Nursing Care of Older Adults Mock Exam - 1439 Verified Questions

Nursing Care of Older Adults

Mock Exam

Course Introduction

This course provides an in-depth exploration of nursing care specific to older adults, emphasizing the physiological, psychological, and social aspects of aging. Students will learn to assess common health issues in this population, explore evidence-based interventions for chronic and acute conditions, and promote healthy aging and quality of life. Topics include age-related changes, geriatric syndromes, pharmacology in older adults, care transitions, ethical and cultural considerations, and collaborating with families and interdisciplinary teams. The course also highlights the nurse's role in advocating for the needs and rights of older adults in various healthcare settings.

Recommended Textbook

Lehnes Pharmacology for Nursing Care 10th Edition by Jacqueline Burchum

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110 Chapters

1439 Verified Questions

1439 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology

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5 Verified Questions

5 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the properties of an ideal drug?

A) Irreversible action

B) Predictability

C) Ease of administration

D) Chemical stability

E) A recognizable trade name

Answer: B, C, D

Q2) A patient tells the nurse that an analgesic he will begin taking may cause drowsiness and will decrease pain up to 4 hours at a time. Based on this understanding of the drug's effects by the patient, the nurse will anticipate which outcome?

A) Decreased chance of having a placebo effect

B) Decreased motivation to take the drug

C) Improved compliance with the drug regimen

D) Increased likelihood of drug overdose

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A postoperative patient is being discharged home with acetaminophen/hydrocodone [Lortab] for pain. The patient asks the nurse about using Tylenol for fever. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "It is not safe to take over-the-counter drugs with prescription medications."

B) "Taking the two medications together poses a risk of drug toxicity."

C) "There are no known drug interactions, so this will be safe."

D) "Tylenol and Lortab are different drugs, so there is no risk of overdose."

Answer: B

Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer medications. Which patient would the nurse consider to have the greatest predisposition to an adverse reaction?

A) A 30-year-old man with kidney disease

B) A 75-year-old woman with cystitis

C) A 50-year-old man with an upper respiratory tract infection

D) A 9-year-old boy with an ear infection

Answer: A

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4

Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information

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6 Verified Questions

6 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient asks a nurse why drugs that have been approved by the FDA still have unknown side effects. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) Testing for all side effects of a medication would be prohibitively expensive.

B) Patients in drug trials often are biased by their preconceptions of a drug's benefits.

C) Researchers tend to conduct studies that will prove the benefits of their new drugs.

D) Subjects in drug trials do not always represent the full spectrum of possible patients.

Answer: D

Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names?

A) They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember.

B) They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.

C) They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification.

D) They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex.

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is giving an enteral medication. The patient asks why this method is preferable for this drug. How will the nurse reply?

A) "This route allows more rapid absorption of the drug."

B) "This route is safer, less expensive, and more convenient."

C) "This route is the best way to control serum drug levels."

D) "This route prevents inactivation of the drug by digestive enzymes."

Q2) A provider has written an order for a medication: drug X 100 mg PO every 6 hours. The half-life for the drug is approximately 6 hours. The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose at 8:00 AM on Tuesday. On Wednesday, when will the serum drug level reach plateau?

A) 2:00 AM

B) 8:00 AM

C) 2:00 PM

D) 8:00 PM

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6

Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics

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8 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient reports becoming "immune" to a medication because it no longer works to alleviate symptoms. The nurse recognizes that this decreased effectiveness is likely caused by:

A) antagonists produced by the body that compete with the drug for receptor sites.

B) decreased selectivity of receptor sites, resulting in a variety of effects.

C) desensitization of receptor sites by continual exposure to the drug.

D) synthesis of more receptor sites in response to the medication.

Q2) A patient who is taking morphine for pain asks the nurse how a pain medication can also cause constipation. What does the nurse know about morphine?

A) It binds to different types of receptors in the body.

B) It can cause constipation in toxic doses.

C) It causes only one type of response, and the constipation is coincidental.

D) It is selective to receptors that regulate more than one body process.

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Chapter 6: Drug Interactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient about a prescription for a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor for depression. What will the nurse teach the patient to avoid while taking this drug?

A) Alcoholic beverages

B) Aged cheeses

C) Brussels sprouts and cabbage

D) Grapefruit juice

Q2) In a discussion of drug-drug interactions, which would be the best example of a beneficial inhibitory interaction?

A) Naloxone [Narcan] blocking morphine sulfate's actions

B) Antacids blocking the action of tetracycline [Sumycin]

C) Propanolol [Inderal] blocking the effects of albuterol

D) Cholestyramine blocking the actions of antihypertensive drugs

Q3) The nurse is teaching a patient about taking warfarin and asks if the patient takes aspirin. This assessment by the nurse reflects a knowledge of which type of drug interaction?

A) Creation of unique effects

B) Increased therapeutic effects

C) Inhibitory effects

D) Potentiative effects

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Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer a drug. Upon reading the medication guide, the nurse notes that the drug has been linked to symptoms of Parkinson disease in some patients. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient to report these symptoms, which are known to be teratogenic effects.

B) Observe the patient closely for such symptoms and prepare to treat them if needed.

C) Request an order to evaluate the patient's genetic predisposition to this effect.

D) Warn the patient about these effects and provide reassurance that this is expected.

Q2) A nurse is reviewing a medication administration record before administering medications. Which order will the nurse implement?

A) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg QD PO

B) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg qd PO

C) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg daily

D) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg PO daily

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Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses

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10 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is preparing to care for a patient who is receiving digoxin. When screening for potential adverse effects from this drug, the nurse will review which of this patient's laboratory results?

A) Albumin

B) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine

C) Hepatic enzymes

D) Serum electrolytes

Q2) The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) recommends genetic testing of patients receiving certain medications. Genetic testing helps prescribers:

A) better establish a drug's therapeutic index.

B) determine whether a patient is a rapid or slow metabolizer of the drug.

C) identify racial characteristics that affect psychosocial variation in drug response.

D) produce a drug that is tailored to an individual patient's genetic makeup.

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Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and

Breast-Feeding

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pregnant patient asks the nurse about the safe use of medications during the third trimester. What will the nurse tell her about drugs taken at this stage?

A) They may need to be given in higher doses if they undergo renal clearance.

B) They require lower doses if they are metabolized by the liver.

C) They are less likely to cross the placenta and affect the fetus.

D) They are more likely to cause anatomical defects if they are teratogenic.

Q2) A patient who has just learned she is pregnant has stopped using a prescription medication that she takes for asthma because she doesn't want to harm her baby. What will the nurse tell her?

A) That asthma medications will not affect the fetus

B) That her baby's health is dependent on hers

C) To avoid taking medications during her pregnancy

D) To resume the medication in her second trimester

Q3) Which types of drugs taken by a pregnant patient are more likely to have effects on a fetus?

A) Drugs that are highly polar

B) Ionized drugs

C) Lipid-soluble drugs

D) Protein-bound drugs

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Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pediatric nurse is teaching nursing students about medication administration in children. Which statement by a student indicates an understanding of the teaching?

A) "Drugs effective in adults may not work in children, even if the dose is proportional for weight and size."

B) "Infants metabolize drugs more quickly than do older children and adults."

C) "Side effects of drugs in children are similar to side effects of drugs in adults."

D) "The known differences in drug effects in children versus those in adults are related to the size of the patient."

Q2) An infant is receiving a medication that has a narrow therapeutic range. The nurse reviews the medication information and learns that the drug is excreted by the kidneys. When giving the medication, the nurse will assess the infant for:

A) decreased effectiveness of the drug.

B) shorter period of the drug's effects.

C) signs of drug toxicity.

D) unusual CNS effects.

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Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about administering medications to older adult patients. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Alteration in hepatic function requires more frequent drug dosing."

B) "Changes in GI function in older adult patients lead to lower serum drug levels."

C) "Most adverse drug reactions in older adult patients are related to altered renal function."

D) "Most nonadherence among older adult patients is intentional."

Q2) A nurse is preparing to teach a forgetful older adult patient about a multiple drug regimen to follow after discharge from the hospital. To help promote adherence, what will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient to share the teaching with a neighbor or friend soon after discharge.

B) Give the patient detailed written information about each drug.

C) Cluster medication administration times as much as possible.

D) Make sure the patient understands the actions and side effects of each drug.

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13

Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology

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7 Verified Questions

7 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has allergies and takes an antihistamine. The patient wants to know how the drug works. The nurse understands that antihistamines work because they are what?

A) Activators

B) Agonists

C) Antagonists

D) Antidotes

Q2) A nurse learns about a drug that interferes with transmitter storage in the PNS. The transmitter affected by this drug causes an increased heart rate. What response will the nurse expect to see when this drug is administered?

A) Bradycardia

B) Positive inotropic effects

C) Prolonged receptor activation

D) Tachycardia

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Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System

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9 Verified Questions

9 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is explaining activation of beta₂ receptors to nursing students during a clinical rotation at the hospital. Which statement by a student demonstrates a need for further teaching?

A) "Beta₂ activation results in bronchodilation."

B) "Beta₂ activation results in contraction of uterine muscle."

C) "Beta₂ activation results in glycogenolysis."

D) "Beta₂ activation results in vasodilation of skeletal muscles."

Q2) Many medications list side effects that include dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention. What kinds of effects are these?

A) Alpha adrenergic

B) Anticholinergic

C) Beta adrenergic

D) Sympathetic

Q3) A pregnant patient is in premature labor. Which class of drug will she be given?

A) Alpha₁ agonist

B) Anticholinergic

C) Beta₂ agonist

D) Beta₂ antagonist

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Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists

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9 Verified Questions

9 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Bethanechol [Urecholine] is used to treat urinary retention but is being investigated for use in which other condition?

A) Gastric ulcers

B) Gastroesophageal reflux

C) Hypotension

D) Intestinal obstruction

Q2) A patient who has esophageal cancer is experiencing dry mouth and the provider orders oral pilocarpine to treat this symptom. What will the nurse expect to teach this patient about this medication?

A) "This medication may cause rapid heart rate and elevated blood pressure."

B) "This medication may cause constipation and gastric discomfort in large doses."

C) "You should experience sweating with this medication and should not have other side effects."

D) "You will begin taking 5 mg 3 times daily and may increase the dose to 10 mg."

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Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in

Myasthenia Gravis

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9 Verified Questions

9 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Diazepam is given to reverse inhibition of cholinesterase when overdose occurs."

B) "Irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors are rapidly absorbed by all routes."

C) "These agents are often used to treat glaucoma."

D) "Toxic doses of these agents produce an anticholinergic crisis."

Q2) A nurse working in the emergency department is assigned to a child who is arriving by ambulance after being involved in a spill of organophosphate insecticides. What will the nurse expect to be the initial priority for treating this child?

