Nursing Concepts
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Nursing Concepts provides students with a foundational understanding of the essential principles, theories, and frameworks that guide professional nursing practice. This course explores core topics such as the nursing process, patient-centered care, therapeutic communication, ethical and legal considerations, cultural competence, and critical thinking. Emphasis is placed on developing a holistic approach to patient care, understanding the roles and responsibilities of nurses within healthcare teams, and applying evidence-based practices to promote health and wellness across diverse populations. Through case studies and practical examples, students build the skills necessary to deliver safe, effective, and compassionate care in a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Nursing 3rd Edition by Lois White
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61 Chapters
2346 Verified Questions
2346 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2241
Page 2
Chapter 1: Student Nurse Skills for Success
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which generic term refers to a heterogeneous group of disorders manifested as significant difficulties in the acquisition and use of listening,speaking,reading,writing,reasoning,or mathematical abilities?
A)educational delays
B)learning disability
C)mental deficiency
D)mental retardation
Answer: B
Q2) The student nurse understands that the barriers to effective use of time include such things as clutter,interruptions,procrastination,and:
A)delegation
B)perfectionism
C)making lists
D)taking activity breaks
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Holistic Care
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is admitted for removal of a cancerous breast.The client is a widow who has no close relatives or friends but has been successful in business.In planning her postoperative care,the nurse contacts a local organization that supports individuals who have mastectomies and several members begin to visit her before and after surgery.In this situation,which level of client needs in Maslow's hierarchy of needs is the nurse attending to?
A)love and belonging needs
B)physiologic needs
C)safety and security needs
D)self-esteem needs
Answer: A
Q2) Nursing often uses theories as a foundation for providing care.One such theory of behavioral motivation that is based on five related levels is known as:
A)Dossey's interrelated holistic health plan
B)Selye's stress-adaptation model
C)Maslow's hierarchy of needs
D)WHO's concept of health
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Nursing History, Education, and Organizations
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which characteristic is associated with hospitals established during the rule of the Roman Empire?
A)They advocated that nurses provide clients with clean air and light.
B)They established formal training for caregivers.
C)They were staffed mostly by paid male nurses and male assistants.
D)They were primarily charitable institutions housed in monasteries and convents.
Answer: D
Q2) Which type of nursing programs prepare graduates to write the licensure examination?
A)continuing
B)entry level
C)postgraduate
D)staff development
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Legal and Ethical Responsibilities
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are considered to be the client's rights in the health care setting? (Select all that apply. )
A)to review their medical records as desired
B)to decline any treatment or care
C)to be treated with respect and dignity
D)to be required to have advanced directives
E)to be treated upon arrival
F)to be included in the decision-making process
Q2) A nurse who is impaired can BEST be described as a person who:
A)has an illness that may be contagious to clients
B)has a physical handicap that limits work performance
C)is under the influence of alcohol,drugs,or both
D)is required to surrender to hospital authorities when discovered
Q3) On which of these ethical principles is whistle-blowing based?
A)beneficence and utility
B)fidelity and teleology
C)justice and nonmaleficence
D)veracity and nonmaleficence
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Chapter 5: The Health Care Delivery System
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42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these organizations is an example of a public agency?
A)American Medical Association
B)American Nurses Association
C)National Federation of LPNs
D)Veterans Administration
Q2) Factors contributing to decreased hospital population include such things as earlier discharge,growth in availability of outpatient services,and:
A)expectations or demands of consumers
B)advances in technology
C)greater complexity of needs and severity of illness of hospitalized clients
D)growth in number of hospitals
Q3) Nurses do not have legal recognition of the ability to prescribe medications because they lack:
A)medical practice
B)medical licensure
C)pharmaceutical directive
D)prescriptive authority
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Chapter 6: Arenas of Care
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a specified state agency annually sends a team of surveyors to visit facilities and determine if they are in compliance with the rules and regulations of the state,the process is called:
A)accreditation
B)approval
C)certification
D)licensure
Q2) Which of these services are usually provided for clients in independent-living apartments?
A)help with ADLs
B)housekeeping services and meals
C)nursing care
D)rehabilitation activities
Q3) The required process for any health care facility that chooses to be reimbursed by the government through Medicare or Medicaid funds is called:
A)accreditation
B)approval
C)certification
D)licensure
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Communication
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client asks the nurse a question about a prescribed treatment.The nurse responds,"It can be unpleasant,and you might experience considerable discomfort." This situation represents an example of how to achieve which goal of therapeutic communication?
A)developing trust
B)exploring feelings
C)providing information
D)showing caring
Q2) The nurse is caring for a client who is alert and oriented but is hearing impaired.The nurse recognizes the BEST way for the client to communicate with caregivers may be to use:
A)an interpreter
B)sign language
C)speech reading
D)pen and paper
Q3) Which of these statements about an individual's communication style is TRUE?
A)It is learned and can be changed.
B)It is primarily passive.
C)It is primarily aggressive.
D)It is primarily assertive.
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Chapter 8: Client Teaching
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is performing a planned,goal-directed education related to a specific topic.This is an example of:
A)formal teaching
B)informal teaching
C)kinesthetic teaching
D)learning
Q2) The nurse plans to give a client written materials as a part of the educational plan.Which observation by the nurse indicates that this is an appropriate form of learning material for this client?
A)Client has frequent visitors.
B)Client spends quiet time reading.
C)Client spends quiet time watching television.
D)Client spends quiet time listening to the radio.
Q3) Which of the following statements would be MOST appropriate when a nurse is teaching a client about a diagnostic test?
A)"Don't eat anything before you have this test."
