Nursing Concepts and Practice
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Nursing Concepts and Practice introduces foundational theories, principles, and skills essential for professional nursing care. The course emphasizes the nursing process, patient-centered care, and evidence-based practice, integrating concepts such as health, wellness, safety, communication, and ethical-legal considerations. Students learn to assess, plan, implement, and evaluate nursing interventions across diverse populations and settings. Through a combination of classroom instruction, simulation, and clinical experiences, learners develop critical thinking, professional behaviors, and effective collaboration skills necessary for delivering holistic, quality care in today's healthcare environment.
Recommended Textbook
Adult Health Nursing 6th Edition by Barbara Christensen
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17 Chapters
676 Verified Questions
676 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1169
Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23140
Sample Questions
Q1) ____ explains the processes and functions of many structures of the body and how they interact with one another.
A) Anatomy
B) Mitosis
C) Filtration
D) Physiology
Answer: D
Q2) The four phases of cell division all occur in
A) diffusion.
B) mitosis.
C) osmosis.
D) filtration.
Answer: B
Q3) When the nurse assesses an arm in proximal distal order, the assessment is performed from
A) the shoulder to the fingers
B) front to back.
C) fingers to the center of the body
D) center of the body to the fingers
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Care of the Surgical Patient
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assisting with the sponge and instrument count in the operating room. The operative phase in which the nurse is assisting is called the A) perioperative phase.
B) preoperative phase.
C) intraoperative phase.
D) postoperative phase.
Answer: C
Q2) Discharge planning for a surgical procedure begins in the ______________ period and continues through the _____________ period.
Answer: preoperative, recuperative
Discharge planning for a surgical procedure begins in the preoperative and continues through the recuperative period.
Q3) Serum potassium levels are usually determined before surgery to A) assess kidney function.
B) determine respiratory insufficiency.
C) prevent dysrhythmias related to anesthesia.
D) measure functional liver capability.
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Care of the Patient With an Integumentary Disorder
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, age 46, reports to his physician's office with urticaria and papules on his hands and arms. He says, "It itches so badly." In assessing the patient, the nurse should gather data regarding recent
A) travel to foreign countries.
B) upper respiratory tract infection.
C) changes in medication.
D) contact with people who have an infectious disease.
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse is caring for a 26-year-old patient who was burned 72 hours ago. He has partial-thickness burns to 24% of his body surface area. He begins to excrete large amounts of urine. The nurse should
A) slow the IV solution and monitor for burn shock.
B) monitor for signs of infection.
C) assess for signs of fluid overload.
D) raise the foot of the bed and apply blankets.
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Care of the Patient With a Musculoskeletal Disorder
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calcium is a mineral found in many foods that can slow bone loss during the aging process. The following are high in calcium:
A) Oranges, yogurt
B) Oranges, bananas
C) Broccoli, yogurt
D) Skim milk, eggs
Q2) The first priority nursing intervention for an impending fat embolism is to administer A) oxygen in a respiratory emergency.
B) intravenous fluids in hypovolemic emergency.
C) Lasix IV for fluid overload.
D) blood therapy in a cardiac emergency.
Q3) A patient, age 72, has a left intertrochanteric fracture as a result of a fall. In planning ways to increase her safety, the nurse realizes it is most important to determine A) preexisting health conditions.
B) nutritional status.
C) psychosocial history.
D) pain level.
Q4) Among the most common fractures in older women are _______fractures.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Care of the Patient With a Gastrointestinal Disorder
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The end-products of carbohydrate and protein digestion are absorbed by the A) bloodstream.
B) blood vessels in the villi.
C) lymphatic system.
D) lymph vessels in the villi.
Q2) The most important nursing intervention to assure the patency of a nasogastric tube (NG) is to:
A) Clamp nasogastric tube 30 minutes twice a day.
B) Monitor NG for patency and irrigate with sterile normal saline PRN as ordered.
C) Cleanse nares at least once each shift; lubricate with a petrolatum ointment.
D) Administer mouth care every 24 hours.
Q3) The patient, age 32, has ulcerative colitis, and his condition is deteriorating. An ileostomy is scheduled. After the procedure, this patient may be at risk for A) Activity intolerance.
B) Sexual dysfunction.
C) Disturbed body image.
D) Ineffective thermoregulation.
Q4) Colonoscopy should be performed every ________ years.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Care of the Patient With a Gallbladder, Liver, Biliary Tract, or Exocrine Pancreatic Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factors may increase a patient's risk of developing cancer of the pancreas?
A) Diet high in carbohydrates and dairy products
B) Cardiovascular disease and glaucoma
C) Tea and cola consumption
D) Cigarette smokers and people with diabetes mellitus
Q2) The patient has cirrhosis of the liver and an albumin/globulin ratio of 0.9 g/dL. The normal ratio is 1.2 to 2.2 g/dL. In collecting objective data for her, the nurse would probably note which outstanding clinical sign?
