Nursing Care of Adults Question
Bank
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of nursing concepts and skills necessary for the care of adult patients with a wide range of acute and chronic health conditions. Emphasizing evidence-based practice, the curriculum covers assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation of individualized care for adults in diverse healthcare settings. Students will learn to apply the nursing process, utilize effective communication, and collaborate with interdisciplinary teams to promote optimal health outcomes. Key topics include pharmacology, pathophysiology, patient education, and the management of complex health needs, preparing students to deliver safe, compassionate, and holistic nursing care to adult populations.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology for Nursing Care 8th Edition by Richard A. Lehne
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110 Chapters
1332 Verified Questions
1332 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1567 Page 2
Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31061
Sample Questions
Q1) Before administering a medication, what does the nurse need to know to evaluate how individual patient variability might affect the patient's response to the medication? (Select all that apply.)
A) Chemical stability of the medication
B) Ease of administration
C) Family medical history
D) Patient's age
E) Patient's diagnosis
Answer: C, D, E
Q2) What are the properties of an ideal drug? (Select all that apply.)
A) Irreversible action
B) Predictability
C) Ease of administration
D) Chemical stability
E) A simple trade name
Answer: B, C, D
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3
Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31062
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient newly diagnosed with diabetes is to be discharged from the hospital. The nurse teaching this patient about home management should begin by doing what?
A) Asking the patient to demonstrate how to measure and administer insulin
B) Discussing methods of storing insulin and discarding syringes
C) Giving information about how diet and exercise affect insulin requirements
D) Teaching the patient about the long-term consequences of poor diabetes control
Answer: A
Q2) A postoperative patient reports pain, which the patient rates as an 8 on a scale from 1 to 10 (10 being the most extreme pain). The prescriber has ordered acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg PO every 6 hours PRN pain. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient what medications have helped with pain in the past.
B) Contact the provider to request a different analgesic medication.
C) Give the pain medication and reposition the patient to promote comfort.
D) Request an order to administer the medication every 4 hours.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31063
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse educator is conducting a continuing education class on pharmacology. To evaluate the learning of the nurses in the class, the nurse educator asks, "Which drug name is a generic drug name?" Which is the correct response?
A) Acetaminophen
B) Tylenol
C) Cipro
D) Motrin
Answer: A
Q2) A patient asks a nurse why drugs that have been approved by the FDA still have unknown side effects. The nurse tell the patient that:
A) testing for all side effects of a medication would be prohibitively expensive.
B) patients in drug trials often are biased by their preconceptions of a drug's benefits.
C) researchers tend to conduct studies that will prove the benefits of their new drugs.
D) subjects in drug trials do not always represent the full spectrum of possible patients.
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31064
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is given a prescription for azithromycin (Zithromax) and asks the nurse why the dose on the first day is twice the amount of the dose on the next 4 days. Which reply by the nurse is correct?
A) "A large initial dose helps to get the drug to optimal levels in the body faster."
B) "The first dose is larger to minimize the first pass effect of the liver."
C) "The four smaller doses help the body taper the amount of drug more gradually."
D) "Tubular reabsorption is faster with initial doses, so more is needed at first."
Q2) A prescriber has written an order for a medication: drug X 100 mg PO every 6 hours. The half-life for the drug is approximately 6 hours. The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose at 8:00 AM on Tuesday. On Wednesday, when will the serum drug level reach plateau?
A) 2:00 AM
B) 8:00 AM
C) 2:00 PM
D) 8:00 PM
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Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31065
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient reports becoming "immune" to a medication because it no longer works to alleviate symptoms. The nurse recognizes that this decreased effectiveness is likely caused by:
A) antagonists produced by the body that compete with the drug for receptor sites.
B) decreased selectivity of receptor sites, resulting in a variety of effects.
C) desensitization of receptor sites by continual exposure to the drug.
D) synthesis of more receptor sites in response to the medication.
Q2) Two nurses are discussing theories of drug-receptor interaction. Which statements are true regarding the affinity of a drug and its receptor? (Select all that apply.)
A) Affinity and intrinsic activity are dependent properties.
B) Affinity refers to the strength of the attraction between a drug and its receptor.
C) Drugs with high affinity are strongly attracted to their receptors.
D) Drugs with low affinity are strongly attracted to their receptors.
E) The affinity of a drug for its receptors is reflected in its potency.
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Chapter 6: Drug Interactions
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about food and drug interactions is true?
A) Foods alter drug absorption and metabolism but not drug action.
B) Medications are best absorbed on an empty stomach.
C) Patient discomfort is the food and drug interaction of most concern.
D) Some foods can inhibit CYP isozymes and alter drug metabolism.
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who is taking multiple medications. To help ensure that adverse drug reactions are prevented or minimized, the nurse will do which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ask the patient about over-the-counter medications used.
B) Contact the prescriber to request cytochrome P450 levels.
C) Limit the patient's calcium intake.
D) Obtain a thorough diet history.
E) Request orders for PRN medications to treat any anticipated symptoms of drug interactions.
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8
Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31067
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse provides teaching to a patient who will begin taking a drug with a known risk of hepatotoxicity. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should avoid taking acetaminophen while taking this drug."
B) "I will need periodic evaluation of aspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferase levels."
C) "If I experience nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain, I should call my provider."
D) "Routine testing and early detection of problems will prevent liver failure."
Q2) A nurse is preparing to give an antibiotic to a patient who reports being allergic to antibiotics. Before giving the medication, it is important for the nurse to do what?
A) Ask whether the patient has taken this antibiotic for other infections.
B) Question the patient about allergies to other medications.
C) Obtain a history of other reactions to other drugs.
D) Request an order for an antihistamine.
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9
Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of women about medications. The women want to know why so many drugs have unpredictable effects in women. The nurse will tell them that:
A) drugs usually have more toxic effects in women.
B) most known drug effects are based on drug trials in men.
C) women have varying responses to drugs during menstrual cycles. D) women metabolize drugs more slowly.
Q2) The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) recommends genetic testing of patients receiving certain medications. Genetic testing helps prescribers:
A) better establish a drug's therapeutic index.
B) determine whether a patient is a rapid or slow metabolizer of the drug.
C) identify racial characteristics that affect psychosocial variation in drug response. D) produce a drug that is tailored to an individual patient's genetic makeup.
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Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and Breast-Feeding
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31069
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of drug taken by a pregnant patient is more likely to have effects on a fetus?
A) Drug that is highly polar
B) Ionized drug
C) Lipid-soluble drug
D) Protein-bound drug
Q2) A patient has just given birth to a baby boy with a cleft palate. The nurse will review the patient's medication history with special emphasis on drugs taken during which period?
A) Before she became pregnant
B) During the first trimester
C) During the second trimester
D) During the third trimester
Q3) A nurse is teaching a class to a group of pregnant patients. The nurse correctly teaches that the highest risk of teratogen-induced gross malformations exists during which time?
A) Immediately before conception
B) During the first trimester
C) During the second trimester
D) During the third trimester
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Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31070
Sample Questions
Q1) The parents of a child with asthma ask the nurse why their child cannot use oral corticosteroids more often, because they are so effective. The nurse will offer which information that is true for children?
A) Chronic steroid use can inhibit growth.
B) Frequent use of this drug may lead to a decreased response.
C) A hypersensitivity reaction to this drug may occur.
D) Systemic steroids can be toxic.
Q2) An infant has allergies and often develops a pruritic rash when exposed to allergens. The infant's parents ask the nurse about using a topical antihistamine. What does the nurse tell them?
A) Antihistamines given by this route are not absorbed as well in children.
B) Applying this medication to the skin can cause toxicity in this age group.
C) The child will also need oral medication to achieve effective results.
D) Topical medications have fewer side effects than those given by other routes.
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Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31071
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to teach a forgetful older adult patient about a multiple drug regimen to follow after discharge from the hospital. To help promote adherence, what will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient to share the teaching with a neighbor or friend soon after discharge.
B) Give the patient detailed written information about each drug.
C) Cluster medication administration times as much as possible.
D) Make sure the patient understands the actions and side effects of each drug.
Q2) A nurse is preparing to give medications to four geriatric patients who are all taking multiple medications. Which patient is most likely to have an adverse drug reaction related to increased drug effects?
A) Obese patient
B) Patient with decreased serum creatinine
C) Patient with chronic diarrhea
D) Thin patient with a chronically low appetite
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13
Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31072
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nurses about neuropharmacology. The nurse asks which classes of drugs act by reducing axonal conduction. Which response by a participant is correct?
A) Antihypertensives
B) Antipsychotics
C) Local anesthetics
D) Antidepressants
Q2) A patient receiving botulinum toxin injections to control muscle spasticity asks how the drug works. The nurse knows that this drug affects the transmitter acetylcholine by:
A) inhibiting its release.
B) interfering with its storage.
C) preventing its reuptake.
D) promoting its synthesis.
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Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31073
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient is in premature labor. Which class of drug will she be given?
A) Alpha<sub>1</sub> agonist
B) Anticholinergic
C) Beta<sub>2</sub> agonist
D) Beta<sub>2</sub> antagonist
Q2) A patient is wheezing and short of breath. The nurse assesses a heart rate of 88 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 124/78 mm Hg. The prescriber orders a nonspecific beta agonist medication. Besides evaluating the patient for a reduction in respiratory distress, the nurse will monitor for which side effect?
A) Hypotension
B) Tachycardia
C) Tachypnea
D) Urinary retention
Q3) The nurse understands that patients are given beta<sub>1</sub> agonists to treat _____ failure.
A) heart
B) kidney
C) respiratory
D) liver
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Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31074
Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient who lives alone and is somewhat forgetful has an overactive bladder and reports occasional constipation. Which treatment will the nurse anticipate for this patient?
A) Behavioral therapy
B) Oxybutynin (Ditropan XL) extended-release tablets
C) Oxybutynin (Oxytrol) transdermal patch
D) Percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation (PTNS)
Q2) A patient receives topical atropine to facilitate an eye examination. The nurse will tell the patient to remain in a darkened room or to wear sunglasses for several hours until the effects of the medication wear off. This teaching is based on the nurse's knowledge that muscarinic antagonists cause:
A) elevation of intraocular pressure.
B) miosis and ciliary muscle contraction
C) paralysis of the iris sphincter.
D) relaxation of ciliary muscles.
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Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in
Myasthenia Gravis
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31075
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has myasthenia gravis will be taking neostigmine (Prostigmin). What will the nurse emphasize when teaching this patient about the medication?
A) "Stop taking the drug if you have diarrhea."
B) "Take a supplementary dose before exercise."
C) "Use atropine if you have excessive salivation."
D) "Withhold the dose if ptosis occurs."
