Nursing Care of Older Adults Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course focuses on the specialized nursing care required for older adults, emphasizing the physiological, psychological, and social changes associated with aging. Students will learn evidence-based practices for assessing and managing common health issues in geriatric populations, including chronic diseases, mobility limitations, cognitive changes, and end-of-life care. The course also addresses the importance of interdisciplinary collaboration, cultural competence, ethical considerations, and effective communication in promoting optimal health and quality of life for older adults within various healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 15th Edition by Bruce D. Clayton
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50 Chapters
879 Verified Questions
879 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Definitions, Names, Standards, and Information
Sources
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult experiencing shortness of breath is brought to the hospital by her daughter. While obtaining the medication history from the patient and her daughter, the nurse discovers that neither has a list of the patient's current medications or prescriptions. All the patient has is a weekly pill dispenser that contains four different pills. The prescriptions are filled through the local pharmacy. Which resources are appropriate to use in determining the medication names and doses? (Select all that apply.)
A) Martindale-The Complete Drug Reference
B) Physicians' Desk Reference, Section 4
C) Senior citizens' center
D) Patient's home pharmacy
Answer: B, D
Q2) Which legislation authorizes the FDA to determine the safety of a drug before its marketing?
A) Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938)
B) Durham-Humphrey Amendment (1952)
C) Controlled Substances Act (1970)
D) Kefauver-Harris Drug Amendment (1962)
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Principles of Drug Action and Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factors affect drug actions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Teratogenicity
B) Age
C) Body weight
D) Metabolic rate
E) Illness
Answer: B, C, D, E
Q2) Which best describes when drug interactions occur?
A) On administration of toxic dosages of a drug
B) On an increase in the pharmacodynamics of bound drugs
C) On the alteration of the effect of one drug by another drug
D) On increase of drug excretion
Answer: C
Q3) What do drug blood levels indicate?
A) Confirm if the patient is taking a generic form of a drug
B) Determine if the patient has sufficient body fat to metabolize the drug
C) Verify if the patient is taking someone else's medications
D) Determine if the amount of drug in the body is in a therapeutic range
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Drug Action Across the Life Span
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which would be considered to reduce accumulation of a drug in a patient who has decreased liver function?
A) Decreasing the time interval between dosages
B) Reducing the dosage
C) Administering the medication intravenously
D) Changing the drug to one that has a longer half-life
Answer: B
Q2) The nurse is administering an antibiotic intravenously. Which blood level determines the lowest amount of medication present in the patient?
A) Peak
B) Serum
C) Therapeutic
D) Trough
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: The Nursing Process and Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which outcome statement identified by the nurse is written correctly?
A) After surgery, patient will express acceptance of loss of breast.
B) Patient will die with dignity.
C) At the end of the shift the nurse will determine whether the patient is more comfortable.
D) Within the next 8 hours, urine output will be greater than 30 mL/hr.
Q2) Which is an example of an interdependent nursing action?
A) Assess lung sounds every 4 hours.
B) Educate the patient about the prescribed medication.
C) Administer Demerol 50 mg IM every 4 hours PRN.
D) Encourage the patient to express feelings.
Q3) Which statement best describes the planning phase of the nursing process?
A) Administer insulin subcutaneously in the abdominal area.
B) High risk for falls related to hypotension
C) The patient will state the expected adverse effects of medication by end of teaching session.
D) Itching has resolved; medication given is effective.
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Chapter 5: Patient Education and Health Promotion
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Q1) Which actions by the nurse can foster patient responsibility for adhering to the therapeutic regimen? (Select all that apply.)
A) Assessing the patient's readiness to learn
B) Determining the patient's level of understanding of content
C) Determining the patient's education level and learning style
D) Maintaining an aloof attitude toward presented content
E) Documenting expected outcomes independently
Q2) The nurse is educating a 13-year-old boy newly diagnosed with diabetes and his parents about diet and glucose monitoring. Which domain of learning is represented when the patient expresses concern about feeling different from his peers?
A) Cognitive
B) Psychomotor
C) Affective
D) Learning style
Q3) Which is the most intangible portion of the learning process?
A) Cognitive
B) Affective
C) Psychomotor
D) Eminent
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Page 7
Chapter 6: A Review of Arithmetic
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Sample Questions
Q1) xxiv = _____
Q2) mm = _____
Q3) 1 mg = _____ mcg
Q4) 1984 = _____
Q5) 19.83 - 4.51 = _____
Q6) 0.305 = _____
Q7) 3.7 - 1.9 = _____
Q8) 7/30 + 9/30 + 1/30 = _____
Q9) The physician has ordered 3500 units of heparin subcutaneously q12h
Available: Heparin 5000 units/mL
What volume of heparin will you administer? _____
Q10) 2/5 = _____
Q11) Health care provider's order: 0.75 g amoxicillin PO
Available: Amoxicillin 250 mg tablets
How many tablets will you give? _____
Q12) 10 7/9 - 6 1/6 = _____
Q13) 5/7 = _____, _____, _____
8
Q14) Convert 1 tablespoon to milliliters (mL): _____
Q15) 96 = _____
Q16) Convert 0.2 mg to mcg: _____
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Chapter 7: Principles of Medication Administration and Medication Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true regarding the unit dose drug distribution system?
