Nursing Care of Children Practice Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides students with the foundational knowledge and skills necessary to deliver comprehensive nursing care to children from infancy through adolescence. Emphasizing family-centered and developmental approaches, the course covers growth and development, health promotion, disease prevention, common pediatric illnesses, and management of acute and chronic conditions. Students learn to assess pediatric patients, apply evidence-based interventions, and communicate effectively with children and their families, while considering cultural, ethical, and legal issues unique to pediatric nursing. Clinical experiences and case studies reinforce theoretical concepts, preparing students to support the health and well-being of children in a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal Child Nursing Care 5th Edition by Perry
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49 Chapters
1995 Verified Questions
1995 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: 21st Century Maternity Nursing
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31 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which interventions would help alleviate the problems associated with access to health care for maternity patients (Select all that apply)?
A)Provide transportation to prenatal visits.
B)Provide childcare so that a pregnant woman may keep prenatal visits.
C)Mandate that physicians make house calls.
D)Provide low-cost or no-cost health care insurance.
E)Provide job training.
Answer: A,B,D
Q2) Patient care information
A)Ask the patient to "teach back."
B)Comply with CDC guidelines.
C)Ensure that information is documented in a timely manner.
D)Promote interventions that will reduce patient risk.
E)Reduce exposure to radiation.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Community Care: the Family and Culture
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process by which people retain some of their own culture while adopting the practices of the dominant society is known as:
A)Acculturation.
B)Assimilation.
C)Ethnocentrism.
D)Cultural relativism.
Answer: A
Q2) The patient's family is important to the maternity nurse because:
A)They pay the bills.
B)The nurse will know which family member to avoid.
C)The nurse will know which mothers will really care for their children.
D)The family culture and structure will influence nursing care decisions.
Answer: D
Q3) The nurse should be aware that during the childbearing experience an African-American woman is most likely to:
A)Seek prenatal care early in her pregnancy.
B)Avoid self-treatment of pregnancy-related discomfort.
C)Request liver in the postpartum period to prevent anemia.
D)Arrive at the hospital in advanced labor.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Assessment and Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who is older than 35 years may have difficulty achieving pregnancy primarily because:
A)Personal risk behaviors influence fertility
B)She has used contraceptives for an extended time
C)Her ovaries may be affected by the aging process
D)Prepregnancy medical attention is lacking
Answer: C
Q2) A common effect of both smoking and cocaine use in the pregnant woman is:
A)Vasoconstriction
B)Increased appetite
C)Changes in insulin metabolism
D)Increased metabolism
Answer: A
Q3) The microscopic examination of scrapings from the cervix,endocervix,or other mucous membranes to detect premalignant or malignant cells is called:
A)Bimanual palpation.
B)Rectovaginal palpation.
C)A Papanicolaou (Pap) test.
D)A four As procedure.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Reproductive System Concerns
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Sample Questions
Q1) On vaginal examination of a 30-year-old woman,the nurse documents the following findings: profuse,thin,grayish white vaginal discharge with a "fishy" odor; complaint of pruritus.On the basis of these findings,the nurse suspects that this woman has:
A)Bacterial vaginosis (BV).
B)Candidiasis.
C)Trichomoniasis.
D)Gonorrhea.
Q2) Fennel,dong quai
A)Uterine antispasmodic
B)Uterotonic
C)Antiinflammatory
D)Estrogen-like luteinizing hormone suppressant
E)Decreases prolactin levels
Q3) Which viral sexually transmitted infection is characterized by a primary infection followed by recurrent episodes?
A)Herpes simplex virus (HSV)-2
B)Human papillomavirus (HPV)
C)Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
D)Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Infertility,contraception,and Abortion
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Sample Questions
Q1) A male client asks the nurse why it is better to purchase condoms that are not lubricated with nonoxynol-9 (a common spermicide).The nurse's most appropriate response is:
A)"The lubricant prevents vaginal irritation."
B)"Nonoxynol-9 does not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections, as originally thought; it has also been linked to an increase in the transmission of human immunodeficiency virus and can cause genital lesions."
C)"The additional lubrication improves sex."
D)"Nonoxynol-9 improves penile sensitivity."
Q2) With regard to the noncontraceptive medical effects of combined oral contraceptive pills (COCs),nurses should be aware that:
A)COCs can cause toxic shock syndrome if the prescription is wrong.
B)Hormonal withdrawal bleeding usually is a bit more profuse than in normal menstruation and lasts a week.
C)COCs increase the risk of endometrial and ovarian cancer.
D)The effectiveness of COCs can be altered by some over-the-counter medications and herbal supplements.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Genetics, conception, and Fetal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for the laboring woman should know that meconium is produced by:
A)Fetal intestines.
B)Fetal kidneys.
C)Amniotic fluid.
D)The placenta.
Q2) As relates to the structure and function of the placenta,the maternity nurse should be aware that:
A)As the placenta widens, it gradually thins to allow easier passage of air and nutrients.
B)As one of its early functions, the placenta acts as an endocrine gland.
C)The placenta is able to keep out most potentially toxic substances such as cigarette smoke to which the mother is exposed.
D)Optimal blood circulation is achieved through the placenta when the woman is lying on her back or standing.