Q2) A patient with myasthenia gravis who is taking a cholinesterase inhibitor is being admitted to the intensive care unit and is on mechanical ventilation. The prescriber has ordered a challenge dose of edrophonium to distinguish between a myasthenic crisis and a medication overdose. The nurse will expect to do what?
A) Administer neostigmine if muscle strength decreases.
B) Be prepared to administer atropine if muscle weakness increases.
C) Give a second dose of edrophonium if no improvement is seen.
D) Give pralidoxime (Protopam) if cholinergic symptoms worsen.
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Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic
Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents and
Ganglionic Blocking Agents
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31076
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient receives a neuromuscular blocking agent before a procedure. The patient's eyes close. The nurse knows this is a sign that the patient:
A) has fallen asleep.
B) has received a toxic dose of the medication.
C) is beginning to feel the drug's effects.
D) may need mechanical ventilation.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about neuromuscular blocking agents. For what may these agents be used? (Select all that apply.)
A) Analgesia
B) Electroshock therapy
C) Malignant hyperthermia
D) Mechanical ventilation
E) Surgery
Q3) Which of the following areas of the body shows the effects of tubocurarine last?
A) Levator muscle of the eyelids and the muscles of mastication
B) Muscles in the lower extremities
C) Muscles controlling the glottis
D) Muscles of respiration and the diaphragm
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31077
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks why albuterol, which is selective for beta<sub>2</sub> receptors, causes an increased heart rate in some patients. How does the nurse respond?
A) "Adrenergic agonists can lose their selectivity when given at higher doses."
B) "Bronchodilation lowers blood pressure, which causes a reflex tachycardia."
C) "Some patients metabolize the drug differently and have unusual side effects."
D) "Systemic effects are intensified with inhaled doses."
Q2) A patient with asthma uses albuterol (Ventolin) for wheezing. The nurse assesses the patient and notes vital signs of HR, 96 beats per minute; RR, 18 breaths per minute; and BP, 116/78 mm Hg. The patient has clear breath sounds and hand tremors. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient how often the inhaler is used.
B) Check the patient's blood glucose level.
C) Request an order for isoproterenol (Isuprel) to reduce side effects.
D) Stop the medication and report the tremors to the provider.
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19
Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31078
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient taking a beta blocker complains of shortness of breath. The patient has respirations of 28 breaths per minute, a blood pressure of 162/90 mm Hg, and a pulse of 88 beats per minute. The nurse auscultates crackles in all lung fields. The nurse understands that these assessments are consistent with:
A) bronchoconstriction.
B) left-sided heart failure.
C) rebound cardiac excitation.
D) sinus bradycardia.
Q2) A male patient is being treated for benign prostatic hyperplasia and has stopped taking his alpha-adrenergic antagonist medication because of ejaculatory difficulties. Which medication does the nurse expect the provider to prescribe?
A) Alfuzosin (Uroxatral)
B) Prazosin (Minipress)
C) Silodosin (Rapaflo)
D) Tamsulosin (Flomax)
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Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31079
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the pharmacology of methyldopa. Which statement by a student indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "Methyldopa results in alpha<sub>2</sub> agonist activation, but it is not itself an alpha<sub>2</sub> agonist."
B) "Methyldopa is not effective until it is converted to an active compound."
C) "Methyldopa reduces blood pressure by reducing cardiac output."
D) "Methyldopa's principal mechanism is vasodilation, not cardiosuppression."
Q2) A prescriber orders transdermal clonidine (Catapres TTS) for a patient with hypertension. What will the nurse teach this patient?
A) That medication given by transdermal patch has fewer systemic side effects
B) That localized skin reactions are uncommon
C) To apply the patch to intact skin on the forearm or leg
D) To change the patch every week
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31080
Sample Questions
Q1) A group of nursing students asks a nurse to explain the blood-brain barrier. The nurse would be correct to say that the blood-brain barrier:
A) prevents some potentially toxic substances from crossing into the central nervous system.
B) causes infants to be less sensitive to CNS drugs and thus require larger doses.
C) allows only ionized or protein-bound drugs to cross into the central nervous system. D) prevents lipid-soluble drugs from entering the central nervous system.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students how the CNS adapts to psychotherapeutic medications. Which statement by a nursing student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Adaptation can lead to tolerance of these drugs with prolonged use."
B) "Adaptation helps explain how physical dependence occurs."
C) "Adaptation often must occur before therapeutic effects develop."
D) "Adaptation results in an increased sensitivity to side effects over time."
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22
Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinsons Disease
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student wants to know why a patient who has been taking levodopa (Dopar) for years will now receive levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet). The nurse explains the reasons that levodopa as a single agent is no longer available. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further education?
A) "Carbidopa increases the availability of levodopa in the central nervous system."
B) "Carbidopa reduces the incidence of nausea and vomiting."
C) "Combination products reduce peripheral cardiovascular side effects."
D) "Combination products cause fewer dyskinesias and decreased psychosis."
Q2) A patient with Parkinson's disease is taking levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet) and reports occasional periods of loss of drug effect lasting from minutes to several hours. The nurse questions the patient further and discovers that these episodes occur at different times related to the medication administration. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
A) administering a catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitor, such as entacapone.
B) adding the DA-releasing agent amantadine to the regimen.
C) giving a direct-acting dopamine agonist.
D) shortening the dosing interval of levodopa/carbidopa.
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Chapter 22: Alzheimers Disease
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31082
Sample Questions
Q1) The spouse of a patient who acts confused and forgetful wants to know if there is a test to determine whether the patient has Alzheimer's disease. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "A diagnosis is made by administering medications and observing for potential improvement in symptoms."
B) "The diagnosis is based on a patient's age, family history, serum apolipoproteins, and genetic testing."
C) "Magnetic resonance imaging to demonstrate brain atrophy is the definitive test to determine Alzheimer's disease."
D) "Proposed diagnostic criteria include measures of cognitive function and the presence of one known biomarker."
Q2) The spouse of a patient with Alzheimer's disease asks a nurse for more information about the rivastigmine (Exelon) transdermal patch that is being used. Which statement by the spouse indicates a need for further explanation?
A) "Doses are lower but more steady with the transdermal patch."
B) "Reduced side effects occur with the transdermal patch."
C) "We only need to change the patch every 2 weeks."
D) "We should remove the old patch before applying the new one."
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Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31083
Sample Questions
Q1) A 28-year-old woman is seen in the clinic after a single episode of blurred and double vision, weakness, and clumsiness lasting several days. The patient asks the nurse if she has multiple sclerosis. The nurse will tell this patient that the provider will:
A) await a second clinical attack to confirm the diagnosis.
B) consider her symptoms diagnostic of multiple sclerosis.
C) order a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan now and another when a second clinical attack occurs.
D) have a definitive diagnosis based on an MRI scan ordered today.
Q2) A patient has been newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS), and the nurse provides teaching about the medications for the disease. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I may need to take additional drugs at times of acute relapse."
B) "I will need to take medication indefinitely."
C) "If medication is begun early, permanent remission can be achieved."
D) "Some symptoms may need to be managed with symptom-specific drugs."
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25
Chapter 24: Drugs for Epilepsy
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16 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted to the hospital for a new onset seizure disorder, and the prescriber orders carbamazepine (Tegretol). The nurse reviewing the patient's medical history notes that the patient is taking warfarin. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss _____ dose.
A) reducing the carbamazepine
B) reducing the warfarin
C) increasing the carbamazepine
D) increasing the warfarin
Q2) A nurse is assessing a patient who becomes motionless and seems to stare at the wall and then experiences about 60 seconds of lip smacking and hand wringing. What should the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient about a history of absence seizures.
B) Contact the provider to report symptoms of a complex partial seizure.
C) Notify the provider that the patient has had a grand mal seizure.
D) Request an order for intravenous diazepam (Valium) to treat status epilepticus.
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Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with multiple sclerosis needs pharmacologic treatment for spasticity in order to begin strengthening exercises to improve walking ability. The nurse anticipates that which medication will be ordered for spasticity?
A) Baclofen (Lioresal)
B) Dantrolene (Dantrium)
C) Diazepam (Valium)
D) Metaxalone (Skelaxin)
Q2) Which patient should receive dantrolene (Dantrium) with caution?
A) A 20-year-old woman with a spinal cord injury
B) A 45-year-old man with a history of malignant hyperthermia
C) A 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis
D) An 8-year-old child with cerebral palsy
Q3) A patient has localized muscle spasms after suffering a leg injury in sports. Treatment options for this patient will not include:
A) analgesic anti-inflammatory drugs.
B) chlorzoxazone (Paraflex).
C) metaxalone (Skelaxin).
D) whirlpool baths.
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Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31086
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing a patient to go home from the emergency department after receiving sutures for a laceration on one hand. The provider used lidocaine with epinephrine as a local anesthetic. Which symptom in this patient causes the most concern?
A) Difficulty moving the fingers of the affected hand
B) Inability to feel pressure at the suture site
C) Nervousness and tachycardia
D) Sensation of pain returning to the wound
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about local anesthetics. Which statement by a student reflects an understanding of the teaching?
A) "Local anesthetics affect large myelinated neurons first."
B) "Local anesthetics affect motor and sensory nerves."
C) "Local anesthetics do not block temperature perception."
D) "Local anesthetics do not cause systemic effects."
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Chapter 27: General Anesthetics
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse administers atropine to a patient before induction of anesthesia for a surgical procedure. When evaluating the effects of this medication, the nurse will:
A) assess for excessive bronchial secretions.
B) expect a reduction in the patient's anxiety.
C) monitor the patient's heart rate.
D) observe for muscle paralysis.
Q2) A patient receives a neuromuscular blocking agent as an adjunct to inhalation anesthesia. When caring for this patient, it is important for the nurse to remember that neuromuscular blocking agents:
A) cause vagal slowing of the heart.
B) increase the required dose of inhalation anesthetics.
C) increase the depth of unconsciousness.
D) prevent contraction of the diaphragm.
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29
Chapter 28: Opioid Narcotic Analgesics, Opioid
Antagonists, and Nonopioid Centrally Acting Analgesics
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31088
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is brought to the emergency department by friends, who report finding the patient difficult to awaken. The friends report removing two fentanyl transdermal patches from the patient's arm. On admission to the emergency department, the patient has pinpoint pupils and a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute. A few minutes after administration of naloxone, the respiratory rate is 8 breaths per minute and the patient's pupils are dilated. The nurse recognizes these symptoms as signs of:
A) a mild opioid overdose.
B) decreased opioid drug levels.
C) improved ventilation.
D) worsening hypoxia.
Q2) A woman in labor receives meperidine (Demerol) for pain. The nurse caring for the infant will observe the infant closely for:
A) congenital anomalies.
B) excessive crying and sneezing.
C) respiratory depression.
