and depression
D) Tachycardia and palpitations
Q2) A patient taking rasagiline is assessed by the nurse to have a lasting significant increase in blood pressure.When reviewing the patient's current list of medications,the nurse decides to hold the next dose of
A) dextromethorphan.
B) levodopa.
C) ciprofloxacin.
D) Valium.
Q3) What is the pharmacologic action of entacapone,a potent catechol O methyl transferase (COMT)inhibitor?
A) Slows the deterioration of dopaminergic nerve cells
B) Inhibits the relative excess of dopaminergic activity
C) Reduces the destruction of dopamine in peripheral tissues
D) Enhances the cholinergic symptoms of Parkinson's disease
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Drugs Used for Anxiety Disorders
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient is admitted to the adult psychiatric floor with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder.Anxiolytic medications and group therapy have been prescribed.Evaluation of therapeutic outcomes related to her acute stay can be measured by which assessment(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) She is able to sleep 5 hours during the night.
B) The tremor and pacing she exhibited on admission are reduced.
C) She is able to attend and actively participate in group sessions.
D) She is eating only 10% of her meals.
E) She complains of chest pain before group therapy.
Q2) Which substance(s)may increase the toxic effects of benzodiazepines?(Select all that apply.)
A) Alcohol
B) Antihistamines
C) Analgesics
D) Sedatives
E) Vitamins
F) Hypnotics
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17
Chapter 16: Drugs Used for Depressive and Bipolar Disorders
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What will the nurse include in a teaching plan for a patient with depression being treated with amitriptyline (Elavil)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Dryness of the mouth is normal; sucking on sugar free hard candy and ice chips or chewing gum may help alleviate this problem.
B) Rise slowly from a supine or sitting position to avoid dizziness and orthostatic hypotension.
C) Avoid alcohol and barbiturates.
D) If adverse effects occur, discontinue the medication.
E) An immediate elevation in mood will be noted.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking a newly prescribed drug,nefazodone,for treatment of depression.Which physical assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider immediately?
A) Bradycardia
B) Dizziness
C) Drowsiness
D) Urinary retention
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18
Chapter 17: Drugs Used for Psychoses
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is/are extrapyramidal adverse effect(s)of antipsychotic agents?(Select all that apply.)
A) Spasmodic movements of muscle groups
B) Masklike expression
C) Lip smacking
D) Inability to sit in one place for an extended period
E) Weight gain
Q2) A patient with schizophrenia has been nonadherent with his home medication regimen.He requires frequent admissions to the intensive psychiatric unit for treatment of acute psychotic episodes.Which medication regimen would be appropriate for this patient?
A) Daily home nursing visits to administer the prescribed oral medication
B) Continuous inpatient hospitalization for medication therapy
C) Administration of depot antipsychotic medication
D) Subcutaneous medication administration
Q3) To what does potency of an antipsychotic medication refer?
A) Severity of adverse effects associated with the drug
B) Length of time that it takes to reach a therapeutic blood level of the drug
C) Milligram doses used for the medication
D) Effectiveness of the drug in alleviating psychotic behavior
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Chapter 18: Drugs Used for Seizure Disorders
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The health care provider orders diazepam (Valium)10 mg IV stat for a patient who was admitted with status epilepticus.What important nursing interventions(s)associated with administration of this medication IV should the nurse perform?(Select all that apply.)
A) Apply a cardiac monitor to the patient to assess for continuous heart rate, if not already done.
B) Administer the prescribed dosage over 1 minute.
C) Mix diazepam in a primary IV solution to avoid overdosing.
D) Continuously assess the patient's airway.
E) Obtain the correct dose (10 mg) and administer over slow IV push.
Q2) Which premedication assessment by the nurse is most important prior to the initiation of carbamazepine (Tegretol)therapy?
A) Determine patient's ancestry.
B) Monitor blood pressure (BP) lying, sitting, and standing.
C) Auscultate lung sounds.
D) Obtain smoking history.
