Nursing Concepts and Skills
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Nursing Concepts and Skills introduces students to the foundational principles, theories, and essential practical abilities required in the nursing profession. This course covers concepts such as patient-centered care, safety, communication, and evidence-based practice, alongside skill development in areas like vital sign measurement, infection control, hygiene, mobility assistance, and basic medication administration. Through a mix of classroom instruction, laboratory practice, and clinical experiences, students gain competency in applying the nursing process, delivering holistic care, and collaborating effectively within the healthcare team, preparing them for more advanced nursing courses and clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing 7th Editon by Cooper
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57 Chapters
2259 Verified Questions
2259 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Evolution of Nursing
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What document identifies the roles and responsibilities of the LPN/LVN?
A) NLN Accreditation Standards
B) Nurse Practice Act
C) NAPNE Code
D) American Nurses' Association Code
Answer: B
Q2) What is the title of the American Hospital Association's 1972 document that outlines the patient's expectations to be treated with dignity and compassion?
A) Code of Ethics
B) Patient's Bill of Rights
C) OBRA
D) Advance directives
Answer: B
Q3) What is a nursing program considered when certified by a state agency?
A) Accredited
B) Approved
C) Provisional
D) Exemplified
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Legal and Ethical Aspects of Nursing
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a nurse becomes involved in a legal action, the first step to occur is that a document is filed in an appropriate court. What is this document called?
A) Deposition
B) Appeal
C) Complaint
D) Summons
Answer: C
Q2) A nurse fails to irrigate a feeding tube as ordered, resulting in harm to the patient. This nurse could be found guilty of:
A) malpractice.
B) harm to the patient.
C) negligence.
D) failure to follow the nurse practice act.
Answer: A
Q3) Acts whose performance is required, permitted, or prohibited are defined by ___________ of ______________.
Answer: standards, care
Standards of care define acts whose performance is required, permitted, or prohibited.
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Chapter 3: Documentation
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the nurse use as a basis for documentation in focus charting?
A) Problem list
B) Nursing orders
C) Nursing diagnoses
D) Evaluation
Answer: C
Q2) What regulates standards for long-term care documentation?
A) OBRA
B) Title XXII
C) Nursing diagnoses
D) The care plan
Answer: A
Q3) Who is the legal owner of the patient's medical record?
A) Patient
B) Physician
C) Institution
D) State
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Communication
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If in response to the patient statement, "I am upset about all this lab work" the nurse responds, "You're upset?" What is this is an example of?
A) An open-ended question
B) Reflecting
C) Restating
D) Paraphrasing
Q2) Which are examples of passive listening? (Select all that apply.)
A) The nurse nods frequently while the patient speaks.
B) The nurse maintains eye contact while listening to the patient.
C) The nurse occasionally interjects, "I see," when listening to the patient.
D) The nurse gives verbal feedback to the patient.
E) The nurse verbally interprets the meaning of what the patient has said.
Q3) If the nurse aggressively says to a patient, "Why couldn't you have asked me to give you your pain medication when I was in here earlier?" what feeling is the patient most likely to demonstrate?
A) Anger
B) Satisfaction that his needs are met
C) Humiliation and worthlessness
D) Confidence that his request will be granted
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Nursing Process and Critical Thinking
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an example of an appropriate nursing diagnosis?
A) Impaired skin integrity
B) Skin breakdown noted
C) Turn patient every 2 hours
D) The patient has scabies on his back
Q2) What objective data should the nurse include after a patient assessment?
A) Headache of 3 days duration
B) Severe stomach cramps
C) Flatulence
D) Anxiety
Q3) What type of assessment is performed continuously throughout nurse-patient contact?
A) Complete
B) Body systems
C) Focused
D) Subjective
Q4) The standards that name and measure patient outcomes are referred to as ___________.
Q5) A systematic method by which nurses plan and provide care for patients is known as the _________ ____________.
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Chapter 6: Cultural and Ethnic Considerations
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is delivering a meal tray to a female Muslim patient. What intervention is most appropriate for this patient?
A) Offering her a ham and cheese sandwich
B) Providing her with a male nurse
C) Providing her with a female nurse
D) Offering her bacon and eggs
Q2) What is the term for a group of people who share a common social and cultural heritage based on shared traditions, national origin, and physical and biologic characteristics?
A) Race
B) Culture
C) Religion
D) Ethnicity
Q3) While caring for a Mexican American family in the home, the home health nurse recognizes that the family may also consult the _____________ for health advice.
Q4) A nation, community, or broad group of people who establish particular aims, beliefs, or standards of living and conduct is known as a _____________.
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8
Chapter 7: Asepsis and Infection Control
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a patient with suspected tuberculosis. What assessment findings by the nurse are consistent with tuberculosis?
A) Hemoptysis
B) Weight gain
C) Night terrors
D) Hypothermia
Q2) What action exemplifies a nurse practicing medical asepsis in performing daily care?
A) Lifting a sterile swab from a sterile field
B) Using disposable sterile gowns
C) Washing hands for 5 minutes between patients
D) Keeping bed linens off the floor
Q3) The infection control practitioner plans an in-service on control of health care-associated infections. What should be the focus of this program?
A) Observing nurses caring for patients
B) Screening patients who are admitted to the hospital
C) Educating hospital personnel about aseptic practices
D) Discharging infectious patients from the hospital
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Chapter 8: Body Mechanics and Patient Mobility
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where should the nurse place the load when carrying heavy objects?