A) Administering diphenhydramine to control secretions

B) Giving diazepam to control seizures

C) Providing mechanical ventilation and oxygen

D) Reporting the spill to the Environmental Protection Agency

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17

Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic

Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) While preparing a patient for a procedure in which a neuromuscular blocking agent will be used, the nurse reviews the patient's preprocedure laboratory values. Which abnormality would cause the most concern?

A) Hyponatremia

B) Hypercalcemia

C) Hypomagnesemia

D) Hypokalemia

Q2) A patient will receive atracurium [Tracrium] during surgery for neuromuscular blockade. The nurse caring for this patient will correctly perform which of the following actions?

A) Assess the patient for signs of CNS depression.

B) Ensure that dantrolene is available in case of a serious adverse reaction.

C) Monitor the patient's blood pressure closely.

D) Review the preprocedure laboratory values related to renal and hepatic function.

Q3) Which areas of the body show the effects of neuromuscular blockers last?

A) Levator muscle of the eyelids and the muscles of mastication

B) Muscles in the lower extremities

C) Muscles controlling the glottis

D) Muscles of respiration and the diaphragm

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists

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11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student asks why albuterol, which is selective for beta₂ receptors, causes an increased heart rate in some patients. How should the nurse respond?

A) "Adrenergic agonists can lose their selectivity when given at higher doses."

B) "Bronchodilation lowers blood pressure, which causes a reflex tachycardia."

C) "Some patients metabolize the drug differently and have unusual side effects."

D) "Systemic effects are intensified with inhaled doses."

Q2) Because they cause vasoconstriction, alpha₁-adrenergic agonists are especially useful for:

A) causing hemostasis in skin and mucous membranes.

B) producing mydriasis to facilitate ophthalmic examinations.

C) slowing the heart rate in tachycardic patients.

D) treating hypotension.

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Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of alpha-adrenergic antagonists. Which statement by a student indicates the need for further teaching?

A) "Alpha-adrenergic antagonists block alpha₁ receptors on arterioles and veins."

B) "Dilation of arterioles has a direct effect on arterial pressure."

C) "Dilation of veins by alpha-adrenergic antagonists improves cardiac output."

D) "Venous dilation by alpha-adrenergic antagonists indirectly lowers arterial pressure."

Q2) A male patient is being treated for benign prostatic hyperplasia and has stopped taking his alpha-adrenergic antagonist medication because of ejaculatory difficulties. Which medication does the nurse expect the provider to prescribe?

A) Alfuzosin [Uroxatral]

B) Prazosin [Minipress]

C) Silodosin [Rapaflo]

D) Tamsulosin [Flomax]

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Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with hypertension has a previous history of opioid dependence. Which medication would the nurse question?

A) Clonidine [Catapres]

B) Guanabenz [Wytensin]

C) Methyldopa

D) Reserpine [Serpasil]

Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient about a new prescription for reserpine [Serpasil] for hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?

A) "Depressive side effects are common and will improve over time."

B) "I should report gastrointestinal side effects to the provider."

C) "I should stand up slowly when getting up and lie down if I feel dizzy."

D) "Therapeutic effects may not be optimal for a couple of weeks."

Q3) A prescriber orders transdermal clonidine [Catapres TTS] for a patient with hypertension. What will the nurse teach this patient?

A) That medication given by transdermal patch has fewer systemic side effects

B) That localized skin reactions are uncommon

C) To apply the patch to intact skin on the forearm or leg

D) To change the patch every week

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Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System

Pharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students how the CNS adapts to psychotherapeutic medications. Which statement by a nursing student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Adaptation can lead to tolerance of these drugs with prolonged use."

B) "Adaptation helps explain how physical dependence occurs."

C) "Adaptation often must occur before therapeutic effects develop."

D) "Adaptation results in an increased sensitivity to side effects over time."

Q2) A patient asks a nurse to explain what drug tolerance means. The nurse responds by telling the patient that when tolerance occurs, it means the patient:

A) has developed a psychologic dependence on the drug.

B) may need increased amounts of the drug over time.

C) will cause an abstinence syndrome if the drug is discontinued abruptly.

D) will have increased sensitivity to drug side effects.

Q3) Which are medical applications of central nervous system drugs?

A) Analgesia

B) Anesthesia

C) Depression

D) Euphoria

E) Seizure control

Page 22

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Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinson Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is discussing motor symptoms with a patient with Parkinson disease who has been taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet] for 9 months and who is now having regular tics. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this symptom?

A) "I may need to try a lower dose of Sinemet to reduce my tics."

B) "My provider may order clozapine to treat these tics."

C) "These tics are an indication that my dose of Sinemet is too low."

D) "This means I will have to have surgery to stop the symptoms."

Q2) A hospitalized patient with Parkinson disease who is receiving apomorphine to treat "off" episodes develops nausea and vomiting. The nurse will discuss the use of which medication with the patient's provider?

A) Levodopa [Dopar]

B) Ondansetron [Zofran]

C) Prochlorperazine [Compazine]

D) Trimethobenzamide [Tigan]

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Chapter 22: Drugs for Alzheimers Disease

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10 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer memantine [Nemanda] to a patient and notes a slight elevation in the patient's creatinine clearance level. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) Adding sodium bicarbonate to the patient's drug regimen

B) Continuing the memantine as ordered

C) Discontinuing the memantine

D) Reducing the dose of memantine

Q2) An older adult patient with Alzheimer's disease is admitted to the hospital. The patient's spouse reports that the patient is often confused and gets lost walking to the store, which is three blocks from their home. That evening, the nurse observes the patient pacing the hall and screaming. What will the nurse do?

A) Notify the provider of this patient's worsening symptoms.

B) Prepare the patient's spouse for impending death from Alzheimer's disease.

C) Request an increase in the medication dose to treat the exacerbation in symptoms.

D) Tell the spouse that this is an expected progression of the disease.

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24

Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has recently begun taking interferon beta reports feeling depressed. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A) Notify the provider of these symptoms.

B) Reassure the patient that these symptoms will subside.

C) Request an order for an antidepressant medication.

D) Suggest counseling to discuss the effects of this chronic disease.

Q2) A patient administers interferon beta-1a SQ [Rebif] 22 mcg/0.5 mL 3 times each week. The patient calls the nurse to report unrelieved itching and erythema at the injection site, despite the use of topical hydrocortisone for several weeks. What will the nurse tell this patient to do?

A) Apply ice to the injection site before and after the injection.

B) Ask the provider to reduce the dose of interferon beta to 8.8 mcg/0.2 mL.

C) Discuss using a prescription-strength hydrocortisone product with the provider.

D) Take oral diphenhydramine [Benadryl].

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25

Chapter 24: Drugs for Seizure Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is taking oral contraceptives begins taking valproic acid [Depakote] for seizures. After a week of therapy with valproic acid, the patient tells the nurse that she is experiencing nausea. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient if she is taking the valproic acid with food, because taking the drug on an empty stomach can cause gastrointestinal side effects.

B) Contact the provider to request an order for a blood ammonia level, because hyperammonemia can occur with valproic acid therapy.

C) Suggest that the patient perform a home pregnancy test, because valproic acid can reduce the efficacy of oral contraceptives.

D) Suspect that hepatotoxicity has occurred, because this is a common adverse effect of valproic acid.

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Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with cerebral palsy has severe muscle spasticity and muscle weakness. The patient is unable to take anything by mouth. The nurse is correct to anticipate that which medication will be ordered for home therapy?

A) Baclofen [Lioresal]

B) Dantrolene [Dantrium]

C) Diazepam [Valium]

D) Metaxalone [Skelaxin]

Q2) A patient with multiple sclerosis needs pharmacologic treatment for spasticity to begin strengthening exercises to improve walking ability. The nurse anticipates that which medication will be ordered for spasticity?

A) Baclofen [Lioresal]

B) Dantrolene [Dantrium]

C) Diazepam [Valium]

D) Metaxalone [Skelaxin]

Q3) Which patient should receive dantrolene [Dantrium] with caution?

A) A 20-year-old woman with a spinal cord injury

B) A 45-year-old man with a history of malignant hyperthermia

C) A 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis

D) An 8-year-old child with cerebral palsy

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Page 27

Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which are important considerations when spinal anesthesia is being administered?

A) Encouraging the patient to remain supine after the procedure

B) Having epinephrine available in case of adverse effects

C) Injecting a local anesthetic into the sacral region

D) Placing the agent into the spinal column outside the dura mater

E) Using an anesthetic solution from a single-dose vial

Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient in the immediate postoperative period after surgery in which a spinal anesthetic was used. The patient has not voided and complains of headache. The patient has a pulse of 62 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 92/48 mm Hg. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

A) Contact the anesthetist to request an order for ephedrine.

B) Have the patient sit up to relieve the headache pain.

C) Lower the head of the bed to a 10- to 15-degree head-down position.

D) Obtain an order for a urinary catheter for urinary retention.

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Chapter 27: General Anesthetics

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14 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A surgical patient is receiving succinylcholine [Anectine] with an inhalation anesthetic. The patient is intubated, has an indwelling urinary catheter, and has ongoing monitoring of vital signs. Which symptom during the perioperative period is cause for concern?

A) Elevated temperature

B) Increased urine output

C) Muscle paralysis

D) No response to painful stimuli

Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about inhalation anesthesia and asks, "What is balanced anesthesia?" Which response by a student is correct?

A) "An anesthesia that has a brief induction period with a rapid emergence from its effects"

B) "An inhalation anesthesia that produces both muscle relaxation and unconsciousness"

C) "An anesthesia that provides maximum analgesia with minimal respiratory side effects"

D) "An anesthesia that combines other drugs with inhalation anesthesia to produce the desired effects"

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29

Centrally Acting Analgesics

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14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25922

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is preparing a pediatric patient for surgery and is teaching the patient and the child's parents about the use of the patient-controlled analgesia pump. The parents voice concern about their child receiving an overdose of morphine. What will the nurse do?

A) Instruct the parents not to activate the device when their child is sleeping.

B) Reassure the parents that drug overdose is not possible with PCA.

C) Suggest that the child use the PCA sparingly.

D) Tell the patient that the pump can be programmed for PRN dosing only.

Q2) A patient with cancer has been taking an opioid analgesic 4 times daily for several months and reports needing increased doses for pain. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) PRN dosing of the drug may be more effective.

B) The risk of respiratory depression increases over time.

C) The patient should discuss increasing the dose with the provider.

D) The patient should request the addition of a benzodiazepine to augment pain relief.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 30

Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients With Cancer

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25923

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the differences between pure opioid agonists and agonist-antagonist opioids. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Agonist-antagonist opioids act as agonists at mu receptors only."

B) "Agonist-antagonist opioids are effective for treating cancer pain."

C) "Agonist-antagonist opioids enhance the effects of pure agonists."

D) "Pure agonists act as agonists at both mu receptors and kappa receptors."

Q2) Over time, patients taking opioid analgesics develop tolerance to which side effects?