D) tremors and hyperreflexia.
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Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients With Cancer
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31089
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with bone cancer has recently undergone chemotherapy and radiation therapy to reduce the size of the tumor. The patient is taking a large dose of an opioid analgesic, along with acetaminophen and an antidepressant. The nursing student caring for this patient is concerned that the patient is showing drug-seeking behaviors, because the individual requested an increased dose of the opioid. The student discusses this concern with the nurse. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "It would probably help this patient more to give a larger antidepressant dose."
B) "Patients often need more drug to achieve the same effect."
C) "Radiation and chemotherapy can damage bone tissue and cause increased pain."
D) "The patient's description of pain is the most important part of the assessment of pain."
Q2) A patient is taking hydrocodone and ibuprofen for cancer pain and is admitted to the hospital for chemotherapy. The nurse anticipates that the prescriber will _____ ibuprofen.
A) reduce the dose of B) discontinue the C) increase the dose of D) order aspirin (ASA) instead of
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31090
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of numbness in the extremities. The nurse notes that the patient's hands and feet are cool and pale. When conducting a health history, the nurse learns that the patient has a history of migraine headaches. The nurse recognizes this patient's symptoms as:
A) ergotamine withdrawal.
B) ergotism.
C) severe migraine symptoms.
D) sumatriptan side effects.
Q2) A woman with moderate migraine headaches asks a nurse why the provider has ordered metoclopramide (Reglan) as an adjunct to aspirin therapy, because she does not usually experience nausea and vomiting with her migraines. The nurse will tell her that the metoclopramide is used to:
A) help induce sleep.
B) improve absorption of the aspirin.
C) prevent gastric irritation caused by the aspirin.
D) prolong the effects of the aspirin.
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Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31091
Sample Questions
Q1) What are negative symptoms of schizophrenia? (Select all that apply.)
A) Delusions
B) Disordered thinking
C) Poor judgment
D) Poor self-care
E) Poverty of speech
Q2) A patient taking a first-generation antipsychotic (FGA) medication develops severe parkinsonism and is treated with amantadine (Symmetrel). The amantadine is withdrawn 2 months later, and the parkinsonism returns. The nurse will expect the provider to:
A) give anticholinergic medications.
B) make a diagnosis of idiopathic parkinsonism.
C) resume the amantadine indefinitely.
D) try a second-generation antipsychotic (SGA).
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Chapter 32: Antidepressants
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31092
Sample Questions
Q1) A provider has indicated that a serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) will be prescribed for a patient who is experiencing major depression. When conducting a pretreatment health history, the nurse learns that the patient has a recent history of alcohol abuse. Which SNRI would be contraindicated for this patient?
A) Desvenlafaxine (Pristiq)
B) Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
C) Escitalopram (Lexapro)
D) Venlafaxine (Effexor SR)
Q2) A first-time parent of a 6-week-old infant tells the nurse that she feels anxious and sad, cries a lot, and has difficulty sleeping. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask her to complete the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale.
B) Reassure her that the "baby blues" are normal after childbirth.
C) Suggest that she get more sleep and try to increase her activity.
D) Suggest that she talk to her provider about using an SSRI.
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Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a hospitalized patient who has been taking lithium (Lithobid) for 3 days. The patient is complaining of mild nausea and abdominal bloating. The patient's lithium level is 0.8 mEq/L. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the dose and tell the patient that the side effects are temporary.
B) Contact the prescriber to request an order for serum electrolytes.
C) Hold the dose and notify the prescriber of the patient's lithium level.
D) Request an order for amiloride (Midamor).
Q2) A patient with bipolar disorder takes lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which statement by the patient would prompt the nurse to hold the drug and notify the prescriber for further assessment?
A) "I get a little dizzy sometimes."
B) "I had a headache last week that lasted for about an hour."
C) "I've broken out in a rash on my chest and back."
D) "Last night I woke up twice with a bad dream."
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Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31094
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse recognizes that the actions of benzodiazepines include which findings? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sleep deprivation
B) Relief of general anxiety
C) Suppression of seizures and/or seizure activity
D) Development of tardive dyskinesia
E) Increase in muscle spasms
Q2) A patient who has been using secobarbital for several months to treat insomnia tells the nurse that the prescriber has said the prescription will be changed to temazepam (Restoril) because it is safer. The patient asks why this agent is safer. The nurse is correct in telling the patient that temazepam:
A) does not depress the central nervous system.
B) shows no respiratory depression, even in toxic doses.
C) mimics the actions of a central nervous system inhibitory neurotransmitter.
D) only potentiates the action of endogenous gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA).
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Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing a patient to change from taking lorazepam (Ativan) for anxiety to buspirone (Buspar). Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I can drink alcohol when taking Buspar, but not grapefruit juice."
B) "I may need to use a sedative medication if I experience insomnia."
C) "I may not feel the effects of Buspar for a few weeks."
D) "I should stop taking the Ativan when I start taking the Buspar."
Q2) A nurse is admitting a patient to a hospital unit and is taking a history. The patient reports taking alprazolam (Xanax) for "nerves." The nurse knows that this patient is most likely being treated for which condition?
A) Generalized anxiety disorder
B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
C) Panic disorder
D) Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
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Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and
Attention-Deficithyperactivity Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child will begin taking methylphenidate (Ritalin) for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. Important baseline information about this patient will include:
A) results of an electrocardiogram (ECG).
B) family history of psychosis.
C) height and weight.
D) renal function.
Q2) A nurse is providing education to a group of patients regarding amphetamines. To evaluate the group's understanding, the nurse asks a participant what effects amphetamines would have on her. The participant shows that she understands the effects of these drugs if she gives which answers? (Select all that apply.)
A) "Amphetamines increase fatigue."
B) "Amphetamines suppress the perception of pain."
C) "Amphetamines increase appetite."
D) "Amphetamines increase the heart rate."
E) "Amphetamines elevate mood."
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Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for four patients. The nurse would be concerned about which patient developing a substance use disorder?
A) A college student who reports having experimented with marijuana in the past year
B) An older adult patient with terminal cancer who requires twice the normal dose of morphine for pain relief
C) A patient in moderate to severe pain after a total hip replacement who asks for pain medication an hour before the next dose is due
D) A patient whose history indicates the use of prescription narcotic analgesics for back and headache pain
Q2) A patient who has been taking a medication with a side effect of drowsiness stops taking the medication after several weeks. The patient reports feeling anxious and jittery. The nurse understands that this response is due to:
A) addiction.
B) psychologic dependence.
C) tolerance.
D) withdrawal syndrome.
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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse 2: F Alcohol
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse about the effects of alcohol on the heart. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Alcohol produces a dose-dependent decrease in blood pressure."
B) "It is better to consume moderate amounts 1 or 2 days per week than 3 or 4 days per week."
C) "Moderate consumption of alcohol protects the heart by elevating low-density lipoproteins."
D) "Moderate amounts of alcohol may inhibit the development of atherosclerosis."
Q2) A college student is brought unresponsive to the emergency department by friends, who say that their friend drank more than half of a large bottle of whiskey 3 hours ago. Assessment reveals a blood alcohol level of 0.32%. The vital signs are BP, 88/32 mm Hg; R, 6/min; T, 96.8° F; and P,76/min and weak and thready. The nurse should prepare the patient for which intervention?
A) IV fluids and stimulants
B) Charcoal administration
C) Gastric lavage and dialysis
D) Naloxone (Narcan) administration
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Chapter 39: Drug Abuse I2: F Nicotine and Smoking
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Sample Questions
Q1) A prescriber has ordered nicotine nasal spray for a patient to assist with smoking cessation. Which statement will the nurse include when teaching the patient about the medication?
A) "This will produce a steady level of nicotine to reduce your cravings."
B) "You should gradually reduce the dose after 3 months of use."
C) "You should use 1 spray in each nostril per dose up to 5 times per hour."
D) "You will not develop dependence on the nicotine in the nasal spray."
Q2) The spouse of a patient who smokes wonders why anyone would want to engage in "such a disgusting habit." What will the nurse tell the spouse?
A) Nicotine causes relaxation and helps with sleep.
B) Nicotine increases alertness and promotes dopamine release.
C) Nicotine lowers blood pressure.
D) Nicotine settles the stomach and reduces nausea and vomiting.
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Chapter 40: Drug Abuse Iv: Major Drugs of Abuse Other
Than Alcohol and Nicotine
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18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31100
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who is addicted to barbiturates and who will begin receiving phenobarbital. The nurse discusses the care of this patient with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Phenobarbital acts as an antagonist to barbiturates and prevents toxicity."
B) "Phenobarbital has a long half-life and can be tapered gradually to minimize abstinence symptoms."
C) "Phenobarbital can be administered on an as-needed basis to treat withdrawal symptoms."
D) "Phenobarbital prevents respiratory depression associated with barbiturate withdrawal."
Q2) A college student is brought to the emergency department by a group of friends who report that they had been dancing at a nightclub when their friend collapsed. The patient has a temperature of 105° F and shows jaw clenching and confusion. The nurse will expect to administer which medication?
A) Dantrolene (Dantrium)
B) Haloperidol (Haldol)
C) Methadone
D) Naloxone (Narcan)
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Chapter 41: Diuretics
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31101
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who was in a motor vehicle accident sustained a severe head injury and is brought into the emergency department. The provider orders intravenous mannitol (Osmitrol). The nurse knows that this is given to:
A) reduce intracranial pressure.
B) reduce renal perfusion.
C) reduce peripheral edema.
D) restore extracellular fluid.
Q2) A patient is taking gentamicin (Garamycin) and furosemide (Lasix). The nurse should counsel this patient to report which symptom?
A) Frequent nocturia
B) Headaches
C) Ringing in the ears
D) Urinary retention
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43
Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31102
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a postoperative patient who has a nasogastric tube with continuous suction. The nurse notes that the patient has shallow respirations and suspects that this patient has developed:
A) metabolic acidosis.
B) metabolic alkalosis.
C) respiratory acidosis.
D) respiratory alkalosis.
Q2) A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of muscle weakness and drowsiness. The nurse notes a heart rate of 80 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg. The electrocardiogram reveals an abnormal rhythm. The nurse will question the patient about which over-the-counter medication?
A) Antacids
B) Aspirin
C) Laxatives
D) Potassium supplements
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44
Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking a drug that interferes with venous constriction. The nurse will tell the patient to:
A) ask for assistance when getting out of bed.
B) expect bradycardia for a few days.
C) notify the provider if headache occurs.
D) report shortness of breath.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a nursing student how blood can return to the heart when pressure in the venous capillary beds is very low. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Constriction of small muscles in the venous wall increases venous pressure."
B) "Negative pressure in the left atrium draws blood toward the heart."
C) "Skeletal muscles relax to allow the free flow of blood."