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Chapter 19: Drugs Used for Pain Management
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18875
Sample Questions
Q1) How long after the administration of a parenteral pain medication will the nurse complete the next pain assessment to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
A) 10 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) 1 hour
D) 2 hours
Q2) Which sign or symptom displayed by a patient would be indicative of opiate withdrawal?
A) Bradycardia
B) Diarrhea
C) Lethargy
D) Hypothermia
Q3) Which action will the nurse take when a patient receiving morphine sulfate via percutaneous coronary angioplasty (PCA)has a shallow,irregular respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min?
A) Elevate the patient's head of bed to facilitate lung expansion.
B) Increase the patient's primary intravenous (IV) flow rate.
C) Complete the FLACC scale.
D) Notify the health care provider and prepare to administer naloxone (Narcan).
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Cardiovascular Disease and Metabolic Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drug therapy for initial treatment of metabolic syndrome is targeted at controlling which condition(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Obstructive sleep apnea
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Hypertension
D) Obesity
E) Dyslipidemia
F) Insulin resistance
Q2) Metabolic syndrome includes which key characteristic(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Abdominal obesity
C) Low high-density lipoproteins
D) Hypertension
E) Osteoporosis
Q3) Weight: 70 kilograms.Height: 164 cm (1.65 m).What is the BMI?
Q4) Weight: 140 pounds.Height: 5 feet 4 inches.What is the BMI?
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Drugs Used to Treat Dyslipidemias
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed a bile acid resin.The nurse instructs the patient to report which adverse reaction related to vitamin K deficiency?
A) Constipation
B) Coffee-ground emesis
C) Nausea
D) Changes in skin pigmentation
Q2) Which antilipemic agent is most potent?
A) Niacin
B) HMG CoA reductase inhibitor
C) Bile acid-binding resin
D) Fibric acid
Q3) The nurse is teaching a patient about statin therapy.Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will take this medication at night."
B) "This medication will reduce blood clot formation."
C) "I will avoid drinking grapefruit juice."
D) "If I get a headache, I will notify my health care provider."
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23
Chapter 22: Drugs Used to Treat Hypertension
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27 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which common adverse effect of an angiotensin II receptor antagonist will the nurse expect to assess in a patient?
A) Bradycardia
B) Headache
C) Hypokalemia
D) Insomnia
Q2) Which medication lowers blood pressure by directly inhibiting renin?
A) Aliskiren (Tekturna)
B) Eplerenone (Inspra)
C) Diltiazem (Cardizem)
D) Reserpine
Q3) Which class of antihypertensive agents should be avoided by patients with asthma?
A) ACE inhibitors
B) Diuretics
C) Aldosterone receptor antagonists
D) Beta-adrenergic blocking agents
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Chapter 23: Drugs Used to Treat Dysrhythmias
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to mix a lidocaine infusion for a patient.Which consideration(s)should the nurse take into account before administration?
A) Lidocaine with preservatives should be used.
B) Dextrose 5% is the solution to mix with lidocaine.(Select all that apply.)
C) Therapeutic blood levels should be 1 to 5 mg/L.
D) The rate of administration is 1 to 4 mg/min.
E) Monitor for changes in neurologic status.
Q2) Which statement is true regarding the antidysrhythmic agent adenosine (Adenocard)?
A) It is synthesized from petroleum products.
B) It is created through recombinant DNA.
C) It is extracted from plants.
D) It is a naturally occurring chemical in the body.
Q3) A patient who is started on phenytoin (Dilantin),who is also taking amiodarone (Cordarone),should be assessed for what possible effect?
A) Central nervous system depression and sedation
B) Decrease in effectiveness of phenytoin
C) Respiratory depression
D) Increase in serum phenytoin levels
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Drugs Used to Treat Angina Pectoris
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication combinations may be beneficial in treating angina pectoris?
A) Antidysrhythmics and platelet active agents
B) ACE inhibitors and statins
C) Vasoconstrictors and diuretics
D) Analgesics and thrombolytics
Q2) What will the nurse include in the teaching plan for a patient with angina who is prescribed a beta-adrenergic blocking agent?(Select all that apply.)