A) The inventory is delivered to each nursing unit on a regular and recurring basis.
B) The system delivers one dose of each medication to be administered until the subsequent delivery of inventory.
C) The use of single-dose packages of drugs dispensed to fill each dose requirement as it is ordered.
D) The amount of inventory needed to dose all patients on the unit for a 24-hour interval.
Q2) Where would the procedures and treatments directed by the health care provider be found?
A) Summary sheet
B) Physician's order form
C) Physician's progress notes
D) History and physical examination form
Q3) Which is known as the "fifth vital sign"?
A) Temperature
B) Respirations
C) Pain
D) Pulse
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Chapter 8: Percutaneous Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has an infected wound with large amounts of drainage. Which type of dressing would the nurse use?
A) Telfa
B) OpSite
C) DuoDerm
D) AlgiDERM
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient about nitroglycerin ointment. Which is an advantage of this form of the medication?
A) It does not give the patient a bad taste in the mouth.
B) The amount of ointment does not matter in obtaining a therapeutic response.
C) It does not cause headaches as an adverse effect.
D) It provides relief of anginal pain for several hours longer than sublingual medication.
Q3) The nurse is instructing a patient to use a corticosteroid inhaler. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "I will shake the inhaler before I use it."
B) "I need to rinse my mouth after I use the inhaler."
C) "I will use this when I'm lying in bed in the morning."
D) "After I inhale, I will hold my breath and then breathe out slowly."
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11
Chapter 9: Enteral Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) After entering the patient's room to administer oral medications, which action will the nurse take first?
A) Assist the patient to sit upright.
B) Check the patient's identification.
C) Inform the patient about the medications.
D) Offer the patient something to drink.
Q2) Nasogastric medication administration includes which principles? (Select all that apply.)
A) The tube must be assessed for correct placement.
B) All medications can be combined into one syringe.
C) Tablets and capsules should be dissolved in water.
D) The suction source should be immediately reconnected.
E) Flush the tube with 30 mL of water after drug administration.
Q3) Which medications are provided in dried, powdered form compressed into small disks?
A) Pills
B) Capsules
C) Tablets
D) Lozenges
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Page 12
Chapter 10: Parenteral Administration: Safe Preparation
Parenteral Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of parenteral medication container is made of glass, is scored, and needs to be broken open before withdrawing the medication?
A) Ampule
B) Carpuject
C) Mix-O-Vial
D) Vial
Q2) Which needle will the nurse use to administer an intramuscular immunization on an 18-month-old child?
A) 18-gauge, 1-inch needle
B) 20-gauge, 1/2-inch needle
C) 27-gauge, 1 1/2-inch needle
D) 25-gauge, 1/2-inch needle
Q3) Which action by the nurse is most accurate when drawing up medication from an ampule?
A) Consider the rim of the ampule as sterile.
B) Use a filter needle to withdraw the medication.
C) Wrap a paper towel around the neck of the ampule before breaking it.
D) Inject 0.5 mL of air into the ampule before withdrawing the medication.
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Chapter 11: Parenteral Administration: Intradermal,
Subcutaneous, and Intramuscular Routes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the preferred intramuscular site for injecting a 6-month-old child?
A) Dorsogluteal
B) Abdominal
C) Vastus lateralis
D) Deltoid muscle
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer kindergarten immunizations at the local health clinic. Which anatomic site would be best for the injection of the immunizations containing 0.5 mL?
A) Rectus femoris
B) Dorsogluteal
C) Deltoid
D) Ventrogluteal
Q3) Which parenteral route has the longest absorption time?
A) Intradermal
B) Subcutaneous
C) Intramuscular
D) Intravenous
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Page 14
Chapter 12: Parenteral Administration: Intravenous Route
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Sample Questions
Q1) A diabetic patient requires the administration of insulin continuously at home. Which system would most likely be used in this instance?
A) Central line catheter
B) Microdrip set
C) Piggyback system
D) Syringe pump
Q2) What is the composition of hypotonic intravenous solutions such as 0.45% NaCl?
A) Fewer dissolved particles than blood
B) Approximately the same number of dissolved particles as blood
C) Higher concentrations of dissolved particles than blood
D) Electrolytes and dextrose
Q3) The nurse notes that a patient with cardiac disease has intravenous (IV) heparin infusing and that it is behind by 2 hours. What is the best nursing action?
A) Increase the IV rate and recheck in 1 hour.
B) Change the infusion rate to TKO.
C) Discontinue the solution using aseptic technique.
D) Contact the health care provider for consultation.
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Chapter 13: Drugs Affecting the Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with Parkinson's disease asks the nurse why anticholinergics are used in the treatment. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A) "These drugs help you urinate."
