Nursing Care of Children and Adolescents Practice Exam
Course Introduction
This course focuses on the principles and practices of nursing care for children and adolescents, emphasizing holistic and family-centered approaches. Students will examine physical, psychological, and developmental needs in pediatric populations, exploring health promotion, illness prevention, and management of acute and chronic conditions. The course integrates evidence-based interventions, communication skills, and ethical considerations in caring for young patients and their families. Cultural sensitivity and interdisciplinary collaboration are also highlighted to prepare students for effective practice in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Wongs Nursing Care of Infants and Children 10th Edition by Hockenberry
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35 Chapters
1814 Verified Questions
1814 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Perspectives of Pediatric Nursing
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The school nurse is explaining to older school children that obesity increases the risk for which disorders? (Select all that apply.)
A) Asthma
B) Hypertension
C) Dyslipidemia
D) Irritable bowel disease
E) Altered glucose metabolism
Answer: B, C, E
Q2) The nurse is planning care for a hospitalized preschool-aged child. Which should the nurse plan to ensure atraumatic care?
A) Limit explanation of procedures because the child is preschool aged.
B) Ask that all family members leave the room when performing procedures.
C) Allow the child to choose the type of juice to drink with the administration of oral medications.
D) Explain that EMLA cream cannot be used for the morning lab draw because there is not time for it to be effective.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Social, Cultural, Religious, and Family Influences on Child Health Promotion
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is presenting a staff development program about understanding culture in the health care encounter. Which components should the nurse include in the program? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cultural humility
B) Cultural research
C) Cultural sensitivity
D) Cultural competency
Answer: A, C, D
Q2) Incorporates levels of education, occupation, income, and access to resources
A)Race
B)Gender
C)Ethnicity
D)Social class
E)Socialization
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Hereditary Influences on Health Promotion of the Child
and Family
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the characteristics of autosomal recessive inheritance. Which are true about these characteristics? (Select all that apply.)
A) Most affected persons are males.
B) Males and females are equally affected.
C) All daughters of an affected male are carriers.
D) Carrier parents have a 25% chance of producing an affected child.
E) Carrier parents have a 50% chance of producing a carrier child in each pregnancy.
Answer: B, D, E
Q2) Which abnormality is a common sex chromosome defect?
A) Down syndrome
B) Turner syndrome
C) Marfan syndrome
D) Hemophilia
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Communication, Physical, and Developmental Assessment
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action should the nurse implement when taking an axillary temperature?
A) Take the temperature through one layer of clothing.
B) Add a degree to the result when recording the temperature.
C) Place the tip of the thermometer under the arm in the center of the axilla.
D) Hold the child's arm away from the body while taking the temperature.
Q2) With the National Center for Health Statistics criteria, which body mass index (BMI)-for-age percentiles should indicate the patient is at risk for being overweight?
A) 10th percentile
B) 75th percentile
C) 85th percentile
D) 95th percentile
Q3) The nurse is testing an infant's visual acuity. By which age should the infant be able to fix on and follow a target?
A) 1 month
B) 1 to 2 months
C) 3 to 4 months
D) 6 months
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Pain Assessment and Management in Children
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A health care provider prescribes diphenhydramine (Benadryl), 1 mg/kg PO every 4 to 6 hours as needed for pruritus. The child weighs 10 kg. The medication label states: "Diphenhydramine 12.5 mg/5 mL." The nurse prepares to administer one dose. How many milliliters will the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer in a whole number.
Q2) A preterm infant has just been admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit. The infant's parents ask the nurse about anesthesia and analgesia when painful procedures are necessary. What should the nurse's explanation be?
A) Nerve pathways of neonates are not sufficiently myelinated to transmit painful stimuli. B) The risks accompanying anesthesia and analgesia are too great to justify any possible benefit of pain relief.
C) Neonates do not possess sufficiently integrated cortical function to interpret or recall pain experiences.
D) Pain pathways and neurochemical systems associated with pain transmission are intact and functional in neonates.
