Nursing Concepts Exam Review
Course Introduction
Nursing Concepts is a foundational course designed to introduce students to the essential principles, theories, and practices that underpin the nursing profession. The course explores key concepts such as patient-centered care, clinical reasoning, safety, communication, and evidence-based practice. Students will develop an understanding of the nurses role within the healthcare system and learn the critical skills necessary for delivering holistic and compassionate care across diverse populations. Emphasis is placed on ethical decision-making, professional standards, and the integration of theoretical concepts into clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing 7th Editon by Cooper
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57 Chapters
2259 Verified Questions
2259 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/328
Page 2
Chapter 1: Evolution of Nursing
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5455
Sample Questions
Q1) How may a newly licensed LPN/LVN practice?
A) Independently in a hospital setting
B) With an experienced LPN/LVN
C) Under the supervision of a physician or RN
D) As a sole practitioner in a clinic setting
Answer: C
Q2) During early civilization _____________ ________ performed witchcraft and rituals to induce the bad spirits to leave the body of the ailing person.
Answer: medicine men
Medicine men performed witchcraft and rituals to induce the bad spirits to leave the body of the ailing person during early civilization.
Q3) What is a nursing program considered when certified by a state agency?
A) Accredited
B) Approved
C) Provisional
D) Exemplified
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Legal and Ethical Aspects of Nursing
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acts whose performance is required, permitted, or prohibited are defined by ___________ of ______________.
Answer: standards, care
Standards of care define acts whose performance is required, permitted, or prohibited.
Q2) The nurse caring for a patient in the acute care setting assumes responsibility for a patient's care. What is this legally binding situation?
A) Nurse-patient relationship
B) Accountability
C) Advocacy
D) Standard of care
Answer: A
Q3) Which is a nursing care error that violates the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?
A) Administering a stronger dose of drug than was ordered
B) Refusing to give a patient's daughter information over the phone
C) Informing the patient's medical power of attorney of a medication change
D) Leaving a copy of the patient's history and physical in the photocopier
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Documentation
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse be sure to do when documenting in a patient's chart?
A) Include speculation
B) Chart consecutively
C) Leave blank spaces
D) Include retaliatory comments
Answer: B
Q2) What should a medical record provide for all health care providers? (Select all that apply.)
A) Care given to the patient
B) Care planned for the patient
C) A patient's nursing problems
D) A patient's medical problems
E) Details about any incident reports
F) The patient's response to treatment
Answer: A, B, C, D, F
Q3) Documentation using the DARE format (Data, Action, Response, Education) includes elements of the __________ charting system.
Answer: focused
Focused charting uses the acronym DARE to direct and formalize charting.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Communication
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse communicates with a patient by maintaining eye contact and through the use of touch. What type of communication technique is the nurse demonstrating?
A) Verbal
B) Persuasive
C) Directive
D) Nonverbal
Q2) A patient states, "I'm really strung out about this pregnancy." The nurse responds by asking, "What about this pregnancy worries you?" What communication technique is this?
A) Closed inquiry
B) Restating
C) Open-ended question
D) Minimal encouraging
Q3) What does therapeutic communication accomplish?
A) Facilitates the formation of a positive nurse-patient relationship
B) Manipulates the patient
C) Assigns the patient a passive role
D) Requires the patient to accept what the nurse says
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6
Chapter 5: Nursing Process and Critical Thinking
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53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What framework does the establishment of priorities of care during the planning phase of the nursing process often use?
A) Erikson's developmental tasks
B) Piaget's cognitive table
C) Maslow's hierarchy of needs
D) Freud's classifications
Q2) During an admission assessment, the nurse collects objective and subjective data. What is an example of subjective data?
A) The patient is asleep.
B) The patient is tearful.
C) The patient has facial grimacing.
D) The patient states, "I hurt all over."
Q3) Any health care condition that requires diagnostic, therapeutic, or educational actions is known as a ______________.
Q4) The standards that name and measure patient outcomes are referred to as ___________.
Q5) NANDA International meets to reorganize diagnosis labels and language every ______ years.
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Chapter 6: Cultural and Ethnic Considerations
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for an African American patient. Who would the nurse expect to be the primary decision maker in the patient's family?
A) Men
B) Women
C) Clergy
D) Grandparents
Q2) The nurse is caring for a Mexican American patient. What nursing intervention would best demonstrate cultural sensitivity?
A) Encouraging consultation of male members of the family regarding health care decisions
B) Discouraging consultation of male members of the family regarding health care decisions
C) Insisting on providing all personal care required by the patient
D) Asking only female family members about health care decisions
Q3) What basic philosophy in the United States is relevant to health care?
A) Folk remedies
B) Biomedical therapy
C) Holistic therapy
D) Spiritual intervention
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Asepsis and Infection Control
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What bacteria can lie dormant when conditions for growth are not favorable?
A) Residue
B) Capsules
C) Spores
D) Flagella
Q2) What is true regarding surgical asepsis?
A) It inhibits growth of pathogenic organisms.
B) It is known as a cleaning technique.
C) It includes hand hygiene.
D) It is known as a sterile technique.
Q3) When assessing a patient for signs of an infection, the nurse recognizes which laboratory result as indicative of an infection?
A) Lowered red blood cell count
B) Increased white blood cell count
C) Lowered white blood cell count
D) Increased red blood cell count
Q4) A patient is distressed that an antibiotic has not been effective for the control of the infection. The nurse explains that some bacteria are capable of defending against antibiotics by the formation of a _______.
