Nursing Care of Childbearing Families Test
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Course Introduction
Nursing Care of Childbearing Families explores the principles and practices essential for providing holistic and evidence-based nursing care to women, newborns, and their families during the childbearing process. The course covers prenatal, intrapartum, and postpartum care, emphasizing the promotion of health, the identification and management of common complications, and the support of family adaptation and transition. Students learn to apply theories of growth and development, family systems, and cultural competence while collaborating with interdisciplinary healthcare teams to ensure safe, effective, and compassionate care throughout the stages of pregnancy, childbirth, and early parenting.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray
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27 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/168 Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Womens Health Care Today
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2149
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse states to the newly pregnant patient, "Tell me how you feel about being pregnant." Which communication technique is the nurse using with this patient?
A) Clarifying
B) Paraphrasing
C) Reflection
D) Structuring
Answer: A
Q2) Which nursing intervention is an independent function of the professional nurse?
A) Administering oral analgesics
B) Requesting diagnostic studies
C) Teaching the patient perineal care
D) Providing wound care to a surgical incision
Answer: C
Q3) Which nursing intervention is written correctly?
A) Force fluids as necessary.
B) Observe interaction with the infant.
C) Encourage turning, coughing, and deep breathing.
D) Assist to ambulate for 10 minutes at 8 AM, 2 PM, and 6 PM.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Social, Ethical, and Legal Issues
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is interviewing a patient who is 6-weeks pregnant. The patient asks the nurse, "Why is elective abortion considered such an ethical issue?" Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Abortion requires third-party consent.
B) The U.S. Supreme Court ruled that life begins at conception.
C) Abortion law is unclear about a woman's constitutional rights.
D) There is a conflict between the rights of the woman and the rights of the fetus.
Answer: D
Q2) A nurse is reviewing evidence-based teaching and learning principles. Which situation is most conducive to learning with patients of other cultures?
A) An auditorium is being used as a classroom for 300 students.
B) A teacher who speaks very little Spanish is teaching a class of Hispanic students.
C) A class is composed of students of various ages and educational backgrounds.
D) An Asian nurse provides nutritional information to a group of pregnant Asian women.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newly pregnant patient asks the nurse, "What is a false pelvis?" Which statement by the nurse will best explain this anatomy to the patient?
A) It is the total anterior portion of the pelvis.
B) It is considered to be the lower portion of the pelvis.
C) It provides support for the internal organs and the upper part of the body.
D) It is the narrowest part of the pelvis through which a fetus will pass during birth.
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse is explaining the function of the male's cremaster muscle to a group of nursing students. Which statement accurately describes the function of the cremaster muscle?
A) Assists with transporting sperm
B) Aids in temperature control of the testicles
C) Aids in voluntary control of excretion of urine
D) Entraps blood in the penis to produce an erection
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse receives report on an infant whose analysis indicates 47 total chromosomes, with the abnormality noted at chromosome 21. Which additional assessments will the nurse include when evaluating the infant?
A) Cleft palate
B) Protruding tongue
C) Extra fingers or toes (polydactyly)
D) Intellectual developmental delay
Q2) The nurse is working with a patient to obtain information necessary for genetic counseling. Which tool will be used to obtain this information?
A) Braden scale
B) Genogram
C) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
D) Serum protein electrophoresis
Q3) Which statement regarding multifactorial disorders is correct?
A) They may not be evident until later in life.
B) They are usually present and detectable at birth.
C) The disorders are characterized by multiple defects.
D) Secondary defects are rarely associated with them.
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Chapter 5: Conception and Prenatal Development
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which physical characteristics decrease as the fetus nears term? (Select all that apply.)
A) Vernix caseosa
B) Lanugo
C) Port wine stain
D) Brown fat
E) Eyebrows or head hair
Q2) What is the purpose of the ovum's zona pellucida?
A) Prevents multiple sperm from fertilizing the ovum
B) Stimulates the ovum to begin mitotic cell division
C) Allows the 46 chromosomes from each gamete to merge
D) Makes a pathway for more than one sperm to reach the ovum
Q3) An expectant mother says to the nurse, "When my sister's baby was born, it was covered in a cheese-like coating. What is the purpose of this coating?" The correct response by the nurse is to explain that the purpose of vernix caseosa is to
A) regulate fetal temperature.
B) protect the fetal skin from amniotic fluid.
C) promote normal peripheral nervous system development.