A) Goals include reduced frequency of attacks, reduced nitrate use, and improved exercise tolerance.
B) Only some beta blockers are effective in treating angina pectoris.
C) Comorbidities, such as diabetes or COPD, influence the product selection of beta blockers to treat angina.
D) Cardioselective agents minimize pulmonary and peripheral vascular adverse effects.
E) Stress exercise is an effective way to determine the most appropriate dosage.
F) Acebutolol, atenolol, and metoprolol must be taken in divided doses to be effective in treating angina.
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Chapter 25: Drugs Used to Treat Peripheral Vascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are included in the baseline assessment of PVD?(Select all that apply.)
A) History of heart disease
B) Smoking and dietary habits
C) Current medications
D) Weight
E) Limb pain
F) Mental status
Q2) When assessing a client recently prescribed pentoxifylline (Trental),which medication will alert the nurse to monitor closely for adverse effects?
A) Antilipemic
B) Antihypertensive
C) Antibiotic
D) Antipsychotic
Q3) A patient has recently been prescribed cilostazol (Pletal).Which statement by the patient indicates that this medication is effective?
A) "I have less leg cramping when I walk."
B) "My pulse rate is more regular."
C) "I have had fewer episodes of angina."
D) "My blood pressure has decreased."
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Chapter 26: Drugs Used to Treat Thromboembolic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving IV heparin therapy.The aPTT is 90; the laboratory control is 30 seconds.Which nursing intervention is most accurate?
A) Document in the nursing notes that these results are within therapeutic range.
B) Note the RBC count and wait for the health care provider to make the next round to discuss all laboratory values.
C) Stop the heparin drip.
D) Assess the patient for signs and symptoms of decreased sensorium.
Q2) The pharmacologic agents used to treat DVT may act in which way(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Prevent platelet aggregation.
B) Prevent the extension of existing clots.
C) Inhibit steps in the fibrin clot formation cascade.
D) Prolong bleeding time.
E) Lower serum triglycerides.
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Chapter 27: Drugs Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action of ACE inhibitors results in effective treatment of heart failure?
A) Increased afterload
B) Increased aldosterone
C) Increased preload
D) Increased cardiac output
Q2) A patient with altered cardiac function is being assessed by the nurse.When auscultating lung sounds,the nurse will assist this patient into a _____ position.
A) prone
B) supine
C) Sims
D) Fowler's
Q3) A patient with heart failure has been prescribed nesiritide (Natrecor).Which statement(s)is/are true regarding this medication?(Select all that apply.)
A) It increases preload.
B) Cardiac ventricles secrete this hormone in response to fluid overload.
C) It suppresses aldosterone.
D) It promotes norepinephrine secretion.
E) It causes vasodilation.
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Chapter 28: Drugs Used for Diuresis
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Sample Questions
Q1) On admission,a patient with a history of cardiac insufficiency complains of shortness of breath.The nurse auscultates the lungs and notes bilateral crackles throughout both fields.In addition,there is bilateral +2 edema of the lower extremities.Which medication does the nurse anticipate that the health care provider will prescribe?
A) Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
B) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
C) Mannitol
D) Furosemide (Lasix)
Q2) The nurse is reviewing lab work received on a patient admitted with the diagnosis of dehydration.The nurse will notify the physician of which lab value?
A) Serum sodium level: 115 mEq/L
B) Serum potassium level: 5.0 mEq/L
C) Serum sodium level: 140 mEq/L
D) Serum potassium level: 3.5 mEq/L
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Chapter 29: Drugs Used to Treat Upper Respiratory Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which topically active aerosol steroids are highly effective for reducing sneezing,nasal itching,stuffiness,and rhinorrhea?(Select all that apply.)
A) Beclomethasone (Beconase AQ)
B) Prednisone (Deltasone)
C) Fluticasone (Flonase)
D) Flunisolide (Nasarel)
E) Budesonide (Rhinocort Aqua)
Q2) Which principle(s)will the nurse include in a teaching plan for antihistamine therapy?(Select all that apply.)
A) It is typical to experience an increase in energy.
B) Dietary fiber and fluids should be increased.