A) Constipation

B) Euphoria

C) Physical dependence

D) Respiratory depression

E) Sedation

Q3) Which nonpharmacologic therapies are effective in reducing cancer pain?

A) Acupuncture

B) Cold

C) Exercise

D) Heat

E) Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)

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Page 31

Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25924

Sample Questions

Q1) A young woman with migraine headaches who has recently begun taking sumatriptan [Imitrex] calls the nurse to report a sensation of chest and arm heaviness. The nurse questions the patient and determines that she feels pressure and not pain. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient about any history of hypertension or coronary artery disease.

B) Determine whether the patient might be pregnant.

C) Reassure the patient that this is a transient, reversible side effect of sumatriptan.

D) Tell the patient to stop taking the medication immediately.

Q2) A patient on the unit complains of cluster headaches. A new graduate nurse is asked to differentiate between a migraine headache and cluster headaches. The graduate nurse is correct to state that manifestations and/or risk factors for a patient with cluster headaches include what?

A) Female gender

B) Male gender

C) Complaints of nausea and vomiting

D) Short duration (15 minutes to 2 hours)

E) Auras before the onset of headache pain

F) Throbbing, sometimes piercing pain

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32

Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25925

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient taking an FGA medication develops severe parkinsonism and is treated with amantadine [Symmetrel]. The amantadine is withdrawn 2 months later, and the parkinsonism returns. The nurse will expect the provider to:

A) give anticholinergic medications.

B) make a diagnosis of idiopathic parkinsonism.

C) resume the amantadine indefinitely.

D) try a second-generation antipsychotic (SGA).

Q2) Which side effects are more common in second-generation antipsychotic medications than in first-generation antipsychotic medications?

A) Agranulocytosis

B) Anticholinergic effects

C) Extrapyramidal symptoms

D) Metabolism by CYP3A4

E) Prolactin elevation

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Chapter 32: Antidepressants

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25926

Sample Questions

Q1) A woman who is nursing a newborn develops postpartum depression and her provider orders sertraline [Zoloft] to treat her symptoms. The patient is concerned about the safety of this medication for her infant. What will the nurse tell her about this medication?

A) To stop nursing while taking the medication

B) To expect symptoms of colic and poor weight gain in the baby

C) That sertraline is safer than other antidepressants for nursing mothers

D) To ask her provider about switching to fluoxetine [Prozac] instead

Q2) A patient has been taking fluoxetine [Prozac] for 2 years and reports feeling cured of depression. The nurse learns that the patient is sleeping well, participates in usual activities, and feels upbeat and energetic most of the time. The patient's weight has returned to normal. The patient reports last having symptoms of depression at least 9 months ago. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) Indefinite drug therapy is necessary to maintain remission.

B) Discuss gradual withdrawal of the medication with the provider.

C) Stop the drug while remaining alert for the return of symptoms.

D) Take a drug holiday to see whether symptoms recur.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 34

Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25927

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with bipolar disorder takes lamotrigine [Lamictal]. Which statement by the patient would prompt the nurse to hold the drug and notify the prescriber for further assessment?

A) "I get a little dizzy sometimes."

B) "I had a headache last week that lasted for about an hour."

C) "I've broken out in a rash on my chest and back."

D) "Last night I woke up twice with a bad dream."

Q2) A patient who has recently begun taking carbamazepine [Equetro] for bipolar disorder reports having vertigo and headaches. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

A) Ask the provider whether another medication can be used for this patient, because the patient is showing signs of toxicity.

B) Contact the provider to request a complete blood count (CBC) to evaluate for other, more serious side effects.

C) Reassure the patient that these effects occur early in treatment and will resolve over time.

D) Review the patient's chart for cytochrome P450 enzymes to see whether an increased dose is needed.

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Page 35

Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who travels frequently for business reports occasional instances of being unable to fall asleep. The patient tells the nurse that job demands require staying up late and then getting up early for meetings. The nurse expects that the provider will prescribe which medication for this patient?

A) Flurazepam

B) Trazodone [Desyrel]

C) Zaleplon [Sonata]

D) Zolpidem [Ambien]

Q2) A patient complains of chronic insomnia and reports being tired all the time. The patient is reluctant to try pharmacologic remedies and asks the nurse what to do. What will the nurse suggest?

A) "Eat a large meal in the evening to induce drowsiness."

B) "Get out of bed for a while if you can't fall asleep."

C) "Have a glass of wine at bedtime to relax."

D) "Take a short nap early in the afternoon every day."

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Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders

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10 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a patient. The patient reports taking alprazolam [Xanax] for "nerves." The nurse knows that this patient is most likely being treated for which condition?

A) Generalized anxiety disorder

B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)

C) Panic disorder

D) Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

Q2) An agitated, extremely anxious patient is brought to the emergency department. The prescriber orders a benzodiazepine. The nurse understands that benzodiazepines are used in this clinical situation based on which principle?

A) Benzodiazepines have a very short half-life.

B) Physical dependence is not a risk when taking benzodiazepines.

C) Benzodiazepines are known to cure generalized anxiety.

D) Benzodiazepines have a rapid onset of action.

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Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and

Attention-Deficithyperactivity Disorder

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) An adult patient will begin taking atomoxetine [Strattera] for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. What will the nurse teach this patient?

A) Appetite suppression does not occur, because this drug is not a stimulant.

B) Stopping the drug abruptly will cause an abstinence syndrome.

C) Suicidal thoughts may occur and should be reported to the provider.

D) Therapeutic effects may not be felt for 1 to 3 weeks after beginning therapy.

Q2) A parent thinks a school-aged child has ADHD. The nurse asks the parent to describe the child's behaviors. Which behaviors are characteristics of ADHD?

A) Anxiety

B) Compulsivity

C) Hyperactivity

D) Inattention

E) Impulsivity

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Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations

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8 Verified Questions

8 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about drug abuse. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Patients who experience physical dependence will show compulsive drug-seeking behavior."

B) "People who are addicted to a drug do not necessarily have tolerance to that drug."

C) "Physical dependence means that abstinence syndrome will occur if a drug is withdrawn."

D) "Physical dependence often contributes to addictive behavior but does not cause it."

Q2) A nursing student is caring for a patient who is addicted to several drugs. The student tells the nurse that the patient "got this way on purpose." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

A) "Peer pressure and social factors determine individual choices."

B) "Physical dependence is necessary for addiction to occur."

C) "Pre-existing psychopathology underlies most drug abuse."

D) "Some individuals are more vulnerable to drug abuse than others."

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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse II: Alcohol

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16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25932

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is obtaining an admission history on a patient who reports daily drinking for several years. When the nurse questions the patient further, the patient reports drinking up to five or six drinks each day. The patient expresses worry about liver damage. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the patient's provider to request liver function studies.

B) Explain that hepatitis, progressing to severe liver impairment, is likely.

C) Inform the patient that the history indicates that cirrhosis is likely to occur.

D) Tell the patient that stopping drinking will reverse any effects on the liver.

Q2) A pregnant patient in labor tells the nurse that she is afraid she may have harmed her fetus by consuming alcohol. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?

A) Ask the patient how much alcohol she consumed, and at which stage of her pregnancy.

B) Reassure the patient that the risk is likely to be minimal.

C) Tell the patient that no amount of alcohol is considered safe during pregnancy.

D) Tell the patient that the full range of outcomes may not be evident for years.

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Chapter 39: Drug Abuse III: Nicotine and Smoking

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who wants to quit smoking has begun taking varenicline [Chantix]. The patient reports experiencing mood swings and depression and a desire to cause harm to herself. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) "These symptoms are common and will disappear over time."

B) "These symptoms may indicate an underlying psychiatric disorder."

C) "You may need an increased dose to overcome these symptoms of nicotine withdrawal."

D) "You should notify your provider of these symptoms immediately."

Q2) A patient who wants to quit smoking has a prescription for varenicline [Chantix], which will be used with a nicotine patch. The patient asks the nurse why the varenicline is necessary. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "It helps patients experiencing withdrawal to sleep better."

B) "It helps reduce anxiety and other withdrawal symptoms."

C) "It will help reduce the likelihood of addiction to the patch."

D) "The drug blocks nicotine's access to 'pleasure' receptors."

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Chapter 40: Drug Abuse IV: Major Drugs of Abuse Other

Than Alcohol and Nicotine

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25934

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is discussing the differences between OxyContin OC and OxyContin OP with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "OxyContin OC cannot be drawn into a syringe for injection."

B) "OxyContin OP has greater solubility in water and alcohol."

C) "OxyContin OP is not easily crushed into a powder."

D) "Patients using OxyContin OP are less likely to overdose."

Q2) A college student tells the nurse that several friends have been using synthetic marijuana to get high. What will the nurse tell this patient about this type of substance?

A) "These substances are fairly safe because they are derived from herbs."

B) "They can cause hypertension, nausea, vomiting, and hallucinations."

C) "These substances do not have mind-altering affects."

D) "These substances produce a high and they are not illegal."

Q3) What is the primary reason for opioid abuse?

A) Ease of access

B) Initial "rush" similar to orgasm

C) Peer pressure

D) Prolonged sense of euphoria

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Chapter 41: Diuretics

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25935

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities bilaterally. Auscultation of the lungs reveals crackles bilaterally, and the serum potassium level is 6 mEq/L. Which diuretic agent ordered by the prescriber should the nurse question?

A) Bumetanide [Bumex]

B) Furosemide [Lasix]

C) Spironolactone [Aldactone]

D) Hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]

Q2) A patient who is taking digoxin is admitted to the hospital for treatment of congestive heart failure. The prescriber has ordered furosemide [Lasix]. The nurse notes an irregular heart rate of 86 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 130/82 mm Hg. The nurse auscultates crackles in both lungs. Which laboratory value causes the nurse the most concern?

A) Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL

B) Oxygen saturation of 90%

C) Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L

D) Sodium level of 140 mEq/L

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43

Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a postoperative patient who has a nasogastric tube with continuous suction. The nurse notes that the patient has shallow respirations and suspects that this patient has developed:

A) metabolic acidosis.

B) metabolic alkalosis.

C) respiratory acidosis.

D) respiratory alkalosis.

Q2) A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of muscle weakness and drowsiness. The nurse notes a heart rate of 80 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg. The electrocardiogram reveals an abnormal rhythm. The nurse will question the patient about which over-the-counter medication?

A) Antacids

B) Aspirin

C) Laxatives

D) Potassium supplements

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44

Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is taking a drug that interferes with venous constriction. The nurse will tell the patient to:

A) ask for assistance when getting out of bed.

B) expect bradycardia for a few days.

C) notify the provider if headache occurs.

D) report shortness of breath.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a nursing student how blood can return to the heart when pressure in the venous capillary beds is very low. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Constriction of small muscles in the venous wall increases venous pressure."

B) "Negative pressure in the left atrium draws blood toward the heart."

C) "Skeletal muscles relax to allow the free flow of blood."