D) allow the transport of oxygen and nutrients across the amnion.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Maternal Adaptations to Pregnancy
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman has come to the emergency department with complaints of nasal congestion and epistaxis. Which is the correct interpretation of these symptoms by the health care provider?
A) Nasal stuffiness and nosebleeds are caused by a decrease in progesterone.
B) These conditions are abnormal. Refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist.
C) Estrogen relaxes the smooth muscles in the respiratory tract, so congestion and epistaxis are within normal limits.
D) Estrogen causes increased blood supply to the mucous membranes and can result in congestion and nosebleeds.
Q2) Which physiologic finding is consistent with normal pregnancy?
A) Systemic vascular resistance increases as blood pressure decreases.
B) Cardiac output increases during pregnancy.
C) Blood pressure remains consistent independent of position changes.
D) Maternal vasoconstriction occurs in response to increased metabolism.
Q3) The capacity of the uterus in a term pregnancy is how many times its prepregnant capacity? Record your answer as a whole number. ______ times
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Chapter 7: Antepartum Assessment, Care, and Education
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A relaxation technique that can be used during the childbirth experience to decrease maternal pain perception is
A) using increased environmental stimulation as a method of distraction.
B) restricting family and friends from visiting during the labor period to keep the patient focused on breathing techniques.
C) medicating the patient frequently to reduce pain perception.
D) assisting the patient in breathing methods aimed at taking control of pain perception based on the contraction pattern.
Q2) In a prenatal education class, the nurse is reviewing the importance of using relaxation techniques during labor. Which patient statement will the nurse need to correct?
A) "We will practice relaxation techniques only in a quiet setting so I can focus."
B) "Relaxation is important during labor because it will help me conserve my energy."
C) "If I relax in between contractions, my baby will get more oxygen during labor."
D) "My partner and I will practice relaxation throughout the remainder of my pregnancy."
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9
Chapter 8: Nutrition for Childbearing
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a BMI of 32 has a positive pregnancy test. What is the maximum number of pounds that the nurse will advise the patient gain during the pregnancy?
A) 20 lb
B) 25 lb
C) 28 lb
D) 40 lb
Q2) The nurse is meeting with a patient with an elevated BMI regarding an optimal diet for pregnancy. Which major source of nutrients should be a significant component of this patient's diet?
A) Fats
B) Fiber
C) Simple sugars
D) Complex carbohydrates
Q3) In order to increase the absorption of iron by a pregnant patient, which beverage should an iron preparation be given with?
A) Tea
B) Milk
C) Coffee
D) Orange juice
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Assessing the Fetus
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The results of a contraction stress test (CST) are positive. Which intervention is necessary based on this test result?
A) Repeat the test in 1 week so that results can be trended based on this baseline result.
B) Contact the health care provider to discuss birth options for the patient.
C) Send the patient out for a meal and repeat the test to confirm that the results are valid.
D) Ask the patient to perform a fetal kick count assessment for the next 30 minutes and then reassess the patient.
Q2) In preparing a pregnant patient for a nonstress test (NST), which of the following should be included in the plan of care?
A) Have the patient void prior to being placed on the fetal monitor because a full bladder will interfere with results.
B) Maintain NPO status prior to testing.
C) Position the patient for comfort, adjusting the tocotransducer belt to locate fetal heart rate.
D) Have an infusion pump prepared with oxytocin per protocol for evaluation.
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11
Chapter 10: Complications of Pregnancy
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which intervention is the priority for the patient diagnosed with an intact tubal pregnancy?
A) Assessment of pain level
B) Administration of methotrexate
C) Administration of Rh immune globulin
D) Explanation of the common side effects of the treatment plan
Q2) What is the priority nursing intervention for the patient who has had an incomplete abortion?
A) Methylergonovine (Methergine), 0.2 mg IM
B) Preoperative teaching for surgery
C) Insertion of IV line for fluid replacement
D) Positioning of patient in left side-lying position
Q3) Which data found on a patient's health history would place her at risk for an ectopic pregnancy?
A) Ovarian cyst 2 years ago
B) Recurrent pelvic infections
C) Use of oral contraceptives for 5 years
D) Heavy menstrual flow of 4 days' duration
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12
Chapter 11: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has just acknowledged that she is 20 weeks pregnant and confides to the nurse that she has a daily heroin habit. The nurse discusses treatment options for the patient. Which patient statement requires follow-up?
A) "My plan is to visit the outpatient clinic daily for treatment."