A) Jaundice
B) Edema
C) Pruritus
D) Pallor
Q3) As a result of cirrhosis of the liver, the patient's condition deteriorates and he slips into a hepatic coma. The nurse would anticipate increasing levels of:
A) Amylase
B) Ammonia
C) Thrombocytes
D) Bilirubin
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Chapter 7: Care of the Patient With a Blood or
Lymphatic Disorder
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23146
Sample Questions
Q1) The spleen stores how many milliliters of blood that can be released in emergencies?
A) 500 mL (1 pint)
B) 1500 mL (3 pints)
C) 100 mL (1/5 pint)
D) 2000 mL (4 pints)
Q2) _____________ are leukocytes which destroy and remove cellular waste, bacteria, and solid particles.
Q3) Replaces iron stores needed for RBC development
A) Folic acid
B) Ferrous sulfate
C) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
D) Neupogen
Q4) Needed for adequate nerve functioning
A) Folic acid
B) Ferrous sulfate
C) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
D) Neupogen
Q5) A sudden reduction in blood volume may lead to _________ shock.
Q6) The organ that forms lymphocytes is the __________.
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Chapter 8: Care of the Patient With a Cardiovascular or a Peripheral Vascular Disorder
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23147
Sample Questions
Q1) What is defined as a distended dilated segment of an artery?
A) Embolism
B) Aneurysm
C) Angina
D) Adhesion
Q2) A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of possible aortic aneurysm. In assessing her, it is most important to monitor her
A) temperature.
B) lung sounds.
C) respirations.
D) blood pressure.
Q3) After an influenza-like illness, the patient complains of chills and small petechiae in his mouth and his legs. A heart murmur is detectable. These are characteristic signs of A) congestive heart failure.
B) heart block.
C) aortic stenosis.
D) infective endocarditis.
Q4) Serum cardiac markers are __________ that indicate cardiac muscle damage after a myocardial infarction.
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Chapter 9: Care of the Patient With a Respiratory Disorder
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prevention of acute respiratory complications in surgical patients is a nursing goal that involves which intervention?
A) Obtaining baseline pulmonary function tests for all preoperative patients.
B) Teaching all preoperative patients how to use incentive spirometers and how to cough and deep breathe effectively.
C) Obtaining baseline arterial blood gases for all preoperative patients over the age of 65.
D) Keeping at-risk patients in an upright position during the postoperative course.
Q2) Which test is a quick and reliable aid to diagnosis latent TB?
A) PPD skin test
B) Sputum smears
C) QFT-G
D) TB tine test
Q3) What does a nurse teach an adult male who has had a tonsillectomy?
A) Eat solid food during the first 24 hours.
B) Do not eat or drink anything for the first 24 hours.
C) Apply a heating pad to the neck during the first 24 hours.
D) Avoid coughing and clearing the throat during the first week postoperatively.
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11
Chapter 10: Care of the Patient With a Urinary Disorder
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23149
Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of water that is eliminated with the urine is regulated by a complex mechanism within the nephron and influenced by a hormone from the posterior pituitary gland called
A) pitocin.
B) rennin hormone.
C) antidiuretic hormone.
D) ACTH.
Q2) Patients on diuretics who become hypokalemic should make sure they include which foods in their daily diet?
A) Bananas, oranges, cantaloupe
B) Carrots, summer squash, green beans
C) Apples, pineapple, watermelon
D) Winter squash, cauliflower, lettuce
Q3) Acute ______________ is commonly a result of a preexisting infection.
Q4) One method of monitoring for signs and symptoms of fluid overload when administering diuretics is
A) record daily morning weights (same time, scale, clothes).
B) record random weights throughout the day (same scale, clothes, staff member).
C) assess abdomen every shift.
D) eat a diet high in sodium.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Care of the Patient With an Endocrine Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pregnant women should not be exposed to iodine-131 because of A) danger to the cardiac system.
B) danger to metabolism.
C) danger to the fetus.
D) danger to the reproductive system.
Q2) A patient, age 28, has sought medical attention because her hands and feet have become enlarged. She also has noticed amenorrhea and increased hair growth. These symptoms most likely indicate problems with the A) pituitary gland.
B) adrenal glands.
C) thyroid gland.
D) pancreas.
Q3) In diabetes insipidus, clinical manifestations are caused by a deficiency of A) antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
B) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
C) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
D) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).
Q4) The nurse is administering long-acting insulin once a day that provides insulin coverage for 24 hours. This insulin is _________________.
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Chapter 12: Care of the Patient With a Reproductive Disorder
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23151
Sample Questions
Q1) ________ are produced in the seminiferous tubules and stored in the epididymis.
Q2) What factor influences older women's reluctance to seek medical care for problems of the reproductive system?