B)"For 6 hours prior to this test you should not eat or drink at all."
C)"You must not have anything by mouth for 6 hours before this test."
D)"You must remain NPO for at least 6 hours prior to the test."
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Nursing Processdocumentationinformatics
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64 Verified Questions
64 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When client data are broken down into parts that can be examined,which step of the nursing process is involved?
A)diagnosis
B)assessment
C)evaluation
D)synthesis
Q2) Which of the following purposes for client documentation,an essential communication tool,is MOST important?
A)It forms the basis for health care students learning about disease processes,medical and nursing diagnoses,and interventions.
B)It confirms the care provided to the client and outlines crucial information about the client.
C)It directs the need for research.
D)It notifies the health care provider and other health care team members about significant data obtained during nurse-client interaction.
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11
Chapter 10: Life Span Development
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the two intrapersonal theorists developed a theory of personality development that emphasizes sexuality as the underlying motivation for behavior?
A)Freud
B)Havighurst
C)Erikson
D)Sullivan
Q2) The MOST important physiologic task of the neonate is to:
A)achieve equilibrium through stabilization of body systems
B)adjust to parental figures
C)learn to cry
D)develop new reflexes
Q3) According to Piaget's stages of cognitive development,children 12 years and older are in which stage?
A)concrete operations
B)formal operations
C)preoperational
D)sensorimotor
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Cultural Considerations
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many nurses fail to provide spiritual care to their clients for which of the following reasons?
A)The client does not request assistance in this area.
B)Their facility prohibits involvement in a client's personal life.
C)Their personal spiritual views differ from the client's.
D)Spiritual needs are viewed as a family or clergy responsibility.
Q2) Which of these terms refers to the group whose values prevail in a given society?
A)cultural assimilation
B)cultural diversity
C)dominant culture
D)oppression
Q3) When there are differences among and between cultural groups in a country,this diversity can contribute to social problems because of misunderstanding and unfamiliarity with different cultures.This is BEST described as:
A)acculturation
B)cultural diversity
C)ethnocentrism
D)oppression
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13
Chapter 12: Stress, Adaptation, and Anxiety
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a nurse consistently refers to clients as "the gallbladder in 20" or "the noncompliant diabetic in 62," rather than by their names,what process is at work in this nurse?
A)depersonalization
B)burnout
C)maintaining client privacy
D)exhaustion
Q2) A client is diagnosed with cancer and uses denial to protect the mind from the anxiety of the condition.The client has used which process to deal with the situation?
A)adaptive measures
B)crisis interventions
C)defense mechanisms
D)maladaptive measures
Q3) The student nurse has an emotional response to the stress of an upcoming examination.This is an example of:
A)anxiety
B)crisis
C)distress
D)eustress
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Loss, Grief, and Death
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The health care provider suspects that a recently deceased client with cancer may have had more than one underlying cause of death and would like an autopsy performed.What must happen for this to occur?
A)Nothing must happen,as an autopsy is mandatory in cases like this.
B)The coroner must order it.
C)The family must give consent.
D)The health care provider must write an order on the client's chart when making a final progress note.
Q2) After the family has viewed the body of the deceased and the nurse has placed the identification tags,the next step in postmortem care before transporting the body to the morgue or mortuary is to:
A)bathe the body and dress it in a clean gown
B)close the client's eyes
C)place the body in a shroud
D)remove all tubes and dressings
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15
Chapter 14: Wellness Concepts
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When conducting client-teaching sessions on dietary guidelines for Americans,a nurse should stress which of these approaches?
A)"Choose from three subgroups of vegetables each day."
B)"Eat refrigerated leftovers within 7 to 10 days."
C)"Consume 3 cups per day of fat-free or low-fat milk or milk products."
D)"Wash all fresh fruits and vegetables with dishwashing liquid and cold water."
Q2) Over which factors affecting health does the individual have no control?
A)environmental influences
B)genetics and human biology
C)health care
D)personal behavior
Q3) When clients participate in screening for health problems such as hypertension or tuberculosis,reducing dietary intake of saturated fats and cholesterol in people who have a family history of coronary artery disease,and engaging in breast or testicular self-examination,these are BEST described as which type of prevention?
A)physical prevention
B)primary prevention
C)secondary prevention
D)tertiary prevention
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Self-Concept
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When interviewing a client,the nurse asks the client to describe him-or herself to understand his or her identity.The MOST appropriate rationale for obtaining this information is:
A)to influence client's identity
B)to enhance client's self-concept
C)to gain insight if client is comfortable with his or her identity
D)to recall memories of success
Q2) Empowerment has elements in common with which of the following concepts?
A)self-destructive and self-efficacy
B)self-esteem and self-talk
C)self-esteem and self-efficacy
D)self-efficacy and self-evaluation
Q3) When prioritizing a client's problems,the nurse is aware that clients at risk for alterations in self-concept require:
A)a referral to social services
B)frequent monitoring against self-harm
C)a complete health history and physical assessment
D)development of a healthy self-concept
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Chapter 16: Spirituality
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When discussing spirituality with a client,the nurse is aware that the definition of value is:
A)standards or qualities that consist of a person's beliefs
B)principles,standards,or qualities considered worthwhile or desirable
C)a confident belief in the truth or trustworthiness of a person,idea,or thing
D)communication with divine and spiritual entities
Q2) Which of the following statements about spirituality is TRUE?
A)There is no evidence of a connection between spirituality and health.
B)Spiritual nursing requires specialized training in order to perform.
C)Spirituality and values are the same.
D)Spirituality is the core of a person's being.
Q3) Which of the following statements about faith is NOT true?