B) "I will see my health care provider at least every 2 weeks."
C) "My baby will not have to go through withdrawal when I take methadone."
D) "With oral methadone, my baby and I are at decreased risk of infection."
Q2) Which of the following is an example of healthy grieving?
A) The mother exhibits an absence of crying or expression of feelings.
B) The parents do not mention the baby in conversation with family members.
C) The mother asks that the baby be taken away from the delivery area quickly.
D) While holding the baby, the mother says to her husband, "He has your eyes and nose."
Q3) Which complication of adolescent pregnancy should the nurse plan to monitor?
A) Anemia
B) Placenta previa
C) Abruptio placenta
D) Incompetent cervix
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Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which physiologic event is the key indicator of the commencement of true labor?
A) Bloody show
B) Cervical dilation and effacement
C) Fetal descent into the pelvic inlet
D) Uterine contractions every 7 minutes
Q2) The nurse is assessing the duration of a patient's labor contractions. Which method does the nurse implement to assess the duration of labor contractions?
A) Assess the strongest intensity of each contraction.
B) Assess uterine relaxation between two contractions.
C) Assess from the beginning to the end of each contraction.
D) Assess from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next.
Q3) The examiner indicates to the labor nurse that the fetus is in the left occiput anterior (LOA) position. To facilitate the labor process, how will the nurse position the laboring patient?
A) On her back
B) On her left side
C) On her right side
D) On her hands and knees
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Chapter 13: Pain Management During Childbirth
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in active labor requests an epidural for pain management. What is the nurse's most appropriate intervention at this juncture?
A) Assess the fetal heart rate pattern over the next 30 minutes.
B) Take the patient's blood pressure every 5 minutes for 15 minutes.
C) Determine the patient's contraction pattern for the next 30 minutes.
D) Initiate an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's solution at 2000 mL/hour over 30 minutes.
Q2) Which patient will most likely have increased anxiety and tension during labor?
A) Gravida 2 who refused any medication
B) Gravida 2 who delivered a stillborn baby last year
C) Gravida 1 who did not attend prepared childbirth classes
D) Gravida 3 who has two children younger than 3 years
Q3) A patient in labor reports a feeling of burning pain during the second stage of labor. This type of pain is associated with
A) visceral pain.
B) tissue ischemia.
C) somatic pain.
D) cervical dilation.
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Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is continuous electronic fetal monitoring generally used when oxytocin is administered?
A) Fetal chemoreceptors are stimulated.
B) The mother may become hypotensive.
C) Maternal fluid volume deficit may occur.
D) Uteroplacental exchange may be compromised.
Q2) When evaluating the patient's progress, the nurse knows that four of the five fetal factors that interact to regulate the heart rate are (Select all that apply.)
A) baroreceptors.
B) adrenal glands.
C) chemoreceptors.
D) uterine activity.
E) autonomic nervous system.
Q3) In which situation would a baseline fetal heart rate of 160 to 170 bpm be considered a normal finding?
A) The fetus is at 30 weeks of gestation.
B) The mother has a history of fast labors.
C) The mother has been given an epidural block.
D) The mother has mild preeclampsia but is not in labor.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To monitor for potential hemorrhage in the patient who has just had a cesarean birth, which action should the recovery room nurse implement?
A) Monitor her urinary output.
B) Maintain an intravenous infusion at 1 mL/hour.
C) Assess the abdominal dressings for drainage.
D) Assess the uterus for firmness every 15 minutes.
Q2) The pregnant patient expresses a desire to schedule birth during the baby's father's furlough from military service. The nurse explains that prior to induction of labor, it is essential to determine which clinical finding?
A) Dilated cervix
B) Fetal lung maturity
C) Rupture of membranes
D) Uterine hypertonia
Q3) Which breech presentation should the nurse recognize as being favorable for an external cephalic version?
A) 36-week gestation with low-lying placenta
B) 38-week gestation with one previous cesarean
C) 37-week gestation with fetal weight of 7 lb
D) 40-week gestation with several uterine fibroids
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Intrapartum Complications
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Birth for the nulliparous patient with a fetus in a breech presentation is usually
A) cesarean birth.
B) vaginal birth.
C) vacuumed extraction.
D) forceps-assisted birth.
Q2) A pregnant woman develops hypertension. The nurse monitors the patient's blood pressure closely at subsequent visits because the nurse is aware that hypertension is associated with which complication?