A) In a low position
B) To the side of the body
C) Close to the body midline
D) With another's assistance
Q2) _________________________________machines flex and extend joints to mobilize them passively without the strain of active exercises.
Q3) How should the nurse assist the patient with moving when pain is anticipated?
A) Be supportive
B) Apply heat before moving them
C) Administer medication before ambulation
D) Obtain assistance if the patient is heavy
Q4) What is the site of the most common strain injury acquired by the nurse when working?
A) Trapezius muscle group
B) Thoracic muscle group
C) Lumbar muscle group
D) Thigh muscle group
Q5) When a fall occurs, the nurse should document the incident and initiate a(n) ___________ report.
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Chapter 9: Hygiene and Care of the Patients Environment
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38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing personal hygiene for a Hindu patient from India. What intervention should the nurse implement?
A) Not serve meat
B) Shampoo the patient's hair weekly
C) Give a daily bath
D) Cut nails monthly
Q2) The nurse is educating a patient regarding a tub bath. What is the maximum length of time the nurse should instruct the patient to remain in the water?
A) 5 to 10 minutes
B) 10 to 20 minutes
C) 20 to 30 minutes
D) 30 to 40 minutes
Q3) A nurse assesses an area of sustained redness on the coccyx area of a resident in long-term care. What is the most likely cause of this pressure area?
A) Heat from pressure
B) Collapse of blood vessels
C) Friction from pressure
D) Collapse of skin tissue
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Chapter 10: Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses a patient in a Posey safety reminder device (SRD) for which problem(s) that may increase because of the use of SRDs? (Select all that apply.)
A) Immobility
B) Lethargy
C) Risk for impaired circulation
D) Risk for skin impairment
E) Incontinence
Q2) A disaster situation occurs and involves an explosion in a hospital laundry. What would this be classified as ?
A) Active
B) External
C) Life-threatening
D) Internal
Q3) ___________ is a violent or dangerous act used to intimidate or coerce a person or government to further a political or social agenda.
Q4) When reinforcing the PASS acronym for fire extinguisher use, the nurse reminds the staff that the final "S" stands for ______________.
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Chapter 11: Vital Signs
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for a fever that rises and falls but does not return to normal until the patient is well?
A) Constant
B) Intermittent
C) Remittent
D) Elevated
Q2) The nurse is alarmed when a patient with a severe head injury of the occipital lobe has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. Where might this finding indicate that there is an injury?
A) Cerebellum
B) Medulla oblongata
C) Cortex
D) Cerebrum
Q3) A nurse assesses a neonate's temperature by using a temporal artery scanner. What intervention should the nurse implement if the neonate's temperature is 96° F?
A) Record the findings
B) Notify the physician
C) Check the axillary temperature
D) Check the tympanic temperature
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Physical Assessment
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing a nursing physical assessment, the nurse uses a head-to-toe approach. Where will the nurse begin when using this method?
A) Skin assessment
B) Neurologic assessment
C) Circulatory assessment
D) Respiratory assessment
Q2) A patient has edema of the lower extremities. The nurse is assessing whether it is pitting and to what degree. After pressing the skin against a bony prominence for 5 seconds, the nurse identifies 2+ pitting edema. When did the edema disappear?
A) 10-15 seconds
B) 20-25 seconds
C) 30-35 seconds
D) 40-45 seconds
Q3) When auscultating the chest, a nurse hears crackles in both lower lobes. To further assess this finding, the nurse should ask the patient to ______________.
Q4) Signs that are perceived by an examiner and can be seen, heard, measured, or felt are known as ___________ _________.
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Chapter 13: Admission, Transfer, and Discharge
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient demands to be discharged without a physician's order and is leaving the unit with his belongings, what should the nurse ask the patient to sign?
A) A form exercising the patient's rights
B) A discharge against medical advice form
C) An informed consent
D) An advanced directive
Q2) Some _____________________patients consider sundown Friday to sundown Saturday to be the Sabbath, which is a time of rest.
Q3) Before the actual discharge occurs, what must the nurse ensure ?
A) The patient is well enough to go home.
B) The patient has not been overly medicated.
C) The patient understands the discharge instructions.
D) The patient has adequate transportation.
Q4) A nurse is caring for a Haitian American patient. How might the nurse demonstrate cultural sensitivity?
A) Discarding any leaves the patient may have brought with them
B) Assigning the patient to a room with any Haitian American patient
C) Instructing the patient to ride in a wheelchair when discharged
D) Allowing the patient to walk out of the hospital when discharged
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Chapter 14: Surgical Wound Care
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38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the advantages of a transparent dressing? (Select all that apply.)
A) Adheres to undamaged skin
B) Contains the exudate
C) Reduces wound contamination
D) Serves as a barrier to external bacteria
E) Slows epithelial growth
Q2) The nurse assessing a patient's wound notes pale red watery drainage. How will the nurse most accurately document this finding?
A) Serous drainage
B) Purulent drainage
C) Sanguineous drainage
D) Serosanguineous drainage
Q3) The nurse is assisting a patient to a sitting position when the patient suddenly complains of feeling that his surgical incision has separated. What does the nurse recognize that this indicates?
A) Cellulitis
B) Dehiscence
C) Evisceration
D) Extravasation
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Specimen Collection and Diagnostic Testing
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of stool specimen must be sent to the laboratory immediately?
A) Occult blood
B) Ova and parasites
C) Infection
D) Fats
Q2) What should the nurse encourage the patient to consume when preparing for an electroencephalogram (EEG)?