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Chapter 6: Childhood Communicable and Infectious Diseases
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which serious reaction should the nurse be alert for when administering vaccines?
A) Fever
B) Skin irritation
C) Allergic reaction
D) Pain at injection site
Q2) The nurse should know what about Lyme disease?
A) Very difficult to prevent
B) Easily treated with oral antibiotics in stages 1, 2, and 3
C) Caused by a spirochete that enters the skin through a tick bite
D) Common in geographic areas where the soil contains the mycotic spores that cause the disease
Q3) Temporary immunity from the mother to the fetus via the placenta
A)Natural immunity
B)Acquired immunity
C)Active immunity
D)Passive immunity
E)Herd immunity
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Health Promotion of the Newborn and Family
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching parents about the visual ability of their newborn. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Visual acuity is between 20/100 and 20/400.
B) Tear glands do not begin to function until 8 to 12 weeks of age.
C) Infants can momentarily fixate on a bright object that is within 8 inches.
D) The infant demonstrates visual preferences of black-and-white contrasting patterns.
E) The infant prefers bright colors (red, orange, blue) over medium colors (yellow, green, pink).
Q2) The Apgar score of an infant 5 minutes after birth is 8. Which is the nurse's best interpretation of this?
A) Resuscitation is likely to be needed.
B) Adjustment to extrauterine life is adequate.
C) Additional scoring in 5 more minutes is needed.
D) Maternal sedation or analgesia contributed to the low score.
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9
Chapter 8: Health Problems of Newborns
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant client asks the nurse to explain the meaning of "cephalopelvic disproportion." Which explanation should the nurse give to the client?
A) "It means a large for gestational age fetus."
B) "It is the narrow opening between the ischial spines."
C) "There is an uneven size between the fetus' presenting part and the pelvis."
D) "The shape of the pelvis is an android shape and is unfavorable for vaginal delivery."
Q2) Asymmetric facial deformity, including absent cheekbones
A)Crouzon syndrome
B)Apert syndrome
C)Treacher Collins syndrome
D)Pierre Robin sequence
Q3) The nurse suspects a newborn has a fractured clavicle. What are signs of a fractured clavicle? (Select all that apply.)
A) An asymmetric Moro reflex
B) Limited use of the affected arm
C) Crying when the arm is moved
D) Muscles of the hand are paralyzed
E) The arm hangs limp alongside the body
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Chapter 9: The High-Risk Newborn and Family
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A preterm infant with respiratory distress syndrome is receiving inhaled nitric oxide (NO). What is the reason for administering the inhaled nitric oxide?
A) To mature the lungs
B) To deliver a level of oxygen that is safe
C) To increase the removal of pulmonary debris such as meconium
D) To reduce pulmonary vasoconstriction and pulmonary hypertension
Q2) Which statement best describes the characteristics of preterm infants?
A) Thermoregulation is well established.
B) Extremities remain in attitude of flexion.
C) Sucking reflex is absent, weak, or ineffectual.
D) The head is proportionately small in relation to the body.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a high-risk neonate who has an umbilical catheter and is in a radiant warmer. The nurse notes blanching of the feet. Which is the most appropriate nursing action?
A) Place socks on the infant's feet.
B) Elevate the infant's feet 15 degrees.
C) Wrap the infant's feet loosely in a prewarmed blanket.
D) Report the findings immediately to the practitioner.
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11
Chapter 10: Health Promotion of the Infant and Family
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What information should be given to the parents of a 12-month-old child regarding appropriate play activities for this age?
A) Give large push-pull toys for kinetic stimulation.
B) Place a cradle gym across the crib to help develop fine motor skills.
C) Provide the child with finger paints to enhance fine motor skills.
D) Provide a stick horse to develop gross motor coordination.
Q2) An infant in the prone or supine position is able to raise his or her head.
A)Labyrinth righting
B)Body righting
C)Otolith righting
D)Landau
E)Parachute
Q3) The nurse is performing an assessment on a 12-month-old infant. Which fine or gross motor developmental skill demonstrates the proximodistal acquisition of skills?