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Chapter 8: Body Mechanics and Patient Mobility
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To maintain a wide base of support, the nurse should stand with the feet separated by the distance of _______ times the length of the nurse's shoe.
Q2) The nurse instructs a nursing assistant to use large muscle groups when lifting. What is the rationale for this instruction?
A) Workers' compensation claims will be prevented
B) Big muscles work more effectively
C) It guarantees no muscle strain
D) It distributes workload more evenly
Q3) Where should the nurse place the load when carrying heavy objects?
A) In a low position
B) To the side of the body
C) Close to the body midline
D) With another's assistance
Q4) What profession has the highest workers' compensation claim rates of any occupation or industry?
A) Firefighters
B) Truck drivers
C) Law enforcement
D) Nursing personnel
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Chapter 9: Hygiene and Care of the Patients Environment
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38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the nurse recognize is important to consider when using the nursing process to plan hygiene care of the patient?
A) Nurse's orders
B) Physician's orders
C) Patient's preferences
D) Outcome goals
Q2) The physician orders a patient to be placed in the reverse Trendelenburg position. How should the nurse place the bed?
A) On the floor
B) Parallel with the floor
C) Tilted with the head of the bed down
D) Tilted with the foot of the bed down
Q3) The nurse is bathing a patient with a deep vein thrombosis in the left leg. What modification will the nurse make when attending to the left leg?
A) Washing the leg with long, firm strokes and drying with a towel
B) Omitting washing the leg at all
C) Gently washing the leg and patting dry with a towel
D) Applying lotion in long, smooth strokes
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Chapter 10: Safety
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse conducting a seminar on bioterrorism reviews several types of agents that may be used as weapons. An agent that does not seriously damage or kill the target population but only impairs it is classified as _____________.
Q2) What skills should health care workers frequently attend in-services about to ensure that staff has competent skills and risk for falls can be decreased?
A) Bathing
B) Feeding
C) Transferring
D) Ambulating
Q3) What must the nurse do before applying a safety reminder device (SRD)?
A) Get permission from the family
B) Assess patient's skin condition
C) Get a physician's order
D) Explain the SRD to the patient
Q4) The nurse explains that the measurement of radiation exposure is in multiples of Gy. The number of Gy an individual may absorb before becoming ill with radiation syndrome is _______.
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12
Chapter 11: Vital Signs
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is suspected of having a cardiac arrhythmia. The nurse is concerned with the findings of an apical rate of 88 and a radial rate of 80. What is the term for the difference between these two rates?
A) Pulse pressure
B) Unequal pulses
C) Pulse deficit
D) Tachycardia
Q2) A nurse assesses a patient's dorsalis pedis pulse. The pulse feels full and springlike even under moderate pressure. How should the nurse document this finding?
A) Weak pulse
B) Normal pulse
C) Thready pulse
D) Bounding pulse
Q3) What type of body temperature remains relatively constant?
A) Surface
B) Rectal
C) Oral
D) Core
Q4) The nurse assesses for the fifth vital sign, which is______________.
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Chapter 12: Physical Assessment
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a physical assessment, the nurse notes that a patient has bright red blood in the feces. What does the nurse recognize as the most likely cause of this bleeding?
A) Bleeding in the upper intestinal tract
B) Bleeding in the lower intestinal tract
C) Bleeding in the entire intestinal tract
D) Consumption of cranberry juice
Q2) During a physical assessment, the nurse notes that a patient's heart rate is 56 beats per minute. What should the nurse document that the patient is experiencing?
A) Dyspnea
B) Cyanosis
C) Diaphoresis
D) Bradycardia
Q3) Symptoms that are perceived by the patient are known as _____________ ____________.
Q4) A condition in which there is a lack of appetite resulting in the inability to eat is known as _______________.
Q5) An abnormally rapid rate of breathing that is seen in many disease conditions is known as ___________________.
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Chapter 13: Admission, Transfer, and Discharge
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When should discharge planning begin?
A) The day before discharge
B) On the first day postoperatively
C) Shortly after admission
D) When the doctor orders it
Q2) How can the nurse demonstrate cultural sensitivity to a Haitian American patient?
A) By providing a well-lit room 24 hours a day
B) By writing out all instructions given to the patient
C) By allowing the patient to keep leaves in her room
D) By asking the physician to provide all directions to the patient
Q3) Where can a nurse refer the family of a patient to find a source of financial aid to meet medical expenses?
A) A local bank
B) A clinical nurse specialist
C) The hospital administration
D) Social services
Q4) The nurse completes thorough documentation before, during, and after a transfer to ensure _______ of _______.
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15
Chapter 14: Surgical Wound Care
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The day following surgery, the nurse notes bloody drainage on the dressing. How will the nurse describe this drainage when documenting?
A) Serosanguineous
B) Sanguineous
C) Serous
D) Purulent
Q2) The nurse is instructing a patient who has a drain in a surgical wound. How will the nurse indicate that the wound will heal?
A) Primary intention
B) Secondary intention
C) Tertiary intention
D) Deliberate intention
Q3) The nurse assessing a patient's wound notes pale red watery drainage. How will the nurse most accurately document this finding?
A) Serous drainage
B) Purulent drainage
C) Sanguineous drainage
D) Serosanguineous drainage
Q4) When preparing to remove a dressing, the nurse should don __________ gloves.
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Chapter 15: Specimen Collection and Diagnostic Testing
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What intervention should the nurse implement when preparing the patient for a glucose tolerance test (GTT)?
A) Restrict water intake before the test
B) Encourage water intake before the test
C) Keep patient NPO 4 hours before the test
D) Instruct patient to have a full bladder for the test
Q2) What should the nurse do when preparing the patient for an amniocentesis?