A)It is closely linked to beliefs.
B)It provides people the power to heal themselves.
C)It is linked to spirituality.
D)It is often referred to as religion.
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18
Chapter 17: Complementary Alternative Therapies
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a client on a hospice unit who has been diagnosed with terminal cancer.The plan of care might include the use of which complementary therapies to help reduce the client's cancer pain? (Select all that apply. )
A)relaxation
B)imagery
C)movement and exercise
D)yoga
E)healing touch
F)biofeedback
Q2) The client has undergone surgery to remove a ruptured appendix.The purpose of the surgery was to bring about a state of:
A)curing
B)healing
C)health
D)wellness
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Chapter 18: Basic Nutrition
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of food group servings needed by an individual depends upon which of these factors?
A)food guide pyramid
B)individual food preferences
C)health of absorbing tissues
D)number of calories the individual needs
Q2) The nurse is aware that the major function of the body's water is to do which of the following? (Select all that apply. )
A)performs hydrolysis
B)transports nutrients
C)lubricates muscles
D)regulates the proportion of the body
E)regulates body temperature
F) acts as a solute
Q3) Which of these statements about nutrition during adolescence is TRUE?
A)Kilocalorie requirements for girls tend to be greater than for boys.
B)Nutrient needs decrease as this period begins.
C)The need for vitamin D increases.
D)Inadequate nutrient intake can occur because of peer and media influences.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Rest and Sleep
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client complains of frequent insomnia,affecting ability to rest well.Which of the following factors or lifestyle choices is MOST likely to contribute to the client's inability to sleep?
A)having a light snack at bedtime
B)taking 1 baby aspirin each day
C)reading in bed prior to going to sleep
D)smoking 1/2 pack of filtered cigarettes each day
Q2) Which of these approaches can be used successfully to treat sleep apnea?
A)drinking warm milk before bedtime
B)using nasal continuous positive airway pressure
C)reducing use of caffeine and nicotine
D)elevating the head on two pillows
Q3) When a nurse is assessing a client's altered sleep patterns,which of these questions is MOST important to be included?
A)"Do you experience fatigue,confusion,or irritability during the day?"
B)"How much sleep do you expect to get every night?"
C)"How would you rate the quality of your sleep?"
D)"Do you get up several times during the night?"
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21
Chapter 20: Safety-Hygiene
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a client in restraints.Which of the following would the nurse ensure was included in the documentation for this client? (Select all that apply. )
A)type of restraint used
B)client's response to the restraints
C)assessment for the need of the restraint
D)position of the bed
E)client's age
F)notification of the family
Q2) To reduce an adult client's risk of falling,which of these actions should the nurse take?
A)Keep the bed locked in the upright position with the side rails up.
B)Keep the lighting dim.
C)Place the client's personal belongings and call light within easy reach.
D)Remove walkers and wheelchairs from bedside.
Q3) Which of the following would pose a safety hazard in a hospital environment?
A)Side rails are raised for clients of all ages.
B)An incontinent client has urinated on the floor.
C)A dietary tray is left on a bedside table.
D)The door to a client bathroom is open.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Infection Controlasepsis
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When providing discharge instructions to a surgical client,the nurse should include which of the following interventions? (Select all that apply. )
A)keep bed linens clean and dry
B)take antibiotics as ordered by physician
C)change dressing once a week
D)wash hands thoroughly twice a day
E)call the physician if temperature is elevated
F)wear gloves when changing the dressing
Q2) During an initial exposure to an antigen,the T cells stimulate the production of B cells,which then produce antibodies specific to the antigen.This process is collectively referred to as:
A)acquired immunity
B)humoral immunity
C)specific immune defense
D)vaccination
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23
Chapter 22: Standard Precautions and Isolation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these statements about the Guideline for Isolation Precautions in Hospitals revised in 1996 by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)is TRUE?
A)The recommendations are not subject to legal enforcement.
B)The recommendations are revised every 10 years.
C)The recommendations have been superseded by Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)regulations.
D)The recommendations are subject to individual hospital and health care facility choice as to implementation.
Q2) A labor and delivery nurse is assisting a health care provider who will be artificially rupturing a client's membranes (AROM).What barrier devices must the health care provider wear?
A)clean gloves and clean gown
B)face shield and clean gloves
C)face shield,sterile gloves,and clean gown
D)sterile gloves only
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24
Chapter 23: Bioterrorism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are muscarinic effects of sarin exposure?
A)urinary and fecal incontinence,tachycardia,bronchial restriction
B)vomiting,tachycardia,diarrhea
C)abdominal cramping,hypertension,bradycardia
D)conjunctivitis,bradycardia,blurred vision
Q2) Which of the following statements about the bubonic plague is NOT true?
A)is a disease of animals
B)may cause pneumonic plague
C)is transmitted from person to person
D)is frequently fatal
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of nerve agents?
A)sarin
B)cyanide
C)tabun
D)soman
Q4) Which statement is TRUE regarding purpose of the Stafford Act?
A)It provides medical supplies to communities with disasters.
B)It provides provisions for the development of disaster plans.
C)It provides medical personnel to communities with disasters.
D)It provides federal monies to communities with disasters.
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Chapter 24: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a client's blood pH is greater than 7.45,the client is in which of these states?
A)acidosis
B)alkalosis
C)neutral
D)buffer
Q2) A client has had blood drawn for determination of serum electrolyte levels.The nurse identifies which of the following as an abnormal value?