C) Do not take with prescription medications unless approved by a physician.
D) Blurred vision is an expected adverse effect.
E) Over-the-counter (OTC) medications are safe to use with any currently prescribed prescription medications.
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Chapter 30: Drugs Used to Treat Lower Respiratory Disease
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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a common expectorant in over-the-counter medications?
A) Dextromethorphan
B) Diphenhydramine
C) Guaifenesin
D) Codeine
Q2) What is the action of zafirlukast (Accolate),a leukotriene receptor antagonist?
A) Dilates the alveolar sacs
B) Decreases leukotriene release
C) Inhibits histamine release
D) Increases viscosity of secretions
Q3) The health care provider in an outpatient clinic has prescribed omalizumab (Xolair)to a patient.Which primary outcome will the nurse teach the patient to expect?
A) Easier expectoration of phlegm
B) Less frequent asthma exacerbations
C) Increased moisture of the mucous membranes
D) Liquefaction of thick secretions
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Chapter 31: Drugs Used to Treat Oral Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assisting with care of a patient on chemotherapy with severe mucositis.The patient reports mucous membrane pain level to be "8" on the pain scale.The priority nursing diagnosis for this patient is
A) altered nutrition: less than body requirements.
B) risk for aspiration.
C) fluid volume deficit.
D) pain.
Q2) A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)uses a corticosteroid inhaler bid.Which adverse effect is associated with this medication?
A) Mucositis
B) Plaque
C) Xerostomia
D) Candidiasis
Q3) What is the most common cause of most tooth,gum,and periodontal disease?
A) Sugar
B) Halitosis
C) Plaque
D) Smoking
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33
Chapter 32: Drugs Used to Treat Gastroesophageal Reflux and Peptic Ulcer Disease
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19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking NSAIDs to treat arthritis asks the nurse why misoprostol has also been prescribed.Which explanation by the nurse is accurate?
A) NSAIDs often cause GI irritation that can result in peptic ulcers.
B) NSAIDs promote the production of prostaglandins and reduce the incidence of gastric irritation.
C) Antiulcer medications eradicate the presence of bacteria in the stomach that cause ulcers.
D) Drug interactions are prevented when antiulcer medications are used in combination with NSAIDs.
Q2) Which is considered an acceptable time frame for a patient with gastric distress to self-medicate with over-the-counter antacids?
A) Hours
B) Days
C) Weeks
D) Months
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Chapter 33: Drugs Used to Treat Nausea and Vomiting
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a 27-year-old patient taking a cannabinoid during chemotherapy.Which consideration will the nurse take into account?
A) Antihistamines may potentiate the effects.
B) Monitor the patient for fluid volume excess.
C) Previous use of marijuana requires increased dosage.
D) Inform the patient to avoid the intake of potassium.
Q2) The nurse is administering medications to various patients during morning medication pass.The patient at the lowest risk of having an adverse reaction is the patient receiving
A) ondansetron.
B) scopolamine.
C) promethazine.
D) dexamethasone.
Q3) What is the purpose for the nurse administering metoclopramide (Reglan)IV postoperatively?
A) Prolong the effects of anesthesia
B) Decrease the potential for thrombus formation
C) Prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting
D) Decrease postoperative pain
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Drugs Used to Treat Constipation and Diarrhea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which effect will the nurse expect when a patient is taking psyllium while on digoxin?
A) Decreased effectiveness of the laxative
B) Increased laxative effect
C) Increased absorption of the digoxin
D) Decreased absorption of the digoxin
Q2) A friend reports using loperamide (Imodium)for continual diarrhea for a week since returning home from a vacation outside the country.Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "There are some other over-the-counter products available for diarrhea, such as Kaopectate (bismuth subsalicylate)."
B) "I'd stop taking the Imodium and go in to see a health care provider immediately. You may have an infection in your intestinal tract."
C) "If you're not running a temperature, I wouldn't worry. That happens to many people when they travel."
D) "As long as you can drink plenty of fluids, I'm sure the diarrhea will go away once you're back in a normal routine."