A) Standing
B) Sitting without assistance
C) Fully developed pincer grasp
D) Taking a few steps holding onto something
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Chapter 11: Health Problems of the Infant
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A new parent asks the nurse, "How can diaper rash be prevented?" What should the nurse recommend?
A) Wash the infant with soap before applying a thin layer of oil.
B) Clean the infant with soap and water every time diaper is changed.
C) Wipe stool from the skin using water and a mild cleanser.
D) When changing the diaper, wipe the buttocks with oil and powder the creases.
Q2) A bottle-fed infant has been diagnosed with cow's milk allergy. Which formula should the nurse expect to be prescribed for the infant?
A) Similac
B) Pregestimil
C) Enfamil with iron
D) Gerber Good Start
Q3) An infant has been diagnosed with failure to thrive (FTT) classified according to the pathophysiology of inadequate caloric intake. The nurse understands that the reason for the FTT is most likely related to what?
A) Cow's milk allergy
B) Congenital heart disease
C) Metabolic storage disease
D) Incorrect formula preparation
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Health Promotion of the Toddler and Family
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What preventive measures should the nurse teach parents of toddlers to prevent early childhood caries? (Select all that apply.)
A) Avoid using a bottle as a pacifier.
B) Eliminate bedtime bottles completely.
C) Place juice in a bottle for the child to drink.
D) Wean from the bottle by 18 months of age.
E) Avoid coating pacifiers in a sweet substance.
Q2) The nurse is preparing a staff education program about growth and development of an 18-month-old toddler. Which characteristics should the nurse include in the staff education program? (Select all that apply.)
A) Eats well with a spoon and cup
B) Runs clumsily and can walk up stairs
C) Points to common objects
D) Builds a tower of three or four blocks
E) Has a vocabulary of 300 words
F) Dresses self in simple clothes
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Chapter 13: Health Promotion of the Preschooler and Family
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of play is most typical of the preschool period?
A) Team
B) Parallel
C) Solitary
D) Associative
Q2) A child age 4 1/2 years sometimes wakes her parents up at night screaming, thrashing, sweating, and apparently frightened, yet she is not aware of her parents' presence when they check on her. She lies down and sleeps without any parental intervention. This is most likely what?
A) Nightmare
B) Sleep terror
C) Sleep apnea
D) Seizure activity
Q3) A 4-year-old boy is hospitalized with a serious bacterial infection. He tells the nurse that he is sick because he was "bad." What is the nurse's best interpretation of this comment?
A) Sign of stress
B) Common at this age
C) Suggestive of maladaptation
D) Suggestive of excessive discipline at home
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Chapter 14: Health Problems of Early Childhood
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching parents of a preschool child strategies to implement when the child delays going to bed. What strategy should the nurse recommend?
A) Use consistent bedtime rituals.
B) Give in to attention-seeking behavior.
C) Take the child into the parent's bed for an hour.
D) Allow the child to stay up past the decided bedtime.
Q2) What is probably the most important criterion on which to base the decision to report suspected child abuse?
A) Inappropriate response of child
B) Inappropriate parental concern for the degree of injury
C) Absence of parents for questioning about child's injuries
D) Incompatibility between the history and injury observed
Q3) What is a clinical manifestation of acetaminophen poisoning?
A) Hyperpyrexia
B) Hepatic involvement
C) Severe burning pain in stomach
D) Drooling and inability to clear secretions
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16
Chapter 15: Health Promotion of the School-Age Child and Family
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The school nurse is discussing after-school sports participation with parents of children age 10 years. The nurse's presentation includes which important consideration?
A) Teams should be gender specific.
B) Organized sports are not appropriate at this age.
C) Competition is detrimental to the establishment of a positive self-image.
D) Sports participation is encouraged if the type of sport is appropriate to the child's abilities.
Q2) The school nurse is teaching female school-age children about the average age of puberty. What is the average age of puberty for girls?