A)sodium,148 mEq/L
B)potassium,3.8 mEq/L
C)calcium,95 mg/dL
D)bicarbonate,26 mEq/L
Q3) The nurse is aware that in an effort to increase reabsorption of water in the distal renal tubules,the body will signal the posterior pituitary gland to secrete which hormone?
A)antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
B)aldosterone
C)glucocorticoids
D)parathyroid hormone
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Chapter 25: Medication Administration and IV Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these types of medication orders requires the nurse's judgment about the client's condition before the drug is administered?
A)scheduled
B)single-dose
C)stat
D)PRN
Q2) A nurse has prepared the 9:00 A.M.client medications for administration but is called off the unit briefly.Who can distribute these medications to clients?
A)any licensed nurse (LP/VN or RN)assigned to the unit
B)a pharmacy technician
C)the nurse who prepared them
D)the head nurse
Q3) The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection and is aware that the maximum amount of medication that can be administered via this route is?
A)0.5 mL
B)1 mL
C)1.5 mL
D)2 mL
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Chapter 26: Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 95-year-old client has the following vital signs: oral T 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit,P 84 with a regular irregularity,R 18,and BP 140/86.What additional nursing assessment should be done at this time?
A)count apical pulse for 1 minute
B)count carotid pulse
C)full respiratory system assessment
D)positional blood pressure readings
Q2) When percussing over the client's liver area,the nurse hears a low-pitched,thudlike sound.What is this normal finding called?
A)ascites
B)dullness
C)flatness
D)tympany
Q3) When a nurse asks a client to focus on an object in the distance and then move her gaze to a nearby object,what process is the nurse assessing?
A)accommodation
B)direct light reflex
C)pupil shape test
D)pupil size test
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Chapter 27: Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which route of pain medication administration provides the MOST rapid onset of pain relief?
A)intramuscular
B)intravenous
C)oral
D)transdermal
Q2) Transdermal opioid administration is indicated for a client in which of the following situations?
A)The exact dosing of medication is required.
B)Oral medication cannot be tolerated.
C)Pain is predictable,as in postsurgical clients.
D)Pain is continuous,and high dosage is required.
Q3) When a nurse asks a client to describe what a particular pain feels like,the nurse is attempting to identify which of these aspects of the client's pain experience?
A)aggravating factors
B)intensity
C)onset and duration
D)quality
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29
Chapter 28: Diagnostic Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these tests locates a tumor marker present in ovarian cancer?
A)alpha-fetoprotein
B)CA 125
C)HCG
D)PSA
Q2) A female client has a hematocrit of 45%.The nurse should recognize this finding as:
A)within normal limits for a female
B)needing immediate follow-up
C)borderline high
D)borderline low
Q3) A client has just returned to the nursing unit following a cardiac catheterization.The catheter was placed in the right femoral artery.The test was uneventful.Which instruction should the nurse include on the nursing care plan?
A)Check the urine for hematuria for 24 hours.
B)Inspect the hands for signs of circulatory problems.
C)Keep the client on bed rest for 6 hours.
D)Restrict the client's fluid intake.
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30
Chapter 29: Basic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) An adult client is to have a large-volume cleansing enema.The nurse is aware that the MOST appropriate temperature of the solution to be administered should be:
A)100 degrees Fahrenheit
B)105 to 110 degrees Fahrenheit
C)115 to 120 degrees Fahrenheit
D)125 degrees Fahrenheit
Q2) In selecting a blood pressure cuff of appropriate size for a client,the nurse should remember that the bladder inside the cuff should encircle what percentage of the adult client's arm for accurate measurement?
A)50
B)60
C)70
D)80
Q3) Which of the essential elements of hand hygiene is MOST important?
A)soap
B)chemical substance
C)water
D)friction
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31
Chapter 30: Intermediate Procedures
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Q1) When administering a medication to a client,which of these actions should the nurse take to correctly identify the client?
A)Read the name on the door of the room where the client is sitting.
B)Read the client's name bracelet.
C)Ask the client to repeat his or her name.
D)Read the client's name bracelet,and ask the client to repeat his or her name.
Q2) A client is receiving oxygen therapy via a Venturi mask.Which of these actions is essential when a nurse is caring for this client?
A)Check the flow rate at least every 2 hours.
B)Ensure that the mask ports are cleansed every 4 hours.
C)Begin to wean the client to a nasal cannula as soon as possible.
D)Assess client's face and ears for signs of pressure from the mask.
Q3) Which of these steps in administering eyedrops to a client is MOST important?
A)placing a tissue below the lower lid
B)pulling down on the cheek
C)having client close eyes after drops are instilled
D)holding the eyedropper at least 1/2 inch above the eyeball
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Chapter 31: Advanced Procedures
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Q1) Which of these signs would indicate to the nurse that a client's nasogastric (NG)tube has become blocked?
A)The client begins to gag.
B)The client becomes restless.
C)The client becomes irritable.
D)The client begins to vomit.
Q2) A nurse is preparing to draw blood from a client.Where should the tourniquet be applied?
A)2 inches above the venipuncture site
B)3 to 4 inches above the venipuncture site
C)5 inches above the venipuncture site
D)6 to 7 inches above the venipuncture site
Q3) What is the MOST common method of obtaining blood specimens from a client?
A)skin puncture
B)arterial stick
C)venipuncture
D)intravascular catheter
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Chapter 32: Anesthesia
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Q1) The client has received an injection of a local anesthetic temporarily rendering of a portion of the body insensible to pain.This is an example of:
A)general anesthesia
B)medical anesthetic
C)regional anesthetic
D)supportive anesthesia
Q2) The nurse is aware that the amount of medication needed to relieve a client's pain depends on which factors?