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36
Chapter 35: Drugs Used to Treat Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a blood glucose reading,it is determined that the patient should receive 4 units of Lispro and 8 units of NPH.Which action will the nurse take to administer these medications?
A) Draw up each insulin in separate syringes and administer two injections.
B) Draw up the NPH first and then the Lispro using the same syringe.
C) Administer the Lispro before the meal and the NPH after the meal.
D) Draw up the Lispro first and then the NPH using the same syringe.
Q2) The nurse is educating a patient with diabetes mellitus regarding urine testing for ketones.Information provided will include that ketone testing should be done(Select all that apply.)
A) when illness occurs.
B) during pregnancy.
C) before and after physical exercise.
D) when blood glucose is above usual range.
E) every morning upon awakening.
Q3) When is the best time for the nurse to administer Lispro?
A) After the patient has started eating
B) Within 10 to 15 minutes of eating
C) 30 minutes before a meal
D) 45 to 60 minutes before a meal
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Chapter 36: Drugs Used to Treat Thyroid Disease
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of heart failure has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism.The drug interaction with glycosides and thyroid replacement therapy will most likely require which change in therapy?
A) Decrease in the daily digoxin dosage
B) Gradual increase in the daily glycoside dosage
C) Inability to begin thyroid replacement therapy because of the underlying heart condition
D) Increased thyroid replacement dosage
Q2) Which medication is used in the treatment of hypothyroidism?
A) Levothyroxine (Synthroid)
B) Radioactive iodine
C) Propylthiouracil (Propacil)
D) Methimazole (Tapazole)
Q3) When assisting with the care of a patient with hyperthyroidism,the nurse will A) provide a cool environment.
B) anticipate ordering a low-calorie diet.
C) limit daily caffeine intake.
D) encourage intake of bran products.
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Chapter 37: Corticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be primary therapeutic outcome(s)expected from fludrocortisone (Florinef)therapy?(Select all that apply.)
A) Reduced inflammation
B) Pain relief
C) Blood pressure control
D) Restored fluid and electrolyte balance
Q2) The nurse transcribes a new order for a patient for a fludrocortisone.When planning the time of administration,the nurse will schedule this medication to be given
A) with breakfast and dinner.
B) once daily in the evening.
C) before meals.
D) with lunch.
Q3) What is the rationale for monitoring vital signs of patients receiving corticosteroids?
A) Orthostatic hypotension
B) Malignant hyperthermia
C) Infection
D) Hyperglycemia
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Chapter 38: Gonadal Hormones
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the rationale for using an androgen as part of breast cancer treatment?
A) For maintenance of fat stores
B) To promote nutrition
C) To prevent wasting resulting from cancer growth
D) For palliative treatment to suppress cancer cell growth
Q2) The nurse is teaching a young woman about birth control pills.For which situation will the patient need to seek immediate follow-up with the health care provider?
A) Breakthrough bleeding
B) Nausea
C) Missed dose
D) Light menstrual flow
Q3) The health of a patient receiving androgen therapy for breast cancer declines and she becomes bed bound.Which condition will this patient be at risk of developing?
A) Electrolyte imbalances
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Fluid overload
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Chapter 39: Drugs Used in Obstetrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which reason will betamethasone IM be administered to the mother in premature labor?
A) To stop uterine contractions
B) To prevent precipitous labor
C) To stimulate lung maturity in the fetus
D) To stimulate prolactin to enhance breastfeeding
Q2) A patient is a gravida 1,Rh-negative woman at a 28 weeks' gestation.The father of her child is Rh positive.The mother is asking the nurse about the effect on her unborn child of RhoGAM that has been ordered.What is the nurse's best reply?
A) "Your child will do well after birth once transfusions are administered."
B) "If the baby is Rh negative at birth, he or she will need RhoGAM also."
C) "RhoGAM kills antibodies you make, so your child will be protected."
D) "Your baby may be Rh positive and cause you to make antibodies. These won't affect this baby but could affect future children if RhoGAM isn't given."
Q3) Which medication is used to treat a patient with atonic uterus?