B) "These drugs will decrease your eye pressure."
C) "These drugs inhibit the action of acetylcholine."
D) "These drugs will assist in lowering your heart rate."
Q2) Why are beta blockers used cautiously in patients with respiratory conditions?
A) They mask the signs and symptoms of acute hypoglycemia.
B) They cause extensive vasodilation and cardiac overload.
C) They may produce severe bronchoconstriction.
D) They increase hypertensive episodes.
Q3) What is the primary response to alpha-1 receptor stimulation?
A) Bronchodilation
B) Tachycardia
C) Vasoconstriction
D) Uterine relaxation
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Chapter 14: Sedative-Hypnotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What can occur as a result of rapid withdrawal from long-term use of barbiturate therapy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Anxiety
B) Delirium
C) Weakness
D) Grand mal seizures
E) Severe pain
Q2) Which two phases make up normal sleep?
A) Hypnogogic and hypnopompic
B) REM and non-REM
C) Alpha and beta
D) Delta and theta
Q3) Why are benzodiazepines often preferred over barbiturates? (Select all that apply.)
A) They have selective action at specific receptor sites.
B) There is a wide range of safety between therapeutic and lethal levels.
C) REM sleep is decreased to a lesser extent.
D) Accidental overdoses are well tolerated.
E) There are no hypotensive episodes when rising to a sitting position.
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Chapter 15: Drugs Used for Parkinsons Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which vitamin will reduce the therapeutic effects of levodopa?
A) A
B) B<sub>6</sub>
C) C
D) D
Q2) The nurse is providing education to a patient recently placed on selegiline disintegrating tablets. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "This medication will help slow the development of symptoms."
B) "I will place the tablet on my tongue before breakfast."
C) "I may need to use a stool softer for constipation."
D) "I should not push the tablet through the foil."
Q3) Which are characteristic symptoms of Parkinson's disease? (Select all that apply.)
A) Muscle tremors
B) Posture alterations
C) Muscle flaccidity
D) Tachycardia
E) Slow body movement
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18
Chapter 16: Drugs Used for Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The outcome statement for a patient suffering from anxiety disorder reads, "After 1 week on alprazolam (Xanax) therapy, patient will exhibit a manageable level of anxiety." Which assessment finding validates that this outcome is met?
A) Patient is unable to participate in group therapy conversations.
B) Patient reports persistent fear about dying of a rare illness.
C) Patient verifies family reunions trigger anxiety and excessive drinking.
D) Patient reports sleeping better and increased interest in activities.
Q2) Which is the drug of choice to treat a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
A) Lorazepam (Ativan)
B) Buspirone (BuSpar)
C) Fluvoxamine (Luvox)
D) Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
Q3) Which is a benzodiazepine of choice when treating anxiety associated with alcohol withdrawal?
A) Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
B) Oxazepam (Serax)
C) Diazepam (Valium)
D) Clorazepate (Tranxene)
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Page 19
Chapter 17: Drugs Used for Mood Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which areas are addressed by the nurse when obtaining a history of a patient admitted with depression? (Select all that apply.)
A) Current medications and medical history
B) Recent stressors and support system
C) Family history of mood disorder
D) Dietary patterns
E) Insurance coverage
Q2) Which occurs with mania associated with bipolar disorder?
A) Varying degrees of sadness
B) Distinct episodes of elation
C) Suicide
D) Psychomotor retardation
Q3) Lithium (Eskalith) is the drug of choice for which of the following disorders?
A) Psychotic episodes
B) Obsessive-compulsive disorders (OCDs)
C) Bipolar disorders
D) Depressive disorders
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Chapter 18: Drugs Used for Psychoses
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Q1) Which are extrapyramidal adverse effects of antipsychotic agents? (Select all that apply.)
A) Spasmodic movements of muscle groups.
B) Masklike expression
C) Lip smacking
D) Inability to sit in one place for extended period
E) Weight gain
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient who is taking clozapine (Clozaril) to have weekly blood tests for the first 6 months of treatment to monitor for which potential complication?
A) Agranulocytosis
B) Vitamin deficiencies
C) Clotting abnormalities
D) Polycythemia
Q3) To what does potency of an antipsychotic medication refer?
A) Severity of adverse effects associated with the drug
B) Length of time that it takes to reach a therapeutic blood level of the drug
C) Milligram doses used for the medication
D) Effectiveness of the drug in alleviating psychotic behavior
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Page 21
Chapter 19: Drugs Used for Seizure Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin) for management of a seizure disorder. Which patient statement indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I need to avoid or limit caffeine intake."
B) "I will check with the pharmacist before taking over-the-counter medication."
C) "If I develop enlarged gums, I will stop taking the medication."
D) "It is important for me to take my medicine at the same time daily."
Q2) For which condition may carbamazepine (Tegretol) be used?