D) "Venous valves help prevent the backflow of blood."

Q3) A patient with a history of hypertension is admitted for a procedure. If the patient's arterial pressure decreases, which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to see?

A) Decreased heart rate

B) Increased heart rate

C) Decreased blood pressure

D) Syncope

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Page 45

Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the

Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System

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12 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A prescriber orders ramipril [Altace] for an obese patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has developed hypertension. The nurse provides teaching before dismissing the patient home. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I am less likely to develop diabetic nephropathy when taking this medication."

B) "I should check my blood sugar more often, because hyperglycemia is a side effect of this drug."

C) "Taking this medication helps reduce my risk of stroke and heart attack."

D) "This medication will probably prevent the development of diabetic retinopathy."

Q2) A female patient who is not taking any other medications is prescribed aliskiren [Tekturna], a direct renin inhibitor (DRI). The nurse reviews medication information with the patient. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "If I get pregnant, I should stop taking this drug by the second trimester."

B) "If I take this drug with a high-fat meal, it will be more effective."

C) "I should restrict my potassium intake while taking this drug."

D) "I should take this medication 1 hour before sitting down to a meal."

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Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient begins taking nifedipine [Procardia], along with metoprolol, to treat hypertension. The nurse understands that metoprolol is used to:

A) reduce flushing.

B) minimize gingival hyperplasia.

C) prevent constipation.

D) prevent reflex tachycardia.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who will begin taking verapamil [Calan] for hypertension about the drug's side effects. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I may become constipated, so I should increase fluids and fiber."

B) "I may experience a rapid heart rate as a result of taking this drug."

C) "I may have swelling of my hands and feet, but this will subside."

D) "I may need to increase my digoxin dose while taking this drug."

Q3) Which are therapeutic uses of verapamil?

A) Angina of effort

B) Cardiac dysrhythmias

C) Essential hypertension

D) Sick sinus syndrome

E) Suppression of preterm labor

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Page 47

Chapter 46: Vasodilators

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11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A female patient with essential hypertension is being treated with hydralazine 25 mg twice daily. The nurse assesses the patient and notes a heart rate of 96 beats/min and a blood pressure of 110/72 mm Hg. The nurse will request an order to:

A) administer a beta blocker.

B) administer a drug that dilates veins.

C) reduce the dose of hydralazine.

D) give the patient a diuretic.

Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking a vasodilator that dilates capacitance vessels. The nurse will expect which effect in this patient?

A) Decrease in cardiac work

B) Increase in cardiac output

C) Increase in tissue perfusion

D) Increase in venous return

Q3) Which patients may receive hydralazine to treat hypertension?

A) A 1-month-old infant

B) A 5-year-old child

C) A pregnant woman

D) A mother breast-feeding a newborn

E) An older adult

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Page 48

Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension

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19 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient takes an ACE inhibitor to treat hypertension and tells the nurse that she wants to become pregnant. She asks whether she should continue taking the medication while she is pregnant. What will the nurse tell her?

A) Controlling her blood pressure will decrease her risk of preeclampsia.

B) Ask the provider about changing to an ARB during pregnancy.

C) Continue taking the ACE inhibitor during her pregnancy.

D) Discuss using methyldopa instead while she is pregnant.

Q2) A nurse checks a patient's vital signs in the hospital and notes a blood pressure of 146/98 mm Hg. What will the nurse do?

A) Instruct the patient to consume a low-sodium diet.

B) Prepare the patient for an electrocardiogram and blood tests.

C) Recheck the patient's blood pressure in the other arm.

D) Request an order for a thiazide diuretic.

Q3) Which two-drug regimen would be appropriate for a patient with hypertension who does not have other compelling conditions?

A) Hydrochlorothiazide and nadolol

B) Hydralazine and minoxidil

C) Spironolactone and amiloride

D) Trichlormethiazide and hydrochlorothiazide

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Page 49

Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with chronic hypertension is admitted to the hospital. During the admission assessment, the nurse notes a heart rate of 96 beats/min, a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg, bibasilar crackles, 2+ pitting edema of the ankles, and distension of the jugular veins. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order for which medication?

A) ACE inhibitor

B) Digoxin [Lanoxin]

C) Furosemide [Lasix]

D) Spironolactone [Aldactone]

Q2) A nurse prepares to administer a scheduled dose of digoxin. The nurse finds a new laboratory report showing a plasma digoxin level of 0.7 ng/mL. What action should the nurse take?

A) Withhold the drug for an hour and reassess the level.

B) Withhold the drug and notify the prescriber immediately.

C) Administer Digibind to counteract the toxicity.

D) Check the patient's apical pulse, and if it is within a safe range, administer the digoxin.

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Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is in the intensive care unit after a myocardial infarction. The nurse notes that the QT interval on this patient's electrocardiogram has been elongating. The nurse is concerned that which cardiac dysrhythmia may occur?

A) AV block

B) Bradycardia

C) Supraventricular tachycardia

D) Torsades de pointes

Q2) A prescriber has ordered propranolol [Inderal] for a patient with recurrent ventricular tachycardia. The nurse preparing to administer this drug will be concerned about what in the patient's history?

A) Asthma

B) Exercise-induced tachyarrhythmias

C) Hypertension

D) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia associated with emotion

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Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular

Disease: Drugs That Help Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A postmenopausal woman will begin taking atorvastatin [Lipitor] to treat hypercholesterolemia. The woman reports a history of osteopenia with a family risk of osteoporosis. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient?

A) The need to discuss taking a bisphosphonate medication with her provider

B) That statins are known to reduce the risk of osteoporosis

C) That she should avoid foods high in calcium

D) To discuss vitamin D supplements with her provider since statins deplete calcium

Q2) A patient taking gemfibrozil [Lopid] and rosuvastatin [Crestor] concurrently begins to complain of muscle aches, fatigue, and weakness. What should the nurse monitor?

A) For tendon tenderness

B) For a lupus-like syndrome

C) The patient's liver function test results

D) The patient's creatinine kinase levels

Q3) Which is a possible benefit of taking fish-oil supplements?

A) A decrease in low-density lipoprotein and triglyceride levels

B) Decreased risk of thrombotic stroke

C) Prevention of heart disease in high-risk patients

D) Reduced risk of dysrhythmia in patients after myocardial infarction

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Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has renal impairment will begin taking ranolazine [Ranexa] as an adjunct to nitroglycerine to treat angina. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient?

A) "You will need to monitor your blood pressure closely while taking this drug."

B) "You should take this drug 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal."

C) "You may experience rapid heart rate while taking this medication."

D) "You do not need to worry about drug interactions with this medication."

Q2) A patient with asthma and depression develops stable angina. In addition to organic nitrites, which other medications will be used to treat this condition?

A) ACE inhibitors

B) Antiplatelet drugs

C) Beta blockers

D) Calcium channel blockers

E) Cholesterol-lowering drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who takes warfarin [Coumadin] is brought to the emergency department after accidentally taking too much warfarin. The patient's heart rate is 78 beats/min, and the blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. A dipstick urinalysis is normal. The patient does not have any obvious hematoma or petechiae and does not complain of pain. The nurse will anticipate an order for:

A) vitamin K (phytonadione).

B) protamine sulfate.

C) a PTT.

D) a PT and an INR.

Q2) A postoperative patient reports pain in the left lower extremity. The nurse notes swelling in the lower leg, which feels warm to the touch. The nurse will anticipate giving which medication?

A) Aspirin

B) Clopidogrel [Plavix]

C) Enoxaparin [Lovenox]

D) Warfarin [Coumadin]

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54

Chapter 53: Management of St-Elevation Myocardial Infarction

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12 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is receiving reperfusion therapy has a history of heparin-induced thrombosis (HIT). The patient has a creatinine clearance of 28 mL/min. In addition to the fibrinolytic agent, which medication will the nurse expect to administer to this patient?

A) Aspirin

B) Bivalirudin [Angiomax]

C) Clopidogrel [Plavix]

D) Fondaparinux [Arixtra]

Q2) A patient who is recovering from a STEMI 3 months prior is in the clinic for a follow-up evaluation. The patient is taking 81 mg of aspirin, a beta blocker, and an ACE inhibitor daily and uses nitroglycerine as needed for angina. The patient's BMI is 24.5 kg/m², and serum LDL is 150 mg/dL. The patient has a blood pressure of 135/80 mm Hg. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) An antihypertensive medication

B) Counseling about a weight loss diet

C) Discontinuing the ACE inhibitor

D) High-dose statin therapy

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55

Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia

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12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25948

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with epistaxis and a history of hemophilia A is admitted to the unit and is scheduled for replacement therapy. The nurse should prepare to administer which medication?

A) Tranexamic acid [Cyklokapron]

B) Aminocaproic acid [Amicar]

C) Desmopressin [Stimate]

D) Factor VIII

Q2) A patient who is receiving a factor VIII concentrate to treat hemophilia A develops hives, a low-grade temperature elevation, and a stuffy nose. The nurse will prepare to:

A) administer subcutaneous epinephrine.

B) give an antipyretic medication.

C) give oral diphenhydramine.

D) provide respiratory support.

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Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias

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15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25949

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient after hip replacement surgery. The patient has been receiving iron replacement therapy for 2 days. The nurse notes that the patient's stools appear black. The patient is pale and complains of feeling tired. The patient's heart rate is 98 beats/min, respirations are 20 breaths per minute, and the blood pressure is 100/50 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to:

A) report possible gastrointestinal hemorrhage.

B) request a hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H).

C) request an order for a stool guaiac.

D) suggest giving a hypertonic fluid bolus.

Q2) A patient who has been prescribed oral ferrous sulfate reports taking extra doses for the past few months. The patient's serum iron level is 560 mcg/dL. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) Discontinuing the ferrous sulfate and rechecking the iron level in 1 month

B) Gastric lavage and treatment for acidosis and shock

C) Giving oral deferasirox [Exjade]

D) Giving parenteral deferoxamine [Desferal]

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Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25950

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with chronic renal failure who is on dialysis receives an ESA. The nurse caring for this patient during dialysis notes that the patient's hemoglobin is 10.9 gm/dL, up from the 10.2 gm/dL recorded 2 weeks ago. The patient's blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to suggest:

A) adding an antihypertensive drug.

B) discontinuing the ESA.

C) giving heparin.

D) increasing the dose of the ESA.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who has chronic renal failure and will begin receiving epoetin alfa [Epogen] about this drug therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "If I have to start dialysis, I will have to stop taking this drug."

B) "Taking this drug will not eliminate my need for blood transfusions."

C) "Taking this medication will prevent the need for dialysis in the future."

D) "When I take this, my serum ferritin levels will increase."

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Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25951

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with type 1 diabetes is eating breakfast at 7:30 AM. Blood sugars are on a sliding scale and are ordered before a meal and at bedtime. The patient's blood sugar level is 317 mg/dL. Which formulation of insulin should the nurse prepare to administer?