A) 10 years
B) 11 years
C) 12 years
D) 13 years
Q3) What is the role of the peer group in the life of school-age children?
A) Decreases their need to learn appropriate sex roles
B) Gives them an opportunity to learn dominance and hostility
C) Allows them to remain dependent on their parents for a longer time
D) Provides them with security as they gain independence from their parents
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Chapter 16: Health Problems of the School-Age Child
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The management of a child who has just been stung by a bee or wasp should include applying what?
A) Cool compresses
B) Antibiotic cream
C) Warm compresses
D) Corticosteroid cream
Q2) A health care provider prescribes paroxetine (Paxil), 20 mg, PO, daily for a child with depression. The medication label states: "Paroxetine (Paxil) 10 mg/1 tablet." The nurse prepares to administer one dose. How many tablet(s) should the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer as a whole number.
Q3) Deficiency of which vitamin or mineral results in an inadequate inflammatory response?
A) A
B) B<sub>1</sub>
C) C
D) Zinc
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18
Chapter 17: Health Promotion of the Adolescent and Family
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34 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What aspects of cognition develop during adolescence?
A) Ability to see things from the point of view of another
B) Capability of using a future time perspective
C) Capability of placing things in a sensible and logical order
D) Progress from making judgments based on what they see to making judgments based on what they reason
Q2) What are characteristics of dating relationships in early adolescence? (Select all that apply.)
A) One-on-one dating
B) Follow ritualized "scripts"
C) Are psychosocially intimate
D) Involve playing stereotypic roles
E) Participating in mixed-gender group activities
Q3) The school nurse recognizes that adolescents should get how many hours of sleep each night?
A) 6 hours
B) 7 hours
C) 8 hours
D) 9 hours
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Health Problems of the Adolescent
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The middle school nurse is planning a behavior modification program for overweight children. What is the most important goal for participants of the program?
A) Learn how to cook low-fat meals.
B) Improve relationships with peers.
C) Identify and eliminate inappropriate eating habits.
D) Achieve normal weight during the program.
Q2) What menstrual disorders are indications for a pelvic examination? (Select all that apply.)
A) Amenorrhea
B) Dyspareunia
C) Impaired fertility
D) Irregular uterine or vaginal bleeding
E) Dysmenorrhea unresponsive to therapy
Q3) What method is the most commonly used in completed suicides?
A) Firearms
B) Drug overdose
C) Self-inflicted laceration
D) Carbon monoxide poisoning
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Chapter 19: Family-Centered Care of the Child with Chronic Illness or Disability
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48 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A feeling of guilt that the child "caused" the disability or illness is especially common in which age group?
A) Toddler
B) Preschooler
C) School-age child
D) Adolescent
Q2) A child's parents ask the nurse many questions about their child's illness and its management. The nurse does not know enough to answer all the questions. What nursing action is most appropriate at this time?
A) Tell them, "I don't know, but I will find out."
B) Suggest that they ask the physician these questions.
C) Explain that the nurse cannot be expected to know everything.
D) Answer questions vaguely so they do not lose confidence in the nurse.
Q3) What is the single most prevalent cause of disability in children and responsible for the recent increase in childhood disability?
A) Cancer
B) Asthma
C) Seizures
D) Heart disease
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Family-Centered Palliative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) What characterizes a preschooler's concept of death? (Select all that apply.)
A) Belief their thoughts can cause death.
B) They have a concrete understanding of death.
C) Death is seen as temporary and gradual.
D) Death is seen as a departure, a kind of sleep.
E) They usually have some sense of the meaning of death.
Q2) What characterizes a school-aged child's concept of death? (Select all that apply.)
A) Have a mature understanding of death
B) Can respond to logical explanations of death
C) Personify death as the devil or the bogeyman
D) Have a deeper understanding of death in a concrete sense
E) Fear the mutilation and punishment associated with death
Q3) A health care provider prescribes morphine sulfate, 0.2 mg/kg IV every 2 to 4 h as needed for pain for a child with a terminal illness. The child weighs 10 kg. The medication label states: "Morphine sulfate 5 mg/ml." The nurse prepares to administer one dose. How many milliliters will the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer using one decimal place.