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8
Chapter 7: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who has completed one pregnancy with a fetus (or fetuses)reaching the stage of fetal viability is called a:
A)Primipara.
B)Primigravida.
C)Multipara.
D)Nulligravida.
Q2) Numerous changes in the integumentary system occur during pregnancy.Which change persists after birth?
A)Epulis
B)Chloasma
C)Telangiectasia
D)Striae gravidarum
Q3) Which time-based description of a stage of development in pregnancy is accurate?
A)Viability-22 to 37 weeks since the last menstrual period (LMP) (assuming a fetal weight >500 g)
B)Term-pregnancy from the beginning of week 38 of gestation to the end of week 42
C)Preterm-pregnancy from 20 to 28 weeks
D)Postdate-pregnancy that extends beyond 38 weeks
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Chapter 8: Nursing Care of the Family During Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the first trimester,a woman can expect which of the following changes in her sexual desire?
A)An increase, because of enlarging breasts
B)A decrease, because of nausea and fatigue
C)No change
D)An increase, because of increased levels of female hormones
Q2) While teaching the expectant mother about personal hygiene during pregnancy,maternity nurses should be aware that:
A)Tub bathing is permitted even in late pregnancy unless membranes have ruptured.
B)The perineum should be wiped from back to front.
C)Bubble bath and bath oils are permissible because they add an extra soothing and cleansing action to the bath.
D)Expectant mothers should use specially treated soap to cleanse the nipples.
Q3) For what reason would breastfeeding be contraindicated?
A)Hepatitis B
B)Everted nipples
C)History of breast cancer 3 years ago
D)Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive
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Chapter 9: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which vitamins or minerals can lead to congenital malformations of the fetus if taken in excess by the mother?
A)Zinc
B)Vitamin D
C)Folic acid
D)Vitamin A
Q2) The most important reason for evaluating the pattern of weight gain in pregnancy is to:
A)Prevent excessive adipose tissue deposits
B)Identify potential nutritional problems or complications of pregnancy
C)Assess the need to limit caloric intake in obese women
D)Determine cultural influences on the woman's diet
Q3) When providing care to the prenatal patient,the nurse understands that pica is defined as:
A)Intolerance of milk products
B)Iron deficiency anemia
C)Ingestion of nonfood substances
D)Episodes of anorexia and vomiting
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Chapter 10: Assessment of High Risk Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman is undergoing a nipple-stimulated contraction stress test (CST).She is having contractions that occur every 3 minutes.The fetal heart rate (FHR)has a baseline of approximately 120 beats/min without any decelerations.The interpretation of this test is said to be:
A)Negative.
B)Positive.
C)Satisfactory.
D)Unsatisfactory.
Q2) In comparing the abdominal and transvaginal methods of ultrasound examination,nurses should explain to their clients that:
A)Both require the woman to have a full bladder.
B)The abdominal examination is more useful in the first trimester.
C)Initially the transvaginal examination can be painful.
D)The transvaginal examination allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail.
Q3) In the first trimester,ultrasonography can be used to gain information on:
A)Amniotic fluid volume.
B)Location of Gestational sacs
C)Placental location and maturity.
D)Cervical length.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Pregnancy at Risk: Preexisting Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman has a history of drug use and is screened for hepatitis B during the first trimester.What is an appropriate action?
A)Provide a low-protein diet.
B)Offer the vaccine.
C)Discuss the recommendation to bottle-feed her baby.
D)Practice respiratory isolation.
Q2) Which heart condition is not a contraindication for pregnancy?
A)Peripartum cardiomyopathy
B)Eisenmenger syndrome
C)Heart transplant
D)All of these contraindicate pregnancy.
Q3) Step 5
A)Without adding air, withdraw the correct dose of NPH insulin.
B)Gently rotate the insulin to mix it, and wipe the stopper.
C)Inject air equal to the dose of NPH insulin into the vial, and remove the syringe.
D)Inject air equal to the dose of regular insulin into the vial, and withdraw the medication.
E)Check the insulin bottles for the expiration date.
F)Wash hands.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Pregnancy at Risk: Gestational Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In providing nutritional counseling for the pregnant woman experiencing cholecystitis,the nurse would:
A)Assess the woman's dietary history for adequate calories and proteins.
B)Instruct the woman that the bulk of calories should come from proteins.
C)Instruct the woman to eat a low-fat diet and avoid fried foods.
D)Instruct the woman to eat a low-cholesterol, low-salt diet.
Q2) Approximately 10% to 15% of all clinically recognized pregnancies end in miscarriage.Which is the most common cause of spontaneous abortion?
A)Chromosomal abnormalities
B)Infections
C)Endocrine imbalance
D)Immunologic factors
Q3) In planning care for women with preeclampsia,nurses should be aware that:
A)Induction of labor is likely, as near term as possible.
B)If at home, the woman should be confined to her bed, even with mild preeclampsia.
C)A special diet low in protein and salt should be initiated.
D)Vaginal birth is still an option, even in severe cases.
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Chapter 13: Labor and Birth Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which occurrence is associated with cervical dilation and effacement?
A)Bloody show
B)False labor
C)Lightening
D)Bladder distention
Q2) Which factors influence cervical dilation (Select all that apply)?