A) Tea
B) Food
C) Cola
D) Coffee
Q3) What is the probable source of bright red blood in the stool?
A) Stomach
B) Small intestine
C) Lower gastrointestinal tract
D) Higher intestinal tract
Q4) After a bone scan, the nurse assesses a hematoma at the injection site of the dye. The nurse should apply ______ soaks or compresses.
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Chapter 16: Care of Patients Experiencing Urgent
Alterations in Health
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A burn patient is brought into the emergency department with the following burns: half of the front torso, entire left arm, and front of left leg. The nurse should record that the patient has a ______% burn.
Q2) The Good Samaritan law will protect all people who offer assistance. What is necessary for this protection?
A) A license
B) The person acts prudently
C) Licensed supervision
D) The patient improves
Q3) A patient has been stung by a bee and is brought to the emergency department. The nurse observes the sting site and identifies that the stinger is still in the skin. What action should the nurse take?
A) Remove it with sterile tweezers
B) Soak the area with a cold compress
C) Scrape the stinger with the side of a knife
D) Squeeze the surrounding tissue to expel the stinger
Q4) The acronym RICE directs the nurse in the care of a sprain. The "C" in the acronym stands for ________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Herbal remedies vary from pharmaceutical remedies in what way(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Herbal remedies use the whole plant.
B) Herbal remedies have no quality control.
C) Herbal remedies have no standard dose.
D) Herbal remedies are sold as food supplements.
E) Herbal remedies are always safe and effective.
Q2) Which term describes using the conscious mind to create situations that evoke physical changes in the body?
A) Imagination
B) Self-hypnosis
C) Imagery
D) Visualization
Q3) Confusion and misinformation relative to herbal medicine can make patients reluctant to disclose their herbal use to health care providers. What should be the nurse's approach?
A) Instructive
B) Nonjudgmental
C) Inquisitive
D) Determined
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Chapter 18: Pain Management, Comfort, Rest, and Sleep
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is a major advantage to this method?
A) Less expensive
B) More effective
C) Less addictive
D) Quicker
Q2) The nurse reassures a patient that most acute pain is intense and of short duration. How long does can acute pain usually last?
A) 1 week
B) Less than 6 months
C) At least 9 months
D) More than 1 year
Q3) Where does the nurse recognize that many institutions are now including pain assessment in implementing patient care?
A) The initial assessment
B) Discharge planning
C) Assessing vital signs
D) Care planning
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20
Chapter 19: Nutritional Concepts and Related Therapies
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse caring for a patient who is prescribed a full-liquid diet recognizes that this diet lacks some nutrients. What nutrients are lacking?
A) Fat-soluble vitamins
B) Potassium
C) Iron and fiber
D) Water-soluble vitamins
Q2) Which are the energy-providing food groups? (Select all that apply.)
A) Carbohydrates
B) Fats
C) Proteins
D) Vitamins
E) Minerals
Q3) To simplify food values, the measurement of energy obtained by food is defined as the ________.
Q4) What has replaced the USDA's Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)?
A) Nutrition Recommended Allowance (NRA)
B) National Bionutritional Allowance (NBA)
C) Dietary Reference Intake (DRI)
D) Dietary Guidelines for Americans (DGA)
Q5) The body mass index (BMI) of a man 6 feet tall weighing 250 pounds is _______.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Fluids and Electrolytes
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Sample Questions
Q1) When administering intravenous (IV) fluids, the nurse ensures that the IV fluids are infusing as ordered to prevent dehydration in an adult. When could dehydration become lethal?
A) If the patient loses 5% of body fluid
B) If the patient loses 10% of body fluid
C) If the patient loses 15% of body fluid
D) If the patient loses 20% of body fluid
Q2) What should the nurse focus on when creating a nursing care plan for a patient with metabolic acidosis?
A) Frequent periods of ambulation
B) Increasing fluid intake
C) Decreasing fluid intake
D) Deep-breathing exercises
Q3) The nurse modifies the care plan for the immobilized patient after assessing a calcium level of 6.2 mEq/L. What nursing assessment should the nurse include when modifying this care plan?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Tooth loss
C) Renal calculi
D) Contractures
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Chapter 21: Mathematics and Medication Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) To help relax the anal sphincter during the insertion of a suppository, the nurse should ask the patient to ____________.
Q2) What is the sum o \(\frac { 3 } { 4 }\) f an \(\frac { 7 } { 8 }\) d ?
A) \(\frac { 10 } { 48 }\)
B) \(\frac { 10 } { 12 }\)
C) \(\frac { 21 } { 4 }\)
D) \(1 \frac { 5 } { 8 }\)
Q3) What i \(\frac{1}{5}\) s expressed as a percent?
A) 50%
B) 20%
C) 10%
D) 5%
Q4) A 35-lb child is to receive an IM medication. The average adult dose is 75 mg. Using the Clark rule, what dosage should the nurse administer?
A) 30.5 mg
B) 25.5 mg
C) 20.5 mg
D) 17.5 mg
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Chapter 22: Care of Patients with Alterations in Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an appropriate nursing measure when performing tracheostomy care?
A) Wear clean gloves
B) Insert the catheter without suction
C) Suction for 1 minute before removing the catheter
D) Place the used catheter in a plastic shield for later use
Q2) The nurse is alert for a serious condition called ___________ that results from pathogens being introduced into the blood stream.
Q3) If a patient has a transfusion reaction, the nurse should perform the following interventions in which priority order? Put a comma and space between each answer choice (A, B, C, D, etc.).