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22
Chapter 21: The Child with Cognitive, Sensory, or Communication Impairment
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the techniques that has been especially useful for learners having cognitive impairment is called fading. What description best explains this technique?
A) Positive reinforcement when tasks or behaviors are mastered
B) Repeated verbal explanations until tasks are faded into the child's development
C) Negative reinforcement for specific tasks or behaviors that need to be faded out
D) Gradually reduces the assistance given to the child so the child becomes more independent
Q2) Autism is a complex developmental disorder. The diagnostic criteria for autism include delayed or abnormal functioning in which area with onset before age 3 years?
A) Parallel play
B) Gross motor development
C) Ability to maintain eye contact
D) Growth below the fifth percentile
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23
Chapter 22: Family-Centered Care of the Child During
Illness and Hospitalization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The psychosexual conflicts of preschool children make them extremely vulnerable to which threat?
A) Loss of control
B) Loss of identity
C) Separation anxiety
D) Bodily injury and pain
Q2) The nurse should expect a toddler to cope with the stress of a short period of separation from parents by displaying what?
A) Regression
B) Happiness
C) Detachment
D) Indifference
Q3) What are signs and symptoms of the stage of detachment in relation to separation anxiety in young children? (Select all that apply.)
A) Appears happy
B) Lacks interest in the environment
C) Regresses to an earlier behavior
D) Forms new but superficial relationships
E) Interacts with strangers or familiar caregivers
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Chapter 23: Pediatric Nursing Interventions and Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 10-year-old child requires daily medications for a chronic illness. Her mother tells the nurse that the child continually forgets to take the medicine unless reminded. What nursing action is most appropriate to promote adherence to the medication regimen?
A) Establish a contract with her, including rewards.
B) Suggest time-outs when she forgets her medicine.
C) Discuss with her mother the damaging effects of her rescuing the child.
D) Ask the child to bring her medicine containers to each appointment so they can be counted.
Q2) What methods should the nurse use to measure compliance to a treatment plan? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pill counts
B) Chemical assays
C) Direct observation
D) Third-party reporting
E) Monitoring therapeutic response
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Chapter 24: The Child with Fluid and Electrolyte Imbalance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of which pair of factors is a good predictor of a fluid deficit of at least 5% in an infant?
A) Weight loss and decreased heart rate
B) Capillary refill of less than 2 seconds and no tears
C) Increased skin elasticity and sunken anterior fontanel
D) Dry mucous membranes and generally ill appearance
Q2) Hydrotherapy is required to treat a child with extensive partial-thickness burn wounds. What is the purpose of hydrotherapy?
A) Provide pain relief
B) Débride the wounds
C) Destroy bacteria on the skin
D) Increase peripheral blood flow
Q3) What laboratory finding should the nurse expect in a child with an excess of water?
A) Decreased hematocrit
B) High serum osmolality
C) High urine specific gravity
D) Increased blood urea nitrogen
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Chapter 25: The Child with Renal Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant has been diagnosed with bladder obstruction. What do symptoms of this disorder include?
A) Renal colic
B) Strong urinary stream
C) Urinary tract infections
D) Posturination dribbling
Q2) What signs and symptoms are indicative of a urinary tract disorder in the infancy period (1-24 months)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pallor
B) Poor feeding
C) Hypothermia
D) Excessive thirst
E) Frequent urination
Q3) A hospitalized child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome is receiving high doses of prednisone. What nursing goal is appropriate for this child?
A) Stimulate appetite.
B) Detect evidence of edema.
C) Minimize risk of infection.
D) Promote adherence to the antibiotic regimen.
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Chapter 26: The Child with Gastrointestinal Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant with short bowel syndrome is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The practitioner has added continuous enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube. The nurse recognizes this as important for which reason?