A)Strong uterine contractions
B)The force of the presenting fetal part against the cervix
C)The size of the female pelvis
D)The pressure applied by the amniotic sac
E)Scarring of the cervix
Q3) Which description of the four stages of labor is correct for both definition and duration?
A)First stage: onset of regular uterine contractions to full dilation; less than 1 hour to 20 hours
B)Second stage: full effacement to 4 to 5 cm; visible presenting part; 1 to 2 hours
C)Third state: active pushing to birth; 20 minutes (multiparous women), 50 minutes (first-timer)
D)Fourth stage: delivery of the placenta to recovery; 30 minutes to 1 hour
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nurses with an understanding of cultural differences regarding likely reactions to pain may be better able to help clients.Nurses should know that _____ women may be stoic until late in labor,when they may become vocal and request pain relief.
A)Chinese
B)Arab or Middle Eastern
C)Hispanic
D)African-American
Q2) Nursing care measures are commonly offered to women in labor.Which nursing measure reflects application of the gate-control theory?
A)Massaging the woman's back
B)Changing the woman's position
C)Giving the prescribed medication
D)Encouraging the woman to rest between contractions
Q3) The laboring woman who imagines her body opening to let the baby out is using a mental technique called:
A)Dissociation.
B)Effleurage.
C)Imagery.
D)Distraction.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Fetal Assessment During Labor
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Sample Questions
Q1) Commonly 45 seconds or more in the second stage of labor
A)Frequency
B)Duration
C)Strength
D)Resting tone
E)Relaxation time
Q2) The nurse caring for the laboring woman should understand that early decelerations are caused by:
A)Altered fetal cerebral blood flow.
B)Umbilical cord compression.
C)Uteroplacental insufficiency.
D)Spontaneous rupture of membranes.
Q3) What correctly matches the type of deceleration with its likely cause?
A)Early deceleration-umbilical cord compression
B)Late deceleration-uteroplacental inefficiency
C)Variable deceleration-head compression
D)Prolonged deceleration-cause unknown
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Chapter 16: Nursing Care of the Family During Labor and Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nurses can help their clients by keeping them informed about the distinctive stages of labor.What description of the phases of the first stage of labor is accurate?
A)Latent: Mild, regular contractions; no dilation; bloody show; duration of 2 to 4 hours
B)Active: Moderate, regular contractions; 4- to 7-cm dilation; duration of 3 to 6 hours
C)Lull: No contractions; dilation stable; duration of 20 to 60 minutes
D)Transition: Very strong but irregular contractions; 8- to 10-cm dilation; duration of 1 to 2 hours
Q2) Step 5
A)After obtaining permission, gently insert the index and middle fingers into the vagina.
B)Explain findings to the patient.
C)Position the woman to prevent supine hypotension.
D)Use sterile gloves and soluble gel for lubrication.
E)Document findings and report to the provider.
F)Cleanse the perineum and vulva if necessary.
G)Determine dilation, presenting part, status of membranes, and characteristics of amniotic fluid.
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Chapter 17: Labor and Birth Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to the care management of preterm labor,nurses should be aware that:
A)Because all women must be considered at risk for preterm labor and prediction is so hit-and-miss, teaching pregnant women the symptoms probably causes more harm through false alarms.
B)Braxton Hicks contractions often signal the onset of preterm labor.
C)Because preterm labor is likely to be the start of an extended labor, a woman with symptoms can wait several hours before contacting the primary caregiver.
D)The diagnosis of preterm labor is based on gestational age, uterine activity, and progressive cervical change.
Q2) The nurse providing care for a woman with preterm labor who is receiving terbutaline would include which intervention to identify side effects of the drug?
A)Assessing deep tendon reflexes (DTRs)
B)Assessing for chest discomfort and palpitations
C)Assessing for bradycardia
D)Assessing for hypoglycemia
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Chapter 18: Maternal Physiologic Changes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Postbirth uterine/vaginal discharge,called lochia:
A)Is similar to a light menstrual period for the first 6 to 12 hours.
B)Is usually greater after cesarean births.
C)Will usually decrease with ambulation and breastfeeding.
D)Should smell like normal menstrual flow unless an infection is present.
Q2) The self-destruction of excess hypertrophied tissue in the uterus is called:
A)Autolysis.
B)Subinvolution.
C)Afterpain.
D)Diastasis.
Q3) Which woman is most likely to experience strong afterpains?
A)A woman who experienced oligohydramnios
B)A woman who is a gravida 4, para 4-0-0-4
C)A woman who is bottle-feeding her infant
D)A woman whose infant weighed 5 pounds, 3 ounces
Q4) Which finding 12 hours after birth requires further assessment?
A)The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus.
B)The fundus is palpable at the level of the umbilicus.
C)The fundus is palpable one fingerbreadth below the umbilicus.
D)The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths below the umbilicus.
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Chapter 19: Nursing Care of the Family During the
Postpartum Period
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discharge instruction,or teaching the woman what she needs to know to care for herself and her newborn,officially begins:
A)At the time of admission to the nurse's unit.
B)When the infant is presented to the mother at birth.
C)During the first visit with the physician in the unit.
D)When the take-home information packet is given to the couple.