A) Tardive dyskinesia
B) Psychotic episodes
C) Trigeminal neuralgia pain
D) Sedation
Q3) Which dose is within the acceptable range for administering IV phenytoin (Dilantin) to a patient with a seizure disorder?
A) 5 mg/min
B) 30 mg/min
C) 60 mg/min
D) 100 mg/min
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22
Chapter 20: Drugs Used for Pain Management
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Q1) Which patient assessment would indicate to the nurse that salicylate toxicity is occurring?
A) Gastrointestinal bleeding
B) Increased bleeding times
C) Tinnitus
D) Occasional nausea
Q2) Which are common adverse effects associated with opiate agonists? (Select all that apply.)
A) Dizziness
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Respiratory depression
D) Confusion
E) Diarrhea
F) Urinary urgency
Q3) What is the best way for the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of the patient's opiate agonist?
A) Ability of the patient to tolerate more activity
B) Increased sleep time throughout the night
C) Reduction of respiratory rate from 24 to 18 breaths/min
D) Verbal report of 2 on a 1 to 10 scale
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Chapter 21: Introduction to Cardiovascular Disease and Metabolic Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cardiovascular conditions are related to coronary artery diseases? (Select all that apply.)
A) Angina pectoris
B) Pulmonary stenosis
C) Acute myocardial infarction
D) Pericarditis
E) Venous stasis ulcers
Q2) Drug therapy for initial treatment of metabolic syndrome is targeted at controlling which conditions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Obstructive sleep apnea
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Hypertension
D) Obesity
E) Dyslipidemia
F) Insulin resistance
Q3) What is the incidence of metabolic syndrome in the United States?
A) 1 in 4000
B) 1 in 400
C) 1 in 40
D) 1 in 4
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Chapter 22: Drugs Used to Treat Dyslipidemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antilipemic agent is most potent?
A) Niacin
B) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
C) Bile acid-binding resin
D) Fibric acid
Q2) The nurse is providing education to a patient who has recently been prescribed niacin. Which information given by the nurse is accurate?
A) "Weigh yourself weekly due to risk of fluid retention."
B) "Nausea can be decreased if you take this medication with food."
C) "Because your blood pressure may increase while taking this drug, have it checked monthly."
D) "You should not take aspirin while on this medication."
Q3) The nurse has completed an admitting patient history and notes the patient's current medications to be simvastatin (Zocor) and warfarin (Coumadin). What is the result of the interaction of these drugs?
A) Abdominal distention
B) Increased INR
C) Low serum level of simvastatin
D) Hypertension
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Page 25
Chapter 23: Drugs Used to Treat Hypertension
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Q1) What is mean arterial pressure (MAP)?
A) The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures
B) An indicator of the tone of the arterial blood vessel walls
C) The average pressure throughout each cycle of the heartbeat
D) The product of the cardiac output and the peripheral vascular resistance
Q2) Which medication is often administered with hydralazine to reduce reflex physiological responses to the drug?
A) Beta blockers
B) Renin inhibitor
C) ACE inhibitor
D) Angiotensin II receptor blocker
Q3) Which agents are preferred for the initial treatment of hypertension?
A) ACE inhibitors and angiotensin receptor antagonists
B) Calcium-ion agonists and central-acting alpha agonists
C) Thiazide diuretics and beta adrenergic blockers
D) Direct vasodilators and peripherally acting adrenergic antagonists
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Chapter 24: Drugs Used to Treat Dysrhythmias
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Q1) What is the action of amiodarone (Cordarone), a class III agent used to treat cardiac dysrhythmias?
A) It acts as a myocardial depressant by inhibiting sodium ion movement.
B) It prolongs the duration of the electrical stimulation on cells and the refractory time between electrical impulses.
C) It acts as a beta-adrenergic agent.
D) It slows the rate of electrical conduction and prolongs the time between contractions.
Q2) Which lidocaine preparation is appropriate for the treatment of cardiac dysrhythmias?
A) 0.1% lidocaine with preservative
B) 2% lidocaine for topical use
C) Lidocaine patch
D) Injectable lidocaine without preservative
Q3) Amiodarone is contraindicated for patients with which condition?
A) Pulmonary edema
B) Severe sinus node dysfunction causing bradycardia
C) Atrial fibrillation
D) Premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)
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Chapter 25: Drugs Used to Treat Angina Pectoris
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Q1) What will the nurse advise the patient to do to avoid the development of tolerance to nitroglycerin?
A) Use the sublingual form only.
B) Administer subsequent doses parenterally.
C) Allow for a daily 8- to 12-hour nitrate-free period.
D) Store the drug in a dark container, free from light and moisture.
Q2) How frequently are nitroglycerin tablets discarded and prescriptions refilled?
A) Monthly
B) Every 3 months
C) Every 6 months
D) Yearly
Q3) Which response will the nurse provide when a patient complains of a headache when using sublingual nitroglycerin?
A) "This is a common adverse effect that can be managed with acetaminophen."
B) "Discontinue taking this medication."
C) "Try taking this medication at night to minimize the possibility of headaches."