A) No insulin should be administered.

B) NPH

C) 70/30 mix

D) Lispro [Humalog]

Q2) An elderly patient who has type 2 diabetes has a history of severe hypoglycemia. The patient's spouse asks the nurse what the optimum A1c level is for the patient. Which is correct?

A) Between 6.5 and 7.0

B) Below 7.0

C) Below 8.0

D) Between 7.0 and 8.5

Q3) Which statement is correct about the contrast between acarbose and miglitol?

A) Miglitol has not been associated with hepatic dysfunction.

B) With miglitol, sucrose can be used to treat hypoglycemia.

C) Miglitol is less effective in African Americans.

D) Miglitol has no gastrointestinal side effects.

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Page 59

Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders

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14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25952

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has a free T₄ level of 0.6 ng/dL and a free T₃ of 220 pg/dL. The patient asks the nurse what these laboratory values mean. How will the nurse respond?

A) "These laboratory values indicate that you may have Graves' disease."

B) "These results suggest you may have hyperthyroidism."

C) "We will need to obtain a total T₄ and a total T₃ to tell for sure."

D) "We will need to obtain a TSH level to better evaluate your diagnosis."

Q2) An older adult patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The initial free T? level is 0.5 mg/dL, and the TSH level is 8 microunits/mL. The prescriber orders levothyroxine [Levothroid] 100 mcg/day PO. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the medication as ordered.

B) Contact the provider to discuss giving the levothyroxine IV.

C) Request an order to give desiccated thyroid (Armour Thyroid).

D) Suggest that the provider lower the dose.

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Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25953

Sample Questions

Q1) A male patient reports decreased libido and the nurse notes galactorrhea during a physical assessment. The nurse will report these findings to the provider and will anticipate an order for which medication?

A) Cabergoline

B) Conivaptan

C) Dopamine

D) Prolactin

Q2) A nurse teaches a nursing student about the differences between desmopressin (DDAVP) and vasopressin [Pitressin]. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Desmopressin has a shorter duration of action than vasopressin."

B) "Desmopressin is easier to administer than vasopressin."

C) "Vasopressin can be used in cardiac resuscitation."

D) "Vasopressin can cause serious adverse cardiovascular effects."

Q3) What are the effects of prolactin secretion in males?

A) Breast development

B) Decreased libido

C) Delayed puberty

D) Galactorrhea

E) Infertility

Page 61

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Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex

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10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25954

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with Cushing's syndrome has undergone surgery and radiation treatment. The nurse will expect to teach the patient about which medication?

A) Cosyntropin

B) Dexamethasone

C) Fludrocortisone acetate [Florinef]

D) Ketoconazole [Nizoral]

Q2) A patient with arthritis is admitted to the hospital. The patient's serum glucose level is 350 gm/dL, and the blood pressure is 182/98 mm Hg. The nurse notes that the patient's face appears rounded and puffy. The patient complains of feeling weak. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask which drugs the patient takes for arthritis.

B) Contact the provider to discuss whether the patient has a pituitary carcinoma.

C) Request an order for ketoconazole [Nizoral].

D) Suspect that this patient has Addison's disease.

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Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and

Noncontraceptive Applications

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25955

Sample Questions

Q1) According to studies of estrogen/progestin therapy (EPT), what are its known benefits?

A) Cardiovascular protection in older patients

B) Decreased osteoporosis risk

C) Glycemic control

D) Improved wound healing

E) Prevention of colorectal cancer

Q2) A nurse provides teaching to a patient who has had a hysterectomy and is about to begin hormone therapy to manage menopausal symptoms. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Because I am not at risk for uterine cancer, I can take hormones indefinitely."

B) "I can take estrogen to reduce my risk of cardiovascular disease."

C) "I should take the lowest effective dose for the shortest time needed."

D) "I will need a progestin/estrogen combination since I have had a hysterectomy."

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Chapter 62: Birth Control

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25956

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient calls a family planning clinic and tells the nurse that her vaginal ring, which has been in place for 2 weeks, came out sometime during the night while she was sleeping. The nurse will instruct her to:

A) clean the ring with warm water, reinsert it, and use condoms for 7 days.

B) discard the ring and insert a new ring after 1 week has passed.

C) discard the ring and insert a new one to begin a new cycle.

D) wash the ring in hot, soapy water and reinsert it.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a community education class on contraceptives. The nurse tells the class that if spermicides containing nonoxynol-9 are used, the patient should take special precautions, because these spermicides have been linked to:

A) human papillomavirus (HPV) infections.

B) spontaneous abortions.

C) endometrial cancer.

D) increased transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

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64

Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25957

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse counseling a couple who cannot conceive learns that female infertility problems have been ruled out. What will the nurse expect to tell this couple?

A) "If medication is necessary for male infertility, treatment will last a few months."

B) "Male infertility is usually treatable with a combination of medications."

C) "Most male infertility is not linked to known endocrine disorders."

D) "Treatment with sildenafil [Viagra] will be necessary to improve fertility."

Q2) A patient with endometriosis is being treated with the gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonist leuprolide [Lupron Depot]. A nurse is teaching the patient about the drug. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I can continue to take the medication if I get pregnant."

B) "I can expect the medication to cure my symptoms."

C) "I may have menopausal-like symptoms when taking this medication."

D) "I will need to take the medication for several years."

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65

Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25958

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is having her sixth child has gone beyond term, and her labor is being induced with oxytocin [Pitocin]. The patient is having increased frequency, duration, and intensity of contractions. The nurse will interrupt the oxytocin infusion if what occurs?

A) Contractions occur every 2 to 3 minutes.

B) Individual contractions last 2 minutes.

C) Mild to moderate pain occurs with uterine contractions.

D) Resting intrauterine pressure is greater than 10 to 15 mm Hg.

Q2) A nurse is caring for a woman during the perinatal and postnatal period. To stop postpartum hemorrhage, how will the nurse administer oxytocin [Pitocin] to this patient?

A) 20 units in 1000 mL of IV solution after delivery of the placenta

B) 20 units intramuscularly prior to delivery of the placenta

C) 40 units intramuscularly after delivery of the placenta

D) 60 units per rectum prior to delivery of the placenta

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Chapter 65: Androgens

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25959

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a male adult patient about the use of testosterone gel. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching?

A) "I should apply this to my forearms and neck after showering."

B) "I should keep treated areas exposed to the air so that they can dry."

C) "I should not let my child touch the gel to prevent behavioral problems."

D) "I should not swim or bathe for 3 to 4 hours after applying the gel."

Q2) A 14-year-old male patient who plays football is admitted to the hospital. The nurse notes that the patient has short stature for his age according to a standard growth chart. The patient is muscular, has a deep voice, and needs to shave. The nurse notifies the provider of these findings. Which test will the nurse expect the provider to order?

A) Coagulation studies

B) Complete blood count (CBC) with differential

C) Liver function tests and serum cholesterol

D) Serum glucose and hemoglobin A1c

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Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign

Prostatic Hyperplasia

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25960

Sample Questions

Q1) Tadalafil [Cialis] was prescribed 4 weeks ago for a patient with erectile dysfunction. The patient also takes prazosin [Minipress] for hypertension. Which statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the use of tadalafil [Cialis]?

A) "I can take this up to 2 times a day, just before intercourse."

B) "I have a little renal trouble, so I should take a higher dose."

C) "I should take this medication with food."

D) "I should take this medication no more than once a day."

Q2) A male patient is being treated for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) by another provider but cannot remember which drug he is taking. He comes to the clinic seeking treatment for erectile dysfunction and receives a prescription for sildenafil [Viagra]. What will the nurse teach this patient?

A) "Sildenafil is not safe to take in conjunction with finasteride [Proscar]."

B) "Sildenafil is safe with any medication for benign prostatic hyperplasia."

C) "To be safe, you should have a transurethral resection before starting sildenafil."

D) "You should not take sildenafil if you are taking silodosin [Rapaflo]."

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Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System

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11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25961

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a nursing student about a specific acquired immunity system. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity are both types of specific acquired immune responses."

B) "Each exposure to an antigen causes a faster, more intense response."

C) "Immune responses occur only after exposure to a foreign substance."

D) "The skin is a factor in specific acquired immunity."

Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about immunoglobulins. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "IgD provides a first line of defense against microbes entering the body through the lungs."

B) "IgE plays a role in hypersensitivity reactions and responses to parasites."

C) "IgG and IgM participate in the complement response to promote target cell lysis."

D) "Neonatal immunity is the result of IgG crossing the placenta."

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Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25962

Sample Questions

Q1) The parents of an infant who will be attending day care tell the nurse that they do not want their child vaccinated against rotavirus because an older cousin developed intussusception after receiving this vaccine. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Intussusception is much less serious than getting the disease."

B) "It was probably just a coincidental reaction to the vaccine."

C) "The newer vaccines for rotavirus are not associated with intussusception."

D) "Your child will have herd immunity and won't need the vaccine."

Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer vaccines to a 1-year-old child. The parents ask the nurse to give the child acetaminophen before administering the vaccine to reduce the pain. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Children don't remember pain, so it isn't necessary to give acetaminophen."

B) "The small needles used to inject the vaccines cause hardly any discomfort."

C) "You can apply a topical anesthetic when you get home to reduce pain from the injection."

D) "Your child's immune response may not be as effective if I give acetaminophen before the vaccine."

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Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants

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16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25963

Sample Questions

Q1) The parent of a child who attends day care questions the need for Varivax. What will the nurse tell the parent?

A) "Chickenpox is not as contagious as other communicable diseases."

B) "The child will be protected by herd immunity and does not need the vaccine."

C) "Varicella is an uncomfortable disease, but it is not that serious."

D) "Varicella in adults can have serious consequences."

Q2) A clinic nurse receives a phone call from a parent who states that a 2-month-old infant has a severe cough, a low-grade fever, and a runny nose that have lasted over a week. What will the nurse ask the parent?

A) Whether the infant has had the first set of vaccines

B) Whether the infant received a hepatitis B vaccine as a newborn

C) Whether the infant attends day care

D) Whether there is a family history of respiratory disorders

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Chapter 70: Antihistamines

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13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25964

Sample Questions

Q1) A 5-year-old child with seasonal allergies has been taking 2.5 mL of cetirizine [Zyrtec] syrup once daily. The parents tell the nurse that the child does not like the syrup, and they do not think that the drug is effective. The nurse will suggest they discuss which drug with their child's healthcare provider?

A) Cetirizine [Zyrtec] 5-mg chewable tablet once daily

B) Loratadine [Claritin] 10-mg chewable tablet once daily

C) Fexofenadine [Allegra] syrup 5 mL twice daily

D) Desloratadine [Clarinex] 5-mg rapid-disintegrating tablet once daily

Q2) A pregnant patient asks the nurse if she can take antihistamines for seasonal allergies during her pregnancy. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) Antihistamines should be avoided unless absolutely necessary.