D) "Venous valves help prevent the backflow of blood."
Q3) A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving a drug that causes constriction of arterioles. The nurse expects to observe which effect from this drug?
A) Decreased stroke volume
B) Increased stroke volume
C) Decreased myocardial contractility
D) Increased myocardial contractility
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System
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12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31104
Sample Questions
Q1) A prescriber orders ramipril (Altace) for an obese patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has developed hypertension. The nurse provides teaching before dismissing the patient home. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I am less likely to develop diabetic nephropathy when taking this medication."
B) "I should check my blood sugar more often, because hyperglycemia is a side effect of this drug."
C) "Taking this medication helps reduce my risk of stroke and heart attack."
D) "This medication will probably prevent the development of diabetic retinopathy."
Q2) A patient begins taking an ACE inhibitor and complains of a dry cough. What does the nurse correctly tell the patient about this symptom?
A) It indicates that a serious side effect has occurred.
B) It is a common side effect that occurs in almost all patients taking the drug.
C) It may be uncomfortable enough that the drug will need to be discontinued.
D) It occurs frequently in patients taking the drug but will subside over time.
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving verapamil (Calan) for hypertension and digoxin (Lanoxin) for heart failure. The nurse will observe this patient for:
A) AV blockade.
B) gingival hyperplasia.
C) migraine headaches.
D) reflex tachycardia.
Q2) A nurse is preparing to assist a nursing student in administering intravenous verapamil to a patient who also receives a beta blocker. The nurse asks the nursing student to discuss the plan of care for this patient. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will check to see when the last dose of the beta blocker was given."
B) "I will monitor vital signs closely to assess for hypotension."
C) "I will monitor the heart rate frequently to assess for reflex tachycardia."
D) "I will prepare to administer intravenous norepinephrine if necessary."
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Chapter 46: Vasodilators
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medications are most likely to cause postural hypotension? (Select all that apply.)
A) Minoxidil
B) Diltiazem (Cardizem)
C) Prazosin (Minipress)
D) Captopril (Capoten)
E) Losartan (Cozaar)
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient with hypertension and diabetes. The patient's prescriber recently ordered an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the nurse's teaching about this drug?
A) "ACE inhibitors only dilate veins, so I may have more edema in my ankles."
B) "ACE inhibitors prevent the nervous system from causing increased blood pressure."
C) "This drug can also cause shortness of breath because of bronchoconstriction."
D) "This drug will help lower my blood pressure and will benefit my kidneys."
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Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks the nurse why multi-drug therapy is often used to treat hypertension. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Multi-drug therapy often means that drugs may be given in lower doses."
B) "Some agents are used to offset adverse effects of other agents."
C) "Treatment of hypertension via different mechanisms increases success."
D) "Two or more drugs will lower blood pressure more quickly."
Q2) A patient with hypertension will begin taking an alpha<sub>1</sub> blocker. What will the nurse teach this patient?
A) A persistent cough is a known side effect of this drug.
B) Eat foods rich in potassium while taking this drug.
C) Move slowly from sitting to standing when taking this drug.
D) Report shortness of breath while taking this drug.
Q3) A nurse is discussing how beta blockers work to decrease blood pressure with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Beta blockers block the actions of angiotensin II."
B) "Beta blockers decrease heart rate and contractility."
C) "Beta blockers decrease peripheral vascular resistance."
D) "Beta blockers decrease the release of renin."
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Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are expected effects of cardiac glycosides? (Select all that apply.)
A) Decreased cardiac output
B) Decreased force of contraction
C) Decreased heart rate
D) Modulation of neurohormonal systems
E) Positive inotropic effects
Q2) A patient with chronic hypertension is admitted to the hospital. During the admission assessment, the nurse notes a heart rate of 96 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg, bibasilar crackles, 2+ pitting edema of the ankles, and distension of the jugular veins. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order for which medication?
A) ACE inhibitor
B) Digoxin (Lanoxin)
C) Furosemide (Lasix)
D) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
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Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a class on dysrhythmias and associated therapy. The nurse asks the class, "Which cardiac dysrhythmia would result in the lowest cardiac output, and what treatment would be effective?" The class best demonstrates understanding by responding that _____ results in the lowest cardiac output, and treatment includes
A) atrial flutter; lidocaine
B) tachycardia; atropine
C) first-degree heart block; verapamil (Calan)
D) ventricular fibrillation; defibrillation
Q2) A patient will be taking amiodarone (Cordarone). Which baseline tests are necessary before this medication is started? (Select all that apply.)
A) Chest radiograph and pulmonary function tests
B) Complete blood count with differential
C) Ophthalmologic examination
D) Renal function tests
E) Thyroid function tests
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Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Coronary Heart Disease: Drugs
That Help Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is reviewing the medications of a patient with diabetes before discharge. The nurse realizes that the patient will be going home on colesevelam, a bile acid sequestrant, and insulin. What patient education should the nurse provide in the discharge teaching for this patient?
A) The patient needs to monitor the blood sugar carefully, because colesevelam can cause hypoglycemia.
B) The patient needs to monitor the blood sugar carefully, because colesevelam can cause hyperglycemia.
C) The patient needs to take the insulin at least 3 hours before the colesevelam.
D) The patient needs to use an oral antidiabetic agent or agents, not insulin, with colesevelam.
Q2) A patient with malaise has been taking daptomycin (Cubicin) for an infection and is concurrently taking simvastatin (Zocor). The nurse should be concerned if the patient complains of:
A) nausea.
B) tiredness.
C) muscle pain.
D) headache.
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Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31111
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with asthma and depression develops stable angina. In addition to organic nitrites, which other medications will be used to treat this condition? (Select all that apply.)
A) ACE inhibitors
B) Antiplatelet drugs
C) Beta blockers
D) Calcium channel blockers
E) Cholesterol-lowering drugs
Q2) A patient with new-onset exertional angina takes a nitroglycerin sublingual tablet, but the pain intensifies. The nurse notes that the patient has a heart rate of 76 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 120/82 mm Hg. The electrocardiogram is normal. The patient's lips and nail beds are pink, and there is no respiratory distress. The nurse will anticipate providing:
A) an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor.
B) intravenous nitroglycerin and a beta blocker.
C) ranolazine (Ranexa) and quinidine.
D) supplemental oxygen and intravenous morphine.
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Page 53
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation undergoes hip replacement surgery. On the second postoperative day, the nurse assesses the patient and notes an oxygen saturation of 83%, pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and hemoptysis. The nurse will contact the provider to report possible _____ and request an order for _____.
A) congestive heart failure; furosemide (Lasix)
B) hemorrhage; vitamin K (phytonadione)
C) myocardial infarction: tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
D) pulmonary embolism; heparin
Q2) A patient has been taking warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. The provider has ordered dabigatran etexilate (Pradaxa) to replace the warfarin. The nurse teaches the patient about the change in drug regimen. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I may need to adjust the dose of dabigatran after weaning off the warfarin."
B) "I should continue to take the warfarin after beginning the dabigatran until my INR is greater than 3."
C) "I should stop taking the warfarin 3 days before starting the dabigatran."
D) "I will stop taking the warfarin and will start taking the dabigatran when my INR is less than 2."
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Chapter 53: Management of St-Elevation Myocardial Infarction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with a history of myocardial infarction should take which medications indefinitely? (Select all that apply.)
A) ACE inhibitors
B) Alteplase
C) Aspirin
D) Beta blockers
E) Clopidogrel
Q2) A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of chest pain that has lasted longer than 1 hour and is unrelieved by nitroglycerin. The patient's electrocardiogram reveals elevation of the ST segment. Initial cardiac troponin levels are negative. The patient is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula. Which drug should be given immediately?
A) Aspirin 325 mg chewable
B) Beta blocker given IV
C) Ibuprofen 400 mg orally
D) Morphine intravenously
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Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31114
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient with hemophilia A who has been admitted for bleeding into the knee joint. The prescriber has ordered intravenous factor VIIa (NovoSeven RT). A nursing student wants to know why this patient is not receiving factor VIII. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Factor VIIa is stronger than factor VIII and will work faster."
B) "Factor VIII is used for prophylaxis, and factor VIIa is used for acute episodes."
C) "Factor VIIa is used when patients develop antibodies against factor VIII."
D) "Factor VIIa provides immune tolerance therapy so that factor VIII will be more effective."
Q2) The parents of a boy with hemophilia A want to know why their son will receive factor replacement on an ongoing basis rather than when needed for bleeding episodes. They tell the nurse that the boy's grandfather, who had the same disease, received the drug only when he had bleeding. The nurse will give the parents which information about ongoing therapy?
A) It can reverse progression of the disease.
B) It is cheaper, because the amounts of the drug used are less.
C) It is used to minimize pathologic developments in the joints.
D) It prevents the development of inhibitors.
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Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient was given a 30-day supply of Feosol and has been taking the drug for 4 weeks for iron deficiency anemia. The patient's initial hemoglobin was 8.9 gm/dL. The nurse notes that the hemoglobin has risen to 9.7 gm/dL. What will the nurse ask the patient about?
A) Dietary iron intake
B) Gastrointestinal (GI) upset
C) Whether stools have been tarry or black
D) Whether the prescription needs to be refilled
Q2) A nurse is reviewing a patient's most recent blood count and notes that the patient has a hemoglobin of 9.6 gm/dL and a hematocrit of 33%. The nurse will notify the provider and will expect initial treatment to include:
A) determining the cause of the anemia.
B) giving intravenous iron dextran.
C) giving oral carbonyl iron (Feosol).
D) teaching about dietary iron.
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Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31116
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who begins to complain of shortness of breath. The nurse assesses the patient and notes 3+ pitting edema bilaterally in the lower extremities. Which medication taken by the patient causes the most concern?
A) Epoetin alfa
B) Filgrastim (granulocyte colony-stimulating factor)
C) Oprelvekin (interleukin-11)
D) Sargramostim (granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor)
Q2) A patient with chronic renal failure who is on dialysis receives an ESA. The nurse caring for this patient during dialysis notes that the patient's hemoglobin is 11.3 gm/dL, up from the 10.4 gm/dL recorded 2 weeks ago. The patient's blood pressure is 120/80 mm
Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to suggest:
A) adding an antihypertensive drug.
B) discontinuing the ESA.
C) giving heparin.
D) reducing the dose of the ESA.
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Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31117
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with type 1 diabetes recently became pregnant. The nurse plans a blood glucose testing schedule for her. What is the recommended monitoring schedule?
A) Before each meal and before bed
B) In the morning for a fasting level and at 4 PM for the peak level
C) Six or seven times a day
D) Three times a day, along with urine glucose testing
Q2) Insulin glargine is prescribed for a hospitalized patient who is diabetic. When will the nurse administer this drug?
