Nursing Care of Childbearing Families
Review Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of nursing care for childbearing families, encompassing the health needs of women, newborns, and families during the preconception, pregnancy, childbirth, and postpartum periods. Emphasis is placed on the physiological, psychological, cultural, and social factors influencing maternal and newborn health. Students will develop competencies in assessing, planning, implementing, and evaluating evidence-based nursing interventions to promote optimal outcomes for women and their infants. The course also covers family dynamics, health education, common complications, and interdisciplinary collaboration within maternal and newborn care settings.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 6th Edition by Murray
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37 Chapters
1131 Verified Questions
1131 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Maternity and Women's Health Care Today
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client at 36 weeks of gestation states, "Why can't I have an induction now? My sister delivered at 36 weeks and her baby is fine." Which information about infants born at 34 to 36 weeks should the nurse consider when answering?
A) Birth by induction is low for this gestational age.
B) Infants born at 34 to 36 weeks have mature lungs and do well at birth.
C) The birth of infants between 34 to 36 weeks has declined as more births are going to term or post term.
D) Infants born at 34 to 36 weeks are immature and have more health complications than infants born at term.
Answer: D
Q2) The use of "twilight sleep" during the labor and birth process:
A) provided inadequate pain relief during the labor and birth process.
B) facilitated bonding between mother and infant.
C) resulted in a decreased incidence of puerperal infections.
D) affected the maternal level of consciousness.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: The Nurse's Role in Maternity and Women's Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse states to the newly pregnant patient, "Tell me how you feel about being pregnant." Which communication technique is the nurse using with this patient?
A) Clarifying
B) Paraphrasing
C) Reflection
D) Structuring
Answer: A
Q2) The nurse is writing an expected outcome for the nursing diagnosis-acute pain related to trauma of tissue, secondary to vaginal birth, as evidenced by client stating pain of 8 on a scale of 10. Which is a correctly stated expected outcome for this problem?
A) Client will state that pain is a 2 on a scale of 10.
B) Client will have a reduction in pain after administration of the prescribed analgesic.
C) Client will state an absence of pain 1 hour after administration of the prescribed analgesic.
D) Client will state that pain is a 2 on a scale of 10, 1 hour after the administration of the prescribed analgesic.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The RN is delegating tasks to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which tasks can the nurse delegate? (Select all that apply.)
A) Teaching the client about breast care
B) Assessment of a client's lochia and perineal area
C) Assisting a client to the bathroom for the first time after birth
D) Vital signs on a postpartum client who delivered the night before
E) Assisting a postpartum client to take a shower on the second postpartum day
Answer: D, E
Q2) Which client will most likely seek prenatal care?
A) Janice, 15 years old, tells her friends, "I don't believe I am pregnant."
B) Carol, 28 years old, is in her second pregnancy and abuses drugs and alcohol.
C) Margaret, 20 years old, is in her first pregnancy and has access to a free prenatal clinic.
D) Glenda, 30 years old, is in her fifth pregnancy and delivered her last infant at home with the help of her mother and sister.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is describing the size and shape of the nonpregnant uterus to a client. Which is an accurate description?
A) The nonpregnant uterus is the size and shape of a pear.
B) The nonpregnant uterus is the size and shape of a cantaloupe.
C) The nonpregnant uterus is the size and shape of a grapefruit.
D) The nonpregnant uterus is the size and shape of a large orange.
Q2) Follicular phase of the female reproductive cycle
A)Ovulation marks the beginning of this stage and occurs about 14 days before the next menstrual period.
B)The period in which an ovum matures begins with the first day of menstruation and ends about 14 days later.
C)This occurs as the ovum matures and is released during the first half of the ovarian cycle.
Q3) Which hormone is responsible for milk production after the birth of the placenta?
A) Pitocin
B) Prolactin
C) Estrogen
D) Progesterone
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Chapter 5: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clinic nurse is reviewing charts on prenatal clients. Which client histories should the nurse understand that a referral to a genetic counselor is warranted? (Select all that apply.)
A) A father who is aged 35
B) A client having a first baby at age 30
C) A family history of unexplained stillbirths
D) A client with a family history of birth defects
E) A client who is a carrier of an X-linked disorder
Q2) Which question posed by the nurse will most likely promote the sharing of sensitive information during a genetic counseling interview?
A) "What kind of defects or diseases seem to run in the family?"
B) "How many people in your family are mentally retarded or handicapped?"
C) "Did you know that you can always have an abortion if the fetus is abnormal?"