A) Restrict food intake
B) Restrict fluid intake
C) Monitor fetal heart tones
D) Inform patient results will be available immediately
Q3) New physician orders are transcribed for a patient to receive a colonoscopy. What must be completed before the colonoscopy to indicate the patient has been given full knowledge about what will be done along with its risks and complications?
A) Patients' rights
B) Advance directive
C) Informed consent
D) Patient protection
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Chapter 16: Care of Patients Experiencing Urgent
Alterations in Health
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with multiple serious injuries sustained in a motorcycle accident is lying beside his wrecked motorcycle unconscious and bleeding when the rescuer arrives at the scene. What will be the rescuer's priority action?
A) Assessing blood loss
B) Assessing respiratory status
C) Obtaining vital signs
D) Organizing laypeople at the scene
Q2) While on break in the hospital cafeteria a nurse witnesses her pregnant co-worker start to choke. The co-worker is conscious, but unable to breathe. Where should the nurse administer thrusts?
A) Below the navel
B) The chest
C) At the xiphoid process
D) The upper back
Q3) When two nurses perform two-person CPR, there should be _____ slow breaths for every _____ compressions.
Q4) The acronym RICE directs the nurse in the care of a sprain. The "C" in the acronym stands for ________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What training system may help prevent osteoporosis?
A) Acupressure
B) Yoga
C) Therapeutic massage
D) Tai chi
Q2) Herbal remedies vary from pharmaceutical remedies in what way(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Herbal remedies use the whole plant.
B) Herbal remedies have no quality control.
C) Herbal remedies have no standard dose.
D) Herbal remedies are sold as food supplements.
E) Herbal remedies are always safe and effective.
Q3) Acupuncture is a complementary therapy that uses fine needles placed in acupoints. What is the believed purpose of these acupoints?
A) "Close the gate" for pain transmission
B) Align the internal organs
C) Open meridians to release qi
D) Stimulate the "centering" of qi
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19
Chapter 18: Pain Management, Comfort, Rest, and Sleep
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells the nurse he is reluctant to report his pain because he does not want to be a bother. What problems is the nurse aware that unrelieved pain can cause? (Select all that apply.)
A) Decreased oxygen demand
B) Depression
C) Respiratory dysfunction
D) Decreased GI motility
E) Irritability
Q2) Why should a nurse promptly administer a prescribed analgesic after a pain assessment?
A) The physician has ordered it
B) It is an efficient use of time
C) Unrelieved pain can cause setbacks
D) It meets the goals of the nursing care plan
Q3) When should a nurse administer prescribed analgesic medication when treating a postoperative patient?
A) Before activity
B) Only when requested by the physician
C) Only when requested by the family
D) Only when requested by the patient
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Chapter 19: Nutritional Concepts and Related Therapies
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39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is educating a group of high school students regarding nutrition. How should the nurse respond when the students ask what occurs when protein, mineral, iron, and fat combine?
A) Body processes are regulated
B) Energy is provided
C) Tissue is built and repaired
D) Body function is restored
Q2) The nurse makes nutrition a focus in the care plan. Where does nutrition play the most important role?
A) Weight control
B) Sustained appetite
C) Building strong bones
D) Health maintenance
Q3) The body uses 22 common amino acids, but 9 of them must be obtained from protein in the diet. What are these proteins considered?
A) Essential
B) Basic
C) Fundamental
D) Primary
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Chapter 20: Fluids and Electrolytes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Three body systems work at different speeds to keep the pH in the narrow range of normal. What is the order of effectiveness for these three systems?
A) Blood buffers, kidneys, and lungs
B) Kidneys, lungs, and blood buffers
C) Blood buffers, lungs, and kidneys
D) Lungs, kidneys, and blood buffers
Q2) A patient admitted in a state of extreme anxiety has vital signs of: T 98.6° F, P 81, BP 130/86, R 32. What will result if this hyperventilation continues?
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Metabolic alkalosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis
Q3) Homeostasis of the hydrogen ion concentration in body fluids depends on the ratio of carbonic acid to bicarbonate in the extracellular fluid. What is this ratio?
A) 1:5
B) 1:10
C) 1:15
D) 1:20
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22
Chapter 21: Mathematics and Medication Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tylenol gr V is ordered. The available tablet is 0.3g. What dosage should the nurse administer?
A) 1 tablet
B) 1.5 tablets
C) \(\frac { 1 } { 2 }\) tablet
D) 2 tablets
Q2) What is the sum o \(\frac { 3 } { 4 }\) f an \(\frac { 7 } { 8 }\) d ?
A) \(\frac { 10 } { 48 }\)
B) \(\frac { 10 } { 12 }\)
C) \(\frac { 21 } { 4 }\)
D) \(1 \frac { 5 } { 8 }\)
Q3) To help relax the anal sphincter during the insertion of a suppository, the nurse should ask the patient to ____________.
Q4) In some health care facilities, the LPN/LVN is allowed to take telephone orders from a physician. What is one precaution the nurse must take when receiving a verbal order?
A) Write quickly
B) Repeat the order to the physician
C) Have another nurse listen on an extension
D) Sign and initial the physician's name on the order
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Chapter 22: Care of Patients with Alterations in Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse instructs a patient receiving home O? therapy to drink plenty of fluids to help keep bronchial secretions liquefied. What is the recommended fluid?
A) Milk
B) Water
C) Tea with artificial sweetener
D) Coffee
Q2) Hot moist compresses have which positive effect(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Improvement of circulation
B) Relief of edema
C) Consolidation of exudates
D) Enhancement of scabbing
E) Relief of pain
Q3) When explaining the difference between a colostomy and an ileostomy, the nurse explains which of the following about an ileostomy?