A) Estradiol
B) Ergonovine
C) Ergotamine
D) Egophony
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Drugs Used in Mens and Womens Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient states that she has a difficult time remembering when to resume her triphasic contraceptive pills following her menses.Which alternative plan will the nurse suggest that she discuss with her health care provider?
A) Changing to the 28-day packet
B) Using the inert pills every other month
C) Changing her prescription to the mini pill
D) Calling the health care provider whenever she forgets to get appropriate instruction
Q2) A patient diagnosed with benign prostatic hypertrophy asks why tamsulosin (Flomax),an alpha-1 adrenergic blocking agent,has been prescribed.Which explanation by the nurse is most accurate?
A) It inhibits the action of testosterone.
B) It improves sexual function.
C) It reduces the size of the prostate.
D) It increases urinary flow.
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Chapter 41: Drugs Used to Treat Disorders of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition will neostigmine be used to treat?
A) OAB
B) UTI
C) Postoperative or postdelivery urinary retention
D) Benign prostatic hypertrophy
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient about the anticholinergic agent prescribed for urinary retention.Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will chew gum to relieve dry mouth."
B) "I will limit my fluid intake."
C) "I will eat fresh fruits."
D) "I will not drive if I develop blurred vision."
Q3) When obtaining urine for analysis on a patient in the labor and birth unit,the nurse assesses the urine to appear frothy.The nurse interprets this as a sign of possible A) gestational diabetes.
B) infection.
C) preeclampsia (toxemia).
D) dehydration.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Drugs Used to Treat Glaucoma and Other Eye Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient recently diagnosed with glaucoma is to begin drug therapy with carbonic anhydrase inhibitors.For which assessment(s)would the nurse need to contact the health care provider?(Select all that apply.)
A) Electrolyte levels
B) Any signs of gastric symptoms before initiating drug therapy
C) Allergy to sulfonamides
D) Patient history of menopause
E) Elevated IOP levels
Q2) What is the mechanism of action of osmotic agents when used to decrease IOP?
A) Promoting outflow of the aqueous humor into the tear ducts
B) Increasing plasma osmolarity and drawing extracellular fluid into the blood
C) Blocking production of aqueous humor
D) Decreasing viscosity of the tears and allowing fluid to drain away from the eye
Q3) Which type of medication would be used to dilate the pupils before an eye examination?
A) Osmotics
B) Adrenergic agent
C) Beta-adrenergic agent
D) Corticosteroid
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Drugs Used to Treat Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with breast cancer.The patient reports that she has been experiencing frequent watery stools following chemotherapy treatment.When educating the patient regarding dietary guidelines to help relieve symptoms the nurse will encourage
A) eliminating spicy foods.
B) eating low-protein foods.
C) implementing a high-roughage diet.
D) eating high-fat foods.
Q2) Which assessment by the nurse would be a sign of neurotoxicity related to chemotherapy?
A) Paresthesia
B) Euphoria
C) Nausea
D) Hallucinations
Q3) Which symptom is the patient who is receiving bleomycin (Blenoxane)therapy most likely to exhibit?
A) Increased respiratory rate and cough
B) Weight gain and peripheral edema
C) Numbness and tingling of hands and feet
D) Lethargy and orthostatic hypotension
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Chapter 44: Drugs Used to Treat the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is examining a patient in the emergency department whose chief complaint is a dislocated shoulder.Which assessment data are needed to evaluate the patient?(Select all that apply.)
A) Details related to the mechanism of injury
B) Degree of impairment
C) Pain level
D) Inspection of the affected part for swelling, capillary refill, bruising, redness, localized tenderness, deformities, and paresthesia
E) Elevation of the affected extremity
Q2) The patient's family asks why neuromuscular blocking agents are used before electroconvulsive therapy.Which explanation by the nurse is most accurate?
A) "They stimulate respirations while therapy is delivered."
B) "They prevent aspiration of respiratory secretions during the therapy."
C) "They decrease intracranial pressure resulting from therapy."
D) "They reduce the risk of injury during therapy."