D) "Are there any members of your family who have learning or developmental problems?"
Q3) Autosomal dominant
A)Two genes are required to produce the trait.
B)A single copy of the gene is enough to produce the trait.
C)Only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the disorder in the male.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Conception and Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The upper uterus is the best place for the fertilized ovum to implant because the:
A) maternal blood flow is lower.
B) placenta attaches most firmly.
C) uterine endometrium is softer.
D) developing baby is best nourished.
Q2) Umbilical artery
A)Carries deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus
B)Site of exchange of substances between the mother and fetus
C)Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
Q3) Which is the purpose of the ovum's zona pellucida?
A) Prevents multiple sperm from fertilizing the ovum
B) Stimulates the ovum to begin mitotic cell division
C) Allows the 46 chromosomes from each gamete to merge
D) Makes a pathway for more than one sperm to reach the ovum
Q4) Umbilical veins
A)Carries deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus
B)Site of exchange of substances between the mother and fetus
C)Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is scheduling the next appointment for a healthy primigravida currently at 28 weeks gestation. When will the nurse schedule the next prenatal visit?
A) 1 week
B) 2 weeks
C) 3 weeks
D) 4 weeks
Q2) Which of the client health behaviors in the first trimester would the nurse identify as a risk factor in pregnancy?
A) Sexual intercourse two or three times weekly
B) Moderate exercise for 30 minutes daily
C) Working 40 hours a week as a secretary in a travel agency
D) Relaxing in a hot tub for 30 minutes a day, several days a week
Q3) A client is currently pregnant; she has a 5-year-old son and a 3-year-old daughter. She had one other pregnancy that terminated at 8 weeks. Which are her gravida and para?
A) 3, 2
B) 4, 3
C) 4, 2
D) 3, 3
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for the step in maternal role attainment that relates to the woman giving up certain aspects of her previous life?
A) Fantasy
B) Grief work
C) Role-playing
D) Looking for a fit
Q2) An expectant client in her third trimester reports that she developed a strong tie to her baby from the beginning and now is really in tune to her baby's temperament. The nurse interprets this as the development of which maternal task of pregnancy?
A) Learning to give of herself
B) Developing attachment with the baby
C) Securing acceptance of the baby by others
D) Seeking safe passage for herself and her baby
Q3) Which client may require more help and understanding when integrating the newborn into the family?
A) A primipara from an upper income family
B) A primipara who comes from a large family
C) A multipara (gravida 2) who has a supportive husband and mother
D) A multipara (gravida 6) who has two children younger than 3 years
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) When planning a diet with a pregnant client, what should the nurse's first action be?
A) Teach the client about MyPlate.
B) Review the client's current dietary intake.
C) Instruct the client to limit the intake of fatty foods.
D) Caution the client to avoid large doses of vitamins, especially those that are fat-soluble.
Q2) Vitamin D
A)Necessary for metabolism of calcium
B)Necessary for mineralization of fetal bones and teeth
C)Deficiency in first weeks of pregnancy may cause spontaneous abortion and neural tube defects
Q3) The pregnant client with significant iron deficiency anemia is prescribed iron supplements. The client confides to the nurse that she can't take iron because it makes her nauseous. What is the best response by the nurse?
A) "Iron will be absorbed more readily if taken with orange juice."
B) "It is important to take this drug regardless of this side effect."
C) "Taking the drug with milk may decrease your symptoms."
D) "Try taking the iron at bedtime on an empty stomach."
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Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment
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38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman is scheduled to undergo chorionic villus sampling (CVS) based on genetic family history. Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be administered?
A) Magnesium sulfate
B) Prostaglandin suppository
C) RhoGAM if the client is Rh-negative
D) Betamethasone
Q2) Which analysis of maternal serum may predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus?
A) Biophysical profile
B) Multiple-marker screening
C) Lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio
D) Blood type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum
Q3) Which is the major advantage of chorionic villus sampling over amniocentesis?
A) It is not an invasive procedure.
B) It does not require a hospital setting.
C) It requires less time to obtain results.
D) It has less risk of spontaneous abortion.
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Chapter 11: Perinatal Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) When reading a new client's birth plan, the nurse notices that the client will be bringing a doula to the hospital during labor. What does the nurse think that this means?
A) The client will have her grandmother as a support person.
B) The client will bring a paid, trained labor support person with her during labor.
C) The client will have a special video she will play during labor to assist with relaxation.
D) The client will have a bag that contains all the approved equipment that may help with the labor process.