A) It is always permanent
B) It drains semi-liquid stool
C) It has a much larger stoma
D) It does not need a pouch
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Chapter 23: Life Span Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 58-year-old male is concerned about some hearing loss he is experiencing. The nurse recognizes that this might be due to a sensory change of this age group known as which of the following?
A) Presbycusis
B) Otitis externa
C) Presbyopia
D) Otitis media
Q2) A nurse teaching the mother about infant oral hygiene instructs the mother to offer the infant sips of:
A) cola.
B) milk.
C) juice.
D) water.
Q3) A nurse assessing a 4-month-old infant would expect the infant to do which of the following?
A) Crawl up the stairs
B) Creep on the floor at least 30 feet
C) Walk upright with a waddling gait
D) Hold head at a 90-degree angle while prone
Q4) The process that refers to gradual change and differentiation is _____________.
25
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Chapter 24: Loss, Grief, Dying, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for the dying mother of a 7-year-old child. What is important for the nurse to understand regarding the child?
A) The child associates death with aggression.
B) The child believes his or her own death cannot be avoided.
C) The child lacks understanding of the concept of death.
D) The child understands death as the inevitable end of life.
Q2) The nurse explains to a grieving husband that the process of the resolution of the hurt and the reestablishment of his life is called the __________ ___________.
Q3) A dying patient uses the call light frequently to ask the nurse to do simple tasks. The nurse recognizes this as a fear of:
A) increased pain.
B) failure.
C) abandonment.
D) isolation.
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26
Chapter 25: Health Promotion and Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses a reactive result to a nonstress test when the fetal heart rate increases _____ beats per minute.
Q2) During the last trimester of pregnancy, the nurse recommends that the woman wear low-heeled shoes. What is the nurse trying to prevent with this recommendation?
A) Lower back pain
B) Leg cramps
C) Leg swelling
D) Joint pain
Q3) What protects the fetus from most bacterial infections?
A) The yolk sac
B) The placental barrier
C) The cotyledons
D) The chorionic villa
Q4) Where does implantation of the fertilized ovum usually occur?
A) Lower uterine wall
B) Side of the uterus
C) Fundus of the uterus
D) Body of the uterus
Q5) The chorion and the amnion are the two components of the ________
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Chapter 26: Labor and Delivery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using Leopold maneuvers to assess fetal position, the nurse finds a soft rounded prominence at the level of the fundus, a hard round prominence just above the symphysis pubis, and nodulations on the left side of the uterus. How should the nurse document the fetal position?
A) Right occiput anterior (ROA), vertex
B) Left occiput anterior (LOA), vertex
C) Right occiput transverse (ROT), breech
D) Left occiput anterior (LOA), breech
Q2) A nurse shows the patient an x-ray of the fetal spine in parallel alignment with the mother's to demonstrate a ________ lie.
Q3) A primigravida has a pelvis of the android type, which usually means the delivery will be a _______________.
Q4) For the first hour following delivery, how often should the nurse assess the mother?
A) Every 5 minutes
B) Every 10 minutes
C) Every 15 minutes
D) Every 30 minutes
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28
Chapter 27: Care of the Mother and Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should be included when discussing the care of a circumcised infant after discharge from the hospital?
A) Gently remove the yellow exudate from the foreskin.
B) Apply sterile petroleum gauze after each diaper change.
C) Wipe the circumcision with alcohol each day.
D) Avoid the use of cloth diapers until the foreskin has healed.
Q2) Where would acrocyanosis be assessed on a newborn?
A) Circumoral area
B) Brow
C) Feet
D) Mucous membrane
Q3) Following delivery of the newborn, which nursing intervention should be carried out immediately?
A) Weigh the infant
B) Warm the infant
C) Bathe the infant
D) Inoculate the infant
Q4) After delivery of a 9-lb baby, the nurse assesses a perineal laceration extending through the muscles of the perineum. The nurse records this as a ________-degree laceration.
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Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should twins who share a placenta and come from one fertilized ovum be identified?
A) Dizygotic
B) Trizygotic
C) Genetically different
D) Monozygotic
Q2) A nursery nurse is implementing phototherapy for a jaundiced infant. What is the purpose of the phototherapy?
A) It is initiated when the bilirubin level reaches 5 mg/dL.
B) It converts bilirubin to a water-soluble form to be excreted in the urine.
C) It changes bilirubin to a bile salt to be excreted through the bowel.
D) It requires eye patches to remain in place 24 hours a day.
Q3) The nurse is assessing the newborn and discovers a yellowing of the skin. What is true for jaundice that appears at birth?
A) Within normal limits
B) Pathologic
C) A result of iron deficiency
D) Indicating possible hepatitis
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Chapter 29: Health Promotion for the Infant, Child, and Adolescent
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because the water in the infant's residential area is not fluoridated, when should the nurse suggest that the infant receive supplemental fluoride?
A) 2 months old
B) 4 months old
C) 5 months old
D) 6 months old
Q2) The nurse sets up a sample physical activities schedule to fit the FDA's Dietary Guidelines for Americans that recommends that children get at least how many minutes of physical activity per day?
A) 15
B) 30
C) 45
D) 60
Q3) Smoking contributes to an increased risk of heart and lung disease in children by which methods?
A) Air pollution
B) Allergens in the environment
C) Environmental smoke
D) Lack of oxygen in the air
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Chapter 30: Basic Pediatric Nursing Care
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best time to bathe an infant?