A) Take and record vital signs
B) Notify physician and blood bank
C) Stop the transfusion
D) Monitor urine output
E) Return blood and tubing to the blood bank
Q4) The appliance that connects to an IV drip and delivers a continuous irrigation to the eye is known as a ________ _________ _________.
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Chapter 23: Life Span Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the stage of family development that begins at the birth or adoption of the first child?
A) Expectant stage
B) Parenthood stage
C) Establishment stage
D) Engagement/commitment stage
Q2) What is the stage of family development that extends from the wedding until the birth of the first child?
A) Expectant stage
B) Parenthood stage
C) Establishment stage
D) Engagement/commitment stage
Q3) The nurse discovers during the intake assessment of a 5-year-old child that the child lives with his biologic parents and siblings. How would the nurse categorize this family type?
A) Extended family
B) Blended family
C) Social family
D) Nuclear family
Q4) The process that refers to gradual change and differentiation is _____________.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Loss, Grief, Dying, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would lead the home health nurse to make a nursing diagnosis of unresolved grief for a patient who was widowed 5 months ago?
A) Seeing that the patient keeps a picture of the husband by her bed
B) The patient said tearfully, "I can't believe he is gone."
C) Assessing that the patient eats out frequently rather than cooking at home
D) The patient says that she attends church three times a week.
Q2) After a physician in the emergency department has pronounced a 2-year-old dead following a swimming pool accident, the mother tearfully says to the father, "I am so sorry. I am so sorry." What is the mother expressing?
A) Fear
B) Guilt
C) Hostility
D) Grief
Q3) What is the final stage of human growth and development?
A) Integrity
B) Death
C) Despair
D) Resolution
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Chapter 25: Health Promotion and Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do the arteries in the umbilical cord carry?
A) Nutrients to the fetus from the placenta
B) Oxygenated blood to perfuse the placenta
C) Antibodies from the fetus to the mother
D) Deoxygenated blood back to the placenta
Q2) The nurse instructor reminds the nursing student that the "Shiny Schultz" is a name given to the _____________ side of the placenta.
Q3) A woman who has just discovered she is pregnant states that the first day of her last menstrual period was July 10. What will be her expected date of birth (EDB)?
A) April 10
B) April 17
C) May 10
D) October 17
Q4) Which is a positive sign of pregnancy?
A) Positive pregnancy test
B) Positive Chadwick sign
C) Ultrasonic tracing of the fetus
D) Positive Goodell sign
Q5) The chorion and the amnion are the two components of the ________
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Chapter 26: Labor and Delivery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A primigravida has a pelvis of the android type, which usually means the delivery will be a _______________.
Q2) What area of the uterus provides the force during a contraction?
A) Lower portion
B) Middle portion
C) Upper portion
D) Cervical portion
Q3) A mother is in early labor and asks the nurse how long the labor will last. The nurse explains that the first stage of labor lasts from the beginning of regular contractions until when?
A) The cervix is completely effaced
B) The baby is in position
C) The cervix is fully dilated
D) The woman begins pushing
Q4) What is the ideal attitude for the fetal body during labor?
A) Extension
B) Lateral
C) Flexion
D) Transverse
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Chapter 27: Care of the Mother and Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the appropriate way to assess the fundus of the postpartum patient?
A) Using the side of one hand moving down from the umbilicus
B) Using one hand over the lower segment of the uterus
C) Using one hand pushing upward from the lower uterus
D) Using one hand on the lower uterine segment while the other hand locates the fundus of the uterus
Q2) Which finding should the nurse suspect as abnormal in the newborn during the initial assessment?
A) Eyes crossed at times
B) Persistent high-pitched cry
C) Arms and legs flexed
D) Slight bluish tinge of the extremities
Q3) After delivery of a 9-lb baby, the nurse assesses a perineal laceration extending through the muscles of the perineum. The nurse records this as a ________-degree laceration.
Q4) What should be included in a teaching plan regarding breast engorgement?
A) It typically occurs on the first postpartum day
B) It is usually first observed in the axillary region
C) It occurs only in women who are not breastfeeding
D) It occurs near the nipple on the third postpartum day
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Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cognitive impairment, facial abnormalities, and growth retardation are characteristics of which abnormality in a fetus?
A) Fetal dependency
B) Fetal immaturity
C) Malnutrition dependency
D) Fetal alcohol syndrome
Q2) The newborn infant has oxygenation problems and a lack of subcutaneous fat. What should the nurse determine as the gestational age of this infant?
A) 20 to 37 completed weeks of pregnancy
B) 38 to 41 completed weeks of pregnancy
C) 14 to 36 completed weeks of pregnancy
D) 42 or more completed weeks of pregnancy
Q3) The nurse assures a patient who has become sensitized to the Rh antigen that she can be protected for future pregnancies by receiving what injection?
A) Iron
B) Vitamin B12
C) RhoGAM
D) Type O blood
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Chapter 29: Health Promotion for the Infant, Child, and Adolescent
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because the water in the infant's residential area is not fluoridated, when should the nurse suggest that the infant receive supplemental fluoride?
A) 2 months old
B) 4 months old
C) 5 months old
D) 6 months old
Q2) The nurse sets up a sample physical activities schedule to fit the FDA's Dietary Guidelines for Americans that recommends that children get at least how many minutes of physical activity per day?
A) 15
B) 30
C) 45
D) 60
Q3) Approximately half of all new HIV cases are among people under what age?