A)client's height
B)client's culture
C)type of pain
D)type of surgery
Q3) A medical doctor specifically trained and licensed to administer anesthesia to a client during a surgical procedure would be considered:
A)an anesthesiologist
B)an anesthetist
C)an anesthetic administrator
D)a certified anesthetic technician
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Chapter 33: Surgery
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Q1) Clients who have diabetes mellitus are prone to what postoperative complications?
A)atelectasis
B)hemorrhage
C)infection
D)pressure sores
Q2) Which of the following assessments of a client transferred to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU)from the operating room would NOT necessarily indicate a postoperative complication to the nurse?
A)acute inspiratory stridor with sternal retractions
B)labored chest movement
C)snoring
D)peripheral cyanosis
Q3) Which member of the surgical team monitors the client's oxygenation and gas exchange during surgery?
A)anesthesiologist or anesthetist
B)circulating nurse
C)scrub nurse
D)surgeon
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35
Chapter 34: Oncology
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a client receiving intravenous (IV)chemotherapy.The nurse notes the leakage of the chemotherapeutic drug from the vein into the surrounding tissues and is aware that this is which complication?
A)invasion
B)extraction
C)extravasation
D)intrusion
Q2) Which of these women are at greatest risk of developing breast cancer?
A)those who breast-fed infants for more than 1 year
B)those who experienced early menarche
C)those who had their first full-term pregnancy after age 30
D)those who have smoked for a year or more
Q3) A client has an insertion of an internal cervical radiation implant.When providing care,the nurse discovers the implant has come out.The MOST appropriate action for the nurse to take immediately is to:
A)call the physician
B)pick up the implant with gloved hands and flush it down the toilet
C)reinsert the implant into the vagina immediately
D)pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and place into a lead container
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Respiratory System
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Q1) Upon auscultation of breath sounds,a nurse hears a high pitched,whistlelike sound both on inspiration and expiration.These sounds are indicative of which of these conditions?
A)fluid accumulation in the lungs
B)inflammation of the pleura
C)obstructed or narrowed airways as in bronchospasm
D)obstruction due to secretions blocking the airway
Q2) What is the primary site for gas exchange?
A)alveolar ducts
B)alveoli
C)bronchi
D)terminal bronchioles
Q3) The respiratory tissues perform which of these functions?
A)diffusion
B)gas exchange
C)inhalation and exhalation
D)ventilation
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Chapter 36: Cardiovascular System
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Q1) Which of the following is a primary nursing goal when obtaining a health history from a client?
A)to determine why the client continues to participate in activities that are unhealthy
B)to incorporate the family into the client's care
C)to obtain psychosocial information about the client and family
D)to identify present and potential health problems
Q2) Risk factors for hypertension (HTN)include which of the following?
A)Asian American heritage
B)lack of exercise
C)high socioeconomic status
D)peripheral vascular disease
Q3) What is the usual treatment for tachycardia?
A)administration of atropine
B)administration of epinephrine
C)depends on cause
D)placement of a permanent pacemaker
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Chapter 37: Hematologic and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) The nurse can expect the superficial lymph nodes MOST easily be palpated:
A)when semilunar valves become blocked
B)at any time
C)when they are at rest
D)when they become infected and swollen
Q2) If a client's complete blood count reports an increased number of WBCs,the nurse knows this indicates the client is experiencing:
A)bone marrow failure
B)dietary deficiencies
C)drug toxicity
D)infection,inflammation,tissue necrosis,or leukemia
Q3) Which of the following medications or solutions may be administered with a blood transfusion?
A)intravenous (IV)antibiotics
B)calcium or potassium
C)lactated Ringer's solution
D)0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline)
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Chapter 38: Gastrointestinal System
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Q1) When do clients who have gastric ulcers MOST often complain of pain?
A)2 hours before meals
B)1 to 2 hours after eating
C)3 to 4 hours after eating
D)whenever the stomach is empty
Q2) Which of these statements about Crohn's disease is TRUE?
A)It affects only the mucosal lining of the bowel.
B)It is treated by colostomy.
C)It can occur anywhere in the small and large intestines.
D)It can produce 15 to 20 liquid stools containing blood daily.
Q3) A client is admitted with the diagnosis Rule out appendicitis.Which nursing action is MOST important?
A)assessing the client's pain threshold
B)avoiding administering analgesics
C)encouraging the family to visit
D)monitoring laboratory reports
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Chapter 39: Urinary System
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Q1) A client who has urolithiasis asks the nurse what causes this condition to develop.Which of the following factors will the nurse explain predisposes the development of calculi?
A)thyroid disorders
B)recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs)
C)increased physical activity
D)eating a high-protein diet
Q2) The nurse should monitor a postoperative kidney transplant client for which sign of organ rejection?
A)polyuria
B)generalized edema
C)flank pain
D)weight loss
Q3) A client has developed a nosocomial cystitis.Which of these organisms MOST commonly causes cystitis?
A)Candida albicans
B)Clostridium
C)Escherichia coli
D)Streptococcus aureus
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Chapter 40: Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) Which of these statements BEST describes scoliosis?
A)exaggeration of the lumbar spine curvature
B)grating sensation or sound heard upon joint movement
C)increased roundness of the thoracic spinal curve
D)lateral curving deviation of the spine
Q2) What is the MOST common cause of osteomyelitis?
A)upper respiratory infection
B)infection from open fractures
C)infected teeth or tonsils
D)closed fractures
Q3) Teaching for the client with gout would include avoiding foods high in purine,such as:
A)asparagus
B)broccoli
C)spinach
D)potatoes
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Chapter 41: Neurological System
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Q1) A client who has amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)has a nursing diagnosis of Ineffective breathing patterns related to weakness of respiratory muscles and fatigue.Which goal is appropriate for this diagnosis?