A) At bedtime
B) Early in the morning
C) After a feeding
D) Before a feeding
Q2) After observing parental behavior that leads the nurse to suspect child abuse, when should the nurse report the abuse?
A) If the parent confesses to child abuse
B) If the child admits to being abused
C) Whenever maltreatment of a child is suspected
D) When the type of abuse can be determined
Q3) When communicating with parents suspected of child abuse, what should the nurse be sure to do?
A) Tell them the law requires reporting of the incident
B) Be sympathetic to their needs
C) Interact with them in a nonjudgmental manner
D) Suggest psychiatric counseling
Q4) The nurse is aware that visual acuity evaluation in a child is best assessed after the age of _____ years.
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Chapter 31: Care of the Child with a Physical and Mental or Cognitive Disorder
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Since children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) take medication for long periods of time, side effects must be considered. How often should children be assessed for side effects of the drug therapy?
A) Every 2 months
B) Every 4 months
C) Every 6 months
D) Every 8 months
Q2) How should the nurse measure urinary output for an infant with dehydration?
A) Attaching a urine collecting bag
B) Wringing out the diaper
C) Weighing the diaper
D) Inserting a catheter
Q3) Which is a priority nursing intervention for the cognitively impaired child?
A) The family will provide good nutrition.
B) The family will provide loving interactions.
C) Stimulation will improve.
D) There will be contact with peers.
Q4) The nurse reminds a family that people with autism are also referred to as
Chapter 32: Health Promotion and Care of the Older Adult
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When communicating with an older adult patient who has difficulty hearing, how should the nurse change her speech?
A) Speak very loudly
B) Speak rapidly
C) Lower the tone of the voice
D) Raise the tone of the voice
Q2) The nurse initiates the application of a draw sheet on every bedfast patient on her unit to facilitate lifting and to prevent _________ forces.
Q3) What is the best test to identify the risk of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women?
A) Skeletal x-ray
B) Bone density scan
C) Calcium blood level
D) CAT scan
Q4) The nurse recognizes that a term referring to mechanical difficulty of swallowing is
Q5) When bathing an 80-year-old woman who lives on a farm, the nurse assesses brown macules on the patient's hands and forearms. The nurse recognizes these as
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Chapter 33: Concepts of Mental Health
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 40-year-old patient cries and has a tantrum when the physician refuses to give her a prescription for diet pills. The nurse realizes that this is the use of which defense mechanism?
A) Compensation
B) Denial
C) Regression
D) Repression
Q2) A perceived threat to self causes what emotion?
A) Fear
B) Anger
C) Depression
D) Anxiety
Q3) A nurse tearfully confides to the head nurse that being assigned to care for eight patients is stressful and overwhelming. What demonstrates the use of a healthy coping mechanism?
A) Writing down long lists of needed interventions before starting the day's work
B) Delegating appropriate care assignments to nursing assistants
C) Asking a co-worker to take one of her patients
D) Asking for the day off
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Care of the Patient with a Psychiatric Disorder
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A young man with malaria spikes a temperature of 105° F and begins to hallucinate. How should the nurse assess this?
A) Delirium
B) Psychotic break
C) Possible stroke
D) Anxiety disorder
Q2) The patient talks with his dead brother and arranges furniture so that his brother will have a place to sit. How should the nurse document this behavior?
A) Disordered thinking
B) Anhedonia
C) Hallucination
D) Alogia
Q3) What should the nurse preparing a patient for a scheduled appointment for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) remind the patient to do?
A) Drink plenty of fluids before ECT to ensure adequate hydration.
B) Bring a change of clothes in case of incontinence.
C) Be prepared for visual disturbances after the treatment.
D) Arrange for transportation to and from the appointment.
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Chapter 35: Care of the Patient with an Addictive Personality
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best response by a nurse when a patient inquires how alcohol acts so quickly on his system?
A) Alcohol is digested quickly.
B) Alcohol is converted to glycogen immediately.
C) Alcohol is metabolized into ethanol rapidly.
D) Alcohol is excreted in urine slowly.
Q2) What should the nurse do when suspecting a co-worker of abusing drugs while at work?
A) Confront the abuser
B) Report observations to a supervisor
C) Call the state board of nursing
D) Discuss the problem with another co-worker
Q3) The mother of a young woman being treated for amphetamine overdose asks the nurse when the manifestations will subside. What would be the most correct answer by the nurse?
A) "Usually in 8 to 10 hours."
B) "She will snap out of it in a day or two."
C) "Usually in about 2 hours, but the effects will return in 2 to 3 days."
D) "The manifestations may be permanent."
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Chapter 36: Home Health Nursing
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The initial evaluation and admission visit is made by an RN, who has been provided with general orders by a physician before the visit. This visit must be made within how many hours of the referral?
A) 4 to 8
B) 12 to 15
C) 18 to 24
D) 24 to 48
Q2) What is the fastest-growing group in the U.S. population today?
A) 30- to 40-year-olds
B) 40- to 50-year-olds
C) 50- to 65-year-olds
D) Those 85 and older
Q3) A major change to Medicare reimbursement was implemented in 1983. The new system paid a set rate according to diagnosis. What was the new payment system based upon?
A) Interim payment systems
B) Diagnosis-related groups
C) Title XVIII
D) Title XIX
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Long-Term Care
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34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient asks why he must be transferred to a subacute unit from the hospital, what would be an appropriate response by the nurse?
A) Reimbursement guidelines limit adults' stays in an acute setting.
B) The physician can oversee care more closely in a subacute setting.
C) Financial restrictions of insurance limit time spent in an acute care setting.