B) Second-generation antihistamines are safer than first-generation antihistamines.

C) Antihistamines should not be taken during pregnancy but may be taken when breast-feeding.

D) The margin of safety for antihistamines is clearly understood for pregnant patients.

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Chapter 71: Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors: Nonsteroidal

Anti-Inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25965

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibitors. A student asks the nurse about characteristics of COX-1 inhibitors. Which statement by the nurse is true?

A) "COX-1 inhibitors protect against colorectal cancer."

B) "COX-1 inhibitors protect against myocardial infarction and stroke."

C) "COX-1 inhibitors reduce fever."

D) "COX-1 inhibitors suppress inflammation."

Q2) A patient who takes aspirin for rheumatoid arthritis is admitted to the hospital complaining of headache and ringing in the ears. The plasma salicylate level is 300 mcg/mL, and the urine pH is 6.0. What will the nurse do?

A) Increase the aspirin dose to treat the patient's headache.

B) Notify the provider of possible renal toxicity.

C) Prepare to provide respiratory support, because the patient shows signs of overdose.

D) Withhold the aspirin until the patient's symptoms have subsided.

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Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient who has taken glucocorticoids for over a year about glucocorticoid withdrawal. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I should reduce the dose by half each day until I stop taking the drug."

B) "I will need to have cortisol levels monitored during the withdrawal process."

C) "The withdrawal schedule may take several months."

D) "If I have surgery, I may need to take the drug for a while, even after I have stopped."

Q2) A child is to begin long-term glucocorticoid therapy. The parents ask the nurse about the effects of this drug on the child's growth. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "A smaller dose may be indicated for your child."

B) "Ask your provider about every other day dosing."

C) "Long-acting glucocorticoid preparations should prevent growth suppression."

D) "Oral glucocorticoids rarely cause growth suppression."

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Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will begin taking etanercept [Enbrel] for severe rheumatoid arthritis. The patient has been taking methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The patient asks if the etanercept is stronger than the methotrexate. The nurse will tell the patient that etanercept ____ methotrexate.

A) has synergistic effects with B) helps reduce adverse effects associated with C) is better at delaying progression of joint damage than D) has fewer adverse effects than

Q2) A nurse is discussing the administration of an intravenous infusion of rituximab (Rituxan) with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further education about the care of a patient receiving this drug?

A) "Angioedema and hypersensitivity may occur, but they are usually self-limiting and mild."

B) "I should be prepared to administer epinephrine, glucocorticoids, and oxygen if needed."

C) "I will administer an antihistamine and acetaminophen before beginning the infusion."

D) "I will monitor this patient's blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation closely."

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Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with chronic gout has an acute gouty episode and is admitted to the hospital. The patient has been taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for several months. The prescriber plans to begin therapy with probenecid. What will the nurse do?

A) Give the medication as ordered and observe the patient closely for gastrointestinal side effects.

B) Request an order to lower the dose of the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug.

C) Restrict the patient's fluid intake to minimize the risk of renal injury.

D) Suggest delaying the probenecid therapy until the acute episode has subsided.

Q2) A patient with chronic gout is admitted to the hospital for treatment for an infection. The patient is receiving allopurinol and ampicillin. The nurse is preparing to administer medications and notes that the patient has a temperature of 101°F and a rash. What will the nurse do?

A) Withhold the allopurinol and notify the prescriber of the drug reaction.

B) Withhold the ampicillin and contact the provider to request a different antibiotic.

C) Request an order for an antihistamine to minimize the drug side effects.

D) Suggest giving a lower dose of the allopurinol while giving ampicillin.

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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone

Mineralization

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is taking alendronate [Fosamax] to treat Paget's disease. The patient asks the nurse why calcium supplements are necessary. The nurse will tell the patient that calcium supplements are necessary to:

A) reduce the likelihood of atrial fibrillation.

B) maximize bone resorption of calcium.

C) minimize the risk of esophageal cancer.

D) prevent hyperparathyroidism.

Q2) A 55-year-old female patient asks a nurse about calcium supplements. The nurse learns that the patient consumes two servings of dairy products each day. The patient's serum calcium level is 9.5 mg/dL. The serum vitamin D level is 18 ng/mL. The nurse will recommend adding ____ daily and ____ IU of vitamin D? each day.

A) 1200 mg of calcium once; 10,000

B) 1500 mg of calcium twice; 1000

C) 600 mg of calcium once; 10,000

D) 600 mg of calcium twice; 2000

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Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25970

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who takes oral theophylline [Theochron] twice daily for chronic stable asthma develops an infection and will take ciprofloxacin. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:

A) changing to a different antibiotic.

B) reducing the theophylline dose.

C) giving theophylline once daily.

D) switching from theophylline to a LABA.

Q2) A patient with stable COPD receives prescriptions for an inhaled glucocorticoid and an inhaled beta₂-adrenergic agonist. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this medication regimen?

A) "I should use the glucocorticoid as needed when symptoms flare."

B) "I will need to use the beta₂-adrenergic agonist drug daily."

C) "The beta₂-adrenergic agonist suppresses the synthesis of inflammatory mediators."

D) "The glucocorticoid is used as prophylaxis to prevent exacerbations."

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Page 78

Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse provides teaching to a patient with allergic rhinitis who will begin using an intranasal glucocorticoid. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "If the glucocorticoid causes burning or itching, I should use it every other day."

B) "I should use a decongestant if necessary before using the glucocorticoid."

C) "I should use the glucocorticoid whenever I have symptoms."

D) "I will probably develop systemic effects from the topical glucocorticoid."

Q2) A child who has perennial allergic rhinitis has been using an intranasal glucocorticoid. The provider has ordered montelukast [Singulair] to replace the glucocorticoid, because the child has frequent nosebleeds. When teaching this child's parents about montelukast, the nurse will include which statement?

A) "Montelukast is also effective for treating infectious rhinitis."

B) "Montelukast may cause behavior changes in your child."

C) "Montelukast will treat both congestion and rhinitis."

D) "Montelukast works best when combined with a topical decongestant."

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Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student is caring for a patient who is taking sucralfate [Carafate] and ciprofloxacin [Cipro] to treat peptic ulcer disease. The student asks the nurse about the pharmacokinetics of sucralfate. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Sucralfate adheres to the ulcer and blocks the back-diffusion of hydrogen ions."

B) "Sucralfate and ciprofloxacin should be administered 1 hour apart."

C) "Sucralfate does not cause systemic side effects."

D) "Sucralfate has a moderate acid-neutralizing capacity."

Q2) The nurse is providing education to a patient who has been prescribed both an antacid and a cimetidine [Tagamet]. Which instruction should the nurse give the patient about taking the medications?

A) "Take the antacid 1 hour after the ranitidine."

B) "The antacid and ranitidine should be taken at the same time for better effect."

C) "Take the antacid 15 minutes before the ranitidine."

D) "Take the antacid 30 minutes after the ranitidine."

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Chapter 79: Laxatives

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15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25973

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient's provider has recommended a bulk-forming laxative for occasional constipation. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching about this agent?

A) "I can take this medication long term."

B) "I should not take this drug if I have diverticulitis."

C) "I should take each dose with a full glass of water."

D) "This drug can cause severe diarrhea."

Q2) The parent of a child with cerebral palsy reports that the child has pebble-like stools most of the time and seems uncomfortable if several days have passed between stools. The nurse will suggest that the parent discuss which medication with the child's provider?

A) Bisacodyl [Dulcolax] suppositories

B) Magnesium citrate

C) Methylcellulose [Citrucel]

D) Polyethylene glycol [MiraLax]

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Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is preparing to travel to perform missionary work in a region with poor drinking water. The provider gives the patient a prescription for ciprofloxacin [Cipro] to take on the trip. What will the nurse instruct this patient to do?

A) Combine the antibiotic with an antidiarrheal medication, such as loperamide.

B) Start taking the ciprofloxacin 1 week before traveling.

C) Take 1 tablet of ciprofloxacin with each meal for best results.

D) Use the drug if symptoms are severe or do not improve in a few days.

Q2) A pregnant patient who is taking ondansetron [Zofran] for morning sickness tells the nurse she is experiencing headache and dizziness. What will the nurse tell her?

A) It is not safe to take this drug during pregnancy.

B) These are common side effects of ondansetron.

C) She should stop taking the ondansetron immediately.

D) She should report these adverse effects to her provider.

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Chapter 81: Vitamins

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with hyperlipidemia has been told by the provider to take extra niacin. The nurse will tell the patient to:

A) increase servings of poultry, fish, and cereals.

B) take nicotinamide supplements.

C) take nicotinic acid supplements.

D) take tryptophan supplements.

Q2) A child is diagnosed with rickets. The nurse knows that this child is most likely deficient in which vitamin?

A) Niacin (nicotinic acid)

B) Thiamin (vitamin B₁)

C) Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)

D) Vitamin D

Q3) What are the potential beneficial effects of taking vitamin E (alpha-tocopherol) supplements?

A) Delayed progression of macular degeneration

B) Improved blood clotting

C) Lowered risk of developing Alzheimer's disease

D) Reduced risk of cardiovascular disease

E) Reduced risk of colds in elderly patients

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Page 83

Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss

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13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been taking phentermine and topiramate [Osymia] for 6 months for weight loss. The nurse weighs the patient and notes a 3% weight loss since beginning the drug. The nurse will expect the prescriber to:

A) continue the current dosage for 4 more weeks.

B) discontinue the drug.

C) increase the drug dosage.

D) switch to another nonamphetamine agent.

Q2) Which statement by a patient about to begin taking orlistat [Xenical] for weight loss therapy indicates an understanding of this drug's actions?

A) "I can eat as much as I want and still lose weight."

B) "I should avoid fat-soluble vitamin supplements while taking this drug."

C) "If I take a bulk-forming laxative, I can reduce the incidence of fecal incontinence."

D) "If I take the drug 4 times daily instead of twice daily, I will lose weight faster."

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Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which patients should be given antibiotics prophylactically?

A) Children who attend day care with other children who have strep throat

B) Children undergoing chemotherapy who have mild neutropenia

C) Patients with certain congenital heart defects at risk for bacterial endocarditis

D) Patients with compound fractures undergoing surgical repair

E) Postoperative patients who have undergone emergency cesarean sections

Q2) Which are benefits of using a combination of two or more antibiotics?

A) Reduced cost

B) Reduced risk of superinfection

C) Reduced toxicity

D) Reduced resistance

E) Reduced risk in severe infection

Q3) A recent campaign, initiated by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC), to delay the emergence of antibiotic resistance in hospitals, has what as one of its objectives?

A) Allowing patients to stop antibiotics when symptoms subside

B) Allowing prescribers to develop their own prescribing guidelines

C) Increased adherence to prescribed antibiotics

D) Increased use of antibiotics among parents of young children

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Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I:

Penicillins

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is receiving intravenous potassium penicillin G, 2 million units to be administered over 1 hour. At 1900, the nurse notes that the dose hung at 1830 has infused completely. What will the nurse do?