A) 50 years
B) 40 years
C) 30 years
D) 25 years
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Chapter 30: Basic Pediatric Nursing Care
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42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the typical IV insertion site in an infant younger than 9 months of age?
A) Radial vein
B) Scalp vein
C) Femoral vein
D) Brachial vein
Q2) What is the purpose of a mist tent?
A) To provide a constant oxygen supply
B) To liquefy respiratory secretions
C) To aid in lowering temperature
D) To improve the infant's hydration
Q3) The mother of a child with diabetes asks the nurse in charge of the family-centered pediatric unit if she might see her child's laboratory reports. What response by the nurse is the most appropriate?
A) "Although the actual reports are not shared, I can tell you the blood sugar is 200 mg."
B) "I'll write them down for you and bring them to your room."
C) "Come to the conference room where we can have privacy while you look at them."
D) "I'll notify the physician that you wish to see the reports."
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Chapter 31: Care of the Child with a Physical and Mental or Cognitive Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) What could suddenly occur in a child with acute epiglottitis?
A) Increased carbon dioxide levels
B) Airway obstruction
C) Inability to swallow
D) Bronchial collapse
Q2) When the nurse performs the initial assessment of an adolescent with depression, what is the most important question to ask?
A) "What is making you depressed?"
B) "Have you ever thought about suicide?"
C) "What could we do to make you happy?"
D) "Would you like your friends to visit?"
Q3) Parents of a 6-month-old child, who has just been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia, ask why it was not diagnosed earlier. What would be the best response by the nurse?
A) "Are you sure your child has iron deficiency anemia?"
B) "This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months."
C) "This anemia is caused by blood loss."
D) "The child may not have had it for a long time."
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Chapter 32: Health Promotion and Care of the Older Adult
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When communicating with an older adult patient who has difficulty hearing, how should the nurse change her speech?
A) Speak very loudly
B) Speak rapidly
C) Lower the tone of the voice
D) Raise the tone of the voice
Q2) When was the Social Security Act, which was the first major legislation providing financial security for older adults, passed?
A) 1930
B) 1935
C) 1940
D) 1945
Q3) The older patient informs the nurse that food has no taste and therefore the patient has no appetite. What is this most likely caused by?
A) Tasteless food
B) Overuse of salt
C) Lack of variety
D) Loss of taste buds
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34
Chapter 33: Concepts of Mental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) The situation in which a parent must choose between attending a daughter's ballet recital or a son's baseball game is an example of a __________.
Q2) What action by a student before taking a test should indicate to a nursing instructor that the student is demonstrating signs of moderate anxiety?
A) Studies for 6 hours
B) Sleeps 6 hours because of fatigue
C) Vomits
D) Argues about the scheduling of the test
Q3) What coping mechanism demonstrated by a patient should indicate to the nurse that the patient is seeking ways to deal with and resolve stress?
A) Projection
B) Adaptation
C) Reaction formation
D) Compensation
Q4) In the movie Gone with the Wind, Scarlett O'Hara says, "I'll think about that tomorrow. Tomorrow is another day." The nurse recognizes the defense mechanism of
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Chapter 34: Care of the Patient with a Psychiatric Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A profound, disabling mental illness is characterized by bizarre, nonreality thinking. What is the illness?
A) Manic depressive
B) Schizophrenia
C) Paranoia
D) Bipolar
Q2) When a patient is experiencing a panic attack, how should the nurse best assist the patient?
A) Assist with reality orientation
B) Aid in decision making
C) Assist with rational thought
D) Coach in deep breathing
Q3) The patient talks with his dead brother and arranges furniture so that his brother will have a place to sit. How should the nurse document this behavior?
A) Disordered thinking
B) Anhedonia
C) Hallucination
D) Alogia
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36
Chapter 35: Care of the Patient with an Addictive Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should assess a patient for which criteria of addiction? (Select all that apply.)
A) Excessive use of the substance
B) Increase in social function
C) Uncontrollable consumption
D) Increase in economic function
E) Psychological disturbances
Q2) The nurse assesses an alcoholic patient carefully for signs of withdrawal. How soon after cessation of alcohol intake do withdrawal symptoms usually appear?
A) 3 hours
B) 4 hours
C) 5 hours
D) 6 hours
Q3) What must a patient in the late stages of dependence do in order to recover?
A) Gain insight into the addiction
B) Receive treatment for substance abuse
C) Pledge to lead a completely different lifestyle
D) Seek a nondrug-oriented support system
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Chapter 36: Home Health Nursing
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) By offering enteral, parenteral, intravenous, and blood transfusion therapies, what can home care services prevent?
A) Morbidity
B) Hospitalization
C) Hospice care
D) Mortality
Q2) What became effective in 1966 by an act of legislation that revolutionized home care?
A) Life insurance
B) Medicare
C) Private insurance
D) Social Security
Q3) The evaluation and admission process for entry to the home health care system includes physical and psychosocial examination, explanation of the patient's rights, and evaluation of family, home, and nursing interventions. What is the normal minimum time for the admission visit?
A) 30 minutes
B) 1 hour
C) 2 hours
D) 3 hours
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Chapter 37: Long-Term Care
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34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the goal for services provided by home health care agencies?
A) Self-care
B) Assisted living
C) Rehabilitation
D) Improved function
Q2) A daughter is assessing a nursing home before placing her mother there for what she feels will be a long-term stay. Which of the following are important aspects of quality to consider when selecting a nursing home? (Select all that apply.)