A) Abruptio placentae
B) Cardiac abnormalities in the neonate
C) Neonatal jaundice
D) Reduced placental blood flow
Q3) Which assessment finding indicates a complication in the patient attempting a vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC)?
A) Complaint of pain between the scapulae
B) Change in fetal baseline from 128 to 132 bpm
C) Contractions every 3 minutes lasting 70 seconds
D) Pain level of 6 on scale of 0 to 10 during acme of contraction
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18
Chapter 17: Postpartum Adaptations and Nursing Care
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which maternal event is abnormal in the early postpartal period?
A) Diuresis and diaphoresis
B) Flatulence and constipation
C) Extreme hunger and thirst
D) Lochial color changes from rubra to alba
Q2) The postpartum patient who continually repeats the story of her labor, birth, and recovery experiences is performing which of the following tasks?
A) Making the birth experience "real"
B) Accepting her response to labor and birth
C) Providing others with her knowledge of events
D) Taking hold of the events leading to her labor and birth
Q3) During which stage of role attainment do the parents become acquainted with their baby and combine parenting activities with cues from the infant?
A) Formal
B) Informal
C) Personal
D) Anticipatory
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Chapter 18: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To evaluate the desired response of methylergonovine (Methergine), the nurse would assess the patient's
A) uterine tone.
B) pain level.
C) blood pressure.
D) last voiding.
Q2) Before administering methylergonovine (Methergine), the nurse checks the A) color of the lochia.
B) blood pressure.
C) location of the fundus.
D) last administration of analgesics.
Q3) If a DVT (deep vein thrombosis) is suspected, the nurse should
A) perform a Homans sign on the affected leg.
B) dorsiflex the foot of the affected leg.
C) palpate the affected leg for edema and pain.
D) place the patient on bed rest, with the affected leg elevated.
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Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which infant is at greater risk to develop cold stress?
A) Full-term infant delivered vaginally without complications.
B) 36-week infant with an Apgar score of 7 to 9.
C) 38-week female infant delivered via cesarean birth because of cephalopelvic disproportion.
D) Term infant delivered vaginally with epidural anesthesia.
Q2) The nurse is planning to conduct the initial assessment of a full-term newborn. Included in the plan is providing a neutral thermal environment. To accomplish this plan, what is the desired environmental temperature to conduct the assessment?
A) 24 to 27°C (75.2 to 80.6°F)
B) 28 to 31.5°C (82.4 to 88.7°F)
C) 32 to 33.5°C (89.6 to 92.3°F)
D) 34 to 37.5°C (93.2 to 99.5°F)
Q3) How can nurses prevent evaporative heat loss in the newborn?
A) Placing the baby away from the outside wall and the windows
B) Keeping the baby out of drafts and away from air conditioners
C) Drying the baby after birth and wrapping the baby in a dry blanket
D) Warming the stethoscope and nurse's hands before touching the baby
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Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is performing a gestational age assessment on a newborn. Which characteristics indicate a preterm newborn? (Select all that apply.)
A) Translucent skin
B) Extended limp arms and legs
C) The ear springs back when folded
D) Square window angle of 45 degrees or less
E) Large clitoris and labia minora in the female newborn
Q2) Infants who develop cephalohematoma are at an increased risk for A) infection.
B) jaundice.
C) caput succedaneum.
D) erythema toxicum.
Q3) Which statement best explains why a newborn with a congenital defect of the penis should not be circumcised?
A) There is increased risk of infection.
B) The foreskin might be needed for future repairs.
C) A circumcision will make the defect more visible.
D) There is no medical rationale for a circumcision.
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Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which intervention will be most helpful to parents in identifying problems with an infant car seat?
A) Questioning the parents about the instructions
B) Providing the parents with current laws on infant and child safety
C) Asking the parents to demonstrate how to secure the infant in the car seat
D) Allowing the parents to ask questions and express feelings about infant restraint
Q2) A new mother is preparing for discharge from the birthing center and relays to the nurse her concerns about how she will handle the baby's episodes of crying. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "I hear your concern. Is there someone in the household who cannot tolerate hearing a baby cry?"
B) "It is okay to just let the baby cry from time to time. You don't want to risk spoiling the baby too soon."
C) "Infants only cry when they are hungry or if they have gas. If you don't eat any gas-producing food, your baby will cry less."
D) "Crying is the way your baby communicates with you. It is important for you to meet your baby's needs consistently and promptly."