A) Wean the infant from TPN the next day
B) Stimulate adaptation of the small intestine
C) Give additional nutrients that cannot be included in the TPN
D) Provide parents with hope that the child is close to discharge
Q2) A 2-year-old child has a chronic history of constipation and is brought to the clinic for evaluation. What should the therapeutic plan initially include?
A) Bowel cleansing
B) Dietary modification
C) Structured toilet training
D) Behavior modification
Q3) Detected only in the liver
A)HBsAg
B)Anti-HBs
C)HBcAg
D)HBeAg
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Chapter 27: Overview of Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Respiratory failure can result from many causes. What condition is a specific primary cause of inefficient gas transfer?
A) Anemia
B) Pneumothorax
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) Laryngospasm
Q2) What test measures the amount of air inhaled and exhaled during any respiratory cycle?
A) Tidal volume
B) Vital capacity
C) Dynamic compliance
D) Pulmonary resistance
Q3) The nurse is caring for a child with a tracheostomy. What clinical manifestation should the nurse recognize as an early sign of impending respiratory distress or failure?
A) Cyanosis
B) Restlessness
C) Audible stridor
D) Crowing respirations
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Chapter 28: The Child with Respiratory Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mother of a 20-month-old boy tells the nurse that he has a barking cough at night. His temperature is 37° C (98.6° F). The nurse suspects mild croup and should recommend which intervention?
A) Admit to the hospital and observe for impending epiglottitis.
B) Provide fluids that the child likes and use comfort measures.
C) Control fever with acetaminophen and call if cough gets worse tonight.
D) Try over-the-counter cough medicine and come to the clinic tomorrow if no improvement.
Q2) A child is admitted with acute laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB). The child will most likely be treated with which?
A) Racemic epinephrine and corticosteroids
B) Nebulizer treatments and oxygen
C) Antibiotics and albuterol
D) Chest physiotherapy and humidity
Q3) The nurse is calculating the amount of expected urinary output for a 24-hour period on a child with laryngotracheobronchitis who weighs 33 lb. The nurse recognizes the formula to be used is 1 ml/kg/hr. What is the expected 24-hour urinary output for this child in milliliters? Record your answer below in a whole number. _____________
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Page 30
Chapter 29: The Child with Cardiovascular Dysfunction
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When caring for the child with Kawasaki disease, what should the nurse know to provide safe and effective care?
A) Aspirin is contraindicated.
B) The principal area of involvement is the joints.
C) The child's fever is usually responsive to antibiotics within 48 hours.
D) Therapeutic management includes administration of gamma globulin and salicylates.
Q2) Selective cholesterol screening is recommended for children older than the age of 2 years with which risk factor?
A) Body mass index (BMI) = 95th percentile
B) Blood pressure = 50th percentile
C) Parent with a blood cholesterol level of 200 mg/dl
D) Recently diagnosed cardiovascular disease in a 75-year-old grandparent
Q3) A 1-year-old has been admitted for complete repair of a tetralogy of Fallot. What assessment finding should the nurse expect to be documented?
A) Weight gain
B) Pale skin color
C) Increasing cyanosis
D) Decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit
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Page 31
Chapter 30: The Child with Hematologic or Immunologic Dysfunction
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65 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nursing strategies to improve the growth and development of the child with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection should include what?
A) Provide only those foods that the child feels like eating.
B) Fortify foods with nutritional supplements to maximize quality of intake.
C) Weigh the child and measure height and muscle mass on a daily basis.
D) Provide high-fat and high-calorie meals and snacks to meet body requirements for growth.
Q2) The nurse is teaching parents of a child being discharged from the hospital after a splenectomy about the risk of infection. What should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Avoid obtaining the pneumococcal vaccination for the child.
B) Avoid obtaining the meningococcal vaccination for the child.
C) The child should receive prophylactic penicillin for certain procedures.
D) Have the child immunized with the Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccination.
E) Notify the health care provider if your child develops a fever of 38.5° C (101.3° F).