D) Cost and services at the acute care setting are the same as at the hospital.
Q2) What would be the most appropriate guidance the nurse could provide an older adult couple that is considering a continuing care retirement community (CCRC)?
A) Admittance is limited to people who are relatively unimpaired.
B) A contract is usually a lifetime commitment.
C) A contract is an acceptable tax shelter.
D) Contracts can be signed on a month-to-month basis.
Q3) What differentiates the services of a long-term care facility from that of an assisted living facility?
A) Skilled nursing care
B) Personal care services
C) Weekly visits by the staff physician
D) Intensive rehabilitation services
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Chapter 38: Rehabilitation Nursing
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse observes a patient experiencing a severe episode of autonomic dysreflexia, what should be the initial intervention?
A) Locate the cause of irritation
B) Assess the blood pressure
C) Cover the patient with several blankets
D) Raise the head of the bed to a high Fowler position
Q2) The rehabilitation nurse stresses to the family of a patient with a brain injury that difficult and painful rehabilitation will probably be required for what length of time?
A) 1 to 2 years
B) 2 to 4 years
C) 5 to 10 years
D) 6 to 12 years
Q3) The nurse used a diagnosis of impaired cognition for a 40-year-old patient with a brain injury. Which assessment data would support the diagnosis?
A) Frequently becomes violent
B) Becomes easily fatigued
C) Is depressed
D) Cannot add three numbers in his head
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Chapter 39: Hospice Care
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hospice nurse instructs caregivers in repositioning the patient because the patient spends most of the time reclining. What problem can this cause?
A) Contractures
B) Pressure ulcers
C) Bruising
D) Excoriation
Q2) What is the overall objective of hospice service?
A) Relieve symptoms of terminal disease
B) Educate the patient about the process of death
C) Keep the patient comfortable as death approaches
D) Relieve the family of the stress of death
Q3) What symptom of hospice patients is the most dreaded and feared, and should be a priority of symptom management?
A) Fear
B) Anger
C) Grief
D) Pain
Q4) When the dying patient becomes confused, the nurse should ____________ him or her.
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Chapter 40: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that ___________are small saclike structures inside the cell that digest compounds that have invaded the cell.
Q2) What traits describe visceral muscles?
A) Smooth and voluntary
B) Smooth and involuntary
C) Striated and voluntary
D) Striated and involuntary
Q3) What is the term for the passage of water containing dissolved materials through a membrane as the result of a greater mechanical force on one side?
A) Metabolism
B) Mitosis
C) Filtration
D) Osmosis
Q4) What are the thin sheets of tissue that lubricate and line the body surfaces that open to the outside environment?
A) Mucous membranes
B) Serous membranes
C) Cytoplasm
D) Involuntary visceral muscles
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Chapter 41: Care of the Surgical Patient
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the patient asks the nurse to make sure no one sees her with her dentures out, the nurse recognizes the common preoperative fear of:
A) anesthesia.
B) loss of control.
C) fear of separation from family.
D) mutilation.
Q2) The nurse caring for a postsurgical patient is aware that the patient should void ____ to _____ hours postsurgery.
Q3) Which interventions in preparing the patient for abdominal surgery may be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A) Vital signs
B) Insertion of N/G tube
C) Enema
D) Height and weight
E) Obtaining operative consent
F) Sterile gowning
Q4) ______________ therapy is performed to alleviate or decrease uncomfortable symptoms without curing the problem.
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Chapter 42: Care of the Patient with an Integumentary Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Melanocytes give rise to the pigment melanin, which is responsible for skin color. Where can the melanocytes be found?
A) Dermis
B) Superficial fascia
C) Epidermis
D) Loose connective tissue
Q2) The three major glands of the skin are __________, ___________, and __________.
Q3) A patient, age 46, reports to his physician's office with urticaria with elevated lesions that are white in the center with a pale red border on hands and arms. He says, "It itches like crazy." Which type of lesion would the nurse include in her documentation?
A) Macules
B) Plaques
C) Wheals
D) Vesicles
Q4) The most deadly skin cancer is ________________.
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Chapter 43: Care of the Patient with a Musculoskeletal Disorder
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the movement of an extremity away from the midline of the body called?
A) Abduction
B) Adduction
C) Flexion
D) Extension
Q2) What is the large, fan-shaped muscle that covers the anterior chest from the sternum to the proximal end of the humerus and acts on the joint of the shoulder to flex, adduct, and rotate?
A) Serratus anterior
B) Intercostal
C) Transversus abdominis
D) Pectoralis major
Q3) Which patient statement indicates the need for additional teaching for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is taking meloxicam (Mobic)?
A) "I am keeping a daily record of my blood pressure."
B) "I take aspirin before I go to bed."
C) "I know I can take meloxicam with or without regard to meals."
D) "I weigh every day so I will be aware of any weight gain."
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Chapter 44: Care of the Patient with a Gastrointestinal Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dumping syndrome after a Billroth II procedure occurs when high-carbohydrate foods are ingested over a period of less than 20 minutes. What would the nurse suggest to reduce the risk of dumping syndrome?
A) Eating a high-carbohydrate diet
B) Drinking 10 oz of fluids with meals
C) Remaining upright for 2 hours after meals
D) Eating six small daily meals high in protein and fat
Q2) The patient has come to the PACU following an ileostomy for the treatment of ulcerative colitis. The patient is conscious and has a nasogastric tube in place and a pouch over the stoma. What should be the nurse's initial action?