D) "Lie down after using nitroglycerin to avoid a headache."
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28
Chapter 26: Drugs Used to Treat Peripheral Vascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient on papaverine therapy and notes tachycardia, which is a compensatory effect of which condition?
A) Hypoventilation
B) Hypotension
C) Excessive sympathetic stimulation
D) Adrenergic suppression
Q2) When assessing a client recently prescribed pentoxifylline (Trental), which medication will alert the nurse to monitor closely for adverse effects?
A) Antilipemic
B) Antihypertensive
C) Antibiotic
D) Antipsychotic
Q3) The nurse has completed teaching to a patient recently prescribed cilostazol (Pletal). Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will sit down if I feel lightheaded or faint."
B) "Because this medication helps my circulation, I will try to quit smoking."
C) "Grapefruit juice will increase the effects of this medication."
D) "Diarrhea may occur but likely will stop with continued therapy."
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Chapter 27: Drugs Used to Treat Thromboembolic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are accurate nursing interventions when administering heparin subcutaneously? (Select all that apply.)
A) Assessment of recent aPTT levels
B) Massaging the site after injection of medication
C) Aspirating after needle insertion
D) Documentation of ecchymotic areas
E) Monitoring of vital signs
Q2) Anticoagulant therapy may be used for which situations? (Select all that apply.)
A) To prevent stroke in patients at high risk
B) Following a myocardial infarction
C) Following total hip or knee joint replacement surgery
D) With deep vein thrombosis
Q3) The pharmacologic agents used to treat deep vein thrombosis (DVT) may act in which of the following ways? (Select all that apply.)
A) Prevent platelet aggregation
B) Prevent the extension of existing clots
C) Inhibit steps in the fibrin clot formation cascade
D) Prolong bleeding time
E) Lower serum triglycerides
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Page 30
Chapter 28: Drugs Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Q1) The nurse is to administer digoxin to an 18-month-old patient who weighs 16.5 lb. Guidelines for administration read as follows: 0.0075 mg to 0.010 mg/kg/day. Which is a safe medication dosage?
A) 0.05 mg
B) 0.12 mg
C)0.074 mg
D) 0.75 mg
Q2) Before administering digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse takes the adult patient's apical pulse for 1 full minute. What additional nursing considerations will be taken before administration of the medication? (Select all that apply.)
A) Review of the digoxin blood level
B) Administration of the medication with pulse less than 60 beats/min
C) Review of serum electrolytes, liver, and kidney function studies
D) Administration of the medication with a pulse of 110 beats/min
E) Obtaining baseline patient assessment data, including lung sounds, vital signs, and weight
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Chapter 29: Drugs Used for Diuresis
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18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72612
Sample Questions
Q1) What would the nurse anticipate if a patient with a history of type 2 diabetes is prescribed a thiazide diuretic?
A) No change in the antidiabetic regimen
B) Decreased need for antidiabetic medication
C) Increased blood sugar levels
D) Less frequent monitoring of blood sugar level
Q2) Which nursing interventions are performed for a patient who is on diuretic therapy?
(Select all that apply.)
A) Auscultation of lung sounds
B) Assessment of skin turgor
C) Initiation of electrolyte supplements
D) Positioning techniques
E) Monitoring of intake and output
Q3) How soon will diuresis be expected to occur after the nurse has administered 20 mg of furosemide (Lasix) intravenously to a patient with heart failure?
A) As soon as injected
B) Within 10 minutes
C) After 2 hours
D) After 4 hours
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32
Chapter 30: Drugs Used to Treat Upper Respiratory Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which topically active aerosol steroids are highly effective for reducing sneezing, nasal itching, stuffiness, and rhinorrhea? (Select all that apply.)
A) Beclomethasone (Beconase AQ)
B) Prednisone (Deltasone)
C) Fluticasone (Flonase)
D) Flunisolide (Nasarel)
E) Budesonide (Rhinocort Aqua)
Q2) What can result if a patient overuses topical decongestants?
A) Hypertensive crisis
B) Allergic reaction
C) Secondary congestion
D) Permanent olfactory damage
Q3) Which of the following are true of antihistamines? (Select all that apply.)
A) Reduce inflammation locally
B) Antagonize H1 receptors
C) May be administered orally
D) Are systemically distributed
E) Reduce nasal congestion
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Chapter 31: Drugs Used to Treat Lower Respiratory Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true about arterial blood gases (ABGs)? (Select all that apply.)
A) They are measured from an arterial sample.
B) They measure partial pressures of carbon dioxide.
C) They measure blood pH.
D) They measure partial pressures of sodium
E) They measure partial pressures of oxygen.
Q2) What is the reason for administering potassium iodide to a patient with emphysema?
A) To increase blood iodide levels
B) To decrease mucus viscosity
C) To reduce metabolic needs of the body
D) To decrease bronchial irritation
Q3) Which is a common expectorant in over-the-counter medications?