Q2) A pregnant client is anticipating a vaginal birth without complications. During the course of her labor, complications arise and the fetus has to be delivered via cesarean section. The client is visibly upset and wants to know why this has happened to her because she did everything right during her pregnancy. Which priority nursing diagnosis would apply?
A) Risk for injury
B) Pain
C) Impaired skin integrity
D) Anxiety
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Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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Q1) The health care provider for a laboring patient makes the following entry into the patient's record: 3/50%/-1. What instruction will the nurse implement with the patient?
A) "You will need to remain in bed attached to the electronic fetal monitor."
B) "Breathe with me slowly, in through your nose and out through your mouth."
C) "I will begin the administration of 1000 mL of IV fluid so you can have an epidural."
D) "Your partner will need to change into scrub attire to attend the imminent birth."
Q2) The examiner indicates to the labor nurse that the fetus is in the left occiput anterior (LOA) position. To facilitate the labor process, how will the nurse position the laboring patient?
A) On her back
B) On her left side
C) On her right side
D) On her hands and knees
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Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assists the midwife during a vaginal examination of the client in labor. What does the nurse recognize as the primary reason that a vaginal exam is done at this time?
A) To apply internal monitoring electrodes
B) To assess for Goodell's sign
C) To determine cervical dilation and effacement
D) To determine strength of contractions
Q2) Which nursing assessment indicates that a woman who is in the second stage of labor is almost ready to give birth?
A) Bloody mucous discharge increases.
B) The vulva bulges and encircles the fetal head.
C) The membranes rupture during a contraction.
D) The fetal head is felt at 0 station during the vaginal examination.
Q3) A client at 40 weeks' gestation should be instructed to go to a hospital or birth center for evaluation when she experiences:
A) fetal movement.
B) irregular contractions for 1 hour.
C) a trickle of fluid from the vagina.
D) thick pink or dark red vaginal mucus.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a pattern of variable decelerations occur, the nurse should:
A) administer O S1U1B12S1U1B0 at 8 to 10 L/min.
B) place a wedge under the right hip.
C) increase the IV fluids to 150 mL/hr.
D) position client in a knee-chest position.
Q2) Variable decelerations
A)Caused by umbilical cord compression
B)Caused by fetal head compression
C)Caused by uteroplacental insufficiency
Q3) The nurse is instructing a nursing student on the application of fetal monitoring devices. Which method of assessing the fetal heart rate requires the use of a gel?
A) Doppler
B) Fetoscope
C) Scalp electrode
D) Tocodynamometer
Q4) Late decelerations
A)Caused by umbilical cord compression
B)Caused by fetal head compression
C)Caused by uteroplacental insufficiency
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Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A major advantage of nonpharmacologic pain management is that:
A) a more rapid labor is likely.
B) more complete pain relief is possible.
C) the woman remains fully alert at all times.
D) there are no side effects or risks to the fetus.
Q2) A labor client, gravida 2, para 1, at term has received meperidine (Demerol) for pain control during labor. Her most recent dose was 15 minutes ago and birth is now imminent. Maternal vital signs have been stable and the EFM tracing has not shown any baseline changes. Which medication does the nurse anticipate would be required in the birth room for administration?
A) Oxytocin (Pitocin)
B) Naloxone (Narcan)
C) Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
D) Oxygen
Q3) Which client will most likely have increased anxiety and tension during labor?
A) Gravida 2 who refused any medication
B) Gravida 2 who delivered a stillborn baby last year
C) Gravida 1 who did not attend prepared childbirth classes
D) Gravida 3 who has two children younger than 3 years
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which client is most at risk for a uterine rupture?
A) A gravida 4 who had a classic cesarean incision
B) A gravida 5 who had two vaginal births and one cesarean birth
C) A gravida 3 who has had two low-segment transverse cesarean births
D) A gravida 2 who had a low-segment vertical incision for birth of a 10-lb infant
Q2) The priority nursing intervention following an amniotomy is to:
A) change the client's gown.
B) assess the fetal heart rate.
C) assess the color of the amniotic fluid.
D) estimate the amount of amniotic fluid.
Q3) The priority nursing care associated with an oxytocin infusion is:
A) measuring urinary output.
B) evaluating cervical dilation.
C) monitoring uterine response.
D) increasing infusion rate every 30 minutes.
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18
Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which maternal event is abnormal in the early postpartal period?
A) Diuresis and diaphoresis
B) Flatulence and constipation
C) Extreme hunger and thirst
D) Lochial color changes from rubra to alba
Q2) The nurse is planning comfort measures to implement for a client after a vaginal birth. Which measures should the nurse plan to implement? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sitz baths four times a day
B) Use of only warm water with the sitz baths
C) Topical anesthetic spray after perineal care
D) Ice pack to the perineum for the first 24 hours
E) Sitting while relaxing the perineal and buttock areas
Q3) If the client's white blood cell (WBC) count is 25,000/mm³ on her second postpartum day, which action should the nurse take?
A) Document the finding.
B) Tell the health care provider.
C) Begin antibiotic therapy immediately.
D) Have the laboratory draw blood for reanalysis.
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Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations
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Q1) Which client is most likely to have the least stress adjusting to her role as a mother?
A) A 26-year-old woman who is returning to work in 10 weeks
B) A 35-year-old anxious mother who has had no contact with babies or children
C) A 16-year-old teenager who lives with her parents and has a strained relationship with her mother
D) A 25-year-old woman who knew at 16 weeks of gestation that she was pregnant with twins, who were delivered by cesarean birth
Q2) During which stage of role attainment do the parents become acquainted with their baby and combine parenting activities with cues from the infant?
A) Formal
B) Informal
C) Personal
D) Anticipatory
Q3) Taking-hold
A)Passive, dependent
B)Begins to see self as a mother
C)Autonomous, seeking information
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Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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Q1) Parents ask the nurse, "What makes the opening between the baby's atriums close at birth?" The nurse's response is that cardiovascular changes that cause the foramen ovale to close at birth are a direct result of:
A) changes in the hepatic blood flow.
B) increased pressure in the left atrium.
C) increased pressure in the right atrium.
D) decreased blood flow to the left ventricle.
Q2) Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
A)Only immunoglobulin to cross the placenta
B)First immunoglobulin produced by the newborn when stressed
C)Important in protection of the gastrointestinal and respiratory system
Q3) An infant at 36 weeks' gestation was just delivered; included in the protocol for a preterm infant is an initial blood glucose assessment. The nurse obtains the blood and the reading is 58 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action based on this reading?
A) Document the finding in the newborn's chart.
B) Double-wrap the newborn under a warming unit.
C) Feed the newborn a 10% dextrose solution.
D) Notify the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) of the pending admission.
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Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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Q1) Which explains why a newborn with a congenital defect of the penis should not be circumcised?
A) There is increased risk of infection.
B) The foreskin might be needed for future repairs.
C) A circumcision will make the defect more visible.
D) There is no medical rationale for a circumcision.
Q2) To differentiate between caput succedaneum and cephalohematoma in a newborn, the nurse would consider the following clinical information. (Select all that apply.)
A) These are both normal presentations because of the birth process and will resolve within 24 to 48 hours.
B) Cephalohematoma manifests as a localized area of swelling as compared with caput succedaneum, which appears as a general swelling of the head.
C) A cephalohematoma can develop several hours or days after the birth event, whereas caput succedaneum is noted shortly before or immediately after the birth event.
D) Edema that crosses suture lines is observed with caput succedaneum.
E) With a cephalohematoma, bleeding occurs between the bone and skull.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Q1) Which should the nurse implement to prevent the kidnapping of a newborn from the hospital?
A) Restricting the amount of time infants are out of the nursery
B) Questioning anyone who is seen walking in the hallways carrying an infant
C) Allowing no visitors in the maternity area except those who have identification bracelets
D) Instructing the parents to not give the baby to anyone except the nurse assigned that day
Q2) Which nursing action is a priority to prevent infection in the newborn? (Select all that apply.)
A) Wearing gloves before touching neonates
B) Washing hands before and after handling any neonate
C) Washing hands and arms thoroughly at the beginning of the day
D) Sharing some equipment that will not transmit infection from one neonate to another
Q3) Which is the purpose of state-required newborn screening?
A) Keep the state records updated.
B) Document the number of births.
C) Allow for accurate statistical information.
D) Recognize and treat newborn disorders early.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Q1) Which is the first step in assisting the breastfeeding mother?
A) Assess the woman's knowledge of breastfeeding.
B) Provide instruction on the composition of breast milk.
C) Discuss the hormonal changes that trigger the milk ejection reflex.
D) Help her obtain a comfortable position and place the infant to the breast.
Q2) To prevent breast engorgement, what should the new breastfeeding mother be instructed to do?
A) Feed her infant no more than every 4 hours.
B) Limit her intake of fluids for the first few days.
C) Apply cold packs to the breast prior to feeding.
D) Breast-feed frequently and for adequate lengths of time.
Q3) Which should the nurse recommend to the postpartum client to prevent nipple trauma?
A) Assess the nipples before each feeding.
B) Limit the feeding time to less than 5 minutes.
C) Wash the nipples daily with mild soap and water.
D) Position the infant so the nipple is far back in the mouth.
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Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant
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Q1) Which should be included in the home care of a high-risk infant?
A) Feeding the infant on a strict schedule
B) Keeping the infant in the supine or prone position
C) Providing continued respiratory support and oxygen
D) Cleaning the umbilical cord several times daily with alcohol
Q2) Which is the priority rationale for doing a car seat trial for a preterm neonate being discharged soon?
A) To assess the car seat's size
B) To assess the parents' knowledge about car seat use
C) To determine if the neonate cries while in the car seat
D) To assess for any neonate apnea or bradycardia while in the car seat
Q3) Which is the treatment for miliaria?
A) Application of oil
B) Removal of wet clothing
C) Removal of excess clothing
D) Application of soothing lotion
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Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Q1) Opiates
A)A powerful short-acting CNS stimulant
B)CNS depressants that produce a feeling of mental dullness, drowsiness, and finally stupor
C)Active constituent is tetrahydrocannabinol, which crosses the placenta and accumulates in the fetus
Q2) Which is the most dangerous effect on the fetus of a client who smokes cigarettes while pregnant?
A) Intrauterine growth restriction
B) Genetic changes and anomalies
C) Extensive central nervous system damage
D) Fetal addiction to the substance inhaled
Q3) Which environment can assist a pregnant teen to achieve the task of establishing a stable identity?
A) Home schooling
B) Alternative education program
C) School-based mothers' program
D) Continuing mainstream high school classes
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Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy
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Q1) The physician suspects that the client may have gestational trophoblastic disease. Which clinical manifestations support this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increased levels of beta-hCG in the serum
B) Fundal height correlating with reported gestational age
C) Vaginal bleeding
D) Vomiting
E) Maternal hypotension
Q2) A female client presents to the emergency room complaining of lower abdominal cramping with scant bleeding of approximately 2 days' duration. This morning, the quality and location of the pain changed and she is now experiencing pain in her shoulder. The client's last menstrual period was 28 days ago, but she reports that her cycle is variable, ranging from 21 to 45 days. Which clinical diagnosis does the nurse suspect?
A) Ectopic pregnancy
B) Appendicitis
C) Food poisoning
D) Gastroenteritis
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Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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Q1) A client, who delivered her third child yesterday, has just learned that her two school-age children have contracted chickenpox. What should the nurse tell her?
A) Her two children should be treated with acyclovir before she goes home from the hospital.
B) The baby will acquire immunity from her and will not be susceptible to chickenpox.
C) The children can visit their mother and baby in the hospital as planned but must wear gowns and masks.
D) She must make arrangements to stay somewhere other than her home until the children are no longer contagious.
Q2) A pregnant patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is reviewing infant care instructions with the prenatal nurse. Which patient statement indicates to the nurse that the teaching was effective?
A) "I will bathe my baby twice a day."
B) "I will use premixed formula to feed my baby."
C) "I will use gloves to change my baby's diapers."
D) "I will use alcohol wipes six times a day on the baby's cord until it falls off."
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Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications
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Q1) A pregnant client with premature rupture of membranes is at higher risk for postpartum infection. Which assessment data indicate a potential infection?
A) Fetal heart rate, 150 beats/min
B) Maternal temperature, 99° F
C) Cloudy amniotic fluid, with strong odor
D) Lowered maternal pulse and decreased respiratory rates
Q2) A pregnant client who has had a prior obstetric history of preterm labors is pregnant with her third child. The physician has ordered an fFN (fetal fibronectin) test. Which instructions should be given to the client related to this clinical test?
A) Client must be NPO prior to testing.
B) Blood work will be drawn every week to help confirm the start of preterm labor.
C) Client should refrain from sexual activity prior to testing.
D) A urine specimen will be collected for testing.
Q3) Which presentation is least likely to occur with a hypotonic labor pattern?
A) Prolonged labor duration
B) Fetal distress
C) Maternal comfort during labor
D) Irregular labor contraction pattern
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Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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Q1) Which client data received during report should the nurse recognize as being a postpartum risk factor?
A) Gravida 5, para 5
B) Labor duration of 4 hours
C) Infant weight greater than 3800 g
D) Epidural anesthesia for labor and birth
Q2) The nurse expecting a uterine infection in a postpartum client should assess the:
A) episiotomy site.
B) odor of the lochia.
C) abdomen for distention.
D) pulse and blood pressure.
Q3) The client who is being treated for endometritis is placed in the Fowler position because it:
A) promotes comfort and rest.
B) facilitates drainage of lochia.
C) prevents spread of infection to the urinary tract.
D) decreases tension on the reproductive organs.
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Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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Q1) Overstimulation may cause increased oxygen use in a preterm infant. Which nursing intervention helps to avoid this problem?
A) Group all care activities together to provide long periods of rest.
B) Keep charts on top of the incubator so the nurses can write on them there.
C) While giving a report to the next nurse, stand in front of the incubator and talk softly about how the infant responds to stimulation.
D) Teach the parents signs of overstimulation, such as turning the face away or stiffening and extending the extremities and fingers.
Q2) To determine a preterm infant's readiness for nipple feeding, the nurse should assess the:
A) Skin turgor.
B) Bowel sounds.
C) Current weight.
D) Respiratory rate.
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Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Q1) The difference between pathologic jaundice and physiologic jaundice is that pathologic jaundice:
A) usually results in kernicterus.
B) appears during the first 24 hours of life.
C) begins on the head and progresses down the body.
D) results from the breakdown of excessive erythrocytes not needed after birth.
Q2) Which defect is present with tetralogy of Fallot?
A) Patent ductus arteriosus
B) Coarctation of the aorta
C) Hypertrophy of the right ventricle
D) Transposition of the great arteries
Q3) The priority assessment for the Rh-positive infant whose mother's indirect Coombs test was positive at 36 weeks is:
A) skin color.
B) temperature.
C) respiratory rate.
D) blood glucose level.
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Chapter 31: Family Planning
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Q1) A woman who has a successful career and a busy lifestyle will most likely look for which type of contraceptive?
A) Requires extensive education to use
B) Is the easiest and most convenient to use
C) Costs the least
D) Is permanent
Q2) Which of the following is a potential disadvantage for a client who wishes to use an intrauterine device (IUD) as a method of birth control?
A) Insertion of the device prior to coitus resulting in decreased spontaneity
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Protection against STDs
D) Decrease in dysmenorrhea
Q3) The method of contraception that is considered the safest for women is a(n):
A) IUD.
B) diaphragm.
C) male condom.
D) oral contraceptive.
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Chapter 32: Infertility
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Q1) A client has been diagnosed with an incompetent cervix. What treatment option will be incorporated into the plan of care?
A) Bed rest throughout the pregnancy
B) Wait and see approach to determine if the client goes into preterm labor
C) Preparation for cerclage procedure at 32 weeks' gestation
D) More frequent ultrasounds to assess progression of pregnancy
Q2) Chromosome analysis is a diagnostic test that should be offered to which couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Has long-standing infertility
C) Has had repeated pregnancy losses
D) Has a normal child but has not conceived again
Q3) The procedure in which ova are removed by laparoscopy, mixed with sperm, and the embryo(s) returned to the woman's uterus is:
A) in vitro fertilization.
B) tubal embryo transfer.
C) therapeutic insemination.
D) gamete intrafallopian transfer.
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Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women
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Q1) Healthy People 2020 goals directed at women's health issues focus on which areas? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increased screening for cervical and colorectal cancers
B) Reduction of cancer survivor rate based on clinical management treatment
C) Decreased morbidity and mortality related to breast cancer
D) Reduction in hospitalization for hip fractures in the older female population
E) Reduction in deaths associated with cardiovascular causes such as stroke and coronary artery disease (CAD)
Q2) Which administration concern is included in the plan of care for the HPV (human papillomavirus) vaccine?
A) It is available in liquid form.
B) It involves a series of two injections.
C) Injections should be given over a 3-month period.
D) The individual should sit down for 15 minutes following the injection.
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Chapter 34: Women's Health Problems
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Q1) Which treatment option minimizes the development of lymphedema in the surgical management of a client with breast cancer?
A) Radical mastectomy procedure
B) Radiation therapy
C) Sentinel lymph node mapping
D) Ultrasound
Q2) Which are the most common sites of breast cancer metastasis?
A) Kidneys
B) Bones and liver
C) Heart and blood vessels
D) Central nervous system
Q3) Which should the nurse stress in teaching a client to deal with the symptoms of PMS?
A) Decrease her consumption of caffeine.
B) Drink a small glass of wine with her evening meal.
C) Decrease her fluid intake to prevent fluid retention.
D) Eat three large meals a day to maintain glucose levels.
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