A) Turn patient to right side
B) Give patient ice chips to moisten mouth
C) Attach NG tube to suction
D) Irrigate NG tube
Q3) The nurse caring for a patient with Crohn disease will closely monitor the urinary output to ensure that the patient is excreting at least _______mL/day.
Q4) Flexible sigmoidoscopy should be performed every ________ years.
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Chapter 45: Care of the Patient with a Gallbladder, Liver, Biliary Tract, or Exocrine Pancreatic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a patient who has had an open cholecystectomy with a T-Tube will:
A) open the T-tube to the air so that it will drain freely.
B) position and secure the drainage bag at the chest level.
C) Place the collection bag so the tube is not kinked.
D) Irrigate the T-tube with normal saline to ensure the free flow of bile.
Q2) A patient with pancreatitis is NPO. The patient asks the nurse why he is unable to have anything by mouth. Which of the following is the best response?
A) "Diagnostic tests depend on you not eating anything."
B) "The pancreas is stimulated whenever you eat or drink, and causes pain."
C) "Eating causes the need for a bowel movement, which excretes your medication too rapidly."
D) "Resting your GI tract will cure your pancreatitis."
Q3) Which of the following is a classic symptom of cholecystitis?
A) Substernal, radiating to the left shoulder and arm
B) Epigastric, radiating to the back
C) Right upper abdomen, radiating to the back or right scapula
D) Left upper abdomen, radiating to the jaw and neck
Q4) Hepatitis D is usually seen as a co-infection with __________.
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Chapter
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47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that a positron emission tomography (PET) has been ordered to:
A) assess bone marrow depression.
B) measure bone density.
C) radiate and destroy diseased lymph nodes.
D) measure lymph node response to therapy.
Q2) The nurse examines the complete blood count (CBC) to assess (select all that apply):
A) hematocrit.
B) red cell count.
C) differential white cell count.
D) plasma level.
E) blood type.
F) hemoglobin.
Q3) Which of the following foods would the nurse recommend to a person with iron deficiency anemia as an excellent meat source for erythropoiesis?
A) Dark meat of chicken
B) Cured ham
C) Pork chops
D) Processed meat
48
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Chapter 47: Care of the Patient with a Cardiovascular or a Peripheral
Vascular Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is aware that the symptoms of an impending myocardial infarction (MI) differ in women because acute chest pain is not present. Women are frequently misdiagnosed as having:
A) hepatitis A.
B) indigestion.
C) urinary infection.
D) menopausal complications.
Q2) After an influenza-like illness, the patient complains of chills and small petechiae in his mouth and his legs. A heart murmur is detectable. These are characteristic signs of:
A) congestive heart failure.
B) heart block.
C) aortic stenosis.
D) infective endocarditis.
Q3) What do dark or "cold" spots on a thallium scan indicate?
A) Tissue with adequate blood supply
B) Dilated vessels
C) Areas of neoplastic growth
D) Tissue that has inadequate perfusion
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Chapter 48: Care of the Patient with a Respiratory Disorder
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains to the person with pneumonia in the left lung that being positioned in the "good lung down" offers the advantage of (select all that apply):
A) PaO2 rising in the good lung.
B) blood flow to "bad lung" being increased.
C) the dependent lung being better perfused.
D) dyspnea disappearing.
E) decreased hypoxia.
Q2) The nurse caring for a patient who has a closed chest drainage system notes that there is fluctuation (tidaling) in the water seal chamber. What is the most appropriate nursing action based on this assessment?
A) Document the tidaling
B) Elevate the head of the bed and notify charge nurse of malfunction of drainage system
C) Add more sterile water to the water seal chamber
D) Turn patient to the affected side
Q3) The nurse explains that the diagnostic test that can scan the chest and the abdomen in less than 30 seconds is the _____________ _____.
Q4) The nurse explains that the opening between the vocal cords is the __________.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Care of the Patient with a Urinary Disorder
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the hormone from the posterior pituitary gland that influences the amount of water that is eliminated with the urine?
A) Pitocin
B) Renin hormone
C) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
D) ACTH
Q2) The patient, age 43, has cancer of the urinary bladder. He has received a cystectomy with an ileal conduit. Which characteristics would be considered normal for his urine?
A) Hematuria
B) Clear amber with mucus shreds
C) Dark bile-colored
D) Dark amber
Q3) A patient with cystitis is receiving phenazopyridine (Pyridium) for pain and is voiding a bright red-orange urine. What should the nurse do?
A) Report this immediately
B) Explain to the patient that this is normal
C) Increase fluid intake
D) Collect a specimen
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Chapter 50: Care of the Patient with an Endocrine Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physician prescribes glyburide (Micronase, DiaBeta, Glynase) for a patient, age 57, when diet and exercise have not been able to control type 2 diabetes. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan about this medication?
A) It is a substitute for insulin and acts by directly stimulating glucose uptake into the cell.
B) It does not cause the hypoglycemic reactions that may occur with insulin use.
C) It is thought to stimulate insulin production and increase sensitivity to insulin at receptor sites.
D) It lowers blood sugar by inhibiting glucagon release from the liver, preventing gluconeogenesis.
Q2) Which test will furnish immediate feedback for a newly diagnosed diabetic who is not yet under control?
A) Fasting blood sugar (FBS)
B) Glycosylated hemoglobin (HgbA1c)
C) Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
D) Clinitest
Q3) Only ________insulin can be administered intravenously.
Q4) A condition with a deficiency in growth hormone is called ________________.
Q5) Another term for hyperglycemic reaction is ____________ ______________.
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Chapter 51: Care of the Patient with a Reproductive Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) What factor influences older women's reluctance to seek medical care for problems of the reproductive system?