A) Approximately 15 to 30 minutes before each meal
B) In the morning and at 4 PM
C) Once daily at bedtime
D) After meals and at bedtime
Q3) A patient with type 1 diabetes who takes insulin reports taking propranolol for hypertension. Why is the nurse concerned?
A) The beta blocker can cause insulin resistance.
B) Using the two agents together increases the risk of ketoacidosis.
C) Propranolol increases insulin requirements because of receptor blocking.
D) The beta blocker can mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia.
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59
Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31118
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient arrives in the emergency department with a heart rate of 128 beats per minute and a temperature of 105° F. The patient's skin feels hot and moist. The free T<sub>4</sub> level is 4 ng/dL, the free T<sub>3</sub> level is 685 pg/dL, and the TSH level is 0.1 microunits/mL. The nurse caring for this patient will expect to administer:
A) intravenous levothyroxine.
B) iodine-131 (131I).
C) methimazole (Tapazole).
D) propylthiouracil (PTU).
Q2) A 1-year-old child with cretinism has been receiving 8 mcg/kg/day of levothyroxine (Synthroid). The child comes to the clinic for a well-child check up. The nurse will expect the provider to:
A) change the dose of levothyroxine to 6 mcg/kg/day.
B) discontinue the drug if the child's physical and mental development is normal.
C) increase the dose to accommodate the child's increased growth.
D) stop the drug for 4 weeks and check the child's TSH level.
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Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31119
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of growth hormone and reconstitutes the medication. After adding the diluent, the nurse notices that the preparation is cloudy. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the drug as ordered.
B) Discard the drug and prepare another dose.
C) Notify the prescriber.
D) Shake the drug to dissipate the particles.
Q2) A child with Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS) has short stature, and the provider is considering treatment with growth hormone. Which aspect of this child's history should the nurse report to the provider?
A) Behavior problems
B) Low muscle tone
C) Mental impairment
D) Sleep apnea
Q3) What are the effects of prolactin secretion in males? (Select all that apply.)
A) Breast development
B) Decreased libido
C) Delayed puberty
D) Galactorrhea
E) Infertility
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Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31120
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is explaining congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) to a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "CAH is caused by a deficiency of ACTH production."
B) "CAH is the result of an inability to synthesize glucocorticoids."
C) "Newborn screening provides a definitive diagnosis for CAH"
D) "The enzyme 21-alpha-hydroxylase increases the production of androgens."
Q2) A patient is admitted with nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. The patient appears emaciated and complains of feeling weak. The nurse notes a heart rate of 98 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 88/54 mm Hg. The nurse reviews the chart and notes an increased serum potassium level and a decreased serum sodium level. The nurse expects the provider to order which medication initially?
A) Cosyntropin (Cortrosyn)
B) Dexamethasone
C) Fludrocortisone (Florinef)
D) Hydrocortisone
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62
Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and
Noncontraceptive Applications
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31121
Sample Questions
Q1) A 50-year-old postmenopausal patient who has had a hysterectomy has moderate to severe vasomotor symptoms and is discussing estrogen therapy (ET) with the nurse. The patient is concerned about adverse effects of ET. The nurse will tell her that:
A) an estrogen-progesterone product will reduce side effects.
B) an intravaginal preparation may be best for her.
C) side effects of ET are uncommon among women her age.
D) transdermal preparations have fewer side effects.
Q2) The nurse is providing patient education about the application of transdermal estrogen. Which statement made by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the application of this medication? "I should apply this medication to my:"
A) waistline."
B) abdomen."
C) breast."
D) posterior thigh."
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Chapter 62: Birth Control
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31122
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been experiencing side effects with a combination oral contraceptive, and her provider has ordered a different combination product. The nurse will instruct the patient to do what?
A) Begin taking the new product immediately.
B) Change products at the beginning of her next cycle.
C) Stop taking the old OC 1 week before starting the new OC.
D) Use an alternate method of contraception for 1 month before starting the new OC.
Q2) A nurse is teaching an adolescent female patient about 28-day monophasic combination oral contraceptives. The provider has instructed the patient to begin taking the pills on the first Sunday after the onset of her next period. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) "If breakthrough spotting occurs, you should begin taking a new pack of pills."
B) "Protection from pregnancy will begin immediately."
C) "Use another form of contraception for the next month."
D) "You may take the pills at different times of day."
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64
Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31123
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is being treated for infertility. An examination reveals cervical mucus that is scant, thick, and sticky. The nurse suspects that the patient has been taking which medication?
A) Clomiphene (Clomid)
B) Estrogen
C) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D) Progesterone
Q2) An infertile couple begins treatment with menotropins. To enhance the therapeutic effects of the medication, the nurse will advise the patients to have intercourse:
A) before hCG injection and the following 2 to 3 days.
B) the morning of the hCG injection and later that evening.
C) the evening of the injection and the following day.
D) the evening of the injection and the following morning.
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65
Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31124
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient is 1 week post-term and will receive intravenous oxytocin. Which will the nurse evaluate before starting the infusion? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cervical ripening
B) Fetal monitoring
C) Renal function
D) Respiratory function
E) Uterine activity
Q2) A postpartum patient is receiving ergonovine maleate (Ergotrate) to prevent hemorrhage. The nurse assesses the patient and notes a heart rate of 76 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg. The patient's uterus is firm. The patient complains of mild to moderate cramping. Bleeding is minimal. What will the nurse do?
A) Continue to monitor and tell the patient to report increased cramping.
B) Notify the provider of possible uterine hypertonicity.
C) Notify the provider of the patient's blood pressure.
D) Request an order to administer the Ergotrate intravenously.
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66
Chapter 65: Androgens
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31125
Sample Questions
Q1) An adult male patient will begin androgen therapy for testicular failure. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the treatment regimen?
A) "I will need to have x-rays of my hands and feet every 6 months."
B) "My libido may improve while I am taking this medication."
C) "Taking this drug may lead to the development of prostate cancer."
D) "This will restore fertility, so I can have a child."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of parents about the role of testosterone in puberty for boys. To evaluate the group's understanding, the nurse asks, "What physiologic effects related to testosterone can you expect to see in your sons?" Which responses indicate an understanding of the role of testosterone in male puberty? (Select all that apply.)
A) "It promotes skeletal muscle growth."
B) "It increases height and weight."
C) "It delays epiphyseal closure."
D) "It causes a high-pitched voice."
E) "It causes acne."
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Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign
Prostatic Hyperplasia
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31126
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has erectile dysfunction asks a nurse whether sildenafil (Viagra) would be a good medication for him to take. Which aspect of this patient's history would be of most concern?
A) Benign prostatic hypertrophy
B) Mild hypertension
C) Occasional use of nitroglycerin
D) Taking finasteride
Q2) Tadalafil (Cialis) was prescribed 4 weeks ago for a patient with erectile dysfunction. The patient also takes prazosin (Minipress) for hypertension. Which statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the use of tadalafil (Cialis)?
A) "I can take this up to 2 times a day, just before intercourse."
B) "I have a little renal trouble, so I should take a higher dose."
C) "I should take this medication with food."
D) "I should take this medication no more than once a day."
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Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31127
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a nursing student about a specific acquired immunity system. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity are both types of specific acquired immune responses."
B) "Each exposure to an antigen causes a faster, more intense response."
C) "Immune responses occur only after exposure to a foreign substance."
D) "The skin is a factor in specific acquired immunity."
Q2) A patient has a delayed-type hypersensitivity response to an infection. The nurse understands that which two types of cells are necessary for this response?
A) Antigen-presenting cells and mast cells
B) Cytolytic T lymphocytes and target cells
C) Immunoglobulin cells and dendritic cells
D) Infected macrophages and CD4 helper T cells
Q3) Which statement is true about helper T cells?
A) They are useful but are not essential to immune responses.
B) They do not play a role in antibody production.
C) They have highly specific receptors to antigens on their surface.
D) They prevent CD4 molecules from attaching to antigens.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 69
Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31128
Sample Questions
Q1) An 11-year-old boy received all childhood immunizations before attending school as a kindergartner. Which vaccines are recommended for this child at his current age?
A) DTaP, MCV4, Varivax
B) PCV-23, Td, MMR
C) Tdap, MCV4, HPV
D) Tdap, Varivax, hepatitis B
Q2) A clinic nurse receives a phone call from a parent who states that a 2-month-old infant has a severe cough, a low-grade fever, and a runny nose that have lasted over a week. What will the nurse ask the parent?
A) Whether the infant has had the first set of vaccines
B) Whether the infant received a hepatitis B vaccine as a newborn
C) Whether the infant attends day care
D) Whether there is a family history of respiratory disorders
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Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31129
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse provides teaching to a patient who has undergone kidney transplantation and will begin taking cyclosporine (Sandimmune), a glucocorticoid, and sirolimus (Rapamune). Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should take sirolimus at the same time as the cyclosporine."
B) "I will need to have my blood sugar checked regularly."
C) "I will need to take an antibiotic to prevent lung infections."
D) "Taking this combination of drugs lowers my risk of kidney damage."
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer antibodies to a patient to prevent acute rejection. By which route will the nurse administer the antibodies?
A) Oral
B) Intramuscular
C) Intravenous
D) Transdermal
Q3) The nurse knows that which two immunosuppressants are the most effective?
A) Azathioprine (Imuran) and everolimus (Zortress)
B) Cyclosporine (Sandimmune) and tacrolimus (Prograf)
C) Methotrexate (Rheumatrex) and muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone OKT3)
D) Sirolimus (Rapamune) and methylprednisolone
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Chapter 70: Antihistamines
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31130
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is brought to the emergency department after ingesting a handful of diphenhydramine (Benadryl) tablets. The patient has dilated pupils, a flushed face, and tremors. The patient is agitated and has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute. The nurse may anticipate administering which agents? (Select all that apply.)
A) Activated charcoal
B) Cathartics
C) Diazepam
D) Phenytoin
E) Second-generation H1 antagonists
Q2) A prescriber orders hydroxyzine (Vistaril) for a patient with acute urticaria. The nurse will include which information when teaching the patient about this drug?
A) The drug will reduce redness and itching but not edema.
B) This antihistamine is not likely to cause sedation.
C) The patient should avoid drinking alcohol while taking the drug.
D) The patient should report shortness of breath while taking the drug.
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Chapter 71: Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors: Nonsteroidal
Anti-Inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31131
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a nursing student who wants to know how aspirin and nonaspirin first-generation NSAIDs differ. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Unlike aspirin, first-generation NSAIDs cause reversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase."
B) "NSAIDs do not increase the risk of MI and stroke; however, unlike ASA, they do not provide protective benefits against those conditions."
C) "Unlike aspirin, first-generation NSAIDs do not carry a risk of hypersensitivity reactions."
D) "Unlike aspirin, first-generation NSAIDs cause little or no suppression of platelet aggregation."
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who has been taking low-dose aspirin for several days. The nurse notes that the patient has copious amounts of watery nasal secretions and an urticarial rash. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
A) administering epinephrine.
B) changing to a first-generation NSAID.
C) reducing the dose of aspirin.
D) giving an antihistamine.
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Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31132
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse tells a nursing student that the glucocorticoids given for rheumatoid arthritis are nearly identical to substances produced naturally by the body. The student remarks that the drug must be very safe. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "As long as the drug is taken as prescribed, side effects usually do not occur."
B) "By interrupting the inflammatory process, these drugs inhibit side effects."
C) "Side effects can occur and are dependent on the dose and duration of treatment."
D) "The negative feedback loop prevents side effects."
Q2) The prescriber orders 20 mg of hydrocortisone orally once each day. The nurse will make sure the drug is scheduled to be administered at what time?
A) 8:00 AM
B) 12:00 PM
C) 4:00 PM
D) 9:00 PM
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Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31133
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis for 1 month and has generalized symptoms is taking high-dose NSAIDs and an oral glucocorticoid. The provider has ordered methotrexate (Rheumatrex). The patient asks the nurse why methotrexate is necessary since pain and swelling have been well controlled with the other medications. The nurse will tell the patient that:
A) a methotrexate regimen can reduce overall costs and side effects of treatment.
B) starting methotrexate early can help delay joint degeneration.
C) starting methotrexate now will help increase life expectancy.
D) with methotrexate, doses of NSAIDs can be reduced to less toxic levels.
Q2) A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is taking leflunomide (Arava) and an oral contraceptive. She tells the nurse she would like to get pregnant. What will the nurse tell her?
A) That leflunomide is not dangerous during the first trimester of pregnancy
B) That plasma levels of leflunomide will drop rapidly when she stops taking it
C) To ask her provider about an 11-day course of cholestyramine
D) To stop taking leflunomide when she stops using contraception
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Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31134
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with chronic gout has an acute gouty episode and is admitted to the hospital. The patient has been taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for several months. The prescriber plans to begin therapy with probenecid. What will the nurse do?
A) Give the medication as ordered and observe the patient closely for gastrointestinal side effects.
B) Request an order to lower the dose of the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug.
C) Restrict the patient's fluid intake to minimize the risk of renal injury.
D) Suggest delaying the probenecid therapy until the acute episode has subsided.
Q2) A patient has had three gouty flare-ups in the past year. Which drug class will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Colchicine
B) Glucocorticoids
C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
D) Urate-lowering drugs
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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone
Mineralization
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31135
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is providing teaching for a patient with osteoporosis who has just switched from alendronate (Fosamax) to zoledronate (Reclast). Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will need to have blood tests periodically while taking this drug."
B) "I will only need a dose of this medication every 1 to 2 years."
C) "This drug is less likely to cause osteonecrosis of the jaw."
D) "This drug is only given intravenously."
Q2) A 55-year-old female patient asks a nurse about calcium supplements. The nurse learns that the patient consumes two servings of dairy products each day. The patient's serum calcium level is 9.5 mg/dL. The serum vitamin D level is 18 ng/mL. The nurse will recommend adding _____ daily and _____ IU of vitamin D<sub>3</sub> each day.
A) 1200 mg of calcium once; 10,000
B) 1500 mg of calcium twice; 1000
C) 600 mg of calcium once; 10,000
D) 600 mg of calcium twice; 2000
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Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31136
Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication should be used for asthma patients as part of step 1 management?
A) Combination inhaled glucocorticoids/long-acting beta<sub>2</sub> agonists
B) Inhaled low-dose glucocorticoids
C) Long-acting beta<sub>2</sub> agonists
D) Short-acting beta<sub>2</sub> agonists
Q2) A child is receiving a combination albuterol/ipratropium (DuoNeb) inhalation treatment. The patient complains of a dry mouth and sore throat. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider to report systemic anticholinergic side effects.
B) Discontinue the aerosol treatment immediately.
C) Notify the provider of a possible allergic reaction.
D) Reassure the patient that these are expected side effects.
Q3) A patient with persistent, frequent asthma exacerbations asks a nurse about a long-acting beta<sub>2</sub>-agonist medication. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) LABAs are safer than short-acting beta<sub>2</sub> agonists.
B) LABAs can be used on an as-needed basis to treat symptoms.
C) LABAs reduce the risk of asthma-related deaths.
D) LABAs should be combined with an inhaled glucocorticoid.
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Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31137
Sample Questions
Q1) A child with seasonal rhinitis has used budesonide (Rhinocort Aqua) for several years. The parents are concerned that the child's rate of growth has slowed. What will the nurse do?
A) Reassure the parents that this is an expected side effect.
B) Suggest that the parents discuss using fluticasone (Flonase) with the provider.
C) Tell the parents to administer the drug only when symptoms are severe.
D) Tell the parents that antihistamines work as well as intranasal glucocorticoids.
Q2) A parent asks a nurse about giving diphenhydramine (Benadryl) to a child to relieve cold symptoms. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Benadryl must be given in higher doses to provide relief for cold symptoms."
B) "Intranasal glucocorticoids are more effective for treating cold symptoms."
C) "Nasal antihistamines are more effective for treating cold symptoms."
D) "Because histamine doesn't cause cold symptoms, Benadryl would not be effective."
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Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31138
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient stops taking a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) after 6 weeks of therapy for treatment of peptic ulcer disease. The patient reports symptoms of dyspepsia to the nurse. The nurse will tell this patient to:
A) come to the clinic to be tested for Clostridium difficile.
B) resume taking the PPI, because long-term therapy is necessary.
C) resume taking the PPI until symptoms resolve completely.
D) try an antacid to see whether it relieves these symptoms.
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease. The patient is otherwise healthy. The nurse learns that the patient does not smoke and that he drinks 1 or 2 glasses of wine with meals each week. The nurse anticipates that the provider will prescribe which drugs?
A) Amoxicillin (Amoxil), clarithromycin, and omeprazole (Prilosec)
B) Amoxicillin (Amoxil), metronidazole (Flagyl), and cimetidine (Tagamet)
C) Clarithromycin, metronidazole (Flagyl), and omeprazole (Prilosec)
D) Tetracycline, cimetidine (Tagamet), and lansoprazole (Prevacid)
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Chapter 79: Laxatives
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31139
Sample Questions
Q1) A 6-year-old child has frequent constipation. The nurse provides teaching after the parent asks the nurse why the provider recommended using laxatives only when needed. Which statement by the parent indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Children who take laxatives regularly can become dehydrated."
B) "Chronic laxative use can cause electrolyte imbalances."
C) "Frequent use of laxatives can cause diverticulitis."
D) "The normal reflex to defecate can be inhibited with overuse of laxatives."
Q2) A nurse is taking a history on a clinic patient who reports being constipated. Upon further questioning, the nurse learns that the patient's last stool was 4 days ago, that it was of normal, soft consistency, and the patient defecated without straining. The patient's abdomen is not distended, and bowel sounds are present. The patient reports usually having a stool every 1 to 2 days. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask about recent food and fluid intake.
B) Discuss the use of polyethylene glycol (MiraLax).
C) Recommend a bulk laxative.
D) Suggest using a bisacodyl (Dulcolax) suppository.
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Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31140
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is preparing to travel to perform missionary work in a region with poor drinking water. The provider gives the patient a prescription for ciprofloxacin (Cipro) to take on the trip. What will the nurse instruct this patient to do?
A) Combine the antibiotic with an antidiarrheal medication, such as loperamide.
B) Start taking the ciprofloxacin 1 week before traveling.
C) Take 1 tablet of ciprofloxacin with each meal for best results.
D) Use the drug if symptoms are severe or do not improve in a few days.
Q2) A nurse is providing teaching to a nursing student about to care for a woman with irritable bowel syndrome with diarrhea (IBS-D) who is receiving alosetron (Lotronex).
Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should evaluate the patient's abdomen for distension and bowel sounds."
B) "Patients with diverticulitis and IBS-C may take this drug."
C) "There are no known serious drug interactions with alosetron."
D) "This drug is given only to women with severe IBS-D."
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Chapter 81: Vitamins
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16 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31141
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient who is malnourished and has a history of poor nutrition. The patient reports difficulty seeing at night. This patient is likely to be deficient in which fat-soluble vitamin?
A) A (retinol)
B) D
C) E (alpha-tocopherol)
D) K
Q2) A nursing student asks a nurse about the recommendations for vitamin supplements to prevent cancer. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Foods rich in antioxidant vitamins may confer protection by other means."
B) "Observational studies provide clear proof that some antioxidants reduce the risk of cancer."
C) "Randomized controlled studies have not demonstrated cancer prevention benefits."
D) "Some vitamins have an increased cancer risk associated with too low and too high amounts."
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Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31142
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse performing an admission history on a patient learns that the patient is taking orlistat (Xenical), warfarin (Coumadin), and levothyroxine (Synthroid). What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider to discuss increasing the warfarin dose.
B) Give the levothyroxine at least 4 hours before giving the orlistat.
C) Suggest that the patient avoid fatty foods while taking these medications.
D) Tell the patient to take the orlistat on an empty stomach.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of patients about weight management options. One patient asks why many potential new drugs for long-term use in weight loss are not available. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Although some drugs have shown benefits, these benefits do not outweigh the risks."
B) "None of these drugs have shown significant weight loss when compared with placebo."
C) "The abuse potential of most of these drugs is generally too high to warrant their use."
D) "The side effects of most of these drugs are too uncomfortable to maintain compliance."
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84
Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31143
Sample Questions
Q1) A parent asks a nurse if the provider will prescribe an antibiotic for a child who attends school with several children who have strep throat. The child is complaining of a sore throat and has a fever. What will be the nurse's response?
A) "Because strep throat is likely, your child should be treated empirically."
B) "With good hand washing, your child should not get strep throat."
C) "Your child probably has strep throat, so your provider will order an antibiotic."
D) "Your child should come to the clinic to have a throat culture done today."
Q2) A patient has a localized skin infection, which is most likely caused by a gram-positive cocci. Until the culture and sensitivity results are available, the nurse will expect the provider to order a _____-spectrum _____ agent.
A) broad; systemic
B) broad; topical
C) narrow; systemic
D) narrow; topical
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Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I:
Penicillins
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is about to receive penicillin G for an infection that is highly sensitive to this drug. While obtaining the patient's medication history, the nurse learns that the patient experienced a rash when given amoxicillin (Amoxil) as a child 20 years earlier. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the provider to order a cephalosporin.
B) Reassure the patient that allergic responses diminish over time.
C) Request an order for a skin test to assess the current risk.
D) Suggest using a desensitization schedule to administer the drug.
Q2) A patient has an infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The prescriber has ordered piperacillin and amikacin, both to be given intravenously. What will the nurse do?
A) Make sure to administer the drugs at different times using different IV tubing.
B) Suggest giving larger doses of piperacillin and discontinuing the amikacin.
C) Suggest that a fixed-dose combination of piperacillin and tazobactam (Zosyn) be used.
D) Watch the patient closely for allergic reactions, because this risk is increased with this combination.
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Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall 2: F
Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, Teicoplanin, and Fosfomycin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cephalosporin may be used to treat meningitis?
A) Cefaclor
B) Cefazolin
C) Cefoxitin
D) Cefotaxime
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving vancomycin (Vancocin). The nurse notes that the patient is experiencing flushing, rash, pruritus, and urticaria. The patient's heart rate is 120 beats per minute, and the blood pressure is 92/57 mm Hg. The nurse understands that these findings are consistent with:
A) allergic reaction.
B) red man syndrome.
C) rhabdomyolysis.
D) Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
Q3) A patient receiving a cephalosporin develops a secondary intestinal infection caused by Clostridium difficile. What is an appropriate treatment for this patient?
A) Adding an antibiotic, such as vancomycin (Vancocin), to the patient's regimen
B) Discontinuing the cephalosporin and beginning metronidazole (Flagyl)
C) Discontinuing all antibiotics and providing fluid replacement
D) Increasing the dose of the cephalosporin and providing isolation measures
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Chapter 86: Bacteriostatic Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis:
Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent yellow or brown discoloration of teeth in children, tetracyclines should not be given:
A) to children once the permanent teeth have developed.
B) to patients taking calcium supplements.
C) to pregnant patients after the fourth month of gestation.
D) with dairy products or antacids.
Q2) A patient recently began receiving clindamycin (Cleocin) to treat an infection. After 8 days of treatment, the patient reports having 10 to 15 watery stools per day. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) The provider may increase the clindamycin dose to treat this infection.
B) This is a known side effect of clindamycin, and the patient should consume extra fluids.
C) The patient should stop taking the clindamycin now and contact the provider immediately.
D) The patient should try taking Lomotil or a bulk laxative to minimize the diarrheal symptoms.
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88
Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with a lung infection caused by P. aeruginosa. The culture and sensitivity report shows sensitivity to all aminoglycosides. The nurse knows that the rate of resistance to gentamicin is common in this hospital. The nurse will expect the provider to order which medication?
A) Amikacin (Amikin)
B) Gentamicin
C) Paromomycin
D) Tobramycin
Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of gentamicin to a patient who is receiving the drug 3 times daily. The nurse will monitor _____ levels.
A) peak
B) peak and trough
C) serum drug
D) trough
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Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with second-degree burns is treated with silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene). A nursing student asks the nurse about the differences between silver sulfadiazine and mafenide (Sulfamylon), because the two are similar products, and both contain sulfonamides. What does the nurse tell the student about silver sulfadiazine?
A) It causes increased pain when the medication is applied.
B) It has a broader spectrum of antimicrobial sensitivity.
C) It has antibacterial effects related to release of free silver.
D) It suppresses renal excretion of acid, causing acidosis.
Q2) A nurse is obtaining a drug history from a patient about to receive sulfadiazine. The nurse learns that the patient takes warfarin, glipizide, and a thiazide diuretic. Based on this assessment, the nurse will expect the provider to:
A) change the antibiotic to TMP/SMZ.
B) increase the dose of the glipizide.
C) monitor the patient's electrolytes closely.
D) monitor the patient's coagulation levels.
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90
Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections
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14 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31149
Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient with a urinary tract infection will require hospitalization and intravenous antibiotics?
A) A 5-year-old child with a fever of 100.5° F, dysuria, and bacteriuria
B) A pregnant woman with bacteriuria, suprapubic pain, and fever
C) A young man with dysuria, flank pain, and a previous urinary tract infection
D) An older adult man with a low-grade fever, flank pain, and an indwelling catheter
Q2) A 20-year-old female patient has suprapubic discomfort, pyuria, dysuria, and bacteriuria greater than 100,000/mL of urine. Which are the most likely diagnosis and treatment?
A) Uncomplicated lower urinary tract infection treatable with short-course therapy
B) Complicated lower urinary tract infection treatable with single-dose therapy
C) Uncomplicated upper urinary tract infection requiring 14 days of oral antibiotics
D) Complicated upper urinary tract infection requiring parenteral antibiotics
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Chapter 90: Antimycobacterial Agents: Drugs for
Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium Avium Complex
Infection
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is being treated for HIV infection has a 5-mm area of induration after a routine TST. The patient's chest radiograph is normal, and there are no other physical findings. The nurse will expect this patient to begin treatment with which drugs?
A) Isoniazid and rifabutin
B) Isoniazid and rifampin
C) Isoniazid and rifapentine
D) Isoniazid and pyrazinamide
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the problems associated with the long-term therapy required to treat tuberculosis. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Long-term therapy increases the emergence of drug-resistant organisms."
B) "Long-term therapy increases the incidence of drug toxicities."
C) "Long-term therapy increases the likelihood of reactivation of latent infection."
D) "Long-term therapy results in decreased patient adherence to drug regimens."
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Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:
Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is receiving intravenous ciprofloxacin for pneumonia develops diarrhea. A stool culture is positive for Clostridium difficile. The nurse will expect the provider to:
A) add metronidazole (Flagyl).
B) increase the dose of ciprofloxacin.
C) restrict dairy products.
D) switch to gemifloxacin.
Q2) A patient who is taking calcium supplements receives a prescription for ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for a urinary tract infection. The nurse will teach this patient to:
A) consume extra fluids while taking the ciprofloxacin to prevent hypercalciuria.
B) stop taking the calcium supplements while taking the ciprofloxacin.
C) take the two medications together to increase the absorption of both.
D) take the calcium either 6 hours before or 2 hours after taking the ciprofloxacin.
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Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31152
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is being treated with amphotericin B (Abelcet) for a systemic fungal infection. After several weeks of therapy, the provider orders flucytosine (Ancobon) in addition to the amphotericin. The nurse understands that the rationale for this combination is that it:
A) broadens the antifungal spectrum.
B) improves the effectiveness of the amphotericin B.
C) lowers the dose of amphotericin B and reduces toxicity.
D) treats fungal central nervous system (CNS) infection.
Q2) A patient will begin taking an immunosuppressant medication. The nurse learns that the patient has a history of frequent candidal infections. The nurse will expect the provider to order which drug as prophylaxis?
A) Fluconazole (Diflucan)
B) Ketoconazole
C) Posaconazole (Noxafil)
D) Voriconazole (Vfend)
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94
Chapter 93: Antiviral Agents I: Drugs for Non-Hiv Viral
Infections
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14 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31153
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a positive test for hepatitis C and is admitted to the hospital. The admission laboratory tests reveal a normal ALT, and a liver biopsy is negative for hepatic fibrosis and inflammation. The nurse will prepare this patient for:
A) dual therapy with pegylated interferon alfa and ribavirin.
B) no medication therapy at this time.
C) pegylated interferon alfa only until ALT levels are elevated.
D) triple drug therapy with pegylated interferon alfa, ribavirin, and boceprevir.
Q2) A male patient with hepatitis C will begin triple drug therapy with pegylated interferon alfa 2a (Pegasys), ribavirin (Ribasphere), and boceprevir (Victrelis). The patient tells the nurse that his wife is pregnant. What will the nurse tell him?
A) Boceprevir is contraindicated in males whose partners are pregnant.
B) He should use a barrier contraceptive when having sex.
C) He should use dual drug therapy with pegylated interferon alfa and ribavirin only.
D) This combination drug therapy is safe for him to use.
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to discharge a patient with HIV who will be continuing to take enfuvirtide (Fuzeon) at home. The nurse is providing patient education about the medication. What information about the administration of enfuvirtide is most appropriate for the patient?
A) The importance of injecting the drug into two alternating sites daily
B) How to reconstitute and self-administer a subcutaneous injection
C) The importance of taking the drug with high doses of vitamin E
D) Likely drug interactions between enfuvirtide and other antiretroviral drugs
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is HIV positive and is taking zidovudine (Retrovir). Before administering the medication, the nurse should monitor which laboratory values?
A) Ketones in the urine and blood
B) Serum immunoglobulin levels
C) Serum lactate dehydrogenase
D) Complete blood count (CBC)
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Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31155
Sample Questions
Q1) Which infection(s) may be acquired through nonsexual transmission? (Select all that apply.)
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Gardnerella vaginalis
C) Herpes simplex
D) Neisseria gonorrhea
E) Treponema pallidum
F) None of the above
Q2) A newborn infant has been given erythromycin ophthalmic ointment as a routine postpartum medication. The infant's mother learns that she has a C. trachomatis infection and asks the nurse if her baby will need to be treated. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "The erythromycin ointment will prevent your baby from developing conjunctivitis."
B) "Without additional treatment, your baby could develop blindness."
C) "Your baby will need to be treated with oral erythromycin."
D) "Your baby will need to take doxycycline (Vibramycin) for 10 days."
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Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which patient would a topical antiseptic be most appropriate?
A) A patient with a systemic infection
B) A patient with a medium-sized abscess
C) A patient who has a wound with moderate exudate
D) A patient who needs to have wounds cleansed for prophylaxis
Q2) A patient arrives in the emergency department after a bicycle-automobile accident with multiple dirty abrasions. Which product might be used initially to cleanse this patient's wounds?
A) Hydrogen peroxide
B) Isopropanol (isopropyl alcohol)
C) Povidone iodine (Betadine)
D) Soap and water
Q3) A nursing student asks a nurse why systemic antibiotics and not topical antiseptic agents are used to treat localized skin infections. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Systemic agents are not affected by wound exudates."
B) "Systemic agents penetrate to the site of infection."
C) "Topical agents can damage inflamed or abraded tissues."
D) "Topical agents work only against established local infections."
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Page 98
Chapter 97: Anthelmintics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with strongyloidiasis is being treated with ivermectin (Stromectol). What will the nurse expect to teach this patient?
A) A Mazotti-type reaction is likely.
B) Hypotension is a common side effect of the drug.
C) The drug should be taken every 6 to 12 months until symptoms have cleared.
D) The drug should be taken with water for 1 to 2 days.
Q2) A young female patient is seen in a rural clinic after complaining of abdominal pain. The patient is wearing dirty clothing and is barefoot. The provider orders a complete blood count, which shows that the patient is anemic. The nurse may suspect that this patient has which of the following infestations?
A) Ancylostomiasis (hookworm)
B) Ascariasis (giant roundworm)
C) Enterobiasis (pinworm)
D) Trichuriasis (whipworm)
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Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has severe P. falciparum malaria and is unable to tolerate oral medications. Which regimen is the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved treatment of choice for this patient?
A) Intravenous quinidine gluconate plus intravenous doxycycline (Vibramycin)
B) Intravenous artensunate followed by atovaquone/proguanil (Malarone)
C) Intravenous quinine (Qualaquin) plus intravenous clindamycin
D) Intravenous mefloquine plus intravenous primaquine
Q2) A patient has been treated for an acute attack of P. vivax malaria. For relapse prevention, the nurse expects the provider to order which medication?
A) Chloroquine (Aralen Phosphate)
B) Doxycycline (Vibramax)
C) Primaquine phosphate
D) Quinine (Qualaquin)
Q3) Which are adverse effects of quinine (Qualaquin)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cinchonism
B) Hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency
C) Increased ventricular rate
D) Nightmares
E) Prolonged QT interval
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Page 100
Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs 2: F Miscellaneous Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with severe symptomatic intestinal amebiasis who has just completed a 10-day course of metronidazole (Flagyl). Which medication would the nurse expect to be ordered for the patient?
A) Atovaquone (Mepron)
B) Iodoquinol (Yodoxin)
C) Nitazoxanide (Alinia)
D) Pentamidine (Pentam)
Q2) A patient from Africa is being treated for East African trypanosomiasis. The nurse is preparing to administer a first dose of suramin sodium (Germanin). To prevent serious side effects, which action will the nurse take?
A) Administer a small test dose before giving the drug.
B) Ask the patient to lie flat while the drug is given.
C) Give a high-fat snack with the drug to minimize gastric upset.
D) Suggest to the provider that liver function tests (LFTs) be performed.
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Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides
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Sample Questions
Q1) A public health nurse visits with the parents of a child who has body lice. It is most important that the nurse tell the parents that:
A) body lice are transmitted by direct person-to-person contact.
B) treatment of skin surfaces will eradicate the infestation.
C) all clothing and bedding must be disinfected.
D) lice burrow into the body, and vigorous scrubbing is required to remove them.
Q2) Two days after a child is treated with permethrin (Nix) for head lice, a parent calls the clinic to report seeing nits and a few live lice on the child's scalp. The nurse will tell the parent to:
A) ask the provider about using benzyl alcohol (Ulesfia).
B) cut the areas of the child's hair where nits are present.
C) retreat the child's hair with permethrin (Nix).
D) use a fine-toothed comb to remove nits and live lice.
Q3) A nurse is teaching a parent about treating a child for scabies. Which statement by the parent indicates understanding of the treatment?
A) "I should wash all bedding and clothing as well as applying the medicine."
B) "I will apply the cream to the visible burrows and areas of itching."
C) "More than one application of the cream may be needed."
D) "The cream may cause systemic side effects."
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Page 102
Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about how cytotoxic anticancer drugs affect normal cells. Which statement by a student indicates an understanding of this teaching?
A) "Cytotoxic drugs lack tissue specificity."
B) "Cytotoxic drugs have a high degree of selective toxicity."
C) "Differences between cancer cells and normal cells are qualitative."
D) "Neoplastic cells and normal tissue cells are very different."
Q2) Which are guidelines for selecting chemotherapeutic agents to use in combination therapy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Drugs used should have different mechanisms.
B) Each drug should be delivered by different routes.
C) Each drug should be effective.
D) Each drug should have different dosing schedules.
E) Toxicities should be minimally overlapping.
Q3) A patient asks a nurse about ways to minimize side effects of chemotherapy. Which response is correct?
A) "Avoid contact with people who are ill."
B) "Take antiemetics immediately after receiving chemotherapy."
C) "Treat fevers immediately with ibuprofen."
D) "Use a firm-bristled toothbrush to stimulate gums."
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Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse provides teaching to a patient who will begin taking oral cyclophosphamide to treat non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding about how to minimize side effects while taking this drug?
A) "I don't need to worry about bone marrow suppression with this drug."
B) "I should drink plenty of fluids while taking this drug."
C) "I should take this drug on an empty stomach."
D) "If I shampoo less often, I can prevent hair loss."
Q2) A nursing student asks about the differences between cell-cycle phase-specific chemotherapeutic agents and those that are cell-cycle phase nonspecific. What will the nurse explain?
A) Cell-cycle phase-nonspecific drugs are less toxic.
B) Cell-cycle phase-specific drugs do not harm "resting" cells.
C) Cell-cycle phase-specific drugs should be given at specific intervals.
D) Neither type is toxic to cells in the "resting" G0 phase.
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Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs 2: F Hormonal Agents,
Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 45-year-old patient with a family history of breast cancer is considering using tamoxifen (Nolvadex) for cancer prevention. The nurse performs a health history and learns that the woman had a child when she was 35 years old, that she has not had a hysterectomy, and that she experienced DVT when she was pregnant. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) Because of her family risk and late childbearing, this drug is a good choice for her.
B) Her history of DVT outweighs any possible benefits she may have with this drug.
C) Since she has not had a hysterectomy, the risk of endometrial cancer is too great.
D) When she turns 50 years old, this drug will carry fewer risks for her.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient in the oncology unit who was recently diagnosed with advanced renal carcinoma. The nurse prepares to administer aldesleukin (Proleukin) as part of the treatment regimen. What is the primary adverse effect of this drug?
A) Hypertension
B) Capillary leakage syndrome
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Hyperuricemia
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Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been using latanoprost (Xalatan) ophthalmic drops. The patient tells the nurse, "My eyes used to be greenish-brown, but now they're brown." What will the nurse do?
A) Reassure the patient that this is a harmless side effect.
B) Report this toxic effect to the patient's provider.
C) Tell the patient that this indicates an increased risk of migraine headaches.
D) Tell the patient that this effect will reverse when the medication is withdrawn.
Q2) A patient with ocular hypertension will begin using brimonidine (Alphagan) for long-term reduction of increased ocular pressure (IOP). The nurse teaches the patient about this medication. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "After using the drops, I should wait 15 minutes before putting in contacts."
B) "Because this is a topical medication, drowsiness will not occur."
C) "I will not have cardiovascular side effects when using this medication."
D) "If my eyes begin to itch or turn red, it means I am allergic to this drug."
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106
Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) An adolescent has begun using benzoyl peroxide lotion twice daily to treat acne. The patient reports experiencing drying and burning of the skin. What will the nurse suggest?
A) Applying lotion to the skin after applying the drug
B) Reducing the frequency to one application a day
C) Discontinuing the medication, because this is likely an allergic reaction
D) Requesting a prescription for a gel formulation of the drug
Q2) To provide protection against the full range of ultraviolet (UV) radiation, an organic sunscreen must contain which agent?
A) Avobenzone
B) Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)
C) Titanium dioxide
D) Zinc oxide
Q3) A patient will begin initial treatment for severe acne. Which regimen will the nurse expect the provider to order?
A) Clindamycin/benzoyl peroxide (BenzaClin) and tretinoin (Retin-A)
B) Doxycycline (Vibramycin) and tretinoin (Retin-A)
C) Erythromycin (Ery-Tab) and benzoyl peroxide
D) Topical clindamycin and isotretinoin (Accutane)
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Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with fungal otitis externa (otomycosis). The nurse correctly explains that for the first course of treatment the patient should expect:
A) acidifying drops for 1 week.
B) antibiotic ear drops.
C) intravenous (IV) antifungal agents.
D) oral antibiotics.
Q2) An adolescent patient who is on the school swim team asks a nurse about ways to prevent swimmer's ear. The nurse will tell the patient to:
A) allow the ears to drain well after every swim and shower.
B) clean the ears with a cotton-tipped applicator after swimming.
C) keep the ear canals free of cerumen.
D) use antifungal ear drops before and after swimming.
Q3) A child has been diagnosed with otitis media with effusion (OME), and the child's parent asks the nurse what this means. The nurse will explain that OME is:
A) a condition with a heightened risk of acute otitis media.
B) an acute ear infection with fluid in the middle ear.
C) an infection of the skin and tissues of the outer ear.
D) fluid in the middle ear without localized or systemic infection.
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Chapter 107: Miscellaneous Noteworthy Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A previously healthy patient develops sepsis. The patient's lab tests reveal deterioration of renal and hepatic function, and the provider orders drotrecogin alfa (Xigris) to be given intravenously at a rate of 1,440 mcg per hour for 96 hours. The patient, who weighs 60 kg, has a history of myocardial infarction and takes 81 mg of aspirin daily. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the medication and monitor vital signs, level of consciousness, and abdominal discomfort.
B) Contact the provider and request discontinuation of the order since drotrecogin alfa is contraindicated with aspirin.
C) Notify the provider that the patient takes aspirin and ask that the medication dose be decreased to 720 mcg per hour.
D) Prepare to administer infusions of platelets while giving the drotrecogin alfa.
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Chapter 108: Dietary Supplements
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is obtaining a history from a patient who discloses daily use of St. John's wort in addition to prescription drugs. Which effect of this dietary supplement would most concern the nurse?
A) It accelerates the metabolism of some drugs.
B) It enhances the effects of digoxin.
C) It counteracts the effects of CNS depressants.
D) It increases the risk of bleeding.
Q2) A patient in her twenties has frequent urinary tract infections, and her prescriber suggests drinking cranberry juice. She asks the nurse how drinking this can help. The nurse will tell her that cranberry juice:
A) acidifies the urine to slow the growth of the bacteria.
B) helps treat established infections.
C) prevents bacteria from adhering to the urinary tract wall.
D) reduces the odor of the urine.
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Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient overdosed on aspirin several hours ago and is brought to the emergency department. The nurse assists with supportive care and then asks the provider about an order for which drug?
A) Activated charcoal
B) Ammonium chloride
C) Fomepizole (Antizole)
D) Sodium bicarbonate
Q2) A prescriber has ordered deferasirox (Exjade) to treat iron overload associated with chronic blood transfusions. The nurse learns that the patient takes cholestyramine to reduce cholesterol. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order to:
A) increase the cholestyramine dose.
B) increase the deferasirox dose.
C) monitor cholesterol levels.
D) monitor liver function tests.
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Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31170
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks a nurse about who is eligible to receive anthrax vaccine (BioThrax). The nurse will respond by saying that which groups of people would be candidates for this vaccine? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hospital personnel
B) Laboratory workers
C) Military personnel
D) Nursing home residents
E) Veterinarians
Q2) A nurse is attending a conference about terrorism and emergency response. During a discussion of radiation emergencies, the use of potassium iodide is reviewed. When should potassium iodide be administered to be most effective after exposure to radiation?
A) Immediately after exposure
B) Within 48 hours after exposure
C) Within 72 hours after exposure
D) The time frame is not important
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