A) Dextromethorphan
B) Diphenhydramine
C) Guaifenesin
D) Codeine
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34
Chapter 32: Drugs Used to Treat Oral Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with COPD uses a corticosteroid inhaler bid. Which adverse effect is associated with this medication?
A) Mucositis
B) Plaque
C) Xerostomia
D) Candidiasis
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient's mouth and notes white, milk curd-appearing plaques attached to the oral mucosa. Which condition is present?
A) Thrush
B) Canker sores
C) Cold sores
D) Mucositis
Q3) What is the primary pharmacologic therapy for Candida albicans?
A) Steroids
B) Antifungal agents
C) Topical anesthetics
D) Topical anti-inflammatory agents
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35
Chapter 33: Drugs Used to Treat Gastroesophageal Reflux and Peptic Ulcer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication is used in the treatment of gastric reflux esophagitis and diabetic gastroparesis?
A) Metoclopramide
B) Misoprostol
C) Pantoprazole
D) Ranitidine
Q2) Which organism or disorder is responsible for many cases of peptic ulcer disease?
A) H. pylori
B) Candida albicans
C) Escherichia coli
D) Herpes zoster
Q3) Which factors prevent breakdown of the body's normal defense barriers that protect against ulcer formation? (Select all that apply.)
A) Stomach pH
B) Prostaglandins
C) Intrinsic factor
D) Mucous cells
E) Hydrochloric acid
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Chapter 34: Drugs Used to Treat Nausea and Vomiting
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose for the nurse administering metoclopramide (Reglan) IV postoperatively?
A) Prolong the effects of anesthesia.
B) Decrease the potential for thrombus formation.
C) Prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting.
D) Decrease postoperative pain.
Q2) The nurse would expect to administer which drug when treating hyperemesis gravidarum?
A) THC (Marinol)
B) Haloperidol (Haldol)
C) Dexamethasone (Prednisone)
D) Metoclopramide (Reglan)
Q3) The nurse is caring for a 27-year-old patient taking a cannabinoid during chemotherapy. Which consideration will the nurse take into account?
A) Antihistamines may potentiate the effects.
B) Monitor the patient for fluid volume excess.
C) Previous use of marijuana requires increased dosage.
D) Inform the patient to avoid the intake of potassium.
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Chapter 35: Drugs Used to Treat Constipation and Diarrhea
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has had a myocardial infarction is advised to avoid straining with defecation. Which medication would be prescribed to this patient?
A) Stool softeners
B) Bulk-forming laxatives
C) Stimulants
D) Emollients
Q2) A friend reports using loperamide (Imodium) for continual diarrhea for a week since returning home from a vacation outside the country. Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "There are some other over-the-counter products available for diarrhea, such as Kaopectate (bismuth subsalicylate)."
B) "I'd stop taking the Imodium and go in to see a health care provider immediately. You may have an infection in your intestinal tract."
C) "If you're not running a temperature, I wouldn't worry. That happens to many people when they travel."
D) "As long as you can drink plenty of fluids, I'm sure the diarrhea will go away once you're back in a normal routine."
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Chapter 36: Drugs Used to Treat Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is the best time for the nurse to administer Lispro?
A) After the patient has started eating
B) Within 10 to 15 minutes of eating
C) 30 minutes before a meal
D) 45 to 60 minutes before a meal
Q2) Which instruction is most important for the nurse to teach a patient with diabetes who is receiving metformin?
A) Take the medication before meals.
B) This medication will cause the pancreas to secrete more insulin.
C) Stop taking the drug 24 to 48 hours prior to radiopaque dye procedures.
D) There may be an increase in the triglyceride level.
Q3) What laboratory test is the preferred screening test for diabetes in children and nonpregnant adults?
A) FPG
B) ECG
C) GTT
D) A<sub>1c</sub>
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Chapter 37: Drugs Used to Treat Thyroid Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient recently completed radiation treatment for throat cancer and presents to the health care provider's office with symptoms indicating possible hypothyroidism. Which symptoms would most likely be exhibited and/or reported? (Select all that apply.)
A) Inability to sleep
B) Weight gain
C) Lethargy
D) Nervousness
E) Cold intolerance
Q2) What is the mechanism of action of propylthiouracil?
A) Blocks reuptake of thyroid hormone in the liver
B) Destroys hormone in the thyroid gland
C) Increases synthesis of hormone in the thyroid gland
D) Blocks synthesis of hormone in the thyroid gland
Q3) Which medication is used to treat hyperthyroidism?
A) Levothyroxine (Synthroid)
B) Liotrix (Thyrolar)
C) Propylthiouracil (Propacil)
D) Liothyronine (Cytomel)
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Chapter 38: Corticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a function of glucocorticoids? (Select all that apply.)
A) Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance
B) Have anti-inflammatory activities
C) Regulate protein, carbohydrate, and fat metabolism
D) Provide relief of rheumatoid arthritis
E) Include aldosterone
Q2) A patient on a high dosage of corticosteroids over a period of time may develop which type of psychiatric complication?