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Chapter 45: Antimicrobial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning to administer an ertapenem IV to a patient in the intensive care unit.When preparing this medication,the nurse will consider reconstituting it with(Select all that apply.)
A) water.
B) bacteriostatic water.
C) 0.9% sodium chloride.
D) 0.45% dextrose.
E) 1% lidocaine.
Q2) Which drug is the cornerstone of treatment for prophylaxis and treatment of tuberculosis (TB)?
A) Amphotericin B (Abelcet)
B) Streptomycin (Streptomycin)
C) Isoniazid (Nydrazid)
D) Acyclovir (Zovirax)
Q3) The nurse will monitor patients on cephalosporins and loop diuretics for which adverse effect?
A) Hepatic toxicity
B) Ototoxicity
C) Nephrotoxicity
D) Splenotoxicity
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Chapter 46: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is being treated for symptoms of alcohol withdrawal and has been identified to have a thiamine deficiency.When performing physical assessment on this patient specific to thiamine deficiency,the nurse will focus on(Select all that apply.)
A) level of consciousness.
B) cardiac status.
C) sensitivity to light.
D) risk for diarrhea.
E) nutrition status.
Q2) A patient who is 8 weeks' postpartum would like to begin a moderate intensity exercise program to lose the remaining 20 lb she gained during her pregnancy.Which exercise regimen will the nurse recommend to accomplish this goal best?
A) Walking 2 miles daily in 1 hour, four times weekly
B) Jogging 4 miles in 20 minutes, three times weekly
C) Walking 4 miles in 1 hour daily
D) Jogging 2 miles in 20 minutes, twice weekly
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Chapter 47: Herbal and Dietary Supplement Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aloe gel for topical use has been marketed to treat which conditions?(Select all that apply.)
A) Sunburn
B) Psoriasis
C) Migraine headaches
D) Pain and inflammation
E) Itching
Q2) Which herb is used to stimulate the innate immune system?
A) Aloe
B) Echinacea
C) Chamomile
D) Ginger
Q3) A patient diagnosed with diabetes,hypertension,chronic obstructive pulmonary disease,and angina reports to the nurse that she is taking an aloe juice drink to treat constipation.When assessing this patient for adverse interactions,the nurse will prioritize
A) pulse rate.
B) blood pressure.
C) lung sounds.
D) blood glucose monitoring.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Substance Abuse
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18904
Sample Questions
Q1) A 16-year-old male has been referred to the community mental health center following legal charges of driving under the influence.Which screening tests would be appropriate to use on this patient?
A) Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST)
B) Adolescent Alcohol Involvement Scale (AAIS)
C) Adolescent Drug Abuse Diagnosis (ADAD)
D) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI 2)
Q2) What important point(s)of patient education should be included about disulfiram (Antabuse)therapy?(Select all that apply.)
A) The patient should return for liver function tests in 10 to 14 days following initiation of therapy.
B) Headache, fatigue, and a metallic taste are common adverse effects that usually resolve.
C) Avoid alcohol ingestion to prevent a reaction.
D) Carefully read all labels for possible alcohol content, including perfumes and over-the-counter (OTC) medications such as cough syrups.
E) Report to the health care provider any allergic symptoms, such as hives or pruritus.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Miscellaneous Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse receives an order to administer colchicine 0.6 mg every 1 to 2 hours until the patient exhibits adverse effects.The nurse will monitor for which adverse effect?
A) Diminished fever
B) Diarrhea or nausea
C) Increased urination
D) Decrease in erythema
Q2) A patient is prescribed memantine (Namenda)10 mg by mouth daily in liquid form.When preparing this medication,the nurse observes that memantine (Namenda)oral solution has 2 mg/mL in 360 mL.How many milliliters will the nurse prepare?
A) 2.5
B) 5
C) 10
D) 15
Q3) Which nursing action is accurate when administering colchicine?
A) Administer the medication subcutaneously.
B) Maintain fluid intake of at least eight 8-ounce glasses daily.
C) Increase fiber in the diet to prevent constipation.
D) Inform the patient that pain will be alleviated in 2 weeks.
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