Nursing Care Process
Final Exam
Course Introduction
The Nursing Care Process course provides an in-depth exploration of the systematic approach nurses use to assess, diagnose, plan, implement, and evaluate patient care. Students learn to gather comprehensive patient data, identify health problems, set realistic goals, develop individualized care plans, implement evidence-based interventions, and evaluate outcomes. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, clinical reasoning, effective communication, and the importance of documentation throughout each stage of the process. Through case studies and practical exercises, students gain the skills necessary to deliver holistic, patient-centered care in various healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition by Lilley
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58 Chapters
791 Verified Questions
791 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2416 Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nursing Process and Drug Therapy
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which activity best reflects the implementation phase of the nursing process for the patient who is newly diagnosed with hypertension?
A) Providing education on keeping a journal of blood pressure readings
B) Setting goals and outcome criteria with the patient's input
C) Recording a drug history regarding over-the-counter medications used at home
D) Formulating human needs statements regarding insufficient knowledge related to the new treatment regimen
Answer: A
Q2) The medication order reads, "Give ondansetron (Zofran) 4 mg, 30 minutes before beginning chemotherapy to prevent nausea." The nurse notes that the route is missing from the order. What is the nurse's best action?
A) Give the medication intravenously because the patient might vomit.
B) Give the medication orally because the tablets are available in 4-mg doses.
C) Contact the prescriber to clarify the route of the medication ordered.
D) Hold the medication until the prescriber returns to make rounds.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Pharmacologic Principles
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When given an intravenous medication, the patient says to the nurse, "I usually take pills. Why does this medication have to be given in the arm?" What is the nurse's best answer?
A) "The medication will cause fewer adverse effects when given intravenously."
B) "The intravenous medication will have delayed absorption into the body's tissues."
C) "The action of the medication will begin sooner when given intravenously."
D) "There is a lower chance of allergic reactions when drugs are given intravenously."
Answer: C
Q2) A patient who has advanced cancer is receiving opioid medications around the clock to keep him comfortable as he nears the end of his life. Which term best describes this type of therapy?
A) Palliative therapy
B) Maintenance therapy
C) Empiric therapy
D) Supplemental therapy
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Lifespan Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 7-year-old child will be receiving amoxicillin (Amoxil) 50 mg/kg/day in two divided doses. The child weighs 55 pounds. The medication, once reconstituted, is available as an oral suspension of 125 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters will the child receive per dose. _______
Answer: 25 mL per dose
Convert pounds to kilograms: 55 pounds = 25 kg.
25 kg × 50 mg/kg/day = 1250 mg/day
To get the amount per dose, divide 1250 by 2, which equals 625 mg/dose.
To calculate the milliliters:
125 mg:5 mL :: 625 mg:x mL
(125 × x) = (5 × 625); 125x = 3125; x = 25 mL/dose
Q2) For accurate medication administration to pediatric patients, the nurse must take into account which criteria?
A) Organ maturity
B) Renal output
C) Body temperature
D) Height
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Cultural, Legal, and Ethical Considerations
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When reviewing the various schedules of controlled drugs, the nurse knows that which description correctly describes Schedule II drugs?
A) Drugs with high potential for abuse that have accepted medical use
B) Drugs with high potential for abuse that do not have accepted medical use
C) Medically accepted drugs that may cause moderate physical or psychologic dependence
D) Medically accepted drugs with limited potential for causing physical or psychologic dependence
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the concept of drug polymorphism. Which factors contribute to drug polymorphism?
A) The number of drugs ordered by the physician
B) Inherited factors
C) The patient's diet and nutritional status
D) Different dosage forms of the same drug
E) The patient's cultural practices
F) The patient's drug history
G) The various available forms of a drug
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Chapter 5: Medication Errors: Preventing and Responding
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When reviewing pediatric medication administration, the nurse recognizes that which type of medication error is most common with children?
A) Oral medication administration errors
B) Wrong route errors
C) Incorrect dosage form errors
D) Dosing errors
Q2) Digoxin is available in 0.125-mg tablet form. Convert this dose to microgram strength. (do not round) _______
Q3) During a period of time when the computerized medication order system was down, the prescriber wrote admission orders, and the nurse is transcribing them. The nurse is having difficulty transcribing one order because of the prescriber's handwriting. Which is the best action for the nurse to take at this time?
A) Ask a colleague what the order says.
B) Contact the prescriber to clarify the order.
C) Wait until the prescriber makes rounds again to clarify the order.
D) Ask the patient what medications he takes at home.
Q4) Levothyroxine is available in 75-mcg tablet form. Convert this dose to milligram strength. (do not round) _______
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Patient Education and Drug Therapy
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the teaching plan for a clinic patient who was seen for a sinus infection. Which of these outcomes reflect the affective domain of learning?
A) The patient will take the prescribed antibiotic for the full 14 days of the prescription.
B) The patient will demonstrate correct nasal spray self-administration.
C) The patient will list signs and symptoms that need to be reported immediately if they occur.
D) The patient will list measures to take to reduce allergy triggers at home.
Q2) When the nurse teaches a skill such as self-injection of insulin to the patient, what is the best way to set up the teaching/learning session?
A) Provide written pamphlets for instruction.
B) Show a video, and allow the patient to practice as needed on his own.
C) Verbally explain the procedure, and provide written handouts for reinforcement.
D) After demonstrating the procedure, allow the patient to do several return demonstrations.
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Chapter 7: Over-The-Counter Drugs and Herbal and Dietary Supplements
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient calls the clinic to ask about taking cranberry dietary supplement capsules because a friend recommended them. The nurse will discuss which possible concern when a patient is taking cranberry supplements?
A) It may increase the risk for bleeding if the patient is taking anticoagulants.
B) It may increase the risk of toxicity of some psychotherapeutic drugs.
C) It may reduce elimination of drugs that are excreted by the kidneys.
D) Cranberry may increase the intensity and duration of effects of caffeine.
Q2) The nurse is conducting a class for senior citizens about the use of over-the-counter (OTC) drugs. Which statements are true regarding the use of OTC drugs?
A) Use of OTC drugs may delay treatment of serious ailments.
B) Drug interactions with OTC medications are rare.
C) OTC drugs may relieve symptoms without addressing the cause of the problem.
D) OTC drugs are indicated for long-term treatment of conditions.
E) Patients may misunderstand product labels and use the drugs improperly.
Q3) A patient with a PEG tube is to receive ferrous sulfate, 65 mg per the tube, daily. The medication is available as an elixir, 220 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive per dose? Record your answer using one decimal place.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Gene Therapy and Pharmacogenomics
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is explaining the Human Genome Project to colleagues. Which of these is the main purpose of the Human Genome Project?
A) The study of genetic diseases.
B) The study of genetic traits in humans.
C) The discovery new genetic diseases.
D) To describe the entire genome of a human being.
Q2) The nurse is preparing a class on gene therapy for a group of students. Which statements about gene therapy are true?
A) The FDA must review and approve all human clinical genetic trials.
B) Gene therapy may involve creating new genes within a human.
C) Gene therapy may involve replacing a mutated gene with a healthy copy of the gene.
D) Some trials involve introducing a new gene into the body to help fight disease.
E) Gene therapy may include inactivating a mutated gene that is not functioning properly.
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Chapter 9: Photo Atlas of Drug Administration
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient says he prefers to chew rather than swallow his pills. One of the pills has the abbreviation SR behind the name of the medication. The nurse needs to remember which correct instruction regarding how to give this medication?
A) Break the tablet into halves or quarters.
B) Dissolve the tablet in a small amount of water before giving it.
C) Do not crush or break the tablet before administration.
D) Crush the tablet as needed to ease administration.
Q2) After administering an intradermal (ID) injection for a skin test, the nurse notices a small bleb at the injection site. Which of these is the best action for the nurse to take at this time?
A) Apply heat.
B) Massage the area.
C) Do nothing.
D) Report the bleb to the physician.
Q3) When administering nasal spray, which instruction by the nurse is appropriate?
A) "You will need to blow your nose before I give this medication."
B) "You will need to blow your nose after I give this medication."
C) "When I give this medication, you will need to hold your breath."
D) "You need to sit up for 5 minutes after you receive the nasal spray."
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Analgesic Drugs
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The drug nalbuphine (Nubain) is an agonist-antagonist (partial agonist). The nurse understands that which is a characteristic of partial agonists?
A) They have anti-inflammatory effects.
B) They are given to reverse the effects of opiates.
C) They have a higher potency than agonists.
D) They have a lower dependency potential than agonists.
Q2) A 38-year-old man has come into the urgent care center with severe hip pain after falling from a ladder at work. He says he has taken several pain pills over the past few hours but cannot remember how many he has taken. He hands the nurse an empty bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol). The nurse is aware that the most serious toxic effect of acute acetaminophen overdose is which condition?
A) Tachycardia
B) Central nervous system depression
C) Hepatic necrosis
D) Nephropathy
Q3) A patient is to receive methadone (Dolophine) 2.5 mg intramuscularly (IM) now. The medication is available in a concentration of 10 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of methadone will be drawn up for this dose. ______
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Chapter 11: General and Local Anesthetics
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While monitoring a patient who had surgery under general anesthesia 2 hours ago, the nurse notes a sudden elevation in body temperature. This finding may be an indication of which problem?
A) Tachyphylaxis
B) Postoperative infection
C) Malignant hypertension
D) Malignant hyperthermia
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is on a ventilator for respiratory arrest. Which parenteral anesthetic is also used for sedation during mechanical ventilation in ICU settings?
A) Ketamine
B) Midazolam (Versed)
C) Propofol (Diprivan)
D) Sevoflurane (Ultane)
Q3) A patient is to receive midazolam (Versed) 2 mg IV push over 2 minutes just before an endoscopy procedure. The medication is available in a strength of 1 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of medication will the nurse draw up into the syringe for this dose.
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Chapter 12: Central Nervous System Depressants and Muscle Relaxants
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is brought to the emergency department for treatment of a suspected overdose. The patient was found with an empty prescription bottle of a barbiturate by his bedside. He is lethargic and barely breathing. The nurse would expect which immediate intervention?
A) Starting an intravenous infusion of diluted bicarbonate solution
B) Administering medications to increase blood pressure
C) Implementing measures to maintain the airway and support respirations
D) Administrating naloxone (Narcan) as an antagonist
Q2) A patient who has received some traumatic news is panicking and asks for some medication to help settle down. The nurse anticipates giving which drug that is most appropriate for this situation?
A) Diazepam (Valium)
B) Zolpidem (Ambien)
C) Phenobarbital
D) Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
Q3) A patient is about to receive pentobarbital (Nembutal) 100 mg IV as preoperative sedation. The medication is available in a concentration of 50 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive for this dose?
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Chapter 13: Central Nervous System Stimulants and Related Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who started taking orlistat (Xenical) 1 month ago calls the clinic to report some "embarrassing" adverse effects. She tells the nurse that she has had episodes of "not being able to control my bowel movements." Which statement is true about this situation?
A) These are expected adverse effects that will eventually diminish.
B) The patient will need to stop this drug immediately if these adverse effects are occurring.
C) The patient will need to increase her fat intake to prevent these adverse effects.
D) The patient will need to restrict fat intake to less than 30% of total calories to help reduce these adverse effects.
Q2) A 10-year-old patient will be started on methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin) therapy. The nurse will perform which essential baseline assessment before this drug is started?
A) Eye examination
B) Height and weight
C) Liver function studies
D) Hearing test
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Chapter 14: Antiepileptic Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The U.S. Food and Drug Administration has issued a warning for users of antiepileptic drugs. Based on this report, the nurse will monitor for which potential problems with this class of drugs?
A) Increased risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors
B) Signs of bone marrow depression
C) Indications of drug addiction and dependency
D) Increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as strokes
Q2) The nurse is reviewing antiepileptic drug (AED) therapy. Which statements about AED therapy are accurate?
A) AED therapy can be stopped when seizures are stopped.
B) AED therapy is usually lifelong.
C) Consistent dosing is the key to controlling seizures.
D) A dose may be skipped if the patient is experiencing adverse effects.
E) Abruptly stopping AEDs may cause rebound seizure activity.
Q3) A 9-year-old child will be receiving carbamazepine (Tegretol) suspension, 200 mg twice daily. The medication is available in a strength of 100 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will give to the patient for each dose. _______
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Antiparkinson Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been given a prescription for levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet) for a new diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. The patient asks the nurse, "Why are there two drugs in this pill?" The nurse's best response reflects which fact?
A) Carbidopa allows for larger doses of levodopa to be given.
B) Carbidopa prevents the breakdown of levodopa in the periphery.
C) There are concerns about drug-food interactions with levodopa therapy that do not exist with the combination therapy.
D) Carbidopa is the biologic precursor of dopamine and can penetrate into the central nervous system.
Q2) A patient who has been on levodopa therapy for a year has a new order for a catechol ortho-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitor as part of treatment for Parkinson's disease. The nurse recognizes that which of these is an advantage of this drug class?
A) It has a shorter duration of action.
B) It causes less gastrointestinal distress.
C) It has a slower onset than traditional Parkinson's disease drugs.
D) It reduces the wearing-off phenomenon.
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Chapter 16: Psychotherapeutic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) states that he "felt awful" when he started taking an over-the-counter St. John's wort herbal product at home. The nurse suspects that he is experiencing serotonin syndrome. Which of these are symptoms of serotonin syndrome?
A) Agitation
B) Drowsiness
C) Tremors
D) Bradycardia
E) Sweating
Q2) A patient has been admitted to the emergency department with a suspected overdose of a tricyclic antidepressant. The nurse will prepare for what immediate concern?
A) Hypertension
B) Renal failure
C) Cardiac dysrhythmias
D) Gastrointestinal bleeding
Q3) A patient is to receive an intravenous dose of lorazepam (Ativan). The order reads, "Give lorazepam, 1 mg, IV push, now." Identify how many milliliters the nurse will administer for this dose. The medication vial contains 2 mg/mL. _______
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Substance Use Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in a rehabilitation center is beginning to experience opioid withdrawal symptoms. The nurse expects to administer which drug as part of the treatment?
A) Diazepam (Valium)
B) Methadone
C) Disulfiram (Antabuse)
D) Bupropion (Zyban)
Q2) A 29-year-old patient is admitted to the intensive care unit with the following symptoms: restlessness, hyperactive reflexes, talkativeness, confusion and periods of panic, and tachycardia. The nurse suspects that he may be experiencing the effects of taking which substance?
A) Opioids
B) Alcohol
C) Stimulants
D) Depressants
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Chapter 18: Adrenergic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is on a low-dose dobutamine drip for heart failure. She had been feeling better but now has a sense of tightness in her chest, palpitations, and a bit of anxiety. Her heart rate is up to 110 beats/min, and her blood pressure is 150/98 mm Hg (increased from previous readings of 86 beats/min and 120/80 mm Hg). What is the nurse's immediate concern for this patient?
A) She is experiencing normal adverse effects of dobutamine therapy.
B) She may be experiencing an allergic reaction to the dobutamine.
C) The medication may be causing a worsening of a preexisting cardiac disorder.
D) The dosage of the dobutamine needs to be increased to control the symptoms better.
Q2) The nurse is aware that adrenergic drugs produce effects similar to which of these nervous systems?
A) Central nervous system
B) Somatic nervous system
C) Sympathetic nervous system
D) Parasympathetic nervous system
Q3) The nurse is to administer epinephrine 0.3 mg subcutaneously. The ampule contains 1 mL of medication and is labeled 1 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of epinephrine the nurse will give. _______
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Chapter 19: Adrenergic-Blocking Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A beta blocker is prescribed for a patient with angina. The nurse reviews the orders for other drugs that may interact with the beta blocker. Which drugs or drug classes are known to have an interaction with a beta blocker?
A) Diuretics
B) Anticholinergics
C) Penicillins
D) Oral hypoglycemics
E) Alcohol
F) Anticoagulants
Q2) A patient is experiencing Class II heart failure. The nurse expects which beta blocker to be ordered for this patient?
A) Atenolol (Tenormin)
B) Carvedilol (Coreg)
C) Labetalol (Normodyne)
D) Esmolol (Brevibloc)
Q3) A patient has an order for carvedilol (Coreg) 9.375 mg twice a day PO. The tablets are 3.125 mg each. Identify how many tablets will the nurse administer per dose.
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Chapter 20: Cholinergic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has had an overdose of an intravenous cholinergic drug. The nurse expects to administer which drug as an antidote?
A) Atenolol (Tenormin)
B) Bethanechol (Urecholine)
C) Dobutamine
D) Atropine sulfate
Q2) When monitoring a patient who is taking a cholinergic drug, the nurse will watch for which cardiovascular effect?
A) Bradycardia
B) Tachycardia
C) Vasoconstriction
D) Palpitations
Q3) The nurse is providing teaching regarding drug therapy to the husband of a woman with Alzheimer's disease. She was diagnosed 3 months ago, has mild memory loss, and will be receiving donepezil (Aricept). What is the drug's expected action?
A) Prevents memory loss in later stages
B) Reverses the course of Alzheimer's disease
C) Provides sedation to prevent agitation and restlessness
D) May help to improve the mood and decrease confusion
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Cholinergic-Blocking Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse working in a preoperative admitting unit administers an anticholinergic medication to a patient before surgery. What is the purpose of this drug in the preoperative setting?
A) Reduce pain
B) Relax the patient
C) Reduce urinary frequency
D) Reduce oral and gastrointestinal secretions
Q2) The nurse will monitor for which adverse effect when administering an anticholinergic drug?
A) Excessive urination
B) Diaphoresis
C) Dry mouth
D) Pupillary constriction
Q3) The nurse is reviewing the use of anticholinergic drugs. Anticholinergic drugs block the effects of which nervous system?
A) Central nervous system
B) Somatic nervous system
C) Sympathetic nervous system
D) Parasympathetic nervous system
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Antihypertensive Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with severe liver disease is receiving the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, captopril (Capoten). The nurse is aware that the advantage of this drug for this patient is which characteristic?
A) Captopril rarely causes first-dose hypotensive effects.
B) Captopril has little effect on electrolyte levels.
C) Captopril is a prodrug and is metabolized by the liver before becoming active.
D) Captopril does not need to be metabolized by the liver before becoming active because it is not a prodrug.
Q2) The nurse is creating a plan of care for a patient with a new diagnosis of hypertension. Which is a potential human needs statement for the patient taking antihypertensive medications?
A) Altered GI elimination (diarrhea)
B) Altered sexual function
C) Altered urinary elimination (urge incontinence)
D) Need for effective perception
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Chapter 23: Antianginal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of angina will be started on ranolazine (Ranexa). The nurse is reviewing the patient's history and will note potential contraindications to this drug therapy if which condition is present?
A) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
B) Prolonged QT interval on the electrocardiogram
C) Heart failure
D) Closed-angle glaucoma
E) Decreased liver function
Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with angina and will be given a prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin tablets. When teaching the patient how to use sublingual nitroglycerin, the nurse will include which instruction?
A) Take up to 5 doses at 15-minute intervals for an angina attack.
B) If the tablet does not dissolve quickly, chew the tablet for maximal effect.
C) If the chest pain is not relieved after one tablet, call 911 immediately.
D) Wait 1 minute between doses of sublingual tablets, up to 3 doses.
Q3) A patient will be receiving metoprolol (Lopressor) 5 mg IV push. The medication is available in a strength of 1 mg/mL. Identify how much medication will the nurse draw up for each dose. _______
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25
Chapter 24: Heart Failure Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug classes are considered first-line treatment for heart failure?
A) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
B) Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)
C) Digoxin (cardiac glycoside)
D) Beta blockers
E) Nesiritide (Natrecor), the B-type natriuretic peptide
Q2) A patient has been placed on a milrinone (Primacor) infusion as part of the therapy for end-stage heart failure. What adverse effect of this drug will the nurse watch for when assessing this patient during the infusion?
A) Hypertension
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Cardiac dysrhythmias
Q3) The medication order for a 5-year-old child reads, "Give digoxin elixir, 15 mcg/kg, PO now." Convert the 15 micrograms to milligrams. _______
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Chapter 25: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is in the emergency department with a new onset of rapid-rate atrial fibrillation, and the nurse is preparing a continuous infusion. Which drug is most appropriate for this dysrhythmia?
A) Diltiazem (Cardizem)
B) Atenolol (Tenormin)
C) Lidocaine
D) Adenosine (Adenocard)
Q2) A patient has been started on therapy of a continuous infusion of lidocaine after receiving a loading dose of the drug. The nurse will monitor the patient for which adverse effect?
A) Drowsiness
B) Nystagmus
C) Dry mouth
D) Convulsions
Q3) The nurse will monitor the patient who has been taking dronedarone (Multaq) for which adverse effect?
A) Decreased white blood cell count
B) Liver toxicity
C) Dehydration
D) Peripheral edema
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Chapter 26: Coagulation Modifier Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving heparin therapy as part of the treatment for a pulmonary embolism. The nurse monitors the results of which laboratory test to check the drug's effectiveness?
A) Bleeding times
B) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
C) Prothrombin time/international normalized ratio (PT/INR)
D) Vitamin K levels
Q2) A patient has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) in addition to a heparin infusion. The patient asks the nurse why he has to be on two medications. The nurse's response is based on which rationale?
A) The oral and injection forms work synergistically.
B) The combination of heparin and an oral anticoagulant results in fewer adverse effects than heparin used alone.
C) The warfarin is used to reach an adequate level of anticoagulation when heparin alone is unable to do so.
D) Heparin is used to start anticoagulation so as to allow time for the blood levels of warfarin to reach adequate levels.
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Chapter 27: Antilipemic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48008
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient calls the clinic office saying that the cholestyramine (Questran) powder he started yesterday clumps and sticks to the glass when he tries to mix it. The nurse will suggest what method for mixing this medication for administration?
A) Mix the powder in a carbonated soda drink to dissolve it faster.
B) Add the powder to any liquid, and stir vigorously to dissolve it quickly.
C) Mix the powder with food or fruit, or at least 4 to 6 ounces of fluid.
D) Sprinkle the powder into a spoon and take it dry, followed by a glass of water.
Q2) Antilipemic drug therapy is prescribed for a patient, and the nurse is providing instructions to the patient about the medication. Which instructions will the nurse include?
A) Limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
B) Eat extra servings of raw vegetables and fruit.
C) Report abnormal or unusual bleeding or yellow discoloration of the skin.
D) Report the occurrence of muscle pain immediately.
E) Drug interactions are rare with antilipemics.
F) Take the drug 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals to maximize absorption.
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29
Chapter 28: Diuretic Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48009
Sample Questions
Q1) Mannitol (Osmitrol) has been ordered for a patient with acute renal failure. The nurse will administer this drug using which procedure?
A) Intravenously, through a filter
B) By rapid intravenous bolus
C) By mouth in a single morning dose
D) Through a gravity intravenous drip with standard tubing
Q2) A patient is being discharged to home on a single daily dose of a diuretic. The nurse instructs the patient to take the dose at which time so it will be least disruptive to the patient's daily routine?
A) In the morning
B) At noon
C) With supper
D) At bedtime
Q3) A patient is to receive furosemide (Lasix) via a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. The order reads, "Give furosemide, 80 mg, per PEG tube once daily." The medication is available in a liquid form, 40 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will administer for each dose. _______
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Chapter 29: Fluids and Electrolytes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48010
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to transfuse a patient with a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Which intravenous solution is correct for use with the PRBC transfusion?
A) 5% dextrose in water (D5W)
B) 0.9% sodium chloride (NS)
C) 5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride (D5NS)
D) 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's solution (D5LR)
Q2) The nurse is working with a graduate nurse to prepare an intravenous dose of potassium for a patient on a regular medical-surgical unit. Which statement by the graduate nurse reflects a need for further teaching?
A) "We will need to monitor this infusion closely."
B) "The infusion rate needs to infuse at 10 mEq/hr."
C) "The intravenous potassium will be diluted before we give it."
D) "The intravenous potassium dose will be given undiluted."
Q3) The order reads, "Give 1500 mL of normal saline over 12 hours. The tubing drop factor is 15 gtt/mL." The nurse will set the gravity drip infusion at how many drops per minute (gtt/min). _______
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Chapter 30: Pituitary Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48011
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these hormones are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland?
A) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
B) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C) Oxytocin
D) Growth hormone (GH)
E) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Q2) The nurse notes in a patient's medication history that the patient has been taking desmopressin (DDAVP). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Adrenocortical insufficiency
D) Carcinoid tumor
Q3) When reviewing the medication profile of a patient with a new order for desmopressin (DDAVP), the nurse notes that a drug interaction will occur if which drug is taken with desmopressin?
A) Aspirin
B) Digoxin
C) Lithium
D) Penicillin
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Chapter 31: Thyroid and Antithyroid Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48012
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with hypothyroidism is given a prescription for levothyroxine (Synthroid). When the nurse explains that this is a synthetic form of the thyroid hormone, he states that he prefers to receive more "natural" forms of drugs. What will the nurse explain to him about the advantages of levothyroxine?
A) It has a stronger effect than the natural forms.
B) Levothyroxine is less expensive than the natural forms.
C) The synthetic form has fewer adverse effects on the gastrointestinal tract.
D) The half-life of levothyroxine is long enough to permit once-daily dosing.
Q2) A patient has been taking levothyroxine (Synthroid) for more than one decade for primary hypothyroidism. Today she calls because she has a cousin who can get her the same medication in a generic form from a pharmaceutical supply company. Which is the nurse's best advice?
A) "This would be a great way to save money."
B) "There's no difference in brands of this medication."
C) "This should never be done; once you start with a certain brand, you must stay with it."
D) "It's better not to switch brands unless we check with your doctor."
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33
Chapter 32: Antidiabetic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48013
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with metabolic syndrome and is started on the biguanide metformin (Glucophage). The nurse knows that the purpose of the metformin, in this situation, is which of these?
A) To increase the pancreatic secretion of insulin
B) To decrease insulin resistance
C) To increase blood glucose levels
D) To decrease the pancreatic secretion of insulin
Q2) The nurse is reviewing instructions for a patient with type 2 diabetes who also takes insulin injections as part of the therapy. The nurse asks the patient, "What should you do if your fasting blood glucose is 47 mg/dL?" Which response by the patient reflects a correct understanding of insulin therapy?
A) "I will call my doctor right away."
B) "I will give myself the regular insulin."
C) "I will take an oral form of glucose."
D) "I will rest until the symptoms pass."
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Chapter 33: Adrenal Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48014
Sample Questions
Q1) A glucocorticoid is prescribed for a patient. The nurse checks the patient's medical history knowing that glucocorticoid therapy is contraindicated in which disorder?
A) Cerebral edema
B) Peptic ulcer disease
C) Tuberculous meningitis
D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Q2) A patient is taking fludrocortisone (Florinef) for Addison's disease, and his wife is concerned about all of the problems that may occur with this therapy. When teaching them about therapy with this drug, the nurse will include which information?
A) It may cause severe postural hypotension.
B) It needs to be taken with food or milk to minimize gastrointestinal upset.
C) The medication needs to be stopped immediately if nausea or vomiting occurs.
D) Weight gain of 5 pounds or more in 1 week is an expected adverse effect.
Q3) A patient has been admitted for an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and will be receiving methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 30 mg intravenously every 6 hours. The medication is available in 40 mg/mL vials. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse draw up for this dose. _______
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Chapter 34: Womens Health Drugs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48015
Sample Questions
Q1) When considering the various types of contraceptive drugs, the nurse is aware that which type most closely duplicates the normal hormonal levels of the female menstrual cycle?
A) Monophasic
B) Biphasic
C) Triphasic
D) Short acting
Q2) The nurse recognizes that use of estrogen drugs is contraindicated in which patient?
A) A patient who has atrophic vaginitis
B) A patient who has inoperable prostate cancer
C) A woman who has just given birth and wants to prevent postpartum lactation
D) A woman with a history of thrombophlebitis
Q3) The nurse is reviewing the use of uterine tocolytics, such as indomethacin (Indocin). Which statement best describes the indication for these drugs?
A) Prevention of preterm labor in the 15th week of pregnancy
B) Prevention of preterm labor in the 22nd week of pregnancy
C) Stimulation of contractions in prolonged labor
D) Stimulation of ovulation as part of infertility treatments
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Chapter 35: Mens Health Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48016
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the medication list of a patient who will be starting androgen therapy. Which drug classes, if taken with androgens, may have an interaction with them?
A) Oral anticoagulants
B) Nitrates
C) Beta blockers
D) Proton pump inhibitors
Q2) During the administration of finasteride (Proscar), the nurse must remember which important precaution?
A) It must be taken on an empty stomach.
B) It must not be handled by pregnant women.
C) It is given by deep intramuscular injection to avoid tissue irritation.
D) The patient needs to be warned that alopecia is a common adverse effect.
Q3) A 21-year-old male athlete admits to using androgenic steroids. The nurse tells him that which of these is a possible adverse effect of these drugs?
A) Liver damage
B) Renal failure
C) Heart failure
D) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
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Page 37
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions 12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48017
Sample Questions
Q1) A gardener needs a decongestant because of seasonal allergy problems and asks the nurse whether he should take an oral form or a nasal spray. Which of these is a benefit of orally administered decongestants?
A) Immediate onset
B) A more potent effect
C) Lack of rebound congestion
D) Shorter duration
Q2) A patient will be receiving diphenhydramine (Benadryl) via a PEG tube, 25 mg, every 8 hours for an allergic rash. The medication is available as a 12.5 mg/5 mL syrup. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse administer with each dose. _______
Q3) A patient with a tracheostomy has difficulty removing excessive, thick mucus from the respiratory tract. The nurse expects that which drug will be ordered to aid in the removal of mucus?
A) Guaifenesin (Mucinex)
B) Benzonatate (Tessalon Perles)
C) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
D) Dextromethorphan (Robitussin DM)
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Respiratory Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48018
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is monitoring drug levels for a patient who is receiving theophylline. The most recent theophylline level was 22 mcg/mL, and the nurse evaluates this level to be:
A) below the therapeutic level.
B) at a therapeutic level.
C) above the therapeutic level.
D) at a toxic level.
Q2) A patient has prescriptions for two inhalers. One inhaler is a bronchodilator, and the other is a corticosteroid. Which instruction regarding these inhalers will the nurse give to the patient?
A) "Take the corticosteroid inhaler first."
B) "Take the bronchodilator inhaler first."
C) "Take these two drugs at least 2 hours apart."
D) "It does not matter which inhaler you use first."
Q3) A patient has a metered-dose inhaler that contains 200 actuations ('puffs'), and it does not have a dose counter. He is to take two puffs two times a day. If he does not take any extra doses, identify how many days will this inhaler last at the prescribed dose.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Antibiotics Part 1
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48019
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving his third intravenous dose of a penicillin drug. He calls the nurse to report that he is feeling "anxious" and is having trouble breathing. What will the nurse do first?
A) Notify the prescriber.
B) Take the patient's vital signs.
C) Stop the antibiotic infusion.
D) Check for allergies.
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the medication history of a patient who will be taking a sulfonamide antibiotic. During sulfonamide therapy, a significant drug interaction may occur with which of these drugs or drug classes?
A) Opioids
B) Oral contraceptives
C) Sulfonylureas
D) Antihistamines
E) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
F) Warfarin (Coumadin)
Q3) A patient will be receiving penicillin G potassium, 12 million units daily in divided doses every 4 hours IVPB. Identify how many units the patient will receive for each dose each day. _______
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Antibiotics Part 2
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48020
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving aminoglycoside therapy and will be receiving a beta-lactam antibiotic as well. The patient asks why two antibiotics have been ordered. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "The combined effect of both antibiotics is greater than each of them alone."
B) "One antibiotic is not strong enough to fight the infection."
C) "We have not yet isolated the bacteria, so the two antibiotics are given to cover a wide range of microorganisms."
D) "We can give a reduced amount of each one if we give them together."
Q2) A patient will be receiving nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) treatment for a urinary tract infection. The nurse is reviewing the patient's history and will question the nitrofurantoin order if which disorder is present in the history?
A) Liver disease
B) Coronary artery disease
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
E) Chronic renal disease
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Chapter 40: Antiviral Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48021
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is diagnosed with genital herpes is taking topical acyclovir. The nurse will provide which teaching for this patient?
A) "Be sure to wash your hands thoroughly before and after applying this medicine."
B) "Apply this ointment until the lesion stops hurting."
C) "Use a clean glove when applying this ointment."
D) "If your partner develops these lesions, then your partner can also use the medication."
E) "You will need to avoid touching the area around your eyes."
F) "You will have to practice abstinence when these lesions are active."
Q2) An infant has been hospitalized with a severe lung infection caused by the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and will be receiving medication via the inhalation route. The nurse expects which drug to be used?
A) Acyclovir (Zovirax)
B) Ganciclovir (Cytovene)
C) Amantadine (Symmetrel)
D) Ribavirin (Virazole)
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42
Chapter 41: Antitubercular Drugs
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48022
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has started drug therapy for tuberculosis wants to know how long he will be on the medications. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Drug therapy will last until the symptoms have stopped."
B) "Drug therapy will continue until the tuberculosis develops resistance."
C) "You should expect to take these drugs for as long as 24 months."
D) "You will be on this drug therapy for the rest of your life."
Q2) The nurse will assess the patient for which potential contraindication to antitubercular therapy?
A) Glaucoma
B) Anemia
C) Heart failure
D) Hepatic impairment
Q3) When monitoring patients on antitubercular drug therapy, the nurse knows that which drug may cause a decrease in visual acuity?
A) Rifampin (Rifadin)
B) Isoniazid (INH)
C) Ethambutol (Myambutol)
D) Streptomycin
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43
Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48023
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is administering an amphotericin B infusion. Which actions by the nurse are appropriate?
A) Administering the medication by rapid IV infusion
B) Discontinuing the drug immediately if the patient develops tingling and numbness in the extremities
C) If adverse effects occur, reducing the IV rate gradually until they subside
D) Using an infusion pump for IV therapy
E) Monitoring the IV site for signs of phlebitis and infiltration
F) Administering premedication for fever and nausea
G) Knowing that the intravenous solution for amphotericin B will be cloudy
H) Knowing that muscle twitching may indicate hypokalemia
Q2) The nurse is administering one of the lipid formulations of amphotericin B. When giving this drug, which concept is important to remember?
A) The lipid formulations may be given in oral form.
B) The doses are much lower than the doses of the older drugs.
C) The lipid formulations are associated with fewer adverse effects than the older drugs.
D) There is no difference in cost between the newer and older forms.
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Page 44
Chapter
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48024
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with late-stage HIV infection also has Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. The nurse anticipates treatment with which medication for this pneumonia?
A) Ivermectin (Stromectol)
B) Atovaquone (Mepron)
C) Praziquantel (Biltricide)
D) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
Q2) A patient has an infestation with flukes (trematodes). The nurse anticipates the use of which drug to treat this infestation?
A) Praziquantel (Biltricide)
B) Pyrantel (Pin-X)
C) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
D) Ivermectin (Stromectol)
Q3) A patient is experiencing the exoerythrocytic phase of malaria. The nurse expects which drug to be used for this patient?
A) Quinine
B) Chloroquine (Aralen)
C) Mefloquine (Lariam)
D) Primaquine
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Chapter 44: Anti-Inflammatory and Antigout Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48025
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse notes in a patient's medication history that the patient is taking allopurinol (Zyloprim). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?
A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Gout
C) Osteoarthritis
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus
Q2) A 75-year-old woman has been given a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (an NSAID for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse is reviewing the patient's medication history and notes that which types of medications could have an interaction with the NSAID?
A) Antibiotics
B) Decongestants
C) Anticoagulants
D) Beta blockers
E) Diuretics
F) Corticosteroids
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Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 1: Cancer Overview and
Cell Cycle-Specific Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48026
Sample Questions
Q1) One patient has cancer of the bone; another has cancer in the connective tissues of the thigh muscles; a third patient has cancer in the vascular tissues. Which of these is the correct term for these tumors?
A) Sarcoma
B) Leukemia
C) Carcinoma
D) Lymphoma
Q2) A patient is to receive a daily dose of fludarabine (Fludara), 25 mg/m²/day for 5 consecutive days. Each dose is diluted in a 125-mL bag of normal saline and is to infuse over 30 minutes. The nurse will set the infusion pump to what rate in milliliters per hour?
Q3) A patient is receiving irinotecan (Camptosar), along with other antineoplastic drugs, as treatment for ovarian cancer. The nurse will monitor for which potentially life-threatening adverse effect that is associated with this drug?
A) Severe stomatitis
B) Bone marrow suppression
C) Delayed-onset cholinergic diarrhea
D) Immediate and severe nausea and vomiting
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Chapter 46: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 2: Cell
Cyclenonspecific Drugs and Miscellaneous Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48027
Sample Questions
Q1) During chemotherapy, a patient develops severe diarrhea caused by a vasoactive intestinal peptide-secreting tumor (VIPoma). The nurse expects to administer which drug for this problem?
A) Dexrazoxane (Zinecard)
B) Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
C) Octreotide (Sandostatin)
D) Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)
Q2) The nurse is hanging a new infusion bag of a chemotherapy drug, but the tubing becomes disconnected and a small amount of the solution drips onto the floor. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A) Let it dry, and then mop the floor.
B) Wipe the area with a disposable paper towel.
C) Use a spill kit to clean the area.
D) Ask the housekeeping department to clean the floor.
Q3) A patient will be receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone), 12 mg/m²/day every 3 weeks, as part of treatment for prostate cancer. Each dose is mixed into a 50-mL bag of D W and needs to infuse over 15 minutes. The infusion pump delivers the dose at milliliters per hour. Identify the nurse will set the pump to infuse at what rate. _______
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Chapter 47: Biologic Responsemodifying and Antirheumatic Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48028
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will be receiving aldesleukin [IL-2] (Proleukin), 600,000 IU/kg every 8 hours for 14 doses. The patient weighs 220 pounds. Identify how many IU of medication this patient will receive per dose. _______
Q2) A patient is to receive filgrastim (Neupogen) 5 mcg/kg/day. The patient weighs 198 pounds. Identify how many micrograms of medication this patient will receive each day.
Q3) During therapy with hematopoietic drugs, the nurse will monitor the patient for which adverse effects?
A) Hypotension
B) Edema
C) Diarrhea
D) Black, tarry stools
E) Nausea and vomiting
F) Headache
Q4) The nurse is administering an interferon and will implement which intervention?
A) Giving the medication with meals
B) Monitoring daily weights
C) Limiting fluids while the patient is taking this medication
D) Rotating injection sites
Page 49
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Chapter 48: Immunosuppressant Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48029
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is about to undergo a kidney transplant. She will be given an immunosuppressant drug before, during, and after surgery to minimize organ rejection. During the preoperative teaching session, which information will the nurse include about the medication therapy?
A) Several days before the surgery, the medication will be administered orally.
B) The oral doses need to be taken 1 hour before meals to maximize absorption.
C) Mix the oral liquid with juice in a disposable Styrofoam cup just before administration.
D) Intramuscular injections of the medication will be needed for several days preceding surgery.
Q2) When monitoring a patient who is on immunosuppressant therapy with azathioprine (Imuran), the nurse will monitor which laboratory results?
A) Serum potassium levels
B) White blood cell (leukocyte) count
C) Red blood cell count
D) Serum albumin levels
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Chapter 49: Immunizing Drugs
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48030
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is working in an immunization clinic. A new colleague asks, "When is the first dose of the diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DtaP, Daptacel) given?" The nurse knows that this series is started at what age?
A) At birth
B) 6 weeks
C) 3 months
D) 1 year
Q2) A 12-month-old infant has received an MMR II (measles, mumps, and rubella virus vaccine), and her mother calls the clinic that afternoon to ask about helping her fussy infant to "feel better." What will the nurse suggest?
A) Apply an ice pack to the injection site.
B) Apply warm compresses to the injection site.
C) Observe the site for further swelling and redness.
D) Bring the infant in to the emergency department for an immediate examination.
Q3) A health care worker will be receiving hepatitis B immunoglobulin (BayHep B), 0.06 mL/kg IM now and repeated in 30 days as part of hepatitis B prophylaxis after a needle stick accident. The patient weighs 264 pounds. Identify how many milliliters the patient will receive for each dose. (record answer using one decimal place) _______
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Chapter 50: Acid-Controlling Drugs
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48031
Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient had gastric surgery due to a gastrointestinal bleed 3 days ago, and he has been stable since the surgery. This evening, his daughter tells the nurse, "He seems to be more confused this afternoon. He's never been like this. What could be the problem?" The nurse reviews the patient's medication record and suspects that which drug could be the cause of the patient's confusion?
A) Cimetidine (Tagamet)
B) Pantoprazole (Protonix)
C) Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
D) Sucralfate (Carafate)
Q2) A patient will be receiving pantoprazole (Protonix), 20 mg IV daily every morning. The medication, once reconstituted, has a strength of 40 mg/10 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will draw up for this dose. _______
Q3) A patient has excessive and painful gas. The nurse checks the patient's medication orders and prepares to administer which drug for this problem?
A) Famotidine (Pepcid)
B) Aluminum hydroxide and magnesium hydroxide (Maalox or Mylanta)
C) Calcium carbonate (Tums)
D) Simethicone (Mylicon)
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Chapter 51: Bowel Disorder Drugs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48032
Sample Questions
Q1) A 10-year-old child will be receiving docusate sodium (Colace), 120 mg/day PO, divided into 3 doses. Identify how many milligrams will the child receive per dose.
Q2) A patient has been treated with alosetron (Lotronex) for severe irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) for 2 weeks. She calls the clinic and tells the nurse that she has been experiencing constipation for 3 days. The nurse will take which action?
A) Advise the patient to increase intake of fluids and fiber.
B) Advise the patient to hold the drug for 2 days.
C) Instruct the patient to stop taking the drug and to come to the clinic right away to be evaluated.
D) Instruct the patient to continue the alosetron and to take milk of magnesia for the constipation.
Q3) When administering mineral oil, the nurse recognizes that it can interfere with the absorption of which substance?
A) Fat-soluble vitamins
B) Water-soluble vitamins
C) Minerals
D) Electrolytes
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Chapter 52: Antiemetic and Antinausea Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48033
Sample Questions
Q1) An adult patient is about to receive intravenous (IV) ondansetron (Zofran) during a chemotherapy treatment. A dose of 0.15 mg/kg IV 30 minutes before chemotherapy is ordered. The patient weighs 140 pounds. The medication is supplied in a vial marked 2 mg/mL for IV administration. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will administer for this dose. (record answer to one decimal place) _______
Q2) A patient who has AIDS has lost weight and is easily fatigued because of his malnourished state. The nurse anticipates an order for which antinausea drug to stimulate his appetite?
A) Metoclopramide (Reglan), a prokinetic drug
B) Dronabinol (Marinol), a tetrahydrocannabinoid
C) Ondansetron (Zofran), a serotonin blocker
D) Aprepitant (Emend), a substance P/NK1 receptor antagonist
Q3) A patient is receiving a tube feeding through a gastrostomy. The nurse expects that which type of drug will be used to promote gastric emptying for this patient?
A) Prokinetic drugs, such as metoclopramide (Reglan)
B) Serotonin blockers, such as ondansetron (Zofran)
C) Anticholinergic drugs, such as scopolamine (Transderm-Scop)
D) Neuroleptic drugs, such as chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
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Chapter 53: Vitamins and Minerals
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48034
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient accidentally took an overdose of the anticoagulant warfarin (Coumadin), and the nurse is preparing to administer vitamin K as an antidote. Which statement about vitamin K is accurate?
A) The vitamin K dose will be given intramuscularly.
B) The patient will take oral doses of vitamin K after the initial injection.
C) The vitamin K cannot be given if the patient has renal disease.
D) The patient will be unresponsive to warfarin therapy for 1 week after the vitamin K is given.
Q2) Niacin is prescribed for a patient who has hyperlipidemia. The nurse checks the patient's medical history, knowing that this medication is contraindicated in which disorder?
A) Renal disease
B) Cardiac disease
C) Liver disease
D) Diabetes mellitus
Q3) A patient will be receiving monthly injections of cyanocobalamin (Nascobal). The dose is 100 mcg/month IM. The medication is available in a strength of 1000 mcg/mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will draw up into the syringe. (record answer using one decimal place) _______
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Anemia Drugs
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18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48035
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with end-stage renal failure has been admitted to the hospital for severe anemia. The patient is refusing blood transfusions. The nurse anticipates drug therapy with which drug to stimulate the production of red blood cells?
A) Folic acid
B) Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B<sub>12</sub>)
C) Epoetin alfa (Epogen)
D) Filgrastim (Neupogen)
Q2) The nurse is administering intravenous iron dextran for the first time to a patient with anemia. After giving a test dose, how long will the nurse wait before administering the remaining portion of the dose?
A) 30 minutes
B) 1 hour
C) 6 hours
D) 24 hours
Q3) A 2-year-old child will be receiving ferrous sulfate oral drops (Fer-Iron) 5 mg/kg/day in three divided doses. The child weighs 26 pounds. Identify how many milligrams the nurse will administer per dose. (record answer using one decimal place) _______
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Chapter 55: Nutritional Supplements
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12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48036
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer medications to a patient who is receiving a feeding via a gastric tube. When reviewing the patient's medication list, the nurse notes a potential concern about a food-drug interaction if which medication is listed?
A) Multivitamin solution
B) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
C) Metoclopramide (Reglan)
D) Warfarin (Coumadin)
Q2) A patient has been receiving total parenteral nutrition. Upon assessment, the nurse notes these assessment findings: blood pressure 150/92 mm Hg (elevated from previous readings); pulse rate 110 beats/min and weak; pitting edema on both ankles; and new-onset confusion. The nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing which condition?
A) Infection
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Fluid overload
Q3) The total parenteral nutrition (TPN) order reads, "Infuse TPN #2 over 24 hours." Bag #2 of TPN contains 1800 mL. At what rate will the nurse set the infusion pump? _______
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Chapter 56: Dermatologic Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48037
Sample Questions
Q1) A 55-year-old obese patient was diagnosed with candidiasis in the skin folds under her breasts. When the nurse sees her at a follow-up visit 2 months later, she complains that it has returned. She said she applied the medicine for 1 week and stopped because the itching stopped and the cream was messy. Which statement is true regarding fungal infections of the skin?
A) Fungal infections often require prolonged therapy.
B) The patient has a new infection now.
C) The patient needs to apply a dressing if the cream is too messy.
D) This infection will probably never be cured.
Q2) A child is being treated for head lice with spinosad (Natroba). Which of these statements about treatment with spinosad is true?
A) "You will need a prescription for a second product, malathion."
B) "You will also need to decontaminate clothes and personal items."
C) "Be sure to use a nit comb to remove nits from the hair shafts."
D) "Try combing through the hair with mineral oil to loosen the lice from the hair shafts."
E) "It is not necessary to comb the nits when using spinosad."
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Chapter 57: Ophthalmic Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48038
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is about to undergo ocular surgery. The preoperative nurse anticipates that which drug will be used for local anesthesia?
A) Oral glycerin
B) Proparacaine (Alcaine)
C) Timolol (Timoptic)
D) Dipivefrin (Propine)
Q2) A patient with an eye injury requires an ocular examination to detect the presence of a foreign body. The nurse anticipates that which drug will be used for this examination?
A) Phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)
B) Fluorescein sodium (AK-Fluor)
C) Atropine sulfate (Isopto Atropine)
D) Olopatadine (Patanol)
Q3) The nurse is reviewing the use of ophthalmic preparations. Indications for the directand indirect-acting miotics include which condition?
A) Cataracts
B) Removal of foreign bodies
C) Open-angle glaucoma
D) Ocular infections
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Chapter 58: Otic Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48039
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is administering eardrops that contain a combination of an antibiotic and a corticosteroid. What is the rationale for combining these two drugs in eardrops?
A) The combination works to help soften and eliminate cerumen.
B) The corticosteroid reduces pain associated with ear infections.
C) The drops help to eliminate fungal infections.
D) The corticosteroid reduces the inflammation and itching associated with ear infections.
Q2) The nurse is assessing a child with otitis media. Which statement about otitis media is correct?
A) It is treated with over-the-counter medications.
B) In children, it commonly follows a lower respiratory tract infection.
C) Common symptoms include pain, fever, malaise, and a sensation of fullness in the ears.
D) Hearing deficits are associated only with inner ear infections, not with otitis media.
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