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Page 32
Chapter 31: The Child with Cancer
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62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4191
Sample Questions
Q1) Calculate the absolute neutrophil count for a child with a WBC = 6000/mm³, neutrophils = 18%, and nonsegmented neutrophils (bands) = 20%. Record your answer below in a whole number.
Q2) After chemotherapy is begun for a child with acute leukemia, prophylaxis to prevent acute tumor lysis syndrome includes which therapeutic intervention?
A) Hydration
B) Oxygenation
C) Corticosteroids
D) Pain management
Q3) What childhood cancer may demonstrate patterns of inheritance that suggest a familial basis?
A) Leukemia
B) Retinoblastoma
C) Rhabdomyosarcoma
D) Osteogenic sarcoma
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33
Chapter 32: The Child with Cerebral Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to admit an adolescent with bacterial meningitis. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fever
B) Chills
C) Headache
D) Poor tone
E) Drowsiness
Q2) What statement best describes a subdural hematoma?
A) Bleeding occurs between the dura and the skull.
B) Bleeding occurs between the dura and the cerebrum.
C) Bleeding is generally arterial, and brain compression occurs rapidly.
D) The hematoma commonly occurs in the parietotemporal region.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a child with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). What interventions should the nurse plan for this child? (Select all that apply.)
A) Avoid jarring the bed.
B) Keep the room brightly lit.
C) Keep the bed in a flat position.
D) Administer prescribed stool softeners.
E) Administer a prescribed antiemetic for nausea.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: The Child with Endocrine Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a child with an anterior pituitary tumor. What hormones are secreted by the anterior pituitary? (Select all that apply.)
A) Oxytocin
B) Luteinizing hormone
C) Antidiuretic hormone
D) Thyroid-stimulating hormone
E) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
Q2) The nurse is taking care of a child who had a thyroidectomy. The nurse recognizes what as a positive Chvostek sign?
A) Paresthesia occurring in feet and toes
B) Frequent sharp flexion of wrist and ankle joints
C) Carpal spasm elicited by pressure applied to the nerves of the upper arm
D) Facial muscle spasm elicited by tapping the facial nerve in the region of the parotid gland
Q3) A goiter is an enlargement or hypertrophy of which gland?
A) Thyroid
B) Adrenal
C) Anterior pituitary
D) Posterior pituitary
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Page 35
Chapter 34: The Child with Musculoskeletal or Articular Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 7-year-old child has just had a cast applied for a fractured arm with the wrist and elbow immobilized. What information should be included in the home care instructions?
A) No restrictions of activity are indicated.
B) Elevate casted arm when both upright and resting.
C) The shoulder should be kept as immobile as possible to avoid pain.
D) Swelling of the fingers is to be expected. Notify a health professional if it persists more than 48 hours.
Q2) Slanting and circular, twisting around the bone shaft
A)Transverse
B)Oblique
C)Spiral
D)Comminuted
Q3) The nurse knows that parents need further teaching with regard to the treatment of congenital clubfoot when they state what?
A) "We'll keep the cast dry."
B) "We're happy this is the only cast our baby will need."
C) "We'll watch for any swelling of the foot while the cast is on."
D) "We're getting a special car seat to accommodate the cast."
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Chapter 35: The Child with Neuromuscular or Muscular Dysfunction
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59 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of cerebral palsy (CP) is the most common type?
A) Ataxic
B) Spastic
C) Dyskinetic
D) Mixed type
Q2) The health care provider has prescribed dantrolene sodium (Dantrium) 0.5 mg/kg PO once a day for a child with cerebral palsy. The child weighs 55 lb. Calculate the dose the nurse should administer in milligrams. Record your answer below using one decimal place.
Q3) What most accurately describes bowel function in children born with a myelomeningocele?
A) Incontinence cannot be prevented.
B) Enemas and laxatives are contraindicated.
C) Some degree of fecal continence can usually be achieved.
D) Colostomy is usually required by the time the child reaches adolescence.
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