Q2) In the recovery room,if a woman is asked either to raise her legs (knees extended)off the bed or to flex her knees,place her feet flat on the bed,and raise her buttocks well off the bed,most likely she is being tested to see whether she:
A)Has recovered from epidural or spinal anesthesia.
B)Has hidden bleeding underneath her.
C)Has regained some flexibility.
D)Is a candidate to go home after 6 hours.
Q3) Mexican
A)Prefer not to give babies colostrum
B)Eat only warm foods and hot drinks
C)Take the placenta home to bury
D)Will not eat pork or pork products
E)Have an IUD inserted after the first child
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Transition to Parenthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) After giving birth to a healthy infant boy,a primiparous woman,16 years old,is admitted to the postpartum unit.An appropriate nursing diagnosis for her at this time is Risk for impaired parenting related to deficient knowledge of newborn care.In planning for the woman's discharge,what should the nurse be certain to include in the plan of care?
A)Instruct the patient how to feed and bathe her infant.
B)Give the patient written information on bathing her infant.
C)Advise the patient that all mothers instinctively know how to care for their infants.
D)Provide time for the patient to bathe her infant after she views an infant bath demonstration.
Q2) After they are born,a crying infant may be soothed by being held in a position in which the newborn can hear the mother's heartbeat.This phenomenon is known as:
A)Entrainment.
B)Reciprocity.
C)Synchrony.
D)Biorhythmicity.
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Chapter 21: Postpartum Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postbirth period.Assessment reveals that the woman is experiencing profuse bleeding.The most likely etiology for the bleeding is:
A)Uterine atony.
B)Uterine inversion.
C)Vaginal hematoma.
D)Vaginal laceration.
Q2) A primary nursing responsibility when caring for a woman experiencing an obstetric hemorrhage associated with uterine atony is to:
A)Establish venous access.
B)Perform fundal massage.
C)Prepare the woman for surgical intervention.
D)Catheterize the bladder.
Q3) A steady trickle of bright red blood from the vagina in the presence of a firm fundus suggests:
A)Uterine atony.
B)Lacerations of the genital tract.
C)Perineal hematoma.
D)Infection of the uterus.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Physiologic and Behavioral Adaptations of the Newborn
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Q1) While examining a newborn,the nurse notes uneven skin folds on the buttocks and a click when performing the Ortolani maneuver.The nurse recognizes these findings as a sign that the newborn probably has:
A)Polydactyly.
B)Clubfoot.
C)Hip dysplasia.
D)Webbing
Q2) With regard to the respiratory development of the newborn,nurses should be aware that:
A)The first gasping breath is an exaggerated respiratory reaction within 1 minute of birth.
B)Newborns must expel the fluid from the respiratory system within a few minutes of birth.
C)Newborns are instinctive mouth breathers.
D)Seesaw respirations are no cause for concern in the first hour after birth.
Q3) The nurse should immediately alert the physician when:
A)The infant is dusky and turns cyanotic when crying.
B)Acrocyanosis is present at age 1 hour.
C)The infant's blood glucose level is 45 mg/dL.
D)The infant goes into a deep sleep at age 1 hour.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Nursing Care of the Newborn and Family
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Q1) A 3.8-kg infant was delivered vaginally at 39 weeks after a 30-minute second stage.There was a nuchal cord.After birth the infant is noted to have petechiae over the face and upper back.Information given to the infant's parents should be based on the knowledge that petechiae:
A)Are benign if they disappear within 48 hours of birth.
B)Result from increased blood volume.
C)Should always be further investigated.
D)Usually occur with forceps delivery.
Q2) As part of Standard Precautions,nurses wear gloves when handling the newborn.The chief reason is:
A)To protect the baby from infection.
B)That it is part of the Apgar protocol.
C)To protect the nurse from contamination by the newborn.
D)the nurse has primary responsibility for the baby during the first 2 hours.
Q3) To prevent the abduction of newborns from the hospital,the nurse should:
A)Instruct the mother not to give her infant to anyone except the one nurse assigned to her that day.
B)Apply an electronic and identification bracelet to mother and infant.
C)Carry the infant when transporting him or her in the halls.
D)Restrict the amount of time infants are out of the nursery.
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Chapter 24: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding
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Q1) The process whereby parents awaken the infant to feed every 3 hours during the day and at least every 4 hours at night is:
A)Known as demand feeding.
B)Necessary during the first 24 to 48 hours after birth.
C)Used to set up the supply-meets-demand system.
D)A way to control cluster feeding.
Q2) With regard to basic care of the breastfeeding mother,nurses should be able to advise her that she:
A)Will need an extra 1000 calories a day to maintain energy and produce milk.
B)Can go back to prepregnancy consumption patterns of any drinks, as long as she ingests enough calcium.
C)Should avoid trying to lose large amounts of weight.
D)Must avoid exercising because it is too fatiguing.
Q3) In assisting the breastfeeding mother position the baby,nurses should keep in mind that:
A)The cradle position usually is preferred by mothers who had a cesarean birth.
B)Women with perineal pain and swelling prefer the modified cradle position.
C)Whatever the position used, the infant is "belly to belly" with the mother.
