Nursing Concepts and Pharmacology Final
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course introduces foundational nursing concepts and explores essential principles of pharmacology for nursing practice. Students will examine the nurses role in safe medication administration, including calculations, drug classifications, mechanisms of action, therapeutic effects, side effects, and potential drug interactions. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking in the application of pharmacological knowledge to patient care, understanding nursing responsibilities in medication management, and integrating patient education for optimal health outcomes. The course combines theoretical learning with clinical scenarios to prepare students for evidence-based decision-making in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice 2nd Canadian Edition by Linda Lane Lilley
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59 Chapters
683 Verified Questions
683 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Nursing Practice in Canada and Drug Therapy
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is working during a very busy evening shift,and the physician has just hurriedly given the nurse a list of orders over the telephone.What is the best way for the nurse to avoid medication errors?
A)Recopy the orders neatly on the order sheet
B)Consult with the pharmacist for clarification
C)Abbreviate dosages and product names to save time
D)Repeat the verbal orders and spell the drug names aloud
Answer: D
Q2) When the nurse is considering the timing of a drug dose,which of the following factors is most important to assess?
A)The patient's identification
B)The patient's weight
C)The patient's last meal
D)Any drug or food allergies
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Pharmacological Principles
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving medication via intravenous injection.Which of the following statements should the nurse provide for patient education?
A)The medication will cause fewer adverse effects when given intravenously.
B)The medication will be absorbed slowly into the tissues over time.
C)The medication's action will begin faster when given intravenously.
D)Most of the drug is inactivated by the liver before it reaches the target area.
Answer: C
Q2) The term "duration of action" refers to which of the following descriptions?
A)The time it takes for the drug to elicit a therapeutic response
B)The time it takes a drug to reach its maximum therapeutic response
C)The length of time it takes to remove a drug from circulation
D)The time during which drug concentration is sufficient to elicit a therapeutic response
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Considerations for Special Populations
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An 83-year-old female patient has been given a thiazide diuretic to treat mild heart failure.She and her daughter should be taught to watch for which of the following complications?
A)Dizziness and constipation
B)Fatigue and dehydration
C)Daytime sedation and lethargy
D)Edema and blurred vision
Answer: B
Q2) While assessing an 82-year-old woman,the nurse determines that she is experiencing polypharmacy.What is this experience most likely to indicate?
A)She has a lower risk of drug interactions.
B)She takes medications for one illness several times a day.
C)She risks problems only if she also takes over-the-counter medications.
D)She takes multiple medications for several different illnesses.
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Ethnocultural, legal, and Ethical Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following ethnocultural groups believe in harmony with nature and view ill spirits as causing disease?
A)Blacks
B)South Asian Canadians
C)Filipino Canadians
D)Aboriginal peoples
Q2) Which of the following factors contributes to drug polymorphism?
A)The number of drugs ordered by the physician
B)The patient's drug history
C)The patient's diet and nutritional status
D)Different dosage forms of the same drug
Q3) Which of the following best describes drug polymorphism?
A)Cultural and genetic effects on drug metabolism and excretion
B)Gender and cultural effects on drug absorption and distribution
C)Age or body composition effects on drug absorption or metabolism
D)Multi-drug use resulting in impaired excretion
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Chapter 5: Medication Errors
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Health care professionals should report actual and potential medication errors to which of the following organizations?
A)Institute for Safe Medications Practices (ISMP)Canada
B)Accreditation Canada
C)Canadian Patient Safety Institute (CPSI)
D)Health Canada
Q2) Which of the following is the proper notation of the dose of the drug ordered?
A)digoxin .125 mg
B)digoxin .1250 mg
C)digoxin 0.125 mg
D)digoxin 0.1250 mg
Q3) The physician has written admission orders,and the nurse is transcribing them.The nurse is having difficulty transcribing one order because of the physician's handwriting.Which of the following is the best action for the nurse to take?
A)Ask a colleague what the order says
B)Contact the physician to clarify the order
C)Contact the pharmacy to clarify the order
D)Ask the patient what medications he takes at home
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Chapter 6: Patient Education and Drug Therapy
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient and the dietitian have just reviewed the patient's new diet,which is low protein and low potassium.This activity reflects learning in which domain?
A)Physical
B)Affective
C)Cognitive
D)Psychomotor
Q2) When the nurse is teaching a manual skill,such as self-injection of insulin,what is the best way to set up the teaching-learning session?
A)Providing written pamphlets for instruction
B)Showing a video and allow patients to practise as needed on their own
C)Verbally explaining the procedure and provide written handouts for reinforcement
D)After demonstrating the procedure,allowing the patient to do several return demonstrations
Q3) Which of the following statements reflects a measurable goal?
A)The patient will know about insulin injections.
B)The patient will understand the principles of insulin preparation.
C)The patient will demonstrate the proper technique of mixing insulin.
D)The patient will comprehend the proper technique of preparing insulin.
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Chapter 7: Over-The-Counter Drugs and Natural Health Products
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 25-year-old woman is visiting the prenatal clinic and shares with the nurse her desire to go "natural" with her pregnancy.She shows the nurse a list of natural health products that she wishes to take so she can "avoid taking any drugs." Which statement represents the nurse's best response?
A)Most natural health products are nontoxic and safe for use during pregnancy.
B)Please read the labels carefully before use to check for cautionary warnings.
C)Products from different manufacturers are required to contain consistent amounts of herbal constituents.
D)Natural health products are actually drugs with unproven safety and should not be taken during pregnancy without medical supervision.
Q2) Which of the following is a concern regarding the use of the natural health product kava?
A)Cancer risk
B)Liver toxicity
C)Cardiovascular incidents
D)Intestinal disorders
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9
Chapter 8: Vitamins and Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which preparation is given to newborns within 1 hour of delivery?
A)Niacin (vitamin B )
B)Calciferol (vitamin D)
C)Aquasol A (vitamin A)
D)AquaMEPHYTON (vitamin K)
Q2) Which dietary information is important for the patient taking calcium supplements?
A)Oral calcium supplements should be taken before meals.
B)Calcium products bind with tetracyclines,which increases the effects of tetracyclines.
C)Foods high in calcium include whole grain cereals, egg yolks, and liver.
D)Foods high in oxalate and zinc,such as spinach and legumes,decrease the absorption of oral calcium supplementation.
Q3) Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for the patient undergoing therapy with vitamin A?
A)Risk for impaired skin integrity related to vitamin deficiency
B)Disturbed sensory perception (visual)related to night blindness
C)Impaired physical mobility (muscle weakness) related to vitamin deficiency
D)Disturbed thought processes (confusion and psychosis)related to vitamin deficiency
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Chapter 9: Problematic Substance Use
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an individual drinks alcohol while on disulfiram (Antabuse)therapy,which of the following will most likely occur?
A)Euphoria
B)Vomiting
C)Hypertension
D)Hypoventilation
Q2) A 38-year-old male used the "cold turkey" approach to stop smoking.Although he hasn't smoked for 6 months,he tells the nurse that he still feels strong cigarette cravings and wonders whether he will ever get over the cravings.Which of the following statements is true?
A)The cravings will never stop.
B)The cravings may persist for months to years.
C)The cravings indicate that he has been using nicotine.
D)The cravings indicate that he is about to experience nicotine withdrawal.
Q3) Chronic use of alcohol may result in which of the following?
A)Renal failure
B)Stroke
C)Korsakoff's psychosis
D)Alzheimer's disease
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Photo Atlas of Drug Administration
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the proper technique for the nurse to perform when administering ear drops to a 2-year-old child?
A)Administer the drops without altering the ear canal direction.
B)Straighten the ear canal by pulling the lobe upward and back.
C)Straighten the ear canal by pulling the auricle down and back.
D)Straighten the ear canal by pulling the auricle upward and outward.
Q2) In which of the following situations should the nurse administer an intramuscular medication (IM)with the Z-track method?
A)When the medication is known to be irritating to tissues
B)When the patient is emaciated and has very little muscle mass
C)When the medication must be absorbed quickly into the tissues
D)When the patient is obese and has a deep fat layer below the muscle mass
Q3) A patient is to receive a penicillin intramuscular (IM)injection in the ventrogluteal site.What is the proper angle for needle insertion?
A)15 degrees
B)45 degrees
C)60 degrees
D)90 degrees
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Chapter 11: Analgesic Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient was diagnosed with pancreatic cancer last month,and she has complained of a dull ache in her abdomen for the last 2 months.This pain has been gradually increasing,and the pain relievers she has taken at home are no longer effective.What type of pain is she experiencing?
A)Acute pain
B)Persistent pain
C)Somatic pain
D)Superficial pain
Q2) An 18-year-old basketball player fell and twisted his ankle during a game.Which type of analgesic is he likely to receive?
A)Synthetic opioid,such as meperidine (Demerol)
B)Opium alkaloid,such as morphine sulfate
C)Opioid antagonist, such as naloxone HCI (Suboxone)
D)Nonopioid analgesic,such as indomethacin
Q3) For which of the following is the herb feverfew commonly used?
A)Muscle aches
B)Headaches
C)Leg cramps
D)Incisional pain after surgery
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Page 13
Chapter 12: General and Local Anaesthetics
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a fishing trip,a patient pierced his finger with a large fish hook.He is now at an emergency room to have it removed.What type of anaesthesia will be used for this procedure?
A)Topical benzocaine spray to the area
B)Spinal anaesthesia with mepivacaine (Carbocaine,Isocaine)
C)Topical prilocaine (EMLA) cream around the site
D)Infiltration of the area with lidocaine
Q2) Occurs second
A)Cessation of respirations due to paralysis of diaphragm and intercostal muscles
B)Total flaccid paralysis
C)Weakness
Q3) During the postoperative recovery period,what should be the nurse's immediate main concern?
A)Pupil responses
B)Return to sensation
C)Level of consciousness
D)Airway,breathing,and circulation
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14
Chapter 13: Central Nervous System Depressants and Muscle Relaxants
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is recovering from a minor automobile accident that occurred 1 week ago.He is taking cyclobenzaprine (Novo-Cycloprine)for muscular pain and goes to physical therapy three times a week.Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be appropriate for him?
A)Risk for falls related to decreased sensorium
B)Risk for addiction related to psychological dependency
C)Excess fluid volume related to potential adverse effects
D)Disturbed sleep pattern related to the drug's interference with rapid eye movement
(REM)sleep
Q2) A 50-year-old male who has been taking phenobarbital for 1 week is found unresponsive.His wife states that he takes no other prescription drugs and that he did not take an overdose-the correct number of pills is in the bottle.What might have happened?
A)He took a multivitamin.
B)He drank a glass of wine.
C)He took a dose of aspirin.
D)He developed an allergy to the drug.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Antiepileptic Drugs
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking carbamazepine (Tegretol)for several months and is worried because the physician has increased her dose twice since beginning therapy.Which of the following is the nurse's best explanation to the patient?
A)The initial dose was not sufficient to prevent seizures.
B)Autoinduction results in lower-than-expected drug concentrations.
C)Because her seizures are difficult to manage, increased doses are needed to control them.
D)Forgetting to take the medication as prescribed led to a need for increased dosage.
Q2) While teaching a patient about taking his newly prescribed antiepileptic drug (AED)at home,what information should the nurse emphasize?
A)Driving will be allowed after 2 weeks of therapy.
B)If seizures recur,take a double dose of the medication.
C)Antacids can be taken with the AED to reduce gastrointestinal adverse effects.
D)Regular consistent dosing is important for successful treatment.
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Chapter 15: Antiparkinsonian Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking selegiline (Anipril)for a month and says he understands the "cheese effect" that the doctor explained to him.When the nurse questions him about it,he tells her (correctly)that the cheese effect results in which of the following?
A)Hypotension
B)Hypertension
C)Urinary discomfort
D)Gastrointestinal upset
Q2) When a patient is taking an anticholinergic,such as benztropine,as part of the treatment for Parkinson's disease,what important information should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A)Avoid vitamin B supplements and vitamin-fortified foods.
B)Discontinue the medication immediately if adverse effects occur.
C)Take the medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption.
D)Take the medication at bedtime to prevent drowsiness during the day.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of amantadine (Symmetrel)therapy?
A)It increases the production of dopamine in the basal ganglia.
B)It works by eliciting the release of dopamine from nerve endings.
C)It is most effective in the later stages of Parkinson's disease.
D)It is considered a long-term therapy for Parkinson's disease.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Psychotherapeutic Drugs
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking the monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)phenelzine (Nardil)for 6 months.His physician has discontinued the medication,and the patient says he's going out to the local bar to celebrate.What important information should the nurse tell this patient?
A)Drinking beer is permitted as long as he has a designated driver.
B)He has no further dietary restrictions because he has taken the last dosage.
C)If he begins to experience a throbbing headache, rapid pulse, or nausea, he should stop drinking.
D)Because the drug remains in the body for up to 2 weeks after it has been discontinued,he needs to avoid foods high in tyramine for 2 weeks.
Q2) A patient with the diagnosis of schizophrenia is hospitalized and is taking chlorpromazine (Thorazine).He has shown marked improvement.Which of the following statements by this patient indicates that he is experiencing a common adverse effect of chlorpromazine?
A)"I can't sleep at night."
B)"I feel hungry all the time."
C)"Look at how red my hands are."
D)"My mouth has been so dry lately."
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Chapter 17: Central Nervous System Stimulant Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before administering sumatriptan (Imitrex)to a patient for the treatment of a migraine headache,the nurse should assess for the presence of which of the following?
A)Hypotension
B)Renal disease
C)Liver damage
D)Coronary artery disease
Q2) Which of the following conditions is an indication for a central nervous system (CNS)stimulant drug?
A)Insomnia
B)Depression
C)Appetite enhancement
D)Appetite suppression
Q3) Which of the following central nervous system (CNS)stimulant drugs is used to treat acute migraines?
A)zolmitriptan (Zomig)
B)Amphetamines
C)modafinil (Alertec)
D)methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin)
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19
Chapter 18: Adrenergic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is an indication for epinephrine (Adrenalin)?
A)Severe hypertension
B)Conjunctival congestion
C)Acute asthma attacks
D)Heart failure
Q2) An adrenergic agonist is ordered for a patient in shock.The nurse notes that this drug has had its primary intended effect when which of the following is observed?
A)Volume restoration
B)Increased blood pressure
C)Stable urine output
D)Reduced anxiety
Q3) When an adrenergic drug stimulates -adrenergic receptors,the result is an increased force of contraction,which is known as what type of positive effect?
A)Inotropic
B)Adrenergic
C)Dromotropic
D)Chronotropic
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Chapter 19: Adrenergic-Blocking Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
A)An -blocker drug
B)A -blocker drug
C)Both an -blocker drug and a -blocker drug
Q2) A patient has been on a dopamine drip,and the nurse notices that the infusion has extravasated into the tissue of the forearm.After stopping the infusion,the nurse immediately injects phentolamine subcutaneously in a circular fashion around the extravasation site.What is the effect of this action?
A)It causes vasoconstriction and rapid uptake of the extravasated dopamine.
B)It causes arterial vasoconstriction and reduced pain and swelling at the site.
C)It increases peripheral vascular resistance and reduces arterial pressure at the site.
D)It increases blood flow to the ischemic site by vasodilation and prevents permanent tissue damage.
Q3) Which -blocker is indicated for the treatment of heart failure?
A)atenolol (Tenormin)
B)carvedilol
C)acebutolol (Rhotral)
D)esmolol (Brevibloc)
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Chapter 20: Cholinergic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking donepezil (Aricept)for 2 weeks as part of the treatment for early stages of Alzheimer's disease.Her daughter calls the physician's office and is upset because her mother has not shown any improvement.Which of the following is the nurse's best response to the patient's daughter?
A)"Increase the dosage to twice daily."
B)"It takes time for the cure to take effect."
C)"It may take up to 6 weeks to see an improvement."
D)"Have her take the medication on an empty stomach for improved absorption."
Q2) The nurse is providing teaching regarding drug therapy to the husband of a woman with Alzheimer's disease.The patient was diagnosed 3 months ago and has mild memory loss.She will be receiving donepezil (Aricept).Which statement accurately describes the drug's actions?
A)It prevents memory loss in later stages.
B)It will reverse the course of Alzheimer's disease.
C)It provides sedation to prevent agitation and restlessness.
D)It may help to improve the symptoms of Alzheimer's disease.
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Chapter 21: Cholinergic-Blocking Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atropine is appropriate for which of the following patients? Select all that apply.
A)A patient who has suddenly developed symptomatic bradycardia,with a heart rate 32 per minute
B)A patient who has suddenly developed symptomatic tachycardia,with a heart rate 180 per minute
C)A patient with severe narrow-angle glaucoma
D)Preoperatively to reduce salivary and gastrointestinal secretions
E)A patient newly diagnosed with myasthenia gravis
F)A patient with severe diarrhea
Q2) Which of the following conditions is appropriate for treatment with a cholinergic-blocking drug?
A)Glaucoma
B)Myasthenia gravis
C)Irritable bowel disease
D)Genitourinary obstruction
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Chapter 22: Positive Inotropic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions predispose a patient to digitalis toxicity?
A)Hypercalcemia and advanced age
B)Hyperthyroidism and liver dysfunction
C)Ventricular fibrillation and hyperkalemia
D)Dysrhythmias and hypernatremia
Q2) Which of the following medications results in a drug interaction if given to a patient taking digitalis?
A)acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)
B)acetaminophen (Tylenol)
C)Steroids
D)Vitamin K
Q3) The nurse is administering the phosphodiesterase inhibitor milrinone.Which of the following describes the drug's positive inotropic effect?
A)Increased heart rate
B)Increased blood vessel dilation
C)Increased force of cardiac contraction
D)Increased conduction of electrical impulses across the heart
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Chapter 23: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following instructions is appropriate for the nurse to tell a patient taking an antidysrhythmic drug? Select all that apply.
A)Do not chew or crush extended-release forms of medication.
B)Capsules may be opened if they cannot be swallowed.
C)Take the medication with food if gastrointestinal distress occurs.
D)If a dose is missed,the missed dose should be taken with the next dose that is due.
E)Take the medications with an antacid if gastrointestinal distress occurs.
F)Limit or avoid the use of caffeine.g.Presence of a capsule in the stool should be reported to the physician immediately.
Q2) What is the drug of choice for acute ventricular dysrhythmias associated with myocardial infarction (MI)?
A)diltiazem (Cardizem)
B)bretylium
C)lidocaine (Xylocaine)
D)adenosine (Adenocard)
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Chapter 24: Antianginal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is administering intravenous nitroglycerin to a patient who has just been admitted for an acute myocardial infarction.Which of the following statements is true regarding the administration of this medication?
A)It must be contained in special nonpolyvinylchloride (non-PVC)intravenous (IV)bags.
B)It is stable for only 24 hours after preparation.
C)It can be given in infusions with other medications.
D)An IV filter should be attached to the infusion tubing.
Q2) A patient has developed tolerance to transdermal nitroglycerin therapy.What is the nurse's best response to the patient?
A)Omit one dose once a week.
B)Leave the patch on for 2 days at a time.
C)Cut the patch in half for 1 week until the tolerance subsides.
D)Remove the patch at bedtime,and then apply a new one in the morning.
Q3) Amlodipine (Norvasc)can be used to treat both angina and hypertension.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Antihypertensive Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following adverse effects commonly occurs in male patients who are taking antihypertensive medications?
A)Impotence
B)Bradycardia
C)Increased libido
D)Increased weight
Q2) A patient diagnosed with prehypertension has a blood pressure reading that corresponds to which of the following?
A)Systolic blood pressure of less than 120 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure less than 80 mmHg
B)Systolic blood pressure between 120 and 139 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure between 80 and 89 mmHg
C)Systolic blood pressure between 140 and 159 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure between 90 and 99 mmHg
D)Systolic blood pressure between 160 and 179 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure 100 and 10 mmHg
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Chapter 26: Diuretic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is started on a diuretic for antihypertensive therapy.The nurse expects that a drug in which of the following classes is to be used initially?
A)Loop diuretics
B)Osmotic diuretics
C)Thiazide diuretics
D)Vasodilators
Q2) A patient is being discharged to home on a single daily dose of a diuretic.To avoid unnecessary disruptions to the patient's daily routine,at what time does the health care provider instruct the patient to take the dose?
A)In the morning
B)At noon
C)With supper
D)At bedtime
Q3) The physician has ordered mannitol (Osmitrol)for a patient.How should this drug be administered?
A)Intravenously,through a filter
B)By rapid intravenous (IV)bolus
C)20 to 80 mg orally (PO) daily, in a single morning dose
D)By oral or IV route,depending on the severity of the patient's condition
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Fluids and Electrolytes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which blood product is indicated to increase clotting factor levels in patients with a demonstrated deficiency?
A)Cryoprecipitate
B)Fresh frozen plasma
C)Packed red blood cells
D)Plasma protein fractions
Q2) Lethargy
A)HYPO
B)HYPER
Q3) Diarrhea
A)HYPO
B)HYPER
Q4) Dry,sticky mucous membranes
A)HYPO
B)HYPER
Q5) Which of the following is a symptom of early hypokalemia?
A)Seizures
B)Lethargy
C)Stomach cramps
D)Muscle weakness
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Coagulation Modifier Drugs
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Q1) A female patient has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin)in addition to a heparin infusion.What is the reason for her receiving two anticoagulants?
A)The oral and injection forms work synergistically.
B)The combination of heparin and an oral anticoagulant results in fewer adverse effects than heparin used alone.
C)Oral anticoagulants are used to reach an adequate level of anticoagulation when heparin alone is unable to do so.
D)When oral anticoagulants are prescribed,heparin is often used to initiate therapy until laboratory tests indicate an adequate therapeutic response.
Q2) What is the most frequent undesirable adverse effect of thrombolytic therapy?
A)Dysrhythmias
B)Nausea and vomiting
C)Anaphylactic reactions
D)Internal and superficial bleeding
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Chapter 29: Antilipemic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is beginning antilipemic therapy.What food should the nurse tell the patient about when discussing possible drug-food interactions?
A)Oatmeal
B)Grapefruit juice
C)Licorice
D)Dairy products
Q2) Cholestyramine (Nov-Cholamine)and colestipol (Colestid)are most effective in the treatment of which of the following?
A)Type V hyperlipidemia
B)Mixed hyperlipidemias
C)All types of hyperlipidemias
D)Both type IIa and type IIb hyperlipidemias
Q3) Patients who are receiving antilipemic drugs need to be closely monitored for the development of which of the following adverse effects?
A)Photosensitivity
B)Pulmonary problems
C)Vitamin C deficiency
D)Liver dysfunction
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Chapter 30: Pituitary Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking desmopressin (DDAVP)nasal spray.What important information should the nurse tell the patient about this nasal spray?
A)The spray should not be inhaled.
B)Inhale deeply after each spray is administered.
C)The spray should only be taken if symptoms are present.
D)Nasal passages should be cleared after the spray is administered.
Q2) A patient is taking cosyntropin (Cortrosyn).What important information should the nurse tell the patient about this drug therapy?
A)The gel forms may be refrigerated before use.
B)Vaccinations may be given during therapy.
C)Discontinue the medication as soon as symptoms subside.
D)The patient should avoid consuming alcohol during therapy.
Q3) Which of the following are common adverse effects of desmopressin (DDAVP)?
A)Uterine cramping and constipation
B)Increased blood pressure and nausea
C)Headache and chills
D)Sweating and low blood pressure
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Chapter 31: Thyroid and Antithyroid Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is caused by low levels of thyroid hormone during youth?
A)Goiter
B)Myxedema
C)Cretinism
D)Addison's disease
Q2) A 19-year-old university student has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism and has started thyroid replacement therapy with levothyroxine (Synthroid).After 1 week,she tells the nurse that she feels no better.What is the nurse's best response to the patient?
A)She will probably require surgery for a cure.
B)Levothyroxine does not reach peak effect for several months.
C)She probably did not take her medication as instructed.
D)Her diet may be causing absorption problems.
Q3) Which of the following are the two thyroid hormones produced by the thyroid gland?
A)T and T
B)Thyroxine and tri-iodothyronine
C)Levothyroxine and thyroxine
D)Thyronine and liothyronine
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33
Chapter 32: Antidiabetic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient about self-injection of insulin.Which of the following is a true statement regarding injection sites?
A)Avoid the abdomen because absorption is irregular.
B)Choose a different site at random for each injection.
C)Give the injection in the same area each time to promote consistent absorption.
D)Rotate sites within the same location for about 1 week before rotating to a new location.
Q2) Six months after starting treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus,a patient has a follow-up examination.Which laboratory test will best reflect the patient's adherence to the antidiabetic therapy over the past few months?
A)Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
B)Hemoglobin A c level
C)Fingerstick fasting blood glucose
D)Serum insulin levels
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34
Chapter 33: Adrenal Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about prednisone (Winpred)?
A)It is a short-acting glucocorticoid.
B)It has potent mineralocorticoid activity.
C)It is the preferred oral glucocorticoid for anti-inflammatory purposes.
D)It may be administered by inhalation for the treatment of bronchial asthma.
Q2) A patient is concerned about the body changes that have resulted from long-term prednisone (Winpred)therapy for the treatment of lupus erythematosus.Which of the following effects of this drug therapy supports the nursing diagnosis of disturbed body image?
A)Weight loss
B)Weight gain
C)Pale skin colour
D)Loss of hair
Q3) Which of the following are expected symptoms of undersecretion of adrenocortical hormones?
A)Osteoporosis
B)Steroid psychosis
C)Dehydration and weight loss
D)Water retention
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Womens Health Drugs
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Q1) A patient is to receive estrogen replacement therapy.What important information should the nurse tell the patient about this medication?
A)Double up on the medication if a dose is missed.
B)Do not be concerned about breast lumps or bumps that occur.
C)Report any weight gain of more than 2 kg per week.
D)Take the medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption.
Q2) A 48-year-old female patient has been started on estrogen hormone therapy after experiencing the symptoms of menopause.Which of the following is a contraindication to the administration of estrogen drugs for this patient?
A)Osteoporosis
B)Uterine bleeding
C)Thrombophlebitis
D)Atrophic vaginitis
Q3) Which of the following is an effect of a tocolytic drug?
A)Uterine relaxation
B)Uterine stimulation
C)Ovulation stimulation
D)Ovulation suppression
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Chapter 35: Mens Health Drugs
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Q1) When administering finasteride (Proscar),which important precaution should the nurse remember?
A)It must be taken on an empty stomach.
B)Finasteride should not be handled by pregnant women.
C)It is given by deep intramuscular (IM) injection to avoid tissue irritation.
D)The patient should be warned that alopecia is a common adverse effect.
Q2) A patient is receiving androgenic anabolic steroids.This patient should be monitored for which serious adverse effect?
A)Renal failure
B)Peliosis of the liver
C)Cirrhosis of the liver
D)Heart failure
Q3) A patient in the early stage of benign prostatic hypertrophy wants to try natural health products instead of conventional medications.Which natural health product is often used for this condition?
A)Ginkgo
B)Saw palmetto
C)Ginseng
D)Hawthorn
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Page 37
Expectorants
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gardener needs a decongestant because of seasonal allergy problems.Which of the following is one of the benefits of orally administered decongestants?
A)Onset is immediate.
B)The effect is more potent.
C)Rebound congestion is almost nonexistent.
D)The adverse effects of restlessness and nervousness are reduced.
Q2) How does the antitussive dextromethorphan (Benylin DM-E)work to suppress the cough reflex?
A)By causing central nervous system (CNS)depression
B)By anaesthetizing the stretch receptors
C)Through a direct action on the cough centre
D)By decreasing the viscosity of the bronchial secretions
Q3) The nurse knows that an antitussive drug is most appropriate for which of the following patients?
A)A patient with pneumonia who has a productive cough
B)A patient who has a tracheostomy and thick mucus secretions
C)A patient who has had a productive cough for 2 weeks
D)A patient who has developed bronchitis 2 days after hernia repair surgery
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Chapter 37: Bronchodilators and Other Respiratory Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has prescriptions for two inhalers.One inhaler is a bronchodilator,and the other is a corticosteroid.Which instruction should the nurse give the patient regarding these inhalers?
A)The corticosteroid should be taken first.
B)The bronchodilator should be taken first.
C)The two drugs should be taken at least 2 hours apart.
D)The order of administration does not matter with these two drugs.
Q2) Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of acute attacks of bronchial asthma?
A)nedocromil
B)salbutamol (Ventolin)
C)zafirlukast (Accolate)
D)triamcinolone (Nasacort AQ)
Q3) A patient has recently been placed on inhaled corticosteroids.Which of the following common adverse effects should the nurse discuss with the patient?
A)Fatigue and depression
B)Anxiety and peripheral vasoconstriction
C)Headache and rapid heart rate
D)Oral candidiasis and dry mouth
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Antibiotics, part 1: Sulfonamides, Penicillins,
Cephalosporins, Macrolides, and Tetracyclines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs may result in an interaction if taken with penicillin?
A)Antacids
B)acetaminophen (Tylenol)
C)digoxin (Lanoxin)
D)Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Q2) During drug therapy for pneumonia,a female patient develops a superinfection.She asks the nurse how this could have happened.Which of the following statements is the nurse's best explanation to the patient?
A)Large doses of antibiotics kill normal flora.
B)The infection has spread from her lungs to the new site of infection.
C)The pneumonia-causing bacteria are resistant to the drugs.
D)She is having an allergic reaction to the antibiotics.
Q3) During antibiotic therapy,a significant drug interaction may occur with which of the following drug groups?
A)Anticoagulants
B)Estrogen-containing contraceptives
C)Antihypertensives
D)Antihistamines
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Fluoroquinolones, and Other Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been hospitalized for 2 weeks has developed a pressure ulcer that contains methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).Which of the following antibiotics does the nurse expect will be chosen for his therapy?
A)penicillin
B)doxycycline (Apo-Doxy)
C)vancomycin (Vancocin)
D)erythromycin (Pediazole)
Q2) When a patient is on gentamicin therapy,what symptoms or laboratory results could indicate a potentially serious toxicity?
A)Skin rash and fever
B)A peak level of 7 mcg/mL
C)Tinnitus and hearing loss
D)Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)and creatinine levels
Q3) Which laboratory values are sometimes increased by quinolones?
A)Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)levels
B)Creatinine levels
C)Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels
D)Glucose levels
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Chapter 40: Antiviral Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking a combination of antiretroviral drugs as treatment for early stages of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)infection.He asks the nurse whether the drugs will kill the virus.Which of the following statements is the nurse's best response to this patient?
A)Antiretroviral drugs are rarely beneficial and are given for palliative reasons only.
B)Antiretroviral drugs will be effective as long as the patient is not exposed to the virus again.
C)Antiretroviral drugs can be given in large enough doses to eradicate the virus without harming the body's healthy cells.
D)Antiretroviral drugs are effective only while the virus is replicating,and replication is often finished by the time symptoms appear.
Q2) Which of the following drugs belongs to the newer class of antiviral drugs called fusion inhibitors?
A)enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)
B)tenofovir (Viread)
C)nevirapine (Viramune)
D)indinavir (Crixivan)
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Antituberculosis Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been taking isoniazid (Isotamine)has a new prescription for pyridoxine (vitamin B ).She asks the nurse why she needs this medication.The nurse explains that pyridoxine is given concurrently with the isoniazid to prevent which of the following?
A)Hair loss
B)Renal failure
C)Neurological adverse effects
D)Heart failure
Q2) Which antituberculosis drug may cause a decrease in visual acuity resulting from optic neuritis?
A)rifampin (Rifadin)
B)isoniazid (Isotamine)
C)ethambutol (Etibi)
D)streptomycin
Q3) Patients taking isoniazid (Isotamine)should watch for and report which of the following potential adverse effects?
A)Rash
B)Headache and nervousness
C)Insomnia
D)Numbness and tingling of extremities
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Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs
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Q1) The nurse is administering one of the newer formulations of amphotericin
B,Amphotec.When giving this drug,what important information does the nurse need to remember?
A)The new formulation may be given in an oral form.
B)The newer doses are much lower than the older doses.
C)The newer doses are much higher than the older doses.
D)The newer and older forms have no differences in their doses.
Q2) A patient with a severe fungal infection has been ordered voriconazole (Vfend).Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse be concerned about before the medication is started?
A)Decreased breath sounds in the lower lobes
B)History of cardiac dysrhythmias
C)History of type 2 diabetes
D)Potassium level of 3.8 mmol/L
Q3) Which antifungal drug causes decreased effects of oral anticoagulants?
A)miconazole
B)griseofulvin
C)ketoconazole
D)amphotericin B (Fungizone)
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Page 44
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about anthelmintic therapy?
A)Anthelmintics may cause severe drowsiness.
B)Anthelmintics are very specific in their actions.
C)Anthelmintics are effective against broad classes of infestations.
D)Anthelmintics are used to treat protozoal infections,such as intestinal amoebiasis.
Q2) A patient is prescribed anthelmintic therapy.Which of the following adverse reactions should the nurse tell this patient about?
A)Nervousness
B)Insomnia
C)Decreased appetite
D)Constipation
Q3) A patient has a roundworm infestation.The physician has prescribed mebendazole (Vermox).What adverse effects should the nurse tell the patient about?
A)Vertigo
B)Seizures
C)Diarrhea
D)Insomnia
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Antiseptic and Disinfectant Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What concentration of isopropyl alcohol is most effective?
A)5%
B)50%
C)60%
D)95%
Q2) How do antiseptics differ from disinfectants?
A)Antiseptics are used to sterilize surgical equipment.
B)Disinfectants are used as preoperative skin preparation.
C)Antiseptics are used on living tissue to kill microorganisms.
D)Disinfectants are used only on nonliving objects to destroy organisms.
Q3) Which of the following is commonly used as a vaginal douche or for bladder irrigation?
A)5% Dakin's solution
B)3% hydrogen peroxide
C)Acetic acid in 5% solution
D)4% chlorhexidine gluconate
Q4) 1% acetic acid solution
A)Antiseptics
B)Disinfectants
C)Both antiseptics and disinfectants
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Chapter 45: Anti-Inflammatory, Anti-arthritic, and Related Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed colchicine (Colchicine-Odam)for the treatment of gout.What important information should the nurse tell the patient about this drug?
A)Fluids should be restricted while on colchicine therapy.
B)Colchicine should be taken with meals.
C)The drug should be discontinued when symptoms are reduced.
D)Report to the physician the occurrence of increased pain,blood in the urine,or excessive fatigue.
Q2) Which of the following conditions are contraindications to the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)? Select all that apply.
A)Rhinitis
B)Arthralgia
C)Peptic ulcer disease
D)Pregnancy
E)Neuropathy
F)Epistaxis
G)Pericarditis
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Chapter 46: Immunosuppressant Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of sirolimus (Rapamune)can increase the chances of which of the following?
A)Lymphoma
B)Leukemia
C)Breast cancer
D)Bowel cancer
Q2) A female patient has started azathioprine (Imuran)therapy in preparation for her renal transplant surgery.Which expected adverse effect of azathioprine therapy should the nurse tell the patient about?
A)Tremors
B)Diarrhea
C)Leukopenia
D)Fluid retention
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement regarding cyclosporine?
A)Refrigerate any leftover solution.
B)Mix with water only.
C)Avoid the use of Styrofoam containers.
D)It can only be given intravenously.
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Chapter 47: Immunizing Drugs and Pandemic
Preparedness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Active immunizations are usually contraindicated in which of the following patients? Select all that apply.
A)Pregnant women
B)Patients with active infections
C)Infants under the age of 1
D)Older adults
E)Patients who are immunosuppressed
F)Patients receiving cancer chemotherapy
G)Patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
Q2) A health care employee has experienced a needle stick with a contaminated needle.Which drug is used to provide passive immunity to hepatitis B infection?
A)Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib)vaccine
B)Varicella zoster immune globulin (VariZIG [VZIG])
C)Hepatitis B immune globulin (H-BIG)
D)HB vaccine inactivated (Recombivax HB)
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49
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been on methotrexate (Apo-Methotrexate)therapy has developed a fever.Her husband asks whether she can take ibuprofen (Motrin)for the fever.Which of the following statements is the nurse's best response?
A)Ibuprofen aggravates stomatitis.
B)Ibuprofen masks signs of infection.
C)Ibuprofen can lead to methotrexate toxicity.
D)Ibuprofen will cause no problems for the patient on methotrexate.
Q2) A patient has had her first course of antineoplastic therapy and is experiencing gastrointestinal adverse effects,including anorexia and nausea.Which of the following is an appropriate goal for the patient dealing with this problem?
A)To eat three balanced meals a day within 4 days
B)To return to her normal eating pattern within 1 month
C)To maintain her normal weight by consuming healthy snacks as tolerated
D)To maintain a diet of six frequent feedings with a nutritional supplement as a snack within 2 weeks
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Page 50
Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving cisplatin as part of her treatment for ovarian cancer.Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for this antineoplastic drug?
A)Ineffective tissue perfusion related to cardiotoxicity
B)Disturbed sensory perception related to ototoxicity
C)Activity intolerance related to anemia-induced fatigue
D)Impaired urinary elimination pattern related to hyperuricemia
Q2) A patient is receiving alkylating drugs.The nurse knows that which of the following signs may indicate an oncological emergency?
A)Cracked lips
B)Temperature of 37.8°C
C)Diarrhea
D)Dry cough
Q3) Large,cumulative doses of doxorubicin (Adriamycin),a cytotoxic antibiotic,are known to cause which of the following adverse effects?
A)Severe emesis
B)Cardiomyopathy
C)Lung disease
D)Nephrotoxicity
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Chapter 50: Biological Responsemodifying Drugs
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Q1) Which intervention is appropriate during therapy with interferon drugs?
A)Dosages given at bedtime minimize central nervous system (CNS)adverse effects.
B)Fluids should be limited while patients are taking these medications.
C)Oral dosing is preferred to minimize allergic reactions.
D)Shake the drug vial well before drawing up a dose.
Q2) Capillary leak syndrome during interleukin therapy may result in which of the following problems?
A)Renal failure
B)Asthma
C)Ecchymosis
D)Heart failure
Q3) A female patient is being treated with biological response-modifying drugs.After completion of her treatment,she should be cautioned to avoid pregnancy for what time period?
A)6 months
B)12 months
C)18 months
D)24 months
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Chapter 51: Gene Therapy and Pharmacogenomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genotyping for presence of cytochrome P-450 2D6 (CYP2D6)enzymes and alleles will be helpful in which area of medicine?
A)Cardiology
B)Psychiatry
C)Respirology
D)Oncology
Q2) Eugenics is defined as which of the following?
A)Using gene therapy to prevent disease
B)Developing new drugs based on gene therapy
C)Intentional selection, before birth, of genotypes that are considered more desirable than others
D)The determination of genetic factors that influence a person's response to medications
Q3) Which of the following is the most important compound that transfers genes from parents to offspring?
A)Chromatin
B)Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
C)Alleles
D)Ribonucleic acid (RNA)
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Acid-Controlling Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which classification of medications is considered first-line therapy for treatment of erosive esophagitis?
A)H antagonists
B)Proton pump inhibitors
C)General antacids
D)Prostaglandin inhibitors
Q2) Antacids containing magnesium should be used cautiously in patients with which condition?
A)Peptic ulcer disease
B)Renal failure
C)Hypertension
D)Heart failure
Q3) H antagonists,such as cimetidine,may inhibit the absorption of drugs that require an acidic gastrointestinal environment.Which of the following drugs requires an acidic gastrointestinal environment?
A)Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
B)ranitidine (Zantac)
C)tetracycline
D)ketoconazole
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Antidiarrheal Drugs and Laxatives
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Sample Questions
Q1) Methylcellulose (Entrocel solution),a bulk-forming laxative,should be administered with at least how much water to avoid possible obstruction?
A)100 mL
B)125 mL
C)250 mL
D)375 mL
Q2) A patient who has been on antibiotic therapy for 2 weeks has developed persistent diarrhea.Which of the following drugs will likely be recommended for this patient?
A)Mineral oil
B)An adsorbent,such as Pepto-Bismol
C)An anticholinergic, such as belladonna alkaloids
D)An intestinal flora modifier,such as Lacidofil
Q3) A patient is taking an adsorbent,such as bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol).What possible adverse effects should the nurse warn this patient about?
A)Darkened stools
B)Urinary hesitancy
C)Drowsiness
D)Blurred vision
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55
Chapter 54: Antiemetic and Antinausea Drugs
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Q1) A patient who has been newly diagnosed with vertigo will be taking an antihistamine antiemetic drug.What is important for the nurse to emphasize when teaching the patient about this drug?
A)Doses may be skipped if she is feeling well.
B)The patient should avoid driving because of possible drowsiness.
C)The patient may experience transient taste problems.
D)It is safe to take the dose with a glass of wine in the evening to help settle her stomach.
Q2) Which drug is administered via a transdermal patch to prevent motion sickness?
A)meclizine (Bonamine)
B)prochlorperazine (Stemetil)
C)scopolamine (Transderm-V)
D)metoclopramide (Apo-Metoclop)
Q3) Which antiemetic drug works by blocking dopamine in the chemoreceptor trigger zone,causing the zone to be desensitized to impulses received from the gastrointestinal tract?
A)ondansetron (Zofran)
B)metoclopramide (Apo-Metoclop)
C)meclizine (Bonamine)
D)prochlorperazine (Nu-Prochlor)
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Chapter 55: Pharmaconutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common adverse effect from nutritional supplements?
A)Diarrhea
B)Constipation
C)Fluid overload
D)Peptic ulcer disease
Q2) A patient is receiving an enteral tube feeding at 100 mL/hour.When the nurse checks the residual,70 mL is obtained.Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A)Slowing the rate to 50 mL/hour
B)Returning the aspirate and continuing the feeding as ordered
C)Returning the aspirate, stopping the feeding, and contacting the physician
D)Discarding the aspirate,stopping the feeding,and contacting the physician
Q3) Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?
A)Anorexia
B)Headache
C)Fluid overload
D)Diarrhea
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Chapter 56: Blood-Forming Drugs
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36318
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may occur as a result of therapy with iron preparations?
A)Palpitations
B)Dizziness and syncope
C)Black and red tarry stools
D)Yellow discoloration of the urine
Q2) A patient is to receive iron dextran (Dexiron)injections.What technique should the nurse use to administer this medication?
A)Intravenous (IV)mixed with 5% dextrose
B)Intramuscular (IM)injection in the upper arm
C)IM injection using the Z-track method
D)Subcutaneous injection with a half-inch,29-gauge needle
Q3) A patient has been taking iron supplements for anemia for 4 weeks.Which of the following are therapeutic responses to watch for?
A)Decreased weight
B)Absence of fatigue
C)Decreased palpitations
D)Decreased visual disturbances
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Chapter 57: Dermatological Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36319
Sample Questions
Q1) A father calls the clinic because his son has head lice.He reports to the nurse that he has used "that special,medicated shampoo three times now but nothing is happening." What should be the nurse's first recommendation?
A)Get a prescription for a second product,malathion.
B)Add a lotion product that remains on the scalp for 8 hours.
C)Use a nit comb to remove nits from the hair shafts.
D)Comb through the hair with mineral oil to loosen the lice from the hair shafts.
Q2) A woman suffered a second-degree burn of the skin on her arm and hand while cooking breakfast.After examination in the emergency department,silver sulfadiazine (Demazin)is recommended for her burns.What important information should the nurse tell the patient regarding the application of this cream?
A)The area should not be cleansed before reapplication.
B)The cream should be massaged completely into the wound.
C)A thick layer should be applied over the burned area, and the area should be left open.
D)A thin layer should be applied with a sterile gloved hand to clean,debrided areas.
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Chapter 58: Ophthalmic Drugs
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36320
Sample Questions
Q1) In preparation for ocular surgery,which drug is used for local anaesthesia?
A)Glycerin
B)tetracaine (Minims)
C)Acetazolamide
D)apraclonidine 1% (Iopidine)
Q2) A patient has been prescribed timolol (Betimol)eye drops.What important information should the nurse tell the patient about the proper application of these eye drops?
A)Apply the drops into the conjunctival sac instead of directly onto the eye.
B)Apply the drops directly to the cornea for the best effectiveness.
C)Blot the eye with a tissue immediately after application of the drops.
D)Gently touch the tip of the dropper to the eye surface before administering the drop.
Q3) Which of the following drugs is used to reduce intraocular pressure?
A)cromolyn (Opticrom)
B)Polypeptides
C)Osmotic diuretics
D)Hyperosmolar sodium chloride
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Chapter 59: Otic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 12-month-old infant is prescribed an ear drop.What important information should the nurse teach the parents about ear drop administration?
A)Pull the pinna down and back.
B)Pull the pinna up and back.
C)Pull the pinna down and forward.
D)Pull the pinna up and forward.
Q2) Contraindications to the use of chloramphenicol otic preparations include which of the following?
A)Escherichia coli infection
B)Perforated eardrum
C)Haemophilus influenzae infection
D)Drug hypersensitivity to pramoxine
Q3) For what reason is hydrocortisone commonly used in combination with otic antibiotics?
A)To soften and eliminate cerumen
B)To reduce pain associated with ear infections
C)To act as an antifungal agent in certain types of ear infections
D)To reduce inflammation and itching associated with ear infections
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