A) Embarrassment and cultural factors
B) Denial
C) Religious convictions
D) Lack of free time
Q3) A female patient, age 48, is undergoing a routine physical examination for the first time in 5 years. As a part of this examination she can expect to have a A) culdoscopy.
B) colposcopy.
C) cervical biopsy.
D) Papanicolaou smear.
Q4) False negative results in mammography occur in specific age groups because:
A) older women have greater density of breast tissue.
B) older women have less density of breast tissue.
C) younger women have greater density of breast tissue.
D) younger women have less density of breast tissue.
Q5) _____________ are benign tumors of the uterus.
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Chapter 13: Care of the Patient With a Visual or Auditory Disorder
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23152
Sample Questions
Q1) Decreasing visual acuity is a sign of _________ __________.
Q2) Schiötz tonometry is a diagnostic test for __________.
Q3) Select all the conditions that may cause conductive hearing loss.
A) Buildup of cerumen
B) Foreign bodies
C) Otosclerosis of external auditory canal
D) Trauma
E) Exposure to ototoxic drugs
F) Otitis media with effusion
Q4) Otitis media is more frequently seen in children 6 to 36 months because
A) eustachian tubes in children are shorter and straighter.
B) infection descends via the eustachian tube to the throat.
C) children's eustachian tubes are more vertical and longer.
D) otitis media is seen equally in both children and adults.
Q5) Astigmatism is a medical term meaning which visual disorder?
A) Blurred vision
B) Inability to detect colors
C) Color blindness
D) Farsightedness
Page 15
Q6) _____________ is a medical term for blurred vision.
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Care of the Patient With a Neurologic Disorder
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23153
Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient with a head injury has drainage from the nose or ears, which nursing intervention would be appropriate?
A) Cleanse ear or nose with a soft cotton-tipped swab.
B) Gently suction the nasal cavity.
C) Allow the patient to wipe the nose or ears, but not blow the nose or place anything in the external ear.
D) Place a pressure dressing over the ear.
Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with organic brain pathology. He is presenting with signs and symptoms of total or partial loss of the ability to recognize familiar objects or people through sensory stimulation. This condition is called A) apraxia.
B) agnosia.
C) aphasia.
D) dysphagia.
Q3) The avoidance of ___________ __________ decreases the risk for lung cancer.
Q4) A female patient is diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Upon physical assessment, the nurse notices her left eyelid is drooping. The nurse's notes would document this as ___________ of the eyelid.
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Page 17
Chapter 15: Care of the Patient With an Immune Disorder
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23154
Sample Questions
Q1) The correct nursing intervention for anaphylaxis would be
A) assess respiratory status, including dyspnea.
B) hypertension and elevated albumin levels.
C) assess skin status, including erythema, urticaria, cyanosis, and pallor.
D) assess GI status, including nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, incontinence.
Q2) A patient has experienced an anaphylaxis reaction and is being monitored to ensure she is stable. A nursing diagnosis for her will be
A) Decreased cardiac output.
B) Impaired skin integrity.
C) Imbalanced nutrition: less than required.
D) Feeding self-care deficit.
Q3) Which are autoimmune diseases? (Select all that apply.)
A) Lupus erythematosus
B) Glomerulonephritis
C) Polio
D) Rheumatoid arthritis
E) Thrombocytopenic purpura
F) Osteoarthritis
Q4) The purpose of immunotherapy is _____________.
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Chapter 16: Care of the Patient With HIV-Aids
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, age 28, has a history of IV drug use and has tested positive for HIV. About 2 weeks ago, she delivered a baby who has tested positive for HIV. This patient will not care for the baby because she believes the baby will die soon. In counseling her about the care of her infant, which approach by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Agree with her that the baby will develop AIDS and refer her to a local AIDS support group.
B) Inform her that although infants of HIV-infected mothers may test positive for HIV antibodies, not all infants are infected with the virus.
C) Remind her that she has not yet developed AIDS and that it is possible the baby won't develop AIDS for many years.
D) Inform her that if the infant is started on zidovudine (AZT) within the first month after delivery, AIDS can be prevented.
Q2) ______________ is a type of sexual option classified as "no risk" for a person to become infected with HIV virus.
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Chapter 17: Care of the Patient With Cancer
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23156
Sample Questions
Q1) Men over age 50 should have annual _________ tests and rectal examinations.
Q2) A patient, age 39, has been receiving chemotherapy for treatment of her cancer of the breast. She has a white blood cell count of 1,600/mm³. A person who has leukopenia has a special need for which nursing intervention?
A) Provision of adequate fluid intake
B) Protection from falls
C) Protection against infection
D) Limitation of activities
Q3) Which food is recommended by the National Cancer Institute to reduce a person's cancer risk?
A) Potatoes
B) Beets
C) Celery
D) Broccoli
Q4) The term ____________ is used for various substances that are known to contribute to cancer.
Q5) _________ is the term for uncontrolled or abnormal growth of cells. They may be benign or malignant.
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