A) Lethargy
B) Psychotic behaviors
C) Manic phases
D) Anxiety attacks
Q3) Which are appropriate measures for monitoring hydration and fluid balance in the patient on steroid therapy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Daily weights
B) Abdominal girth measurements
C) Reports of thirst
D) Neurologic assessment
E) Assessment for alteration in skin integrity
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Chapter 39: Gonadal Hormones
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition is of special concern when evaluating a patient for treatment with gonadal hormones? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sexually transmitted disease
B) Hypertension
C) Liver disease
D) Cancer of the reproductive organs
E) Smoking
Q2) The nurse is completing discharge teaching to a new mother who will begin oral contraceptives. Which common adverse effects are expected? (Select all that apply.)
A) Elevated blood pressure
B) Breast tenderness
C) Weight gain
D) Edema
E) Increased thirst
Q3) Which statement is true regarding androgen therapy?
A) Androgen use may cause hyperglycemia.
B) Administer with food or milk to avoid gastric irritation.
C) Signs of masculinization will appear and are reversible.
D) Electrolyte imbalances are extremely rare.
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Page 42
Chapter 40: Drugs Used in Obstetrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessments will the nurse complete during routine pregnancy visits? (Select all that apply.)
A) Blood pressure
B) Hemoglobin
C) Weight
D) Fetal heart sounds
E) Glucose tolerance test (GTT)
Q2) A patient is a gravida 1, 28 weeks' gestation, Rh-negative woman. The father of her child is Rh-positive. The mother is asking the nurse about the effect on her unborn child of RhoGAM that has been ordered. What is the nurse's best reply?
A) "Your child will do well after birth once transfusions are administered."
B) "If the baby is Rh-negative at birth, he or she will need RhoGAM also."
C) "RhoGAM kills antibodies you make, so your child will be protected."
D) "Your baby may be Rh-positive and cause you to make antibodies. These won't affect this baby, but could affect future children if RhoGAM isn't given."
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43
Chapter 41: Drugs Used in Mens and Womens Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient beginning therapy with dutasteride (Avodart). How long will it take before the patient can expect results?
A) 24 hours
B) 2 weeks
C) 1 month
D) 6 months
Q2) Why must caution be used when taking a phosphodiesterase inhibitor to enhance male sexual function?
A) It can become habit-forming.
B) Life-threatening consequences can occur with cardiovascular disorders.
C) It is an ineffective treatment.
D) It is expensive and available only by special prescription.
Q3) A patient diagnosed with benign prostatic hypertrophy asks why tamsulosin (Flomax), an alpha-1 adrenergic blocking agent, has been prescribed. Which explanation by the nurse is most accurate?
A) It inhibits the action of testosterone.
B) It improves sexual function.
C) It reduces the size of the prostate.
D) It increases urinary flow.
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Chapter 42: Drugs Used to Treat Disorders of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the urinalysis results of an older adult patient admitted with elevated temperature and incontinence. Which urinalysis properties are indicative of an infection? (Select all that apply.)
A) Straw color
B) Foul odor
C) Trace glucose
D) pH of 8.2
E) Specific gravity of 1.014
Q2) A 42-year-old woman is admitted with complaints of dysuria, frequency, and lower back pain. The urinalysis report is positive for red blood cells, and the blood work shows an elevated white blood cell count. Which medication will the nurse anticipate that the health care provider will order?
A) Meperidine (Demerol)
B) Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine)
C) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
D) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
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Chapter 43: Drugs Used to Treat Glaucoma and Other Eye Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient recently diagnosed with glaucoma is to begin drug therapy with carbonic anhydrase inhibitors. About which assessment would the nurse need to contact the health care provider? (Select all that apply.)
A) Electrolyte levels
B) Any signs of gastric symptoms before initiating drug therapy
C) Allergy to sulfonamides
D) Patient history of menopause
E) Elevated intraocular pressure levels
Q2) The nurse is preparing a patient for an ophthalmic examination. Which action occurs when the nurse instills eye drops to produce mydriasis?
A) Drying of tears in the eyes
B) Extreme dilation of the pupil
C) Opening of the canal of Schlemm
D) Paralysis of the ciliary muscle
Q3) Which medication is used to produce miosis following a diagnostic procedure?
A)Pilocarpine (Pilocar)
B)Mannitol (Osmitrol)
C)Atropine (Isopto-Atropine)
D)Epinephrine (EpiPen)
Page 46
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Chapter 44: Drugs Used for Cancer Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the intended outcome of the chemoprotective drug amifostine (Ethyol)?
A) Decreased nausea and vomiting
B) Increased effectiveness of the chemotherapy
C) Maintenance of body weight
D) Decreased renal toxicity
Q2) What is the advantage of combination therapy using cell cycle-specific and cell cycle-nonspecific agents?