A) Embarrassment and cultural factors
B) Denial
C) Religious convictions
D) Lack of free time
Q2) A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a yellowish-green malodorous vaginal discharge. She says it makes her itch and makes it hard to urinate. After a microscopic examination that confirms trichomoniasis, the patient is placed on metronidazole (Flagyl) for 7 days. How should the nurse advise the patient?
A) Avoid alcohol while on Flagyl
B) Be aware that her urine may turn blue and will stain clothing
C) Wear snug underwear during treatment
D) Be aware that she need not notify her sexual partners as trichomoniasis is not contagious
Q3) ________are produced in the seminiferous tubules and stored in the epididymis.
Q4) An alternative remedy, ____________ , is used by men for the treatment of impotence.
Page 53
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Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the patient stares at the black dot on an Amsler grid, what should the nurse ask him to report?
A) Any color visible on the grid
B) Fading of the edges of the grid
C) Any distortion of the grid
D) Movement of the black dot
Q2) What factors must the nurse consider when assessing readiness to learn when teaching health promotion practices for the visually and hearing impaired? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cultural beliefs
B) Values
C) Habits
D) Income
E) Occupation
Q3) The surgical incision into the eardrum with either a knife or a heated wire loop to relieve pressure in the middle ear is a(n) ___________.
Q4) Progressive deafness caused by the ankylosis of the stapes is the condition of__________.
Q5) The total removal of an eye is a(n) ___________.
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Chapter 53: Care of the Patient with a Neurologic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which foods should the person who suffers from migraine headaches avoid? (Select all that apply.)
A) Yogurt
B) Caffeine
C) Beef
D) Pears
E) Marinated foods
F) Milk
Q2) What is the basic problem that prompts most of the early signs of Alzheimer disease?
A) Changes in mood
B) Misplacing things
C) Memory loss that disrupts daily life
D) Problems with words in speaking
Q3) What is the nurse aware of when assessing a person with a craniocerebral injury?
A) Most injuries of this type are irreversible
B) Open injuries are always more serious than closed injuries
C) Signs and symptoms may not occur until several days after the trauma
D) Trauma to the frontal lobe is more significant than to any other area
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Page 55
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse outlines for a patient who has asthma attacks from pollen that the process from exposure to symptoms follows a systematic sequence. Place the physiologic responses of an allergic asthma attack in sequence. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D)
A) Release of histamine
B) Edema
C) Vasodilation
D) Activation of mast cells
E) Bronchospasm
F) Exposure to pollen
Q2) What is humoral immunity based on? (Select all that apply.)
A) Production of antibodies by B cells
B) T cells are activated by an antigen
C) The body's response to an antigen
D) Sensitized T cells destroy the antigen
E) Helper T cells activate phagocytosis
Q3) A type IV latex allergy is characterized by________ _______.
Q4) A transfusion using blood from one's own blood is a(n) ___________ transfusion, which is the best defense against a transfusion reaction.
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Chapter 55: Care of the Patient with HIV/AIDS
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5509
Sample Questions
Q1) Why are snacks high in potassium, such as bananas and apricot nectar, recommended?
A) Electrolytes are lost through diaphoresis.
B) Sodium is lost through frequent diarrhea.
C) Potassium will support weight gain.
D) Potassium helps fight infection.
Q2) What should the nurse look for when reviewing a patient's chart to determine whether she has progressed from HIV disease to AIDS?
A) CD4+ count below 500, chronic fatigue, night sweats
B) HIV-positive test result, CD4+ count below 200, history of opportunistic disease
C) Weight loss, persistent generalized lymphadenopathy, chronic diarrhea
D) Fever, chills, CD4+ count below 200
Q3) The combination of efforts of the medical team, nutritionist, social workers, and clergy is the necessary ______________ approach to the complex needs of the patients with HIV infection.
Q4) The nurse explains that an enzyme ____________ ____________ allows the RNA of the retrovirus to be changed to DNA and incorporated into the host's genetic material.
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Chapter 56: Care of the Patient with Cancer
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43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, age 63, has terminal cancer of the liver and is cared for by his wife at home. His abdominal pain has become increasingly severe, and he now says it is intense most of the time. The nurse recognizes that teaching regarding pain management has been effective based on which measure implemented by this patient?
A) Limiting the use of opiate analgesics to prevent addiction
B) Using analgesics only when the pain becomes more than he can tolerate
C) Taking analgesics around the clock on a regular schedule, using additional doses for breakthrough pain
D) Resigning himself to the fact that pain is an inevitable consequence of cancer
Q2) A ___________ test screens for occult blood in the stool.
Q3) The term ____________ refers to the process by which a normal cell is transformed into a cancer cell.
Q4) When should the nurse schedule the oral administration of metoclopramide (Reglan)?
A) Only at bedtime
B) With meals
C) 30 minutes before meals
D) 30 minutes after meals
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Chapter 57: Professional Roles and Leadership
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5511
Sample Questions
Q1) An employee failed to perform the duties listed in the employment contract. What is the term for this failure?
A) Lawsuit
B) Termination
C) Breach of contract
D) Reprimand
Q2) What is the best way to resolve most disagreements?
A) Agreement
B) Argument
C) Communication
D) Withdrawing
Q3) A nursing instructor is preparing her class for the NCLEX-PN examination. Which statements by the students indicate understanding of the testing process? (Select all that apply.)
A) "It will be a computerized adaptive test."
B) "I will have a maximum of 265 questions."
C) "The maximum time allowed for testing is 5 hours."
D) "The minimum number of questions on the test is 60."
E) "My state board of nursing must approve my application to test."
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