Nursing Care of Adults
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course focuses on the foundational principles and practices involved in providing holistic nursing care to adult patients across various healthcare settings. It covers the assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation of nursing interventions aimed at promoting health, preventing illness, and managing acute and chronic conditions in adults. Students will explore topics such as patient safety, clinical decision-making, pharmacological management, and culturally competent care, with an emphasis on evidence-based practice and interdisciplinary collaboration. Clinical experiences and case studies are integrated to enhance students' critical thinking, communication, and hands-on skills necessary for effective adult patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Lehnes Pharmacology for Nursing Care 9th Edition by Burchum
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1446 Verified Questions
1446 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells the nurse that an analgesic he will begin taking may cause drowsiness and will decrease pain up to 4 hours at a time. Based on this understanding of the drug's effects by the patient,the nurse will anticipate which outcome?
A) Decreased chance of having a placebo effect
B) Decreased motivation to take the drug
C) Improved compliance with the drug regimen
D) Increased likelihood of drug overdose
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient how a medication works to treat an illness. To do this,the nurse will rely on knowledge of which topic?
A) Clinical pharmacology
B) Drug efficacy
C) Pharmacokinetics
D) Pharmacotherapeutics
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been receiving intravenous penicillin for pneumonia for several days and begins to complain of generalized itching. The nurse auscultates bilateral wheezing and notes a temperature of 38.5°C (101°F). Which is the correct action by the nurse?
A) Administer the next dose and continue to evaluate the patient's symptoms.
B) Ask the prescriber if an antihistamine can be given to relieve the itching.
C) Contact the prescriber to request an order for a chest radiograph.
D) Hold the next dose and notify the prescriber of the symptoms.
Answer: D
Q2) A postoperative patient is being discharged home with acetaminophen/hydrocodone [Lortab] for pain. The patient asks the nurse about using Tylenol for fever. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "It is not safe to take over-the-counter drugs with prescription medications."
B) "Taking the two medications together poses a risk of drug toxicity."
C) "There are no known drug interactions, so this will be safe."
D) "Tylenol and Lortab are different drugs, so there is no risk of overdose."
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) The FDA Amendments Act (FDAAA)was passed in 2007 to address which aspect of drug safety?
A) Allowing pharmaceutical companies to identify off-label uses of medications approved for other uses
B) Evaluating drug safety information that emerges after a drug has been approved and is in use
C) Expediting the approval process of the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) so that needed drugs can get to market more quickly
D) Requiring manufacturers to notify patients before removing a drug from the market
Answer: B
Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names?
A) They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember.
B) They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.
C) They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification.
D) They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is giving an enteral medication. The patient asks why this method is preferable for this drug. How will the nurse reply?
A) "This route allows more rapid absorption of the drug."
B) "This route is safer, less expensive, and more convenient."
C) "This route is the best way to control serum drug levels."
D) "This route prevents inactivation of the drug by digestive enzymes."
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer penicillin G intramuscularly to a child. The child's parents ask why the drug cannot be given in an oral liquid form. What is the nurse's reply?
A) "This drug causes severe gastric upset if given orally."
B) "This drug has a narrow therapeutic range, and the dose must be tightly controlled."
C) "This drug is absorbed much too quickly in an oral form."
D) "This drug would be inactivated by enzymes in the stomach."
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6
Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two nurses are discussing theories of drug-receptor interaction. Which statements are true regarding the affinity of a drug and its receptor? (Select all that apply.)
A) Affinity and intrinsic activity are dependent properties.
B) Affinity refers to the strength of the attraction between a drug and its receptor.
C) Drugs with high affinity are strongly attracted to their receptors.
D) Drugs with low affinity are strongly attracted to their receptors.
E) The affinity of a drug for its receptors is reflected in its potency.
Q2) A patient is receiving digoxin twice daily. When assessing the patient before giving a dose,the nurse counts a pulse of 60 beats per minute and learns that the patient is experiencing nausea. The nurse consults a drug manual and verifies that the ordered dose is correct. What should the nurse do?
A) Contact the prescriber to report the symptoms.
B) Delay the dose so the drug can clear from receptor sites.
C) Give the medication as ordered, because the dose is correct.
D) Request an antinausea medication from the prescriber.
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Chapter 6: Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing multiple medications to a patient whose spouse brings grapefruit juice every morning. The nurse will be concerned about which classes of drugs? (Select all that apply.)
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
C) Aminoglycosides
D) Beta blockers
E) Penicillins
Q2) The prescriber has ordered an antibiotic for a patient with a bacterial infection. The nurse provides patient education at discharge and instructs the patient to take the drug on an empty stomach. When should the patient take the drug? (Select all that apply.)
A) 1 hour or more before a meal
B) Only after an 8-hour fast
C) Only after the patient has missed a meal
D) At least 2 hours after a meal
E) Shortly before a meal
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8
Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse provides teaching to a patient who will begin taking a drug with a known risk of hepatotoxicity. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should avoid taking acetaminophen while taking this drug."
B) "I will need periodic evaluation of aspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferase levels."
C) "If I experience nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain, I should call my provider."
D) "Routine testing and early detection of problems will prevent liver failure."
Q2) A nurse is reviewing a medication administration record before administering medications. Which order will the nurse implement?
A) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg QD PO
B) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg qd PO
C) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg daily
D) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg PO daily
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9
Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse administers the same medication in the same preparation in the same dose to several patients and notes that some patients have a better response to the drug than others. What is the most likely explanation for this phenomenon?
A) Altered bioavailability of the drug
B) Patient compliance with the therapeutic regimen
C) Pharmacogenomic differences among individuals
D) Placebo effects enhancing expectations of drug efficacy
Q2) Which groups of people are especially sensitive to medication effects? (Select all that apply.)
A) Older adults
B) Caucasians
C) Infants
D) Minorities
E) Women
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10
Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and Breast-Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a class to a group of pregnant patients. The nurse correctly teaches that the highest risk of teratogen-induced gross malformations exists during which time?
A) Immediately before conception
B) During the first trimester
C) During the second trimester
D) During the third trimester
Q2) Which types of drugs taken by a pregnant patient are more likely to have effects on a fetus?
A) Drugs that are highly polar
B) Ionized drugs
C) Lipid-soluble drugs
D) Protein-bound drugs
Q3) A patient in her second trimester of pregnancy tells the nurse she is worried that a medication she took before knowing she was pregnant might have harmed the fetus. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient what she took and when she learned she was pregnant.
B) Contact the patient's provider to request an ultrasound.
C) Counsel the patient to consider termination of the pregnancy.
Page 11
D) Suggest to the patient that she go to a high-risk pregnancy center.
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Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child will receive 750 mg of an antibiotic for 10 days. The child attends day care. The drug may be dosed in several ways and is available in two concentrations. Which dosing regimen will the nurse discuss with the child's provider?
A) 250 mg/5 mL-375 mg PO twice daily
B) 250 mg/5 mL-250 mg PO three times daily
C) 500 mg/5 mL-250 mg PO three times daily
D) 500 mg/5 mL-375 mg PO twice daily
Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about pediatric medication administration. What will the nurse include when discussing pediatric drug research?
A) Early studies revealed that less than 10% of drugs known to be effective in adults were effective in children.
B) Research findings show that drug doses may be safely calculated by extrapolating adult dosing.
C) Studies showed a significant percentage of unanticipated and potentially lethal side effects in children.
D) There is no need to continue with pediatric-specific drug research, since early studies were reassuring.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to give medications to four older patients who are all taking multiple medications. Which patient is most likely to have an adverse drug reaction related to increased drug effects?
A) Obese patient
B) Patient with decreased serum creatinine
C) Patient with chronic diarrhea
D) Thin patient with a chronically low appetite
Q2) A nurse is concerned about renal function in an 84-year-old patient who is taking several medications. What will the nurse assess?
A) Creatinine clearance
B) Sodium levels
C) Potassium levels
D) Serum creatinine
Q3) A nurse is reviewing an older adult patient's chart before giving medications. Which patient information is of most concern?
A) Chronic constipation
B) Increased body fat
C) Low serum albumin
D) Low serum creatinine
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse learns about a drug that interferes with transmitter storage in the PNS. The transmitter affected by this drug causes an increased heart rate. What response will the nurse expect to see when this drug is administered?
A) Bradycardia
B) Positive inotropic effects
C) Prolonged receptor activation
D) Tachycardia
Q2) A patient receives morphine and shows signs of toxicity. The prescriber orders naloxone [Narcan] to reverse the effects of the morphine. The nurse understands that the naloxone reverses morphine toxicity by which action on morphine receptor sites?
A) Blocking transmitter reuptake
B) Inhibiting transmitter release
C) Interfering with transmitter storage
D) Preventing activation of receptors
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Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is explaining activation of beta<sub>2</sub> receptors to nursing students during a clinical rotation at the hospital. Which statement by a student demonstrates a need for further teaching?
A) "Beta<sub>2</sub> activation results in bronchodilation."
B) "Beta<sub>2</sub> activation results in contraction of uterine muscle."
C) "Beta<sub>2</sub> activation results in glycogenolysis."
D) "Beta<sub>2</sub> activation results in vasodilation of skeletal muscles."
Q2) A nurse is administering an agonist drug that acts on postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system. Which response will the nurse expect to see?
A) Decreased sweating
B) Bronchodilation
C) Increased cardiac output
D) Pinpoint pupils
Q3) Many medications list side effects that include dry mouth,constipation,and urinary retention. What kinds of effects are these?
A) Alpha adrenergic
B) Anticholinergic
C) Beta adrenergic
D) Sympathetic
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin using a transdermal preparation of a muscarinic antagonist for overactive bladder (OAB). The nurse teaches the patient what to do if side effects occur. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "I can use sugar-free gum for dry mouth."
B) "I may need laxatives for constipation."
C) "I should keep the site covered to prevent other people from getting the medicine."
D) "I will take Benadryl for any itching caused by a local reaction to the patch."
Q2) A patient who has esophageal cancer is experiencing dry mouth and the provider orders oral pilocarpine to treat this symptom. What will the nurse expect to teach this patient about this medication?
A) "This medication may cause rapid heart rate and elevated blood pressure."
B) "This medication may cause constipation and gastric discomfort in large doses."
C) "You should experience sweating with this medication and should not have other side effects."
D) "You will begin taking 5 mg three times daily and may increase the dose to 10 mg."
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16
Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in
Myasthenia Gravis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has myasthenia gravis will be taking neostigmine [Prostigmin]. What will the nurse emphasize when teaching this patient about the medication?
A) "Stop taking the drug if you have diarrhea."
B) "Take a supplementary dose before exercise."
C) "Use atropine if you have excessive salivation."
D) "Withhold the dose if ptosis occurs."
Q2) A patient is experiencing toxic side effects from atropine,including delirium and hallucinations. Which medication will the nurse expect to administer?
A) Donepezil [Aricept]
B) Edrophonium [Reversol]
C) Neostigmine [Prostigmin]
D) Physostigmine
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17
Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic
Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who will undergo electroconvulsive therapy to treat severe depression will be given succinylcholine just prior to the procedure. When teaching the patient about the procedure the nurse will explain that the succinylcholine is given for what purpose?
A) To minimize the amount of electroshock treatment required
B) To prevent harm caused by electroshock-induced convulsions
C) To prolong the therapeutic electroshock-induced convulsions
D) To stop the electroshock-induced convulsions once therapeutic effects have occurred
Q2) A nurse is reviewing nursing actions for emergency treatment of malignant hyperthermia with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Analgesics should be given to help with muscle pain."
B) "Dantrolene helps to slow the metabolic activity in skeletal muscles."
C) "If malignant hyperthermia occurs, the succinylcholine must be stopped immediately."
D) "The patient may need an intravenous infusion of cold saline."
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching parents how to use an Epi-Pen for their child,who has a peanut allergy. Which statement by the parents indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "After using the Epi-Pen, we must go to the emergency department."
B) "The Epi-Pen should be stored in the refrigerator, because epinephrine is sensitive to heat."
C) "The teacher should call us when symptoms start so that we can bring the Epi-Pen to school."
D) "We should jab the device into the thigh until it is empty of solution."
Q2) A patient is receiving dobutamine [Dobutrex] as a continuous infusion in the immediate postoperative period. The patient also is receiving a diuretic. What adverse drug reactions are possible in this patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Angina
B) Dysrhythmias
C) Hypotension
D) Oliguria
E) Tachycardia
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Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses a patient who has been given phentolamine [OraVerse] to treat pheochromocytoma. The nurse notes a blood pressure of 76/52 mm Hg and a heart rate of 90 beats per minute. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Contact the provider to request an order for epinephrine.
B) Continue to monitor the patient's vital signs and notify the provider if the heart rate increases.
C) Notify the provider and request an order for a beta blocker.
D) Notify the provider and request an order for norepinephrine.
Q2) A patient taking a beta blocker complains of shortness of breath. The patient has respirations of 28 breaths per minute,a blood pressure of 162/90 mm Hg,and a pulse of 88 beats per minute. The nurse auscultates crackles in all lung fields. The nurse understands that these assessments are consistent with:
A) bronchoconstriction.
B) left-sided heart failure.
C) rebound cardiac excitation.
D) sinus bradycardia.
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Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A prescriber has ordered methyldopa for a patient with hypertension. The nurse teaches the patient about drug actions,adverse effects,and the ongoing blood tests necessary with this drug. The nurse is correct to tell the patient what?
A) "If you have a positive Coombs' test result, you will need to discontinue the medication, because this means you have hemolytic anemia."
B) "Methyldopa can be used for its analgesic effects and for its hypertensive effects."
C) "Xerostomia and orthostatic hypotension are serious side effects and indications for withdrawing the medication."
D) "You will need to contact the provider and stop taking the medication if your eyes look yellow."
Q2) A prescriber orders clonidine [Kapvay] ER tablets for a 12-year-old child. The nurse understands that this drug is being given to treat which condition?
A) ADHD
B) Hypertension
C) Severe pain
D) Tourette's syndrome
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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Q1) An infant who receives a drug that does not produce CNS side effects in adults exhibits drowsiness and sedation. The nurse understands that this is because of differences in which physiologic system in infants and adults?
A) Blood-brain barrier
B) First-pass effect
C) Gastrointestinal absorption
D) Renal filtration
Q2) Which are medical applications of central nervous system drugs? (Select all that apply.)
A) Analgesia
B) Anesthesia
C) Depression
D) Euphoria
E) Seizure control
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22
Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinsons Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease has been taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet] for several weeks and complains of nausea and vomiting. The nurse tells the patient to discuss what with the provider?
A) Taking a lower dose on an empty stomach
B) Taking an increased dose along with a high-protein snack
C) Taking a lower dose with a low-protein snack
D) Taking dopamine in addition to levodopa/carbidopa
Q2) A nurse provides teaching for a patient who is newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the drug therapy for this disease?
A) "A levodopa/carbidopa combination is used to improve motor function."
B) "There are several drugs available to treat dyskinesias."
C) "When 'off' times occur, I may need to increase my dose of levodopa."
D) "With adequate drug therapy, the disease progression may be slowed."
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Chapter 22: Drugs for Alzheimers Disease
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Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer memantine [Nemanda] to a patient and notes a slight elevation in the patient's creatinine clearance level. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Adding sodium bicarbonate to the patient's drug regimen
B) Continuing the memantine as ordered
C) Discontinuing the memantine
D) Reducing the dose of memantine
Q2) A patient will begin taking a cholinesterase inhibitor for early Alzheimer's disease. The nurse is teaching the patient's spouse about the medication. Which statement by the spouse indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Gastrointestinal symptoms are common with this medication."
B) "People taking this drug should not take antihistamines."
C) "This drug helps neurons that aren't already damaged to function better."
D) "This drug significantly slows the progression of the disease."
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Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis
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Q1) A nurse provides teaching for a 25-year-old patient who will receive mitoxantrone [Novantrone] for worsening relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I may experience cardiac side effects several years after receiving this drug."
B) "I should report fever, chills, cough, and hoarseness immediately."
C) "I will need an infusion of this medication once weekly."
D) "I will need a liver function test and a pregnancy test before each dose."
Q2) A patient who has recently begun taking interferon beta reports feeling depressed. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Notify the provider of these symptoms.
B) Reassure the patient that these symptoms will subside.
C) Request an order for an antidepressant medication.
D) Suggest counseling to discuss the effects of this chronic disease.
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Chapter 24: Drugs for Epilepsy
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Q1) A nurse provides teaching for a patient with a newly diagnosed partial complex seizure disorder who is about to begin therapy with antiepileptic drugs (AEDs). Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Even with an accurate diagnosis of my seizures, it may be difficult to find an effective drug."
B) "I will soon know that the drugs are effective by being seizure free for several months."
C) "Serious side effects may occur, and if they do, I should stop taking the medication."
D) "When drug levels are maintained at therapeutic levels, I can expect to be seizure free."
Q2) A nurse is discussing partial versus generalized seizures with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Febrile seizures are a type of generalized tonic-clonic seizure."
B) "Generalized seizures are characterized by convulsive activity."
C) "Partial seizures do not last as long as generalized seizures."
D) "Patients having partial seizures do not lose consciousness."
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Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity
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Q1) A nurse is teaching the parent of a child with spastic quadriplegia about intrathecal baclofen [Lioresal]. Which statement by the parent indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I can expect my child to be more drowsy when receiving this medication."
B) "I should not notice any change in my child's muscle strength."
C) "I will contact the provider if my child is constipated or cannot urinate."
D) "If my child has a seizure, I should stop giving the medication immediately."
Q2) A patient who has a lower back injury exhibits muscle spasms. The provider orders cyclobenzaprine [Flexeril] 10 mg three times a day. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this drug?
A) "This drug carries some risk of developing hallucinations and psychotic symptoms."
B) "This medication may cause your urine to turn brown, black, or dark green."
C) "You may experience blurred vision, dry mouth, or constipation."
D) "You will need to have liver function tests performed while taking this medication."
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27
Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics
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Q1) A nurse is preparing a patient to go home from the emergency department after receiving sutures for a laceration on one hand. The provider used lidocaine with epinephrine as a local anesthetic. Which symptom in this patient causes the most concern?
A) Difficulty moving the fingers of the affected hand
B) Inability to feel pressure at the suture site
C) Nervousness and tachycardia
D) Sensation of pain returning to the wound
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient in the immediate postoperative period after surgery in which a spinal anesthetic was used. The patient has not voided and complains of headache. The patient has a pulse of 62 beats per minute,a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute,and a blood pressure of 92/48 mm Hg. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A) Contact the anesthetist to request an order for ephedrine.
B) Have the patient sit up to relieve the headache pain.
C) Lower the head of the bed to a 10- to 15-degree head-down position.
D) Obtain an order for a urinary catheter for urinary retention.
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Chapter 27: General Anesthetics
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Q1) A patient will receive intravenous midazolam [Versed] combined with fentanyl while undergoing an endoscopic procedure. The nurse is explaining the reasons for this to a nursing student before the procedure. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "The patient may appear anxious and restless during the procedure."
B) "The patient will be unconscious during the procedure."
C) "The patient will not need cardiorespiratory support during the procedure."
D) "The patient will not remember the procedure."
Q2) A surgical patient is receiving succinylcholine [Anectine] with an inhalation anesthetic. The patient is intubated,has an indwelling urinary catheter,and has ongoing monitoring of vital signs. Which symptom during the perioperative period is cause for concern?
A) Elevated temperature
B) Increased urine output
C) Muscle paralysis
D) No response to painful stimuli
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Chapter
Analgesics, Opioid Antagonists, and Nonopioid Centrally Acting Analgesics
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Q1) A patient with moderate to severe chronic pain has been taking oxycodone [OxyContin] 60 mg every 6 hours PRN for several months and tells the nurse that the medication is not as effective as before. The patient asks if something stronger can be taken. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
A) administering a combination opioid analgesic/acetaminophen preparation.
B) changing the medication to a continued-release preparation.
C) confronting the patient about drug-seeking behaviors.
D) withdrawing the medication, because physical dependence has occurred.
Q2) A nurse is preparing a pediatric patient for surgery and is teaching the patient and the child's parents about the use of the patient-controlled analgesia pump. The parents voice concern about their child receiving an overdose of morphine. What will the nurse do?
A) Instruct the parents not to activate the device when their child is sleeping.
B) Reassure the parents that drug overdose is not possible with PCA.
C) Suggest that the child use the PCA sparingly.
D) Tell the patient that the pump can be programmed for PRN dosing only.
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Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients with Cancer
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8422
Sample Questions
Q1) Which nonpharmacologic therapies are effective in reducing cancer pain? (Select all that apply.)
A) Acupuncture
B) Cold
C) Exercise
D) Heat
E) Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
Q2) A patient with bone cancer has recently undergone chemotherapy and radiation therapy to reduce the size of the tumor. The patient is taking a large dose of an opioid analgesic,along with acetaminophen and an antidepressant. The nursing student caring for this patient is concerned that the patient is showing drug-seeking behaviors,because the individual requested an increased dose of the opioid. The student discusses this concern with the nurse. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "It would probably help this patient more to give a larger antidepressant dose."
B) "Patients often need more drug to achieve the same effect."
C) "Radiation and chemotherapy can damage bone tissue and cause increased pain."
D) "The patient's description of pain is the most important part of the assessment of pain."
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Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache
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13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8423
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has recurrent migraine headaches is prescribed sumatriptan [Imitrex]. Which aspect of this patient's history is of concern when taking this drug?
A) Asthma
B) Coronary artery disease
C) Diabetes
D) Renal disease
Q2) A patient who has occasional migraine headaches tells a nurse that the abortive medication works well,but she would like to do more to prevent the occurrence of these headaches. The nurse will suggest that the patient:
A) ask the provider about an adjunct medication, such as prochlorperazine.
B) discuss the use of prophylactic medications with the provider.
C) keep a headache diary to help determine possible triggers.
D) take the abortive medication regularly instead of PRN.
Q3) Which drugs are used to prevent migraine headaches? (Select all that apply.)
A) Divalproex [Depakote]
B) Amitriptyline [Elavil]
C) