Nursing Care of the Surgical Patient Test Preparation
Course Introduction
This course focuses on the principles and practices essential for providing effective nursing care to surgical patients throughout the perioperative period. Students will learn about preoperative assessment and preparation, intraoperative support, and postoperative recovery, including pain management, wound care, infection prevention, and monitoring for complications. Emphasis is placed on developing critical thinking, patient advocacy, and interdisciplinary collaboration skills to optimize surgical outcomes and promote patient safety. The course integrates evidence-based practices with holistic care approaches to address the physical, emotional, and educational needs of surgical patients and their families.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Care of the Patient in Surgery 14th Edition by Jane C. Rothrock
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30 Chapters
784 Verified Questions
784 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2039 Page 2
Chapter 1: Concepts Basic to Perioperative Nursing
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ambulatory surgery unit is planning to develop a standardized skin preparation practice for their unit.The best process to gather scientific information is to:
A) conduct a survey of skin prep policies at the next AORN chapter meeting.
B) review their surgical site infection data from the last 6 months.
C) conduct a literature search on antimicrobial agents and infection prevention.
D) review the scientific literature from the leading manufacturers of prep solutions.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following actions best describes an element of the perioperative nursing assessment?
A) Scanning the surgical schedule for the day before morning report
B) Reading the pick/preference list attached to the case cart
C) Reviewing the patient medical record
D) Studying an on-line tutorial about the intended surgical procedure
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Patient Safety and Risk Management
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Weighing sponges is a valuable tool for meticulous calculation of blood and fluid loss when conducted correctly and used in appropriate circumstances.Select the response that correctly reflects the best practice in weighing sponges.
A) Calculate all sponge weight results at the end of the case.
B) Use the following to calculate loss:1.5 grams = 1.2 milliliters = 1.5 cc.
C) Consider saline-soaked sponges equal to blood-soaked sponges when urine is involved in the operative field.
D) Combine sponge weight values with irrigation measurement values to calculate estimated blood loss.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following situations requires informed consent from the patient/family?
A) Elective cosmetic surgical procedure
B) Organ procurement
C) Permission to photograph medically-related images during the procedure
D) All of the options require consent.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Infection Prevention and Control in the
Perioperative Setting
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Closed gloving is the technique of choice for the initial donning of sterile gloves by the scrubbed team member;however:
A) it can only be used for the initial gloving.
B) it requires two people to execute without contamination.
C) there is a risk of contamination if the thumbs are not extended.
D) All of the options are correct.
Answer: A
Q2) Which glove lubricant,used to facilitate easy donning,is considered a best practice?
A) Sterile talcum or corn starch powder
B) Sterile petroleum-based oils
C) Sterile silicone film
D) None of the options is a best practice.
Answer: D
Q3) The surgical hand scrub is designed to render the hands,nails,and arms:
A) surgically clean.
B) free of transient microorganisms,dirt,and skin oils.
C) coated with residual antimicrobial residue to prevent microbial regrowth.
D) All of the options are correct.
Answer: D
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Anesthesia
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vanessa was able to restore the patient's normal respirations and monitored her closely as she emerged from the propofol.The patient stated that her mouth,lips,and tongue were numb and prickly feeling and she had a metallic taste.Vanessa suspected that the patient had _ and responded by ___.
A) Propofol hypovolemia;giving her a fluid challenge of 50 ml of IV saline
B) An allergic reaction to the local anesthetic;administering diphenhydramine
C) A toxic overdose of local anesthetic;monitoring and increasing the flow rate of IV saline
D) A reaction to the propofol;giving her a rescue dose of naloxone
Q2) Which statement best explains the mechanism of action of general anesthetic agents?
A) Inhibition of synaptic transmission of nerve impulses
B) Regional depression of the CNS with resultant narcosis
C) Suppression of myoneural and musculoskeletal junctions
D) Analgesia,amnesia,anesthesia,and systemic hyporeflexus
Q3) The instillation of a local anesthetic into the subarachnoid space is termed:
A) spinal anesthesia.
B) epidural anesthesia.
C) perfusion block.
D) stellate ganglion block.
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Chapter 5: Positioning the Patient for Surgery
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Number the sequence of steps for positioning a patient in Fowler's position.
a.Slowly raise the upper body section to desired height and angle.
b.Flex the knees as the leg section is lowered.
c.Secure head in the appropriate headrest.
d.Rest arms on patient's lap with a pillow or on armboards.
e.Place a footrest at the bottom of the leg section.
f.Initial position is in appropriate supine for induction and intubation.
Q2) Maria Faulkner is a 92-year-old frail nursing home patient admitted for dehydration,anemia,and respiratory symptoms.She has type 2 diabetes and low albumin levels,is underweight,and continues to smoke cigarettes when she is at home.Mrs.Faulkner is on complete bed rest in a hospital bed with an alternating pressure mattress overlay.She is not able to turn herself in bed and must be assisted to change position.Based on this description of Mrs.Faulkner,which factor classification dominates her vulnerability and risk for injury?
A) Shearing force factors
B) Intrinsic factors
C) Bed rest precaution factors
D) Extrinsic factors
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Chapter 6: Sutures, Needles, and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr.Schuman decided to convert to an open instead of the laparoscopic approach for the colectomy because the patient was morbidly obese and he needed a larger incision.He asked the circulating nurse to bring the largest self-retaining retractor in the sterile storage room.Select the appropriate retractor.
A) Large wide Deavers
B) Bookwalter
C) Weitlaner
D) Balfour
Q2) This hemostatic device offers a rapid and secure method of clamping arteries,veins,nerves,and other small structures.They will remain in the patient,are not counted,and are made of a metal that is compatible with MRI.Select the correct hemostatic device that fits this description.
A) Hemostat
B) Alligator forcep
C) Ligating clip
D) Bulldog clamp
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Chapter 7: Surgical Modalities
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28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An endoscope is a diagnostic or therapeutic instrument that enters the body through a:
A) natural orifice.
B) small incision into a body compartment.
C) externalized sinus tract.
D) All of the options are correct.
Q2) The light transmission through an endoscope is achieved by way of:
A) a charge-coupled device chip in the tip of the scope.
B) a chain of small connected micro light bulbs.
C) bundles of fiberoptic glass rods.
D) electrified silicon cables.
Q3) Suction,air,water,and light connection adaptors to energy source
Q4) Dr.Wheeler's patient,a 72-year-old man with a single early-stage liver tumor,has an implanted automatic internal defibrillator that the anesthesia provider has decided not to disarm for the procedure.What energy-generated dissection device should Dr.Wheeler use to replace the argon beam coagulator?
A) An ultrasonic dissector
B) A monopolar suction-irrigator
C) A monopolar hydrodissector
D) A CO laser with articulating arm and handpiece
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Chapter 8: Wound Healing, Dressings, and Drains
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cosmetic elective plastic surgery,on healthy patients,is based on the expectations that healthy healing and ideal cosmesis will be achieved.On which phase or phases of healing is considerable emphasis placed during the procedure?
A) Inflammatory phase
B) Proliferative phase
C) Remodeling phase
D) Proliferative phase and remodeling phase
Q2) Samuel Garcia has been approved as a candidate for hyperbaric oxygenation as a management therapy for his chronic sacral wound.He responded well to his surgical debridement and the nurse is planning to explain the next course of therapy.She will describe to him how hyperbaric oxygenation (select all that apply):
A) Increases the ability of the blood to carry oxygen to the tissues
B) Restores cells and kills bacteria that thrive without oxygen
C) Decreases white blood cell migration,which lowers inflammation
D) Slows but strengthens the healing process
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Chapter 9: Postoperative Patient Care and Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypotension is a blood pressure reading that is 20% less than the patient's normal baseline pressure.Hypovolemia is the most common cause of hypotension;however,hypotension may also be caused by cardiac dysfunctions.Which triad of cardiac conditions will present with hypotension?
A) Myocardial infarction,myocardial tamponade,and pulmonary embolism
B) Cardiac ischemia,subaortic stenosis,and pericarditis
C) Congestive heart failure,valvular dysfunction,and tachypnea
D) Certain anesthetic agents and cardiac stimulants,conduction defects,and endocarditis
Q2) The initial primary assessment by the perianesthesia nurse,on the patient's admission to the PACU,begins with which criterion?
A) Patient's level of consciousness and hanging IV fluid level
B) Patient identification using attached ID band with two identifiers
C) Vital signs and ABCs,beginning with the respiratory system
D) The surgical/interventional procedure performed and OR number
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Chapter 10: Gastrointestinal Surgery
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26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Goodloe Frazier is scheduled for a total colectomy with ileostomy in the morning.The wound ostomy care nurse (WOCN)has consulted Goodloe to initiate his ostomy teaching,answer his questions,and mark the site on his abdomen that would be ideal placement for the ileostomy.An appropriate nursing diagnosis for Goodloe at this time would be:
A) Risk for Impaired Tissue Integrity.
B) Deficient Knowledge related to impending surgery.
C) Disturbed Body Image related to intestinal diversion.
D) All of the options are correct.
Q2) Select the statement that most correctly matches a risk factor for adhesions with an appropriate preventive strategy.
A) Multiple surgeries may be managed with the use of sequential compression devices.
B) Glove powder adhesions can be prevented with cellulose mist.
C) Patients with endometriosis may be best served with a laparoscopic approach.
D) Fibrous bands within the peritoneum can be treated with sterile talcum powder.
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12
Chapter 11: Surgery of the Liver, Biliary Tract, Pancreas, and Spleen
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Steven Morganstein,a 51-year-old male with hepatobiliary disease,is scheduled for surgery.The perioperative nurse,during the preoperative assessment,questions and examines the patient for signs and symptoms of jaundice,petechiae,and lethargy and:
A) reviews his chart for bleeding and coagulation times and the platelet count.
B) asks Steven his blood type and when he last donated blood.
C) palpates Steven's abdomen for left upper quadrant tenderness and liver margins.
D) reviews the findings of his endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatoscopy (ERCP).
Q2) During an emergent total open splenectomy on a patient with blunt force trauma to the abdomen,the circulating nurse and anesthesia provider noticed rust-colored urine in the urinary collection container.They had just hung the third unit of whole blood.What nursing action is the first priority?
A) Send a sterile urine sample for stat cytologic studies.
B) Notify the scrubbed team of the urine color change and check the bladder for trauma.
C) Stop the blood transfusion.
D) Check the blood unit for patient-specific identification and expiration date.
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Chapter 12: Repair of Hernias
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Sample Questions
Q1) While direct and indirect hernias both protrude into the inguinal canal and represent tears in the transversalis fascia,which one of the two occurs within the Hesselbach triangle?
A) Direct inguinal hernia
B) Indirect inguinal hernia
C) Both options occur within the triangle
D) Neither option occurs within Hesselbach's triangle
Q2) Charles Wilkins had a laparoscopic hernia repair with good results and an uneventful recovery.Weeks later,as he reviewed his hospital bill,he noted that he had been charged for a very expensive preperitoneal distention balloon,polypropylene mesh,an endomechanical stapler,and three endosurgical trocars.What hernia repair technique was probably performed on Charles?
A) TAPP repair
B) Laparoscopic Bassini repair
C) TEP repair
D) Mesh-plug insertion repair
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Chapter 13: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Margie Donaldson's examination has revealed a family history of endometrial cancer.She has never been pregnant and has been taking hormone replacement therapy for 4 years.Her physician has scheduled her for a surgical procedure to obtain visual and pathologic information and provide treatment as indicated.Margie was sure that she would have to have a D&C (dilatation and curettage).Margie's surgery,on the operative schedule,would most probably be written as:
A) D&C with endocervical biopsies.
B) hysteroscopy with endometrial ablation.
C) D&C with endometrial biopsies,frozen section,possible LAVH.
D) D&E with endometrial washings,frozen section,total abdominal hysterectomy.
Q2) During the procedure,a moment of light anesthesia caused Matilda to move slightly.The perioperative nurse prepared to assist while the anesthesia provider titrated drugs to a deeper anesthetic level.What would be the next priority intervention by the perioperative nurse?
A) Document an "awareness under anesthesia" occurrence.
B) Tuck Matilda's arms anatomically at her sides.
C) Reassess padding,protection,and positioning security.
D) Refine the nursing diagnosis to include risk for falls.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Genitourinary Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Shawna Bolten,a perioperative nurse,relieved the circulating nurse in OR 5 where they were about to begin a circumcision on a 17-year-old patient under general anesthesia.After she received the hand-off report from the circulating nurse,she noticed an empty vial of lidocaine 1% with epinephrine 1:100,000 by the computer,where she had signed herself in as the relief nurse.During the hand-off report the scrub person showed her the medication cup on the sterile field.It was labeled "lidocaine 1%." The scrub person had drawn up 10 ml in a syringe to hand to the surgeon for a penile block.Shawna's immediate response should be:
A) no response;the epinephrine will minimize bleeding and prolong the anesthetic action.
B) tell the scrub person to write epinephrine 1:100,000 on the syringe and cup label.
C) alert the team that lidocaine with epinephrine was accidentally placed on the back table.
D) empty the cup and syringe and refill with 1% lidocaine without epinephrine.
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Chapter 15: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypothyroidism results from undersecretion of thyroid hormone.The most common cause of primary hypothyroidism is chronic autoimmune thyroiditis (Hashimoto's disease).Select the set of symptoms that is most commonly associated with hypothyroidism.
A) Dry skin,edema,constipation,and depression
B) Irritability,mood changes,visual disturbances,and diarrhea
C) Heat intolerance,anorexia,hair loss,and menstrual irregularity
D) Bradycardia,hypotension,hypoxia,and poor concentration
Q2) Jennifer Peoples is a 41-year-old woman with suspected primary adenocarcinoma of the thyroid;she is scheduled for total thyroidectomy surgery.The scrub person,Joni,a new perioperative nurse,is determined to participate in employing risk reduction strategies in the scrub role.An example of risk reduction strategies for thyroid surgery,within the domain of the scrub role,would be:
A) paying meticulous attention to sterile technique.
B) providing efficient and expedient hemostatic devices and materials as needed.
C) maintaining sterility of the instruments until the patient leaves the room in the case of need for emergency tracheostomy.
D) All the options reflect appropriate scrub role risk reduction techniques.
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Chapter 16: Breast Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Breast screening guidelines are developed and published by the American Cancer Society (ACS)for asymptomatic women of various age and risk groups.Select the statement that best reflects the ACS guidelines for women at high risk for breast cancer.
A) Biannual mammography with two views of each breast and clinical breast exam
B) An individualized screening plan
C) Biannual clinical breast exam,mammography,and bimonthly breast self-exam
D) Annual mammography,ultrasonography,and MRI with CT
Q2) Many breast cancer patients subscribe to various complementary and integrative therapies to provide relief from anxiety,depression,pain,and chemotherapy and radiation therapy related complications and side effects.Quality of life issues become important in providing comfort and life balance.In addition to their oncology physicians and nurses,patients may also receive therapeutic assistance for their cancer care from which group of providers?
A) Pharmacists
B) Nutritionists and dietitians
C) Wound ostomy care nurses
D) Genetic counselors
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Exenteration
Q2) Evisceration
Q3) Oculocardiac reflex (OCR)is an intraoperative emergency that can occur during eye surgery.It is characterized by bradycardia that can lead to asystole,hypotension,and a wide range of other dysrhythmias attributable to negative inotropic and conduction effects.Select the definition of the response and contributing factor(s).
A) Trigeminal-vagal response caused by pressure on the globe or retrobulbar block
B) Increased intracranial pressure response to traction on extraocular muscles
C) Adrenergic response to effect of retrobulbar block on the pituitary
D) Lidocaine toxicity caused by intravascular uptake of retrobulbar anesthetic
Q4) The refractive apparatus of the eye directs (refracts)the light rays to strike the:
A) retina.
B) optic nerve.
C) vitreous body.
D) lateral geniculate body.
Q5) Enucleation
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Chapter 18: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The palatine and lingual tonsils are situated in the oropharynx,while the adenoids are located in the nasopharynx.Both adenoids and tonsils consist of:
A) lymphoid tissue.
B) glandular tissue.
C) vascular tissue.
D) mucosal tissue.
Q2) Partial laryngectomy is removal of a portion of the larynx.It is done to remove superficial neoplasms that are confined to one vocal cord or to remove a tumor extending into the ventricle or the anterior commissure or a short distance below the cord.The patient should be prepared for an altered voice quality postoperatively as well as for the possibility of total laryngectomy if the tumor proves too extensive for partial resection.The perioperative nurse,in preparing the patient for surgery and post procedure expectations,can describe the postoperative voice as:
A) enhanced voice with assistive tracheoesphageal puncture stoma.
B) no voice,breathes through tracheostoma.
C) normal as the patient's preoperative voice.
D) a hoarse but serviceable voice.
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Chapter 19: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rotator cuff consists of which group of muscles?
A) Deltoid,teres major,and teres minor
B) Supraspinatus,infraspinatus,teres minor,and subscapularis
C) Latissimus dorsi,deltoid,and teres major
D) Supraspinatus,subscapularis,pectoralis major,and deltoid
Q2) The surgeon may treat distal limb fractures with a closed reduction,rather than open or external fixation,manipulating the fragments into position without incising the skin.When possible,this is the treatment of choice because it decreases the opportunity for infection,improves results (including bone union of the fracture),and minimizes the recovery period.Closed reduction with local or light anesthesia may permit ambulatory surgery.Select a situation where closed reduction would be performed in addition to open reduction and fixation surgery to a distal limb.
A) Significant bone comminution
B) Where periosteal damage is evident
C) Before an open procedure to reduce the fracture site
D) When soft tissue entrapment is suspected
Q3) Remodeling
Q4) Invasion of osteoblasts
Q5) Hematoma formation
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Chapter 20: Neurosurgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microsurgical techniques have been applied to cranial,spinal,and peripheral nerve operations.Some procedures in which microsurgery is of value are explorations of the posterior fossa,especially for tumors of the fourth ventricle or cerebellopontine angle,and removal of small acoustic neuromas,with resulting preservation of the facial nerve.Each time the surgeon must look away and then back to the surgical field,open wound time and anesthesia time are increased while the surgeon becomes reoriented to the field.A nursing action,in the scrub person role,directed toward assisting the surgeon in efficiency and expediting the microsurgical procedure would be:
A) have the patient prepped and draped before the time out.
B) place the instruments and accessories within the surgeon's peripheral vision.
C) hand instruments proficiently,in direction of use,without delay.
D) transfer micro-wiped instruments and accessories via the first assistant.
Q2) What is the term for the bloodless plane that contains loose areolar tissue and permits mobility of the scalp?
A) Pericranial plane
B) Galea
C) Subgaleal space
D) Outer skull periosteum
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22
Chapter 21: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to the individualized nursing diagnoses that apply to surgical patients,the patient scheduled for plastic or reconstructive surgery can typically be expected to have the following nursing diagnosis:
A) Risk for Infection related to operative/invasive plastic/reconstructive procedure.
B) Disturbed Body Image related to congenital or acquired defect or developmental abnormality.
C) Risk for Ineffective Tissue Perfusion related to surgical intervention.
D) All of the nursing diagnoses are relevant to most plastic and reconstructive surgery patients.
Q2) Dermatomes are used for removing split-thickness skin grafts (STSGs)from donor sites.The perioperative nurse preparing for a procedure where STSGs will be taken to cover several large burn areas will need to have available:
A) sterile petroleum jelly and sterile impregnated gauze sheets.
B) sterile mineral oil,tongue blades,and a mesher dermatome.
C) sterile mineral oil and carriers.
D) a nitrogen tank,sterile gauze fluffs,and antibiotic ointment.
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Chapter 22: Thoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The indications for single-lung transplantation (SLT)include restrictive lung disease,emphysema,pulmonary hypertension,and other nonseptic end-stage pulmonary diseases,while the indications for double-lung transplantation (DLT)include patients with:
A) bilateral early-stage sarcoma without systemic disease.
B) bilateral chronic infection causing end-stage renal failure.
C) cystic fibrosis in end-stage pulmonary failure.
D) bilateral disease,recent ex-smoker with a suitable living-related donor.
Q2) Inspiration normally takes place when the intrathoracic pressure is slightly below atmospheric pressure and when a partial vacuum exists between the parietal and visceral pleural (intrathoracic)surfaces.As the muscles of inspiration contract to enlarge the chest cage,what action by the lungs occurs to facilitate air intake?
A) The lungs recoil and expand to draw air into them.
B) The lungs are passive and follow the diaphragm and chest wall.
C) The lungs produce a pressure gradient that suctions air.
D) The alveolar sacs expand when triggered by neural triggers in all 10 lung segments.
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Chapter 23: Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Substituting a cryo-preserved cadaveric vein or an in situ or reversed vein graft from the patient for an arterial bypass graft is an option for patients who have healthy,easily accessed saphenous veins.How does an in situ vein graft differ from a reversed vein graft?
A) With the in situ method,the vein segment is resected,reversed,and anastomosed into position.
B) The in situ method leaves the vein in its position and the valves are removed.
C) Arteriovenous fistulas are a common complication with the reversed vein graft method.
D) Valvulotomes are used to remove the valves in both methods.
Q2) When selecting a vascular graft for a vascular bypass or replacement procedure,what are the desirable characteristics that influence the surgeon's choice of graft? Select all that apply.
A) Thrombo-resistant,biocompatible,and easy to handle
B) Fairly priced,variety of sizes,and ability to clot blood
C) Sterilizable,nonantigenic,and last a lifetime
D) Reasonably priced,permit blood passage without clotting,and hypoallergenic
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25
Chapter 24: Cardiac Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Complete heart block and bradydysrhythmias are the most common indications for pacemaker implantation.A permanent pacemaker (pulse generator and electrodes)initiates atrial or ventricular contraction,or both.What therapy might be used for acute forms of heart block and dysrhythmias that occasionally occur during and after cardiac surgery?
A) Transvenous endocardial stimulation
B) A temporary pacemaker
C) Epicardial cardioversion
D) Resynchronization therapy
Q2) Thoracic aortic aneurysmectomy is excision of an aneurysmal portion of the ascending aorta,aortic arch,or descending thoracic aorta and replacement with a prosthetic graft,valve-graft conduit,or intra-aortic prosthesis.Aneurysms may be caused by atherosclerosis,trauma,infection,or cystic medial degeneration.What presenting conditions will indicate that surgical intervention is necessary?
A) Compromised circulation or danger of rupture
B) Circumferential involvement
C) Spindle-shaped morphology
D) Combined saccular and fusiform morphology without dissection
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Chapter 25: Pediatric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sheldon Swanson is a 14-year-old boy scheduled for spinal fusion with implantation of rods from T to L2.During the preoperative interview and assessment,Sheldon asks the perioperative nurse how bad his pain will be when he wakes up,and if he will have enough pain medicine available.Sheldon also wonders how the nurse will know when his pain is severe enough to ask for pain medicine.The perioperative nurse assures Sheldon that he will have many options available to him to manage his pain after the surgery.An appropriate risk reduction strategy that the nurse can implement during the preoperative assessment is to:
A) explain and demonstrate the adolescent pediatric pain tool.
B) explain and demonstrate the Likert-type pain rating scale with scores ranging from 0 (no pain) to 10 (worst pain).
C) ask Sheldon to teach back what he knows about the pain scales.
D) All of the options are correct.
Q2) Young children are predisposed to parasympathetic hypertonia (increased vagal tone),which can be induced by:
A) painful stimuli such as eye surgery or abdominal retraction.
B) anxiety stimuli such as separation from a parent.
C) environmental stimuli such as loud noise or flashes of light.
D) thermal stimuli such as ambient excessive heat or cold.
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Chapter 26: Geriatric Surgery
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Q1) Age-related changes cause decreased blood flow to the kidneys with a resultant decrease in nephron function.What condition is created from the cumulative effect of the multiple drugs that the elderly patient will receive during the perioperative phase?
A) Increased chance for adverse reactions and consequential results
B) Polypharmacy psychosis
C) Weakened bladder muscle tone with urinary incontinence
D) Liver toxicity
Q2) Elderly patients have an increased tendency for slower metabolism,multiple chronic diseases,and a decreased reserve capacity of their organs to respond to stress,when compared to younger patients.When considering the decision for surgery,the risk of surgery should be measured against the risk of not operating,and the expected postoperative quality of life.What important factors should be evaluated in the decision-making? Select all that apply.
A) Personal motivation
B) Patient's financial health and insurance
C) Patient's state of independence
D) Disease course versus life expectancy
E) Patient's support system
F)Surgical risk versus nonoperative management
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Chapter 27: Trauma Surgery
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Q1) When the patient arrives in the ED,the trauma team initiates a primary assessment.This is a logical,orderly process of patient assessment for potential life threats.These assessment activities are based on established protocols for advanced trauma life support (ATLS).The mnemonic "ABCDE" is used,representing assessment of the following:Airway,Breathing,Circulation,Disability,and Exposure.The D and E represent what degree of investigation?
A) D = musculoskeletal impairments;E = environmental issues
B) D = a brief reflex examination;E = extraneous sensory impairments
C) D = history of prior impairments;E = events that contributed to the injury
D) D = a brief neurologic examination;E = exposure to reveal all life-threatening injuries
Q2) Blunt trauma injuries may not fully reveal the degree or depth of injury.What noninvasive diagnostic test is critical to diagnosis in potential traumatic brain injury?
A) Pupil reflex and response to light
B) Skull radiograph
C) CT scan of the head
D) Neurovascular arteriography
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Chapter 28: Interventional Radiology
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Q1) Select the statement that correctly describes the mechanism of action of contrast media.
A) Contrast media are used to enhance visualization of anatomic structures by influencing tissue radiopacity with different concentrations of iodine.
B) A contrast agent works by attenuating (absorbing) the x-ray beam either more than or less than the surrounding tissue.
C) Contrast media radiopacity is related to its iodine concentration.
D) A contrast agent works by the speed of delivery affecting blood flow and hemodilution.
Q2) Small amounts of a thrombolytic drug can be instilled into portacaths and aspirated to ensure patency of the device.An example of a true statement regarding thrombolytics is:
A) thrombolytic drugs break down the fiber matrix of active plasmin.
B) there are no reported complications to thrombolytic drugs.
C) thrombolytic drugs work best on a fresh clot.
D) thrombolytic drugs convert plasminogen to fibrin.
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Chapter 29: Integrated Health Practices:Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Q1) Trina Gasterson,a 7-year-old girl recovering from a successful kidney transplant,is visited by her perioperative nurse on her day of discharge.While they conversed,Trina's mother opened a bottle of herbal supplement tablets from a local nutrition and dietary supplement store,whose label the nurse recognized.The mother proceeded to offer the supplement to Trina,but the nurse intervened and questioned the mother about the supplement.After reading the label,the nurse explained that the tablets could have an adverse interaction with Trina's immunosuppressive drugs that she must take to prevent transplant rejection.What herbal supplement was in the bottle?
A) Astragalus,licorice,and echinacea
B) Feverfew and valerian
C) St.John's wort and gingko
D) Goldenseal and chamomile
Q2) What therapy is guided by the principle that dysfunction of one part of the body often affects secondarily the function of other discrete,possibly indirectly connected body parts?
A) Ayurvedic medicine
B) Mind-body medicine
C) Reiki therapy
D) Manual healing methods
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Chapter 30: Workplace Issues and Staff Safety
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Q1) Perioperative personnel historically have relied on numerous types of precautions to protect themselves and others from bloodborne pathogens and other infectious diseases.Select the statement that best differentiates between Universal and Standard Precautions.
A) Universal Precautions and Standard Precautions are the same;however,Standard Precautions require more hand hygiene and prevention of sharps injuries.
B) Many similarities and differences exist between Universal and Standard Precautions.
C) Standard Precautions apply to blood;all body fluids,secretions,and excretions (except sweat),regardless of whether they contain visible blood;mucous membranes;and nonintact skin.
D) Universal Precautions is the same as Blood and Body Fluid Precautions.
Q2) Select the guideline that complements the design of the culture of safety model.
A) Take advantage of a personal injury event to educate yourself about future prevention strategies.
B) Comply with those policies that fit your current practice.
C) Incorporate safe practices into your daily work when handling sharps.
D) Observe local,state,and federal regulations as they fit your current practice.
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