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most serious consequence of propping an infant's bottle?
A) Colic
B) Aspiration
C) Dental caries
D) Ear infections
Q2) A mother is attempting to breastfeed her infant in the hospital setting. The infant is sleepy and displays some audible swallowing, the maternal nipples are flat, and the breasts are soft. The nurse has attempted to teach the mother positioning on one side, and now the mother wants to place the infant to the breast on the other side. Based on LATCH scores, what score would the nurse assign to this feeding session?
A) 10 and document findings in the chart.
B) 6 and further teach and assist the mother in feeding activities.
C) 5 and tell the mother to discontinue feeding attempts at this time because the infant is too sleepy.
D) 8 and no further assistance is needed for feeding.
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24
Chapter 23: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn assessment finding that would support the nursing diagnosis of postmaturity would be
A) loose skin.
B) ruddy skin color.
C) presence of vernix.
D) absence of lanugo.
Q2) Decreased surfactant production in the preterm lung is a problem because
A) surfactant keeps the alveoli open during expiration.
B) surfactant causes increased permeability of the alveoli.
C) surfactant dilates the bronchioles, decreasing airway resistance.
D) surfactant provides transportation for oxygen to enter the blood supply.
Q3) In comparison with the term infant, the preterm infant has
A) more subcutaneous fat.
B) well-developed flexor muscles.
C) few blood vessels visible through the skin.
D) greater surface area in proportion to weight.
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25
Chapter 24: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an infant with cyanotic cardiac anomaly, the nurse should expect to see A) feedings taken eagerly.
B) a consistent and rapid weight gain.
C) a decrease in the heart rate with activity.
D) little to no improvement in color with oxygen administration.
Q2) Which of the following lab values indicates that an infant may have polycythemia?
A) Hct 50%
B) Hct 55%
C) Hct 62%
D) Hct 70%
Q3) Four hours after the birth of a healthy neonate of an insulin-dependent (type 1) diabetic mother, the baby appears jittery and irritable and has a high-pitched cry. Which nursing action has top priority?
A) Notify the clinician stat.
B) Test for the blood glucose level.
C) Start an intravenous line with D10W.
D) Document the event in the nurses' notes.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Family Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient who has had an intrauterine device (IUD) inserted should be instructed to A) use a vinegar douche weekly for 4 weeks.
B) have the IUD replaced every 2 to 4 years.
C) check the placement of the string once a week for 4 weeks.
D) use another method of contraception for 2 weeks after insertion.
Q2) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the use of contraception and the occurrence of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?
A) As long as the oral contraception method is used correctly, there is no transmission of STDs during sexual activity.
B) Oral contraceptives provide the greatest protection against getting STDs.
C) Barrier methods, if used correctly, are more likely to protect individuals from STDs as compared with other contraceptive methods.
D) It is less likely to see transmission of STDs if patients engage in oral sex as opposed to vaginal penetration.
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Chapter 26: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with an incompetent cervix (the cervix will not remain closed). What treatment option will be incorporated into the plan of care for this patient?
A) Bed rest throughout the pregnancy
B) Wait and see approach to determine if the patient goes into preterm labor
C) Preparation for cerclage procedure at 32 weeks' gestation
D) More frequent ultrasounds to assess progression of pregnancy
Q2) A woman undergoing evaluation of infertility states, "At least when we're through with all of these tests, we will know what is wrong." The nurse's best response is
A) "I know the test will identify what is wrong."
B) "I'm sure that once you finish these tests, your problem will be resolved."
C) "Even with diagnostic testing, infertility remains unexplained in about 20% of couples."
D) "Once you've identified your problem, you may want to look at the option of adoption."
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Chapter 27: Womens Health
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23 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which treatment option minimizes the development of lymphedema in the surgical management of a patient with breast cancer?
A) Radical mastectomy procedure
B) Radiation therapy
C) Sentinel lymph node mapping
D) Ultrasound
Q2) Which concern is included in the plan of care for the patient who receives HPV (human papillomavirus) vaccine?
A) It is available in oral form.
B) It involves a series of two injections.
C) Injections should be given over a 3-month period.
D) The vaccine (Gardasil) should not be given to any patient with a sensitivity to yeast.
Q3) The drug of choice to treat a gonorrhea infection is
A) penicillin G (Pfizerpen).
B) tetracycline (Achromycin).
C) ceftriaxone (Rocephin).
D) acyclovir (Zovirax).
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