A) Privacy is respected
B) Staff members are task-focused
C) The staff welcomes family visits
D) There is a homelike environment
E) Rooms are maintained like a hospital
Q3) What differentiates the services of a long-term care facility from that of an assisted living facility?
A) Skilled nursing care
B) Personal care services
C) Weekly visits by the staff physician
D) Intensive rehabilitation services
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Rehabilitation Nursing
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse used a diagnosis of impaired cognition for a 40-year-old patient with a brain injury. Which assessment data would support the diagnosis?
A) Frequently becomes violent
B) Becomes easily fatigued
C) Is depressed
D) Cannot add three numbers in his head
Q2) What should the nurse do to decrease the potential for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a patient who is a paraplegic from a spinal cord injury?
A) Massage the patient's legs daily
B) Perform passive range-of-motion exercises
C) Encourage frequent warm baths
D) Allow the patient's legs to dangle for a period of 10 minutes several times a day
Q3) What is the best way to define a handicap?
A) Any loss of function
B) A disability that interferes with one's normal functioning
C) Any loss of ability to perform activities of daily living
D) An irreversible lifelong impairment
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Chapter 39: Hospice Care
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The social worker evaluates and assesses the psychosocial needs of the patient. To work in a hospice, the social worker must have at least which degree?
A) Associate
B) Bachelor's
C) Master's
D) Doctorate
Q2) What is the most common problem of the terminally ill patient that is caused by narcotics?
A) Malnutrition
B) Constipation
C) Fluid retention
D) Dehydration
Q3) When the dying patient becomes confused, the nurse should ____________ him or her.
Q4) What is the overall objective of hospice service?
A) Relieve symptoms of terminal disease
B) Educate the patient about the process of death
C) Keep the patient comfortable as death approaches
D) Relieve the family of the stress of death
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Chapter 40: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the patient complains of pain in the bladder, the patient will indicate discomfort in which body cavity?
A) Pelvic
B) Mediastinum
C) Dorsal
D) Abdominal
Q2) What are the smallest living components in our body?
A) Cells
B) Organs
C) Electrons
D) Osmosis
Q3) What is the broad section of biology dealing with the description of human structure?
A) Hematology
B) Anatomy
C) Kinesiology
D) Physiology
Q4) The nurse explains that ___________are small saclike structures inside the cell that digest compounds that have invaded the cell.
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Chapter 41: Care of the Surgical Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which location are guidelines for ensuring that all nursing interventions on the day of surgery completed and documented?
A) In the nurse's notes
B) In the anesthesia record
C) In the preoperative checklist
D) In the progress notes
Q2) When the postoperative patient complains of sudden chest pain combined with dyspnea, cyanosis, and tachycardia, the nurse recognizes the signs of:
A) hypovolemic shock.
B) dehiscence.
C) atelectasis.
D) pulmonary embolus.
Q3) The nurse instructing a postsurgical patient in the use of thrombolytic deterrent stockings would include which of the following instructions?
A) Disregard appearance of edema above the stocking
B) Massage legs to smooth wrinkles out of stockings
C) Wring stockings thoroughly before hanging to dry
D) Wash stockings in warm water and mild soap
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Chapter 42: Care of the Patient with an Integumentary Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should a patient be assessed for upon the diagnosis of genital herpes?
A) Hepatitis B
B) Syphilis
C) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
D) Cirrhosis
Q2) Prioritize the intervention of the first responder to the victim during the emergent phase of burn management. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C,
D.)
A) Transport victim to hospital.
B) Cover victim with clean cloth or sheet.
C) Stop, drop, and roll.
D) Remove all nonadherent clothing and jewelry.
E) Provide an open airway.
F) Control any bleeding.
Q3) The nurse debriding a burn wound explains that the purpose of debridement is to:
A) increase the effectiveness of the skin graft.
B) prevent infection and promote healing.
C) promote suppuration of the wound.
D) promote movement in the affected area.
Q4) The most deadly skin cancer is ________________.
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Chapter 43: Care of the Patient with a Musculoskeletal Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are the main purposes of traction? (Select all that apply.)
A) Align and stabilize a fracture
B) Prevent deformities
C) Relieve muscle spasms
D) Promote bed rest
E) Increase circulation to the rest of the body
Q2) Certain foods may increase the pain associated with gout. Which foods have the highest concentration of purines?
A) Brain, liver, kidney
B) Lettuce, corn, potatoes
C) Beef, pork, chicken
D) Fruits and fruit juices
Q3) The office nurse has noted the presence of an increase in lumbar curvature in a 20-year-old female patient. What is this condition known as?
A) Scoliosis
B) Lordosis
C) Kyphosis
D) Spondylitis
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Chapter 44: Care of the Patient with a Gastrointestinal Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse clarifies that the end product of carbohydrate metabolism is absorbed and put into the blood stream by the:
A) gastric lining of the stomach.
B) villi of the small intestine.
C) bile of the liver in the large intestine.
D) excretion from the cecum.
Q2) The nurse takes into consideration that a proton pump inhibitor drug, such as ______________, will completely eradicate gastric acid production.
A) omeprazole (Prilosec)
B) ranitidine (Zantac)
C) sucralfate (Carafate)
D) olsalazine (Dipentum)
Q3) The patient with a peptic ulcer has been placed on regular doses of bismuth salicylate (Pepto-Bismol) to combat H. pylori. What color will this drug turn the stool?