D)While supporting the head, the mother should push gently on the occiput.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: The High Risk Newborn
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Q1) Near the end of the first week of life,an infant who has not been treated for any infection develops a copper-colored,maculopapular rash on the palms and around the mouth and anus.The newborn is showing signs of:
A)Gonorrhea.
B)Herpes simplex virus infection.
C)Congenital syphilis.
D)Human immunodeficiency virus.
Q2) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)may be perinatally transmitted:
A)Only in the third trimester from the maternal circulation.
B)By a needlestick injury at birth from unsterile instruments.
C)Only through the ingestion of amniotic fluid.
D)Through the ingestion of breast milk from an infected mother.
Q3) Premature infants who exhibit 5 to 10 seconds of respiratory pauses followed by 10 to 15 seconds of compensatory rapid respiration are:
A)Suffering from sleep or wakeful apnea.
B)Experiencing severe swings in blood pressure.
C)Trying to maintain a neutral thermal environment.
D)Breathing in a respiratory pattern common to premature infants.
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Chapter 26: 21st Century Pediatric Nursing
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Q1) The type of injury a child is especially susceptible to at a specific age is most closely related to:
A)Physical health of the child.
B)Developmental level of the child.
C)Educational level of the child.
D)Number of responsible adults in the home.
Q2) Which behaviors by the nurse indicate a therapeutic relationship with children and families? (Select all that apply.)
A)Spending off-duty time with children and families
B)Asking questions if families are not participating in the care
C)Clarifying information for families
D)Buying toys for a hospitalized child
E)Learning about the family's religious preferences
Q3) The major cause of death for children older than 1 year is:
A)Cancer.
B)Infection.
C)Unintentional injuries.
D)Congenital abnormalities.
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Chapter 27: Family, social, cultural, and Religious Influences on Child Health Promotion
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25313
Sample Questions
Q1) The Vietnamese mother of a child being seen in the clinic avoids eye contact with the nurse.Considering cultural differences,the best explanation for this is that the parent:
A)Feels responsible for her child's illness.
B)Feels inferior to nurse.
C)Is embarrassed to seek health care.
D)Is showing respect for nurse.
Q2) What type of family is one in which all members are related by blood?
A)Consanguineous
B)Affinal
C)Family of origin
D)Household
Q3) Health beliefs vary among the cultural groups living in the United States.The belief that health is "a state of harmony with nature and the universe" is common in which culture?
A)Japanese
B)African-American
C)Native American
D)Hispanic American
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Chapter 28: Developmental and Genetic Influences on
Child Health Promotion
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25314
Sample Questions
Q1) Three children playing a board game would be an example of:
A)Solitary play
B)Parallel play
C)Associative play
D)Cooperative play
Q2) Step 5
A)Crawl
B)Sit unsupported
C)Lift head when prone
D)Gain complete head control
E)Walk
Q3) The karyotype of a person is 47,XY,+21.This person is a:
A)Normal male.
B)Male with Down syndrome.
C)Normal female.
D)Female with Turner syndrome.
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Chapter 29: Communication, history, and Physical Assessment
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25315
Sample Questions
Q1) Which age group is most concerned with body integrity?
A)Toddler
B)Preschooler
C)School-age child
D)Adolescent
Q2) When doing a nutritional assessment on an Hispanic family,the nurse learns that their diet consists mainly of vegetables,legumes,and starches.The nurse should recognize that this diet:
A)Indicates that they live in poverty.
B)Is lacking in protein.
C)May provide sufficient amino acids.
D)Should be enriched with meat and milk.
Q3) The nurse is interviewing the mother of an infant.She reports,"I had a difficult delivery,and my baby was born prematurely." This information should be recorded under which heading?
A)Birth history
B)Present illness
C)Chief complaint
D)Review of systems
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Chapter 30: Pain Assessment and Management in Children
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25316
Sample Questions
Q1) A 2-year-old child has been returned to the nursing unit after an inguinal hernia repair.Which pain assessment tool should the nurse use to assess this child for the presence of pain?
A)FACES pain rating tool
B)Numeric scale
C)Oucher scale
D)FLACC tool
Q2) A nurse is gathering a history on a school-age child admitted for a migraine headache.The child states,"I have been getting a migraine every 2 or 3 months for the last year." The nurse documents this as which type of pain?
A)Acute
B)Chronic
C)Recurrent
D)Subacute
Q3) A dose of oxycodone (OxyContin)2 mg/kg has been ordered for a child weighing 33 lb.The nurse should administer ______ milligrams of OxyContin.(Record your answer as a whole number.)
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Chapter 31: The Infant and Family
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25317
Sample Questions
Q1) With the goal of preventing plagiocephaly,the nurse should teach new parents to:
A)Place the infant prone for 30 to 60 minutes per day.
B)Buy a soft mattress.
C)Allow the infant to nap in the car safety seat.
D)Have the infant sleep with the parents.
Q2) A 3-month-old infant,born at 38 weeks of gestation,will hold a rattle if it is put in her hands; however,she will not voluntarily grasp it.The nurse should interpret this as:
A)Normal development.
B)Significant developmental lag.
C)Slightly delayed development caused by prematurity.
D)Suggestive of a neurologic disorder such as cerebral palsy.
Q3) The nurse is doing a routine assessment on a 14-month-old infant and notes that the anterior fontanel is closed.This should be interpreted as:
A)A normal finding.
B)A questionable finding-the infant should be rechecked in 1 month.
C)An abnormal finding-indicates the need for immediate referral to a practitioner.
D)An abnormal finding-indicates the need for developmental assessment.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: The Toddler and Family
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25318
Sample Questions
Q1) Which gross motor milestones should the nurse assess in an 18-month-old child (select all that apply)?
A)Jumps in place with both feet
B)Takes a few steps on tiptoe
C)Throws ball overhand without falling
D)Pulls and pushes toys
E)Stands on one foot momentarily
Q2) Developmentally,most children at age 12 months:
A)Use a spoon adeptly.
B)Relinquish the bottle voluntarily.
C)Eat the same food as the rest of the family.
D)Reject all solid food in preference to the bottle.
Q3) Which statement about toilet training is correct?
A)Bladder training is usually accomplished before bowel training.
B)Wanting to please the parent helps motivate the child to use the toilet.
C)Watching older siblings use the toilet confuses the child.
D)Children must be forced to sit on the toilet when first learning.
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Chapter 33: The Preschooler and Family
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25319
Sample Questions
Q1) Strict isolation is required for a child who is hospitalized with (select all that apply):
A)Mumps.
B)Chickenpox.
C)Exanthema subitum (roseola).
D)Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease).
E)Parvovirus B19.
Q2) In terms of fine motor development,what could the 3-year-old child be expected to do?
A)Tie shoelaces.
B)Use scissors or a pencil very well.
C)Draw a person with seven to nine parts.
D)Copy (draw) a circle.
Q3) Parents tell the nurse that they found their 3-year-old daughter and a male cousin of the same age inspecting each other closely as they used the bathroom.Which is the most appropriate recommendation the nurse should make?
A)Punish children so this behavior stops.
B)Neither condone nor condemn the curiosity.
C)Allow children unrestricted permission to satisfy this curiosity.
D)Get counseling for this unusual and dangerous behavior.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: The School-Age Child and Family
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25320
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is recommending strategies to a group of school-age children for prevention of obesity.Which should the nurse include (select all that apply)?
A)Eat breakfast daily.
B)Limit fruits and vegetables.
C)Have frequent family meals with parents present.
D)Eat frequently at restaurants.
E)Limit television viewing to 2 hours a day.
Q2) Peer victimization is becoming a significant problem for school-age children and adolescents in the United States.Parents should be educated regarding signs that a child is being bullied.These might include (select all that apply):
A)The child spends an inordinate amount of time in the nurse's office.
B)Belongings frequently go missing or are damaged.
C)The child wants to be driven to school.
D)School performance improves.
E)The child freely talks about his or her day.
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Chapter 35: The Adolescent and Family
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25321
Sample Questions
Q1) Injuries claim many lives during adolescence.Which factors contribute to early adolescents engaging in risk-taking behaviors (select all that apply)?
A)Peer pressure
B)A desire to master their environment
C)Engagement in the process of separation from their parents
D)A belief that they are invulnerable
E)Impulsivity
Q2) A teen asks a nurse,"What is physical dependence in substance abuse?" Which is the correct response by the nurse?
A)Problem that occurs in conjunction with addiction
B)Involuntary physiologic response to drug
C)Culturally defined use of drugs for purposes other than accepted medical purposes
D)Voluntary behavior based on psychosocial needs
Q3) In girls,the initial indication of puberty is:
A)Menarche.
B)Growth spurt.
C)Growth of pubic hair.
D)Breast development.
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Chapter 36: Chronic Illness, disability, and End-Of-Life Care
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25322
Sample Questions
Q1) An appropriate nursing intervention when providing comfort and support for a child whose death is imminent is to:
A)Limit care to essentials.
B)Avoid playing music near the child.
C)Explain to the child the need for constant measurement of vital signs.
D)Whisper to the child instead of using a normal voice.
Q2) At what age do most children have an adult concept of death as being inevitable,universal,and irreversible?
A)4 to 5 years
B)6 to 8 years
C)9 to 11 years
D)12 to 16 years
Q3) The nurse comes into the room of a child who was just diagnosed with a chronic disability.The child's parents begin to yell at the nurse about a variety of concerns.The nurse's best response is:
A)"What is really wrong?"
B)"Being angry is only natural."
C)"Yelling at me will not change things."
D)"I will come back when you settle down."
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Impact of Cognitive or Sensory Impairment on the Child and Family
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25323
Sample Questions
Q1) A father calls the emergency department nurse saying that his daughter's eyes burn after getting some dishwasher detergent in them.The nurse recommends that the child be seen in the emergency department or by an ophthalmologist.What should the nurse recommend before the child is transported?
A)Keep the eyes closed.
B)Apply cold compresses.
C)Irrigate eyes copiously with tap water for 20 minutes.
D)Prepare a normal saline solution (salt and water) and irrigate eyes for 20 minutes.
Q2) The teaching plan for the parents of a 3-year-old child with amblyopia ("lazy eye")should include what instruction?
A)Apply a patch to the child's eyeglass lenses.
B)Apply a patch only during waking hours.
C)Apply a patch over the "bad" eye to strengthen it.
D)Cover the "good" eye completely with a patch.
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Chapter 38: Family-Centered Care of the Child During
Illness and Hospitalization
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25324
Sample Questions
Q1) What is an age-appropriate nursing intervention to facilitate psychologic adjustment for an adolescent expected to have a prolonged hospitalization (select all that apply)?
A)Encourage parents to bring in homework and schedule study times.
B)Allow the adolescent to wear street clothes.
C)Involve the parents in care.
D)Follow home routines.
E)Encourage parents to bring in favorite foods.
Q2) What is the primary disadvantage associated with outpatient and day facility care?
A)Increased cost
B)Increased risk of infection
C)Lack of physical connection to the hospital
D)Longer separation of the child from family
Q3) A 14-year-old boy is being admitted to the hospital for an appendectomy.Which roommate should the nurse assign with this patient?
A)A 4-year-old boy who is first day post-appendectomy surgery
B)A 6-year-old boy with pneumonia
C)A 15-year-old boy admitted with a vaso-occlusive sickle cell crisis
D)A 12-year-old boy with cellulitis
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Chapter 39: Pediatric Variations of Nursing Interventions
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25325
Sample Questions
Q1) A critically ill child has hyperthermia.The parents ask the nurse to give an antipyretic such as acetaminophen (Tylenol).The nurse should explain that antipyretics:
A)May cause malignant hyperthermia.
B)May cause febrile seizures.
C)Are of no value in treating hyperthermia.
D)Are of limited value in treating hyperthermia.
Q2) When liquid medication is given to a crying 10-month-old infant,which approach minimizes the possibility of aspiration?
A)Administering the medication with a syringe (without needle) placed along the side of the infant's tongue
B)Administering the medication as rapidly as possible with the infant securely restrained
C)Mixing the medication with the infant's regular formula or juice and administering by bottle
D)Keeping the child upright with the nasal passages blocked for a minute after administration
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Chapter 40: Respiratory Dysfunction
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25326
Sample Questions
Q1) A parent whose two school-age children have asthma asks the nurse in what sports,if any,they can participate.The nurse should recommend:
A)Soccer.
B)Running.
C)Swimming.
D)Basketball.
Q2) It is generally recommended that a child with acute streptococcal pharyngitis can return to school:
A)When the sore throat is better.
B)If no complications develop.
C)After taking antibiotics for 24 hours.
D)After taking antibiotics for 3 days.
Q3) An 18-month-old child is seen in the clinic with AOM.Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)is prescribed.Which statement made by the parent indicates a correct understanding of the instructions?
A)"I should administer all the prescribed medication."
B)"I should continue medication until the symptoms subside."
C)"I will immediately stop giving medication if I notice a change in hearing."
D)"I will stop giving medication if fever is still present in 24 hours."
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Gastrointestinal Dysfunction
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25327
Sample Questions
Q1) A 3-year-old child with Hirschsprung's disease is hospitalized for surgery.A temporary colostomy will be necessary.The nurse should recognize that preparing this child psychologically is:
A)Not necessary because of child's age.
B)Not necessary because the colostomy is temporary.
C)Necessary because it will be an adjustment.
D)Necessary because the child must deal with a negative body image.
Q2) A parasite that causes acute diarrhea is:
A)Shigella organisms.
B)Salmonella organisms.
C)Giardia lamblia.
D)Escherichia coli.
Q3) The viral pathogen that frequently causes acute diarrhea in young children is:
A)Giardia organisms.
B)Shigella organisms.
C)Rotavirus.
D)Salmonella organisms.
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43
Chapter 42: Cardiovascular Dysfunction
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62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25328
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching an adolescent about primary hypertension.The nurse knows that which of the following is correct?
A)Primary hypertension should be treated with diuretics as soon as it is detected.
B)Congenital heart defects are the most common cause of primary hypertension.
C)Primary hypertension may be treated with weight reduction.
D)Primary hypertension is not affected by exercise.
Q2) When discussing hyperlipidemia with a group of adolescents,the nurse should explain that high levels of what substance are thought to protect against cardiovascular disease?
A)Cholesterol
B)Triglycerides
C)Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)
D)High-density lipoproteins (HDLs).
Q3) What is an expected assessment finding in a child with coarctation of the aorta?
A)Orthostatic hypotension
B)Systolic hypertension in the lower extremities
C)Blood pressure higher on the left side of the body
D)Disparity in blood pressure between the upper and lower extremities
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Chapter 43: Hematologic and Immunologic Dysfunction
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25329
Sample Questions
Q1) Children receiving long-term systemic corticosteroid therapy are most at risk for:
A)Hypotension.
B)Dilation of blood vessels in the cheeks.
C)Growth delays.
D)Decreased appetite and weight loss.
Q2) A toddler with leukemia is on intravenous chemotherapy treatments.The toddler's lab results are white blood cell count (WBC): 1000; neutrophils: 7%; nonsegmented neutrophils (bands): 7%.What is this child's absolute neutrophil count (ANC)? _____
Record your answer as a whole number.
Q3) Iron dextran is ordered for a young child with severe iron deficiency anemia.Nursing considerations include:
A)Administering with meals.