A) Assess the skin at the infusion site for signs of tissue necrosis.

B) Observe the patient closely for confusion and other neurotoxic effects.

C) Request an order for serum electrolytes and cardiac monitoring.

D) Watch the patient's actions and report any bizarre behaviors.

Q2) A patient has an infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. The prescriber has ordered dicloxacillin PO. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the medication as ordered.

B) Contact the provider to suggest giving the drug IV.

C) Question the need for a penicillinase-resistant penicillin.

D) Suggest ordering vancomycin to treat this infection.

Q3) Which organisms can be treated with penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin)?

A) Methicillin-resistant S. aureus

B) Neisseria meningitidis

C) P. aeruginosa

D) S. pyogenes

E) T. pallidum

86

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Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall Ii:

Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, Teicoplanin, and Fosfomycin

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13 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A prescriber has ordered cefoxitin for a patient who has an infection caused by a gram-negative bacteria. The nurse taking the medication history learns that the patient experienced a maculopapular rash when taking amoxicillin [Amoxil] several years earlier. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the cefoxitin and observe for any side effects.

B) Give the cefoxitin and have epinephrine and respiratory support available.

C) Request an order for a different, nonpenicillin, noncephalosporin antibiotic.

D) Request an order to administer a skin test before giving the cefoxitin.

Q2) A patient will be discharged home to complete treatment with intravenous cefotetan with the assistance of a home nurse. The home care nurse will include which instruction when teaching the patient about this drug treatment?

A) Abstain from alcohol consumption during therapy.

B) Avoid dairy products while taking this drug.

C) Take an antihistamine if a rash occurs.

D) Use nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), not acetaminophen, for pain.

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Chapter 86: Bacteriostatic Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis:

Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is taking erythromycin ethylsuccinate for a chlamydial infection and develops vaginal candidiasis. The prescriber orders ketoconazole to treat the superinfection. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the erythromycin and the ketoconazole as ordered.

B) Contact the provider to discuss changing to a different antifungal medication.

C) Contact the provider to discuss increasing the dose of erythromycin.

D) Contact the provider to suggest using erythromycin stearate.

Q2) Which infections may be treated with linezolid [Zyvox])?

A) Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) that is penicillin sensitive

B) Nosocomial pneumonia caused by methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA)

C) Pneumonias caused by Mycoplasma avium

D) Superficial methicillin-resistant S. aureus skin infections (MRSA)

E) Vancomycin-resistant infections

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Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient shows signs and symptoms of conjunctivitis. Which aminoglycoside would the nurse expect to be ordered?

A) Amikacin [Amikin]

B) Kanamycin [Kantrex]

C) Neomycin [Neomycin]

D) Paromomycin [Humatin]

Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of gentamicin to a patient who is receiving the drug 3 times daily. The nurse will monitor ____ levels.

A) peak

B) peak and trough

C) serum drug

D) trough

Q3) A patient is receiving an intraperitoneal aminoglycoside during surgery. To reverse a serious side effect of this drug, the nurse may expect to administer which agent?

A) Amphotericin B

B) Calcium gluconate

C) Neuromuscular blocker

D) Vancomycin

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Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pregnant patient is treated with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMZ) [Bactrim] for a urinary tract infection at 32 weeks' gestation. A week later, the woman delivers her infant prematurely. The nurse will expect to monitor the infant for:

A) birth defects.

B) hypoglycemia.

C) rash.

D) kernicterus.

Q2) A patient with bronchitis is taking TMP/SMZ, 160/800 mg orally, twice daily. Before administering the third dose, the nurse notes that the patient has a widespread rash, a temperature of 103°F, and a heart rate of 100 beats/min. The patient looks ill and reports not feeling well. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the dose and request an order for an antipyretic medication.

B) Withhold the dose and request an order for an antihistamine to treat the rash.

C) Withhold the dose and notify the provider of the symptoms.

D) Request an order for intravenous TMP/SMZ, because the patient is getting worse.

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Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections

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Sample Questions

Q1) An older male patient comes to the clinic with complaints of chills, malaise, myalgia, localized pain, dysuria, nocturia, and urinary retention. The nurse would most likely suspect that the patient has:

A) acute cystitis.

B) urinary tract infection.

C) pyelonephritis.

D) prostatitis.

Q2) Which patient with a urinary tract infection will require hospitalization and intravenous antibiotics?

A) A 5-year-old child with a fever of 100.5°F, dysuria, and bacteriuria

B) A pregnant woman with bacteriuria, suprapubic pain, and fever

C) A young man with dysuria, flank pain, and a previous urinary tract infection

D) An older adult man with a low-grade fever, flank pain, and an indwelling catheter

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Chapter 90: Antimycobacterial Agents: Drugs for

Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium Avium Complex

Infection

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with HIV who takes protease inhibitors develops tuberculosis and will begin treatment. Which drug regimen will be used for this patient?

A) Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol + rifabutin

B) Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol

C) Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol

D) Isoniazid + rifabutin

Q2) A patient is beginning treatment for active tuberculosis (TB) in a region with little drug-resistant TB. Which treatment regimen will be used initially?

A) Isoniazid and pyrazinamide

B) Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol

C) Rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol

D) Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol

Q3) A healthcare worker who is asymptomatic has a screening TST result of 10 mm of induration during a pre-employment physical. What will the nurse reading this test tell the patient?

A) "This is a negative test, so you are cleared for employment."

B) "You have latent TB and will need to take isoniazid for 6 to 9 months."

C) "You need to have a chest radiograph and a sputum culture."

D) "You will begin taking a four-drug regimen to treat tuberculosis."

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Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:

Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer an antibiotic to a patient with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The nurse would expect the healthcare provider to order which antibiotic?

A) Daptomycin [Cubicin]

B) Levofloxacin [Levaquin]

C) Norfloxacin [Noroxin]

D) Ciprofloxacin [Cipro]

Q2) A nursing student is caring for a patient with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) who also has a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) skin infection. The prescriber has ordered daptomycin [Cubicin]. The nurse encourages the student to approach the provider to request a different antibiotic because of which facts about daptomycin?

A) It causes significant renal impairment.

B) It is approved only for bloodstream and skin infections.

C) It increases the risk of serious cardiorespiratory events.

D) It is more likely to produce resistant strains of bacteria.

E) It is not effective against MRSA infections.

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Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who has a superficial fungal infection and notes that the provider has ordered 200 mg of ketoconazole [Nizoral], 200 mg PO once daily. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A) Administer the drug as ordered.

B) Contact the provider to discuss twice daily dosing.

C) Discuss a 400-mg daily drug regimen with the provider.

D) Request an order for a different antifungal medication.

Q2) Which superficial mycosis is generally treated with oral antifungal agents?

A) Tinea capitis

B) Tinea corporis

C) Tinea cruris

D) Tinea pedis

Q3) The nurse is preparing to administer amphotericin B intravenously. The nurse will expect to pretreat the patient with which medications?

A) Acetaminophen [Tylenol], diphenhydramine [Benadryl], and meperidine [Demerol]

B) Aspirin, diphenhydramine [Benadryl], and meperidine [Demerol]

C) Ibuprofen [Motrin], diphenhydramine [Benadryl], and meperidine [Demerol]

D) Morphine sulfate [Morphine] and acetaminophen [Tylenol]

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Chapter 93: Antiviral Agents I: Drugs for Non-Hiv Viral

Infections

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has a positive test for hepatitis C and is admitted to the hospital. The admission laboratory tests reveal a normal ALT, and a liver biopsy is negative for hepatic fibrosis and inflammation. The nurse will prepare this patient for:

A) dual therapy with pegylated interferon alfa and ribavirin.

B) no medication therapy at this time.

C) pegylated interferon alfa only until ALT levels are elevated.

D) triple drug therapy with pegylated interferon alfa, ribavirin, and boceprevir.

Q2) A patient with hepatitis B begins treatment with adefovir [Hepsera] and asks the nurse how long the drug therapy will last. The nurse will tell the patient that the medication will need to be taken for:

A) a lifetime.

B) an indefinite, prolonged period of time.

C) 48 weeks.

D) until nephrotoxicity occurs.

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95

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive and is taking high doses of zidovudine [Retrovir]. The nurse is providing patient education about the adverse effects of the medication. Which statement by the patient demonstrates a need for further teaching?

A) "I may experience fatigue from anemia."

B) "I may be more susceptible to infection from neutropenia."

C) "I may have a deficiency of vitamin B₆."

D) "I may have a deficiency of folic acid."

Q2) A patient who is taking didanosine [Videx] reports nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. What will the nurse recommend to this patient?

A) "Take the drug with food to minimize these side effects."

B) "Stop taking the drug immediately and resume taking it once your symptoms subside."

C) "Take the medication in the evening to avoid experiencing these kinds of symptoms."

D) "You will need laboratory tests to determine if these are serious effects of the drug."

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Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient admitted to the hospital is using metronidazole [Flagyl] 0.75% gel. The nurse understands that this agent is used to treat which condition?

A) Chlamydia trachomatis

B) Gardnerella vaginalis

C) Haemophilus ducreyi

D) Trichomonas vaginalis

Q2) During a routine screening, an asymptomatic, pregnant patient at 37 weeks' gestation learns that she has an infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. The nurse will expect the provider to order which drug?

A) Azithromycin

B) Doxycycline

C) Erythromycin ethylsuccinate

D) Sulfisoxazole

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Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has developed a local infection at an IV insertion site. Before the IV was inserted, the site was cleansed with a product with an ethanol concentration of 70%. The nurse will report the local infection to the provider and expect to receive an order to:

A) administer a systemic antimicrobial agent.

B) apply a topical antiseptic agent to the infected area.

C) culture the site to assess for C. difficile.

D) use a topical agent containing 95% ethanol.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a nursing student how to care for patients in the perioperative period. Which statement by the student about preventing postoperative infections indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Applying hexachlorophene to the operative site preoperatively will help prevent infection."

B) "It is important to ensure that all surgical instruments have been sterilized appropriately."

C) "Operating room personnel should all perform a presurgical scrub with antimicrobial soap."

D) "Preventing contamination by microorganisms in the environment is the most important perioperative measure."

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Page 98

Chapter 97: Anthelmintics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient tells the nurse that a close friend has ascariasis. The patient expresses worry about becoming infested. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) "Ascariasis usually resolves without treatment, so you should not worry."

B) "Avoid going barefoot and practice good hygiene and you won't become infested."

C) "Treatment is always indicated if you are exposed, because ascariasis is contagious."

D) "You should be tested, because serious complications can occur without treatment."

Q2) A patient with strongyloidiasis is being treated with ivermectin [Stromectol]. What will the nurse expect to teach this patient?

A) A Mazotti-type reaction is likely.

B) Hypotension is a common side effect of the drug.