A) Gray-black
B) Dark green
C) Red-orange
D) Yellow
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Chapter 45: Care of the Patient with a Gallbladder, Liver, Biliary Tract, or Exocrine Pancreatic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse clarifies that unconjugated bilirubin, which is made up of broken-down red cells, is:
A) stored in the gallbladder to make bile.
B) water insoluble bilirubin that must be converted by the liver.
C) a by-product which is excreted directly into the bowel for excretion.
D) necessary for digestion of fats.
Q2) What should the nurse explain is the major purpose of the Sengstaken-Blakemore tube (S/B tube)?
A) Decompress the stomach
B) Control esophageal varices bleeding
C) A route for tube feedings
D) Obtain specimen for gastric analysis
Q3) A male patient states that he returned from a 2-week camping trip a few days ago. He complains of nausea and anorexia, and dark urine. What additional information would assist in diagnosing hepatitis A?
A) Exposure to blood
B) Recent ingestion of raw fish
C) History of intravenous drug use
D) Multiple sex partners
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Q4) The tumor marker that is elevated in patients with pancreatic cancer is______.
Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an adult, where are erythrocytes continuously produced?
A) Yellow bone marrow
B) Lymphatic system
C) Spleen
D) Red bone marrow
Q2) What would a nurse include in a teaching plan for a home health patient with a hemoglobin of 8.4 mg?
A) Exercising for periods of 30 minutes daily
B) Limiting fluid intake
C) Alternating activity with rest periods
D) Avoiding the use of oxygen
Q3) The nurse explains that a positron emission tomography (PET) has been ordered to:
A) assess bone marrow depression.
B) measure bone density.
C) radiate and destroy diseased lymph nodes.
D) measure lymph node response to therapy.
Q4) The nurse clarifies that ____________ _______________ replaces iron stores needed for red blood cell production.
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Q5) Neutrophils release ______________, an enzyme that destroys certain bacteria.
Chapter
47: Care of the Patient with a Cardiovascular or a Peripheral Vascular Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) used for? (Select all that apply.)
A) Detect thrombi before a cardioversion
B) Check for cardiac arrhythmias
C) Visualize vegetation on the heart valves
D) Measure effectiveness of diuretic therapy
E) Visualize abscesses on the heart valves
Q2) The pain that a person with arterial insufficiency feels on exertion, which is relieved by rest, is ______________ _____________.
Q3) When assessing a patient with a possible MI, what should the nurse assess for?
(Select all that apply.)
A) Pain radiating to left arm and jaw
B) Hypertension
C) Pallor
D) Diaphoresis
E) Erratic behavior
F) Cardiac rhythm changes
Q4) The cardiac marker ___________ rises 3 hours after a myocardial infarct and measures myocardial contractile protein.
Page 49
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which important precaution should the nurse include when instructing an emphysema patient on the use of home oxygen?
A) Use oxygen only when extremely short of breath
B) Keep the home oxygen regulator set on 6 L
C) Use home oxygen at night while sleeping
D) Limit to 1 to 2 L oxygen flow
Q2) A patient, age 69, has emphysema. On assessment, the nurse notes the presence of a "barrel chest." What does this pathology result from?
A) An increase in the lateromedial area from hypertrophy of mucous glands in the bronchi
B) An increased anteroposterior diameter caused by overinflation of the alveoli
C) A decrease in anteroposterior diameter caused by chronic dilation of the bronchi
D) A widening of the sternocostal area secondary to chronic constriction of smooth muscles in the airways leading to bronchospasms
Q3) The nurse prepares a patient for the procedure of a(n) __________, which will remove the fluid from around the lung to improve respiration and obtain a specimen.
Q4) The _________ are the structures of the lung in which gas exchange occurs.
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Chapter 49: Care of the Patient with a Urinary Disorder
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Q1) A patient, age 78, has been admitted to the hospital with dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. She is confused and incontinent of urine on admission. Which nursing intervention does the nurse include in developing a plan of care?
A) Restrict fluids after the evening meal
B) Insert an indwelling catheter
C) Assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours
D) Apply absorbent incontinence pads
Q2) What should the nurse instruct the patient to do before obtaining the urine specimen for a urine culture?
A) Collect the urine for a 24-hour period
B) Obtain a clean-catch specimen
C) Bring in an early morning specimen
D) Limit fluid intake to concentrate the urine
Q3) Why are pediatric patients, especially girls, susceptible to urinary tract infections?
A) Genetically females have a weaker immune system
B) Females have a short and proximal urethra in relation to the vagina
C) Girls are more sexually active than males
D) Girls have a weakened musculature and sphincter tone
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the master gland of the endocrine system?
A) Thyroid
B) Parathyroid
C) Pancreas
D) Pituitary
Q2) The nurse would instruct a patient with hyperthyroidism (Graves disease) to select which of the following nutritious foods because of the increased metabolism related to the disease. (Select all that apply.)
A) Coffee with cream
B) Lean meat
C) White bread
D) Leafy green vegetables
E) Supplemental vitamin D
Q3) In diabetes insipidus, a deficiency of which hormone causes clinical manifestations?
A) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
B) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Q4) Another term for hyperglycemic reaction is ____________ ______________.
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Chapter 51: Care of the Patient with a Reproductive Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a yellowish-green malodorous vaginal discharge. She says it makes her itch and makes it hard to urinate. After a microscopic examination that confirms trichomoniasis, the patient is placed on metronidazole (Flagyl) for 7 days. How should the nurse advise the patient?