B)Administering between meals.
C)Injecting deeply into a large muscle.
D)Massaging injection site for 5 minutes after administration of drug.
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Chapter 44: Genitourinary Dysfunction
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25330
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is descriptive of renal transplantation in children?
A)It is an acceptable means of treatment after age 10 years.
B)It is preferred means of renal replacement therapy in children.
C)Children can receive kidneys only from other children.
D)The decision for transplantation is difficult since a relatively normal lifestyle is not possible.
Q2) The nurse is conducting an assessment on a school-age child with urosepsis.Which assessment finding should the nurse expect?
A)Fever with a positive blood culture
B)Proteinuria and edema
C)Oliguria and hypertension
D)Anemia and thrombocytopenia
Q3) A child is admitted with acute glomerulonephritis.The nurse would expect the urinalysis during this acute phase to show:
A)Bacteriuria and hematuria.
B)Hematuria and proteinuria.
C)Bacteriuria and increased specific gravity.
D)Proteinuria and decreased specific gravity.
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Chapter 45: Cerebral Dysfunction
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25331
Sample Questions
Q1) The priority nursing intervention when a child is unconscious after a fall is to:
A)Establish an adequate airway.
B)Perform neurologic assessment.
C)Monitor intercranial pressure.
D)Determine whether a neck injury is present.
Q2) An important nursing intervention when caring for a child who is experiencing a seizure is to:
A)Describe and record the seizure activity observed.
B)Restrain the child when seizure occurs to prevent bodily harm.
C)Place a tongue blade between the teeth if they become clenched.
D)Suction the child during a seizure to prevent aspiration.
Q3) The most common clinical manifestation of brain tumors in children is:
A)Irritability.
B)Seizures.
C)Headaches and vomiting.
D)Fever and poor fine motor control.
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Chapter 46: Endocrine Dysfunction
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25332
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is discussing various sites used for insulin injections with a child and her family.Which site usually has the fastest rate of absorption?
A)Arm
B)Leg
C)Buttock
D)Abdomen
Q2) A common clinical manifestation of juvenile hypothyroidism is:
A)Insomnia.
B)Diarrhea.
C)Dry skin.
D)Accelerated growth.
Q3) Which symptom is considered a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus?
A)Nausea
B)Seizures
C)Impaired vision
D)Frequent urination
Q4) The clinic nurse is reviewing hemoglobin Ac levels on several children with type 1 diabetes.Hemoglobin Ac levels of less than _____ % are a goal for children with type 1 diabetes.Record your answer as a whole number.
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Chapter 47: Integumentary Dysfunction
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25333
Sample Questions
Q1) The most immediate threat to life in children with thermal injuries is:
A)Shock.
B)Anemia.
C)Local infection.
D)Systemic sepsis.
Q2) The nurse is examining 12-month-old Amy,who was brought to the clinic for persistent diaper rash.The nurse finds perianal inflammation with satellite lesions that cross the inguinal folds.This is most likely caused by:
A)Impetigo.
B)Candida albicans.
C)Urine and feces.
D)Infrequent diapering.
Q3) Herpes zoster is caused by the varicella virus and has an affinity for:
A)Sympathetic nerve fibers.
B)Parasympathetic nerve fibers.
C)Posterior root ganglia and the posterior horn of the spinal cord.
D)Lateral and dorsal columns of the spinal cord.
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Chapter 48: Musculoskeletal or Articular Dysfunction
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25334
Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing intervention is appropriate to assess for neurovascular competency in a child who fell off the monkey bars at school and hurt his arm?
A)The degree of motion and ability to position the extremity.
B)The length, diameter, and shape of the extremity.
C)The amount of swelling noted in the extremity and pain intensity.
D)The skin color, temperature, movement, sensation, and capillary refill of the extremity.
Q2) A young girl has just injured her ankle at school.In addition to calling the child's parents,the most appropriate immediate action by the school nurse is to:
A)Apply ice.
B)Observe for edema and discoloration.
C)Encourage child to assume a comfortable position.
D)Obtain parental permission for administration of acetaminophen or aspirin.
Q3) What is most descriptive of the therapeutic management of osteosarcoma?
A)Treatment usually consists of surgery and chemotherapy.
B)Amputation of the affected extremity is rarely necessary.
C)Intensive irradiation is the primary treatment.
D)Bone marrow transplantation offers the best chance of long-term survival.
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Chapter 49: Neuromuscular or Muscular Dysfunction
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25335
Sample Questions
Q1) Spastic cerebral palsy is characterized by:
A)Hypertonicity and poor control of posture, balance, and coordinated motion.
B)Athetosis and dystonic movements.
C)Wide-based gait and poor performance of rapid, repetitive movements.
D)Tremors and lack of active movement.
Q2) The nurse is admitting a school-age child with suspected Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS).Which nursing intervention is a priority in the care for this child?
A)Monitoring intake and output
B)Assessing respiratory efforts
C)Placing on a telemetry monitor
D)Obtaining laboratory studies
Q3) Which assessment findings should the nurse note in a school-age child with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy (DMD)(Select all that apply)?
A)Lordosis
B)Gower's sign
C)Kyphosis
D)Scoliosis
E)Waddling gait
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