A)Client will experience less fatigue.
B)Client will maintain highest functional ability within limitations of the disease.
C)Client will maintain adequate PaO levels.
D)Client will swallow with minimal choking and coughing,and no aspiration.
Q2) A client's response to assessment of the plantar reflex is to fan the toes and dorsiflect the big toe.The nurse should recognize that this response is indicative of:
A)a normal response
B)stereognosis
C)corticospinal disease
D)a brain tumor
Q3) Which action is recommended for a client diagnosed with Huntington's disease?
A)placing the client in a hospice or long-term care facility
B)encouraging the client to eat frequent,small meals
C)encouraging regular exercise with a family member
D)suggesting genetic counseling for the family
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43
Chapter 42: Sensory System
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Q1) The client is diagnosed with a disorder that is characterized by an abnormally high pressure of fluid within the eyeball.The nurse is aware that this condition is:
A)cataracts
B)chalazion
C)glaucoma
D)keratitis
Q2) In which type of hearing loss is the inner ear or cochlear portion of the eighth cranial nerve abnormal or diseased?
A)common
B)conductive
C)mixed
D)sensorineural
Q3) When the nurse is assessing the client's ability to receive and process stimuli through sensory organs,this is evaluating the client's:
A)sensation
B)perception
C)cognition
D)awareness
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Chapter 43: Endocrine System
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Q1) Which complication of insulin therapy is characterized by a rapid decrease in serum glucose,usually at night,causing the release of glucose-elevating hormones and an elevated glucose level in the morning,which may be inadvertently treated with an increased insulin dose?
A)dawn phenomenon
B)insulin resistance
C)lipodystrophy
D)Somogyi phenomenon
Q2) Which nursing intervention would be included in the care of a client who has hyperparathyroidism?
A)Encourage the client to alternate rest and activity periods.
B)Place the client in a room with reverse ventilation.
C)Encourage the client to increase ambulation each day.
D)Encourage the family to seek hospice care for the client.
Q3) When mixing two different types of insulin in the same syringe,which type is always drawn up first?
A)lente,intermediate acting
B)NPH,intermediate acting
C)regular,short acting
D)ultra lente,long acting
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Chapter 44: Reproductive System
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Q1) A male client tells the nurse about a painless nodular growth on the foreskin and that he is experiencing fatigue and weight loss.The client's penis is uncircumcised,and his medical history indicates treatment for several sexually transmitted infections.The nurse should suspect the client has which condition?
A)a benign lesion of the foreskin
B)epididymitis
C)penile cancer
D)syphilitic lesion
Q2) A client who had a TURP becomes confused and agitated.His pulse has become slow and bounding,his systolic blood pressure has increased,and his diastolic blood pressure has decreased.These signs would indicate to the nurse that the client has developed which of the following complications?
A)hemorrhage
B)infection
C)thrombosis
D)water intoxication
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Chapter 45: Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) What is the preferred treatment of human papillomavirus (HPV)infection?
A)topical antibiotics
B)cryosurgery
C)chemotherapy
D)surgical removal under general anesthesia
Q2) It is MOST important to remind a pregnant woman being treated for chlamydia to:
A)take the prescribed medication with milk
B)prepare for treatment of the baby after delivery
C)notify her health care provider if symptoms reoccur
D)repeat cultures when treatment is complete
Q3) Cytomegalovirus can be misdiagnosed as what illness due to similarity of symptoms?
A)AIDS
B)herpes genitalis
C)mononucleosis
D)syphilis
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Chapter 46: Integumentary System
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a client who has an ulceration appearing as a deep crater with undermining of adjacent tissue loss.The nurse recognizes that this client has which type of ulcer present?
A)stage I
B)stage II
C)stage III
D)stage IV
Q2) A client has clusters of small vesicles over the thoracic region and describes severe pain and itching of the affected areas.Herpes zoster is diagnosed,and the client will be treated with which of these medications?
A)acyclovir (Zovirax)
B)lindane (Kwell)
C)miconazole nitrate (Micatin)
D)nitric acid
Q3) What is considered the BEST treatment for a port-wine angioma?
A)surgical debridement
B)cosmetics
C)radical surgical excision
D)skin grafting over the lesion
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Chapter 47: Immune System
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Q1) Which of these statements about the medical treatment for cryptosporidiosis is TRUE?
A)It is aimed at palliative treatment.
B)It consists of antibiotic therapy such as penicillin G IV over a period of 14 to 21 days.
C)It consists of antifungal therapy IV for a period of 6 weeks.
D)It consists of radiation therapy for the gastrointestinal (GI)tract.
Q2) The nurse caring for a client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)understands that a client is considered to have acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)when which of the following occurs?
A)appearance of flulike symptoms
B)CD4 T cell count of less than 200 cells/mm3 and one defined clinical condition
C)enlarged lymph nodes for more than 3 months
D)one positive enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)test
Q3) Which of these medications is usually prescribed initially for the client who has rheumatoid arthritis?
A)antimalarials
B)corticosteroids
C)nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
D)salicylates
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Mental Illness
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Q1) A nurse suspects a 7-year-old client whose injuries are being treated is being physically abused.Which of these actions must the nurse take?
A)Discuss suspicions with the child's legal guardian prior to making any type of report.
B)Ensure that the appropriate state-designated agency is notified.
C)Notify the health care provider.
D)Notify the immediate nursing supervisor.