A) Avoid alcohol while on Flagyl
B) Be aware that her urine may turn blue and will stain clothing
C) Wear snug underwear during treatment
D) Be aware that she need not notify her sexual partners as trichomoniasis is not contagious
Q2) Which statement indicates that the patient who has had an abdominal hysterectomy needs further home teaching?
A) "I understand I can lift as much as 20 lb."
B) "I'm leaving today to stay with my daughter, who lives 20 miles away. My husband plans to drive the family car."
C) "The doctor said I can't have sexual intercourse for 4 to 6 weeks."
D) "I'm going to miss wearing my girdle or knee-high hose."
Q3) An alternative remedy, ____________ , is used by men for the treatment of impotence.
Q4) ________are produced in the seminiferous tubules and stored in the epididymis.
Page 53
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Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) What factors must the nurse consider when assessing readiness to learn when teaching health promotion practices for the visually and hearing impaired? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cultural beliefs
B) Values
C) Habits
D) Income
E) Occupation
Q2) The 62-year-old home health patient who is recovering from eye surgery complains of a feeling of "grittiness" in the eye and is having blurred vision. The eyes are reddened and have stringy mucus. What do these complaints indicate?
A) Sjögren syndrome
B) Early cataracts
C) Macular degeneration
D) Retinal detachment
Q3) The total removal of an eye is a(n) ___________.
Q4) Progressive deafness caused by the ankylosis of the stapes is the condition of__________.
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54
Chapter 53: Care of the Patient with a Neurologic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which question is likely to elicit the most valid response from the patient who is being interviewed about a neurologic problem?
A) "Do you have any sensations of pins and needles in your feet?"
B) "Does the pain radiate from your back into your legs?"
C) "Can you describe the sensations you are having?"
D) "Do you ever have any nausea or dizziness?"
Q2) What is the basic problem that prompts most of the early signs of Alzheimer disease?
A) Changes in mood
B) Misplacing things
C) Memory loss that disrupts daily life
D) Problems with words in speaking
Q3) What does the nurse know about the stroke patient who has expressive aphasia?
A) Has difficulty comprehending spoken and written communication
B) Cannot make any vocal sounds
C) Has total loss and comprehension of language
D) Can understand the spoken word, but cannot speak
Q4) The waxy substance that covers the neuron fibers and increases the rate of transmission of impulses is the ________.
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) The transfer of tissue between genetically identical individual (twins) is a(n)
Q2) The nurse stresses that when a person produces his own antibodies against a specific antigen, that process of immunity is ______________ ________________ immunity
Q3) What would the nurse recommend for a 94-year-old home health patient with deteriorated cell-mediated immunity?
A) Avoiding the influenza vaccine
B) Getting pneumonia vaccine
C) Having skin tests for all antigens
D) Taking large doses of beta-carotene
Q4) Which person is most at risk for a hypersensitivity reaction?
A) 26-year-old receiving his second desensitization injection
B) 35-year-old starting back on birth control tablets
C) The 52-year-old started on a new series of Pyridium for cystitis
D) The 84-year-old receiving penicillin for an annually recurring respiratory infection
Q5) A transfusion using blood from one's own blood is a(n) ___________ transfusion, which is the best defense against a transfusion reaction.
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Chapter 55: Care of the Patient with HIV/AIDS
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are snacks high in potassium, such as bananas and apricot nectar, recommended?
A) Electrolytes are lost through diaphoresis.
B) Sodium is lost through frequent diarrhea.
C) Potassium will support weight gain.
D) Potassium helps fight infection.
Q2) The historical progress of the HIV infection began to be tracked in 1979. Arrange the historical events in sequence of their discovery. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D)
A) Infection in heterosexual men and women
B) Infection in hemophiliacs
C) Infection in injection drug users
D) Increased incidence of Kaposi carcinoma in young homosexual men
E) Increased incidence of Pneumocystis jiroveci (previously PCP)
Q3) The term that describes an immunosuppressed patient's inability to react to a skin test is __________________.
Q4) The combination of efforts of the medical team, nutritionist, social workers, and clergy is the necessary ______________ approach to the complex needs of the patients with HIV infection.
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Chapter 56: Care of the Patient with Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse remarks that the American Cancer Society (ACS) reports that cancer is the ______ leading cause of death in the United States.
Q2) Which statement is most appropriate for a nurse to tell a patient before insertion of the radioactive implant?
A) "Nurses will always be available, but they will spend only short periods of time at your bedside."
B) "Personal cleanliness is essential, so you will be given a complete bed bath each day."
C) "Your diet will be changed to a high-fiber diet to encourage daily bowel movements."
D) "Your bed linens will be completely changed each day to minimize radioactive contamination."
Q3) Which of the following characteristics is common in malignant tumors?
A) Usually contained within a capsule
B) Divide and multiply in the same manner as normal cells
C) Proliferate and respond to treatment
D) Progress and destroy surrounding tissues while spreading to distant parts of the body
Q4) A ___________ test screens for occult blood in the stool.
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Page 58
Chapter 57: Professional Roles and Leadership
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5511
Sample Questions
Q1) A new graduate who has achieved the goal of getting others to do something that is believed necessary has demonstrated what skill?
A) Management
B) Leadership
C) Influence
D) Control
Q2) After transcribing each order in a list of orders, the nurse should ___________ __________ the order.
Q3) What is the best way to resolve most disagreements?
A) Agreement
B) Argument
C) Communication
D) Withdrawing
Q4) What is the correct term for a concise, one- or two-page summary of educational and work experience, activities and honors, and concrete skills and interests?
A) Introduction
B) Review
C) Résumé
D) Composite
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