C) The drug should be taken every 6 to 12 months until symptoms have cleared.

D) The drug should be taken with water for 1 to 2 days.

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Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has severe P. falciparum malaria and is unable to tolerate oral medications. Which regimen is the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved treatment of choice for this patient?

A) Intravenous quinidine gluconate plus intravenous doxycycline [Vibramycin]

B) Intravenous artesunate followed by atovaquone/proguanil [Malarone]

C) Intravenous quinine [Qualaquin] plus intravenous clindamycin

D) Intravenous mefloquine plus intravenous primaquine

Q2) The nurse is caring for a newly admitted African American patient who has just returned from a mission trip to Africa. The patient contracted malaria and is being treated with primaquine. What will the nurse monitor?

A) The patient's blood for evidence of hyperlipidemia

B) The patient's eyes for evidence of icterus

C) The patient's skin for photosensitivity

D) The patient's urinary output for evidence of darkening urine

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Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs II: Miscellaneous Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is providing patient education to a 26-year-old college student who is being treated for Trichomonas vaginalis with metronidazole [Flagyl]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I should not consume alcohol while taking this medication."

B) "If I have dark urine, I should stop taking the drug."

C) "The drug is safe throughout pregnancy."

D) "Vertigo and headaches may occur and are signs of toxicity."

Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with severe symptomatic intestinal amebiasis who has just completed a 10-day course of metronidazole [Flagyl]. Which medication would the nurse expect to be ordered for the patient?

A) Atovaquone [Mepron]

B) Iodoquinol [Yodoxin]

C) Nitazoxanide [Alinia]

D) Pentamidine [Pentam]

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Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two days after a child is treated with permethrin [Nix] for head lice, a parent calls the clinic to report seeing nits and a few live lice on the child's scalp. The nurse will tell the parent to:

A) ask the provider about using benzyl alcohol [Ulesfia].

B) cut the areas of the child's hair where nits are present.

C) retreat the child's hair with permethrin [Nix].

D) use a fine-toothed comb to remove nits and live lice.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a parent about treating a child for scabies. Which statement by the parent indicates understanding of the treatment?

A) "I should wash all bedding and clothing as well as applying the medicine."

B) "I will apply the cream to the visible burrows and areas of itching."

C) "More than one application of the cream may be needed."

D) "The cream may cause systemic side effects."

Q3) A public health nurse visits with the parents of a child who has body lice. It is most important that the nurse tell the parents that:

A) body lice are transmitted by direct person-to-person contact.

B) treatment of skin surfaces will eradicate the infestation.

C) all clothing and bedding must be disinfected.

D) lice burrow into the body, and vigorous scrubbing is required to remove them.

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Page 102

Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A hospitalized patient with cancer is receiving chemotherapy and reports oral pain. Inspection of the patient's oral mucosa reveals erythema and inflammation without denudation or ulceration. The nurse understands that:

A) chemotherapy will have to be stopped until healing of the oral mucosa occurs.

B) the patient can use a mouthwash with a topical anesthetic to control pain.

C) the patient will need an antifungal agent to treat Candida albicans.

D) the patient will need systemic opioids to control discomfort.

Q2) Which are guidelines for selecting chemotherapeutic agents to use in combination therapy?

A) Drugs used should have different mechanisms.

B) Each drug should be delivered by different routes.

C) Each drug should be effective.

D) Each drug should have different dosing schedules.

E) Toxicities should be minimally overlapping.

Q3) What contributes to drug resistance to chemotherapeutic agents?

A) Cellular production of P-glycoprotein

B) Creation of selection pressure by drugs

C) Drug-induced cellular mutation

D) Increased drug uptake by tumor cells

E) Reduced target molecule sensitivity

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Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse how cancer cells become resistant to methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The nurse is correct to respond by saying that cancer cells acquire resistance to methotrexate by:

A) reduced production of transporter that pumps methotrexate out of cells.

B) reduced synthesis of dihydrofolate reductase.

C) reduced uptake of methotrexate into cells.

D) increased ability to convert the drug to a polyglutamated form.

Q2) A patient who has a brain tumor will receive a nitrosourea agent. A nursing student asks why this type of drug is used for this type of cancer. The nurse will tell the student that nitrosoureas are useful because they:

A) are lipophilic.

B) are bifunctional alkylating agents.

C) have a broad spectrum of antineoplastic characteristics.

D) have delayed bone marrow suppression.

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Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs II: Hormonal Agents,

Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will begin taking tamoxifen [Nolvadex] to treat breast cancer. The nurse performs a medication history and learns that the patient is taking sertraline [Zoloft] for depression. The nurse will tell the patient to contact her provider to ask about:

A) increasing her dose of sertraline.

B) changing from sertraline to escitalopram [Lexapro].

C) switching from sertraline to fluoxetine [Prozac].

D) decreasing her dose of tamoxifen.

Q2) A premenopausal woman has ER-positive breast cancer, and her prescriber has ordered tamoxifen [Nolvadex]. She asks the nurse if anastrozole [Arimidex] would work better for her. What will the nurse tell her?

A) Anastrozole is more likely to cause hot flushes than tamoxifen.

B) Anastrozole is more likely to promote endometrial carcinoma.

C) Cancer recurrence is higher with anastrozole.

D) Until she is postmenopausal, anastrozole will not be effective.

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105

Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer timolol [Timoptic] eye drops to a patient who has open-angle glaucoma. The nurse notes that the patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse will contact the provider to discuss changing to which medication?

A) Betaxolol

B) Carteolol

C) Levobunolol

D) Metipranolol

Q2) The nurse is reviewing personal knowledge of the medications used in the treatment of open-angle glaucoma. The nurse would be correct to identify which medications as treatment?

A) Alpha₂ agonists

B) Prostaglandin analogs

C) Anticholinergics

D) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

E) Beta blockers

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106

Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 50-year-old patient asks about using tretinoin [Renova] to minimize wrinkles. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) The drug may be discontinued once results are obtained.

B) Results may be visible within a few weeks of starting therapy.

C) Systemic toxicity is a common effect in patients with sensitive skin.

D) The drug is not effective on coarse wrinkles or sun-damaged skin.

Q2) An infant has a severe contact diaper dermatitis. The provider orders triamcinolone acetonide [Kenalog] 0.1% cream to be applied 3 times daily. When teaching the infant's parents about this medication, the nurse will instruct them to apply:

A) a thick layer and massage the cream into the skin.

B) a thin layer and leave the diaper open as much as possible.

C) the cream and place an occlusive dressing over the area.

D) the cream and put the infant's diaper on tightly.

Q3) A patient will begin initial treatment for severe acne. Which regimen will the nurse expect the provider to order?

A) Clindamycin/benzoyl peroxide [BenzaClin] and tretinoin [Retin-A]

B) Doxycycline [Vibramycin] and tretinoin [Retin-A]

C) Erythromycin [Ery-Tab] and benzoyl peroxide

D) Topical clindamycin and isotretinoin [Accutane]

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Page 107

Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear

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12 Verified Questions

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26000

Sample Questions

Q1) A 6-year-old child has otitis media and is being treated with amoxicillin [Amoxil] and ibuprofen [Motrin]. The child's parent calls the nurse to report that the child's pain is not relieved with the ibuprofen. The child is afebrile and there is no drainage from either ear. The nurse will discuss which additional treatment with the child's provider?

A) Adding acetaminophen [Tylenol] to the pain medication regimen

B) Applying antipyrine and benzocaine [Aurodex] solution to the ear canals

C) Changing the antibiotic to amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin]

D) Performing a tympanostomy to relieve pressure in the middle ear

Q2) An adolescent patient who is on the school swim team asks a nurse about ways to prevent swimmer's ear. The nurse will tell the patient to:

A) allow the ears to drain well after every swim and shower.

B) clean the ears with a cotton-tipped applicator after swimming.

C) keep the ear canals free of cerumen.

D) use antifungal ear drops before and after swimming.

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108

Chapter 107: Additional Noteworthy Drugs

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9 Verified Questions

9 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26001

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is quizzing a nursing student who is preparing to care for a patient with cystic fibrosis. The patient uses inhaled tobramycin [TOBI], dornase alfa [Pulmozyme], ibuprofen, and salmeterol [Serevent Diskus]. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of this patient's drug regimen?

A) "Dornase alfa is used as needed to decrease viscosity of sputum."

B) "Ibuprofen is used to minimize pleuritic pain associated with coughing."

C) "Salmeterol acts by causing bronchodilation and improving ciliary function."

D) "Tobramycin is given via a metered-dose inhaler to avoid systemic side effects."

Q2) A nurse counsels a patient who is to begin taking gamma-hydroxybutyrate [Xyrem] for narcolepsy. It is important for the nurse to warn the patient that respiratory depression is a potential risk with concomitant use of:

A) alcohol.

B) beta blockers.

C) caffeine.

D) nicotine.

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Chapter 108: Complementary and Alternative Therapy

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10 Verified Questions

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26002

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is obtaining a history from a patient who discloses daily use of St. John's wort in addition to prescription drugs. Which effect of this dietary supplement would most concern the nurse?

A) It accelerates the metabolism of some drugs.

B) It enhances the effects of digoxin.

C) It counteracts the effects of CNS depressants.

D) It increases the risk of bleeding.

Q2) A nurse is performing a preoperative drug history on a patient who is admitted to the hospital for surgery. To evaluate the risk of hemorrhage, the nurse will ask the patient about antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications as well as which dietary supplement?

A) Coenzyme Q-10

B) Ginkgo biloba

C) Ma Huang (ephedra)

D) St. John's wort

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Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning

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11 Verified Questions

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26003

Sample Questions

Q1) A child is admitted to the hospital after a routine lead screen reveals an elevated serum lead level. The prescriber has ordered edetate calcium disodium (calcium EDTA) as a chelating agent. During this drug treatment, the nurse will expect to:

A) collect a daily urine specimen.

B) give the medication on an empty stomach.

C) monitor the child's heart rate and blood pressure.

D) request orders for liver function tests.

Q2) A patient overdosed on aspirin several hours ago and is brought to the emergency department. The nurse assists with supportive care and then asks the provider about an order for which drug?

A) Activated charcoal

B) Ammonium chloride

C) Fomepizole [Antizol]

D) Sodium bicarbonate

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Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism

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11 Verified Questions

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26004

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is admitted to the hospital with fever, cough, malaise, and weakness. Forty-eight hours later, the symptoms have become progressively worse, and they progress to severe respiratory distress, septicemia, and hemorrhagic meningitis. The nurse recognizes these signs and symptoms as:

A) tularemia.

B) smallpox.

C) inhalation anthrax.

D) pneumonic plague.

Q2) A group of people has been exposed to ricin by inhalation of ricin mist. When preparing to receive these victims in the emergency department, nurses will prepare to:

A) administer antidotes.

B) give chelating agents.

C) provide respiratory support.

D) start hemodialysis.

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