Q2) Which of the following nursing behaviors is appropriate when interacting with a client who may have been the victim of interpersonal abuse?
A)Ask permission to call the client's family or friends.
B)Leave the client alone to sort out thoughts.
C)Place the client in a group setting.
D)React with surprise at the details the client reveals.
Q3) Most hospital readmissions for the client who has schizophrenia are the result of which of these factors?
A)injuries caused by self-harming behaviors
B)noncompliance with the prescribed medication regimen
C)side effects of pharmacological therapies
D)worsening of symptoms despite medication and outpatient therapy
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Chapter 49: Substance Abuse
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Q1) During detoxification,an alcoholic client becomes hypoglycemic.Which of these actions should the nurse take FIRST?
A)Administer dextrose.
B)Encourage the client to eat to minimize withdrawal symptoms.
C)Give the client thiamine prior to dextrose administration.
D)Administer oxygen before starting an IV.
Q2) According to the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970,a substance with high abuse and dependence potential,accepted medical use,obtainable only with a health care provider's prescription that may not be refilled would be classified as which schedule of controlled substances?
A)I (C-I)
B)II (C-II)
C)IV (C-IV)
D)V (C-V)
Q3) What is considered to be the drug of choice for substance abuse?
A)cocaine
B)marijuana
C)alcohol
D)barbiturates
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Page 51
Chapter 50: The Older Adult
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Q1) What is the MOST common disorder related to aging and the endocrine system?
A)type 1 diabetes mellitus
B)type 2 diabetes mellitus
C)gallstones
D)incontinence
Q2) Which of these musculoskeletal changes is a result of normal aging?
A)Joints develop degenerative changes.
B)Coordination and endurance are unaffected.
C)Muscle mass and elasticity remain unchanged.
D)Osteoporosis is to be expected.
Q3) The nurse is caring for an older adult who is prescribed digoxin.When assessing for the signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity,the nurse would expect to see which of the following? (Select all that apply. )
A)nausea
B)shaking
C)incontinence
D)constipation
E)cardiac dysrhythmias
F)confusion
G)halos around lights
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Chapter 51: Ambulatory, Restorative, and Palliative Care in Community Settings
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Q1) A family member is caring for a client with advanced Alzheimer's and is complaining of fatigue,weakness,and apathy.The nurse recognizes the need for which of the following:
A)restorative care
B)rehabilitative care
C)respite care
D)placement in long-term care
Q2) Which of the following hospice services are covered by Medicare? (Select all that apply. )
A)physician and nursing care
B)dental care
C)counseling services
D)medical equipment and supplies
E)housekeeping services
Q3) Which of the following clients would MOST likely benefit for rehabilitation/restorative care services?
A)35-year-old client with H1N1 influenza
B)58-year-old client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD)
C)79-year-old client with advanced dementia
D)62-year-old client with left side paralysis resulting from a stroke
Page 53
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Chapter 52: Responding to Emergencies
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Q1) A client has second- and third-degree burns to the legs and feet.The nurse assesses the client has an increased heart rate,decreased blood pressure,and cool and clammy skin.The nurse should recognize this client is in what type of shock?
A)anaphylactic
B)cardiogenic
C)hypovolemic
D)toxic
Q2) What is the primary treatment for a client who is in hypovolemic shock?
A)administration of epinephrine and diphenhydramine hydrochloride
B)antibiotic therapy
C)emergency coronary bypass surgery
D)fluid replacement
Q3) Clients with head injuries should be placed in which of these positions?
A)dorsal recumbent
B)prone
C)semi-Fowler's
D)side-lying
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Chapter 53: Integration
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Q1) At a routine checkup,a 40-year-old female client who has had type 1 diabetes for 5 years has a blood pressure reading of 180/110;previous blood pressure readings have been within a range of 120/80 to 130/85.What nursing interventions would be appropriate for this client?
Q2) The nurse is providing instruction to a client with diabetes mellitus regarding peritoneal dialysis.The nurse explains to the client that it is important to maintain the dwell time for the dialysis at the prescribed time.The nurse is aware that the rationale for this is because of the risk of:
A)infection
B)hyperglycemia
C)fluid overload
D)disequilibrium syndrome
Q3) A 45-year-old male client with a history of hypertension for 5 years develops symptoms of congestive heart failure (CHF)and renal failure.What are some of the possible reasons the client has developed CHF and renal failure? Describe the areas in which nursing intervention with this client could have helped prevent development of these complications.
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Prenatal Care
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Q1) Couvade is BEST described as the:
A)development of physical symptoms of pregnancy by the expectant father
B)fluid that contains antibodies and is secreted by the breasts prior to breast milk
C)motion of rebound that the floating fetus experiences when pushed upward through the vagina or abdomen
D)soft blowing sound occurring at the same rate as the maternal heart rate when the abdomen of a pregnant mother is auscultated
Q2) When a primigravida comes for her 20-week prenatal visit,which of these presumptive signs of pregnancy would the nurse expect the client to report?
A)Chadwick's sign
B)Hegar's sign
C)lightening
D)quickening
Q3) At 34 weeks' gestation,a normal prenatal client should have a hematocrit of:
A)less than 25%
B)25% to 35%
C)34% to 40%
D)more than 40%
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56
Chapter 55: Complications of Pregnancy
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Questions
Q1) A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for HELLP syndrome.The nursing interventions for this client should include which of the following? (Select all that apply. )
A)monitor respirations (must be at least 12)
B)monitor deep tendon reflexes
C)monitor liver enzymes
D)monitor hemoglobin level
E)monitor urine output (at least 30 cc/hour)
Q2) What is often the first clue of a multiple pregnancy?
A)fundal height greater than expected for gestational weeks
B)an elevated alpha-fetoprotein level
C)more severe nausea and vomiting and other discomforts of pregnancy
D)two or more heartbeats heard
Q3) Which of the following does NOT demonstrate high-risk factors in pregnancy in general classification?
A)17-year-old female
B)abortion
C)dropped out of school
D)unmarried
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Chapter 56: The Birth Process
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Q1) When are labor clients urged to bear down?
A)between each contraction as soon as the cervix is completely effaced
B)between each contraction as soon as the membranes have ruptured C)with each contraction as soon as engagement has occurred
D)with each contraction as soon as the cervix is completely dilated
Q2) Clients in labor are encouraged to walk in which of these circumstances?
A)when the membranes are intact
B)after pain medication has been given C)when crowning has occurred
D)before the presenting part is engaged
Q3) The nurse is aware that the maternal passage of primary concern when a client is planning a vaginal birth would be:
A)cervix
B)true pelvis
C)uterus
D)vagina
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Chapter 57: Postpartum Care
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Q1) A client who has a puerperal infection is receiving intravenous (IV)antibiotic treatment.The nurse should recognize that the infant will:
A)receive prophylactic antibiotics
B)be kept separate from the mother until her fever is gone for 24 hours
C)remain with the mother
D)be discharged home before the mother
Q2) Which of these descriptions of lochia is expected of a mother who had a cesarean delivery?
A)contains more clots than that of a mother who has had a vaginal birth
B)has rubra for a longer period of time than that of a mother who has had a vaginal birth
C)is greater in amount than that of a mother who has had a vaginal birth
D)is smaller in amount than that of a mother who has had a vaginal birth
Q3) During the first 24 hours postpartum,a client states her vaginal discharge is bright red with small pieces of mucus.Which of these actions should the nurse take?
A)Hold her NPO,and immediately notify her health care provider.
B)Observe the sanitary pad,and document your findings.
C)Verify that the amount and appearance are normal at this time.
D)Compress her fundus vigorously to express clots.
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Page 59
Chapter 58: Newborn Care
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Q1) An infant admitted to the newborn nursery has generalized swelling of the scalp.The nurse should recognize this condition as:
A)caput succedaneum,which generally requires no treatment
B)cephalhematoma,which will require aspiration of blood from the scalp
C)an early sign of hydrocephalus,which requires no treatment
D)an early sign of an intracranial hemorrhage
Q2) When a new mother is breastfeeding her infant,which of these dietary modifications is needed to maintain her own health and to provide the most nutritious milk for her child?
A)Balance the intake of protein,carbohydrates,and fat daily.
B)Eat an extra helping of fruit and vegetables every day.
C)Increase caloric intake by at least 500 calories daily.
D)Drink at least two glasses of milk every day.
Q3) What is the most common cause of kernicterus in the newborn?
A)breastfeeding
B)dehydration
C)Rh incompatibility
D)transfusion reaction
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Chapter 59: Basics of Pediatric Care
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44591
Sample Questions
Q1) When it is necessary for caregivers to stay with their child continuously to learn how to provide specialized treatment and care,this practice is called:
A)cost-containment
B)hospice care
C)primary care
D)rooming in
Q2) A 5-year-old is hospitalized with pneumonia.Which approach would be MOST appropriate to facilitate successful administration of oral medication?
A)"I have some medication for you to drink.Do you want juice or water with it?"
B)"I have a new type of orange juice for you to drink.It tastes very good."
C)"I have your pink medicine.Will you take it for me?"
D)"In a few minutes you will need to take your medicine.You mustn't spit it out.OK?"
Q3) What is the purpose of an admission database for a pediatric client?
A)to identify nursing diagnoses and to establish a plan of care
B)to provide information for the admitting health care provider
C)to initiate any treatment
D)to detail contact information for the staff
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Chapter 60: Infants With Special Needs: Birth to 12 Months
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44592
Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to administering antibiotics,nursing care of the infant with meningitis includes which of these interventions?
A)maintaining isolation for a minimum of 72 hours
B)monitoring neurological status every 4 hours
C)observing the infant's developmental status
D)ensuring the parents receive prophylactic treatment
Q2) Infants who have congenital heart disease are often treated with which of these therapies to improve the heart's contractility and increase cardiac output?
A)digoxin
B)furosemide
C)oxygen administration
D)potassium supplements
Q3) During the first 24 hours of life,which of these signs may be the FIRST indication that a newborn may have Hirschsprung's disease?
A)has projectile vomiting and visible peristaltic waves
B)fails to pass a stool
C)has numerous black,tarry,mucous stools
D)turns dusky and chokes during any attempt at oral feedings
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62
Chapter 61: Common Problems: 1-18 Years
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44593
Sample Questions
Q1) For a child diagnosed with leukemia and treated with a combination of drugs,prognosis is good if:
A)remission occurs
B)the client does not experience any adverse effects from the therapy
C)the client is compliant with the medical regime
D)there is no metastasis
Q2) A nurse palpates enlarged tonsils in a 3-year-old client who exhibits no symptoms of illness.What is the significance of this finding?
A)It is indicative of tumor growth and should be reported to the health care provider.
B)It is a normal finding for a child of this age.
C)It is a precursor to developing illness.
D)It is a response to increased allergens and not necessarily an indicator of illness.
Q3) Why are small children at greater risk for being bitten by an animal?
A)They are unable to follow directions.
B)They have slower reactions to aggressive behavior.
C)They have not been immunized for rabies.
D)Their height puts them at greater risk.
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