A) Decreased expense and time needed for administration
B) Decreased toxicity to patients and the nurses who administer the drug
C) Increased cell death in various cycles and decreased toxicity
D) Increased rate of treatment success
Q3) Which nursing considerations are taken into account prior to the administration of cisplatin IV? (Select all that apply.)
A) Review of laboratory data for presence of myelosuppression and hepatic and renal parameters
B) Administration of IV hydration as prescribed
C) Administration of epoetin alpha (Epogen)
D) Administration of prechemotherapy mesna (Mesnex)
E) Assessment for dermatologic conditions
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Page 47
Chapter 45: Drugs Used to Treat the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has undergone a lengthy surgical procedure under general anesthesia is unable to breathe on his own following the procedure. Which drug will the nurse expect to be administered as an antidote to the neuromuscular blocking agent?
A) Dantrolene (Dantrium)
B) Neostigmine methylsulfate (Prostigmin)
C) Ether
D) Baclofen (Lioresal)
Q2) Patients with which conditions must be carefully assessed to determine whether they would tolerate treatment with a neuromuscular blocking agent? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pregnancy
B) Hepatic disease
C) Pulmonary disease
D) Renal disease
E) Neurologic disorders
F) Psychiatric disorders
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Chapter 46: Antimicrobial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been receiving home health care and IV antimicrobial therapy for osteomyelitis (infection of the bone) of the lower right leg for the past 4 weeks. What will the nurse assess to evaluate the effectiveness of the antimicrobial agent? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pain of the right leg
B) Patient temperature
C) Presence of edema, redness, or swelling in the right lower leg
D) Culture and sensitivity parameters at the drug completion
E) CBC and sedimentation rate laboratory values
Q2) The health care provider has prescribed penicillin and probenecid for a patient with a sexually transmitted disease. What is the purpose of combining these medications?
A) To accelerate the excretion of the penicillin
B) To inhibit the absorption of penicillin to allow the drug to remain in the transport phase
C) To inhibit the excretion of the penicillin
D) To reduce toxic effects associated with penicillin
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Chapter 47: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best way for the nurse to administer liquid iron?
A) With an antacid
B) Mixed with coffee
C) Sipped through a straw
D) Swished and then swallowed
Q2) How are essential fatty acids used in the body? (Select all that apply.)
A) Building cell membranes
B) Energy production
C) Prostaglandin production
D) Catalyzing metabolic reactions
E) Eicosanoid production
F) Stimulation of growth hormone
Q3) Which can be directly absorbed from the GI tract into the bloodstream? (Select all that apply.)
A) Glucose
B) Sucrose
C) Fructose
D) Galactose
E) Lactose
F) Maltose
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Chapter 48: Herbal and Dietary Supplement Therapy
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72631
Sample Questions
Q1) Which dietary supplement should be used with extreme caution if the patient is on a platelet inhibitor?
A) Aloe
B) Ephedra
C) Green tea
D) Garlic
Q2) A high school male athlete reports that he is taking creatine supplements to enhance his athletic performance and bulk up his muscles. Which are important teaching points and recommendations for this supplement? (Select all that apply.)
A) Adverse effects may include muscle cramping, dehydration, GI bloating, and diarrhea.
B) Inform the health care provider of usage, should future nephrotoxic medicines be prescribed.
C) It is important to limit fluid.
D) Creatine causes a weight gain of 3 to 6 pounds because of water retention.
E) Recommended dosage is 5 to 6 g four times daily for 5 to 7 days, followed by doses of 2 g/day.
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Chapter 49: Substance Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) What must be administered before glucose infusions for a patient in alcohol withdrawal to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy?
A) Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
B) Thiamine
C) Diazepam (Valium)
D) Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
Q2) A patient admitted 48 hours ago has a diagnosis of GI bleeding and is receiving IV hydration and transfusions. When making rounds, the nurse observes the patient to be having a tonic-clonic seizure. What may be the cause of the seizure?
A) Low blood counts secondary to bleeding
B) Alcohol withdrawal
C) Alkalosis
D) Inadequate nutrition
Q3) What will the nurse instruct patients who are on daily disulfiram (Antabuse) to avoid?
A) All forms of cough syrup
B) Alcohol
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Aspirin products
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Chapter 50: Miscellaneous Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing action is accurate when administering colchicine?
A) Administer the medication subcutaneously.
B) Maintain fluid intake of at least eight 8-ounce glasses daily.
C) Increase fiber in the diet to prevent constipation.
D) Inform the patient that pain will be alleviated in 2 weeks.
Q2) The nurse is providing information to a patient with chronic gout arthritis who is prescribed probenecid. Which information by the nurse is accurate regarding the action of this drug?
A) It prevents uric acid crystal formation.
B) It promotes uric acid excretion.
C) It provides analgesia.
D) It treats acute gout attacks.
Q3) What is the rationale for administering acamprosate (Campral)?
A) Withdrawal from alcohol addiction
B) Maintenance of sobriety
C) Improvement of renal function
D) Correction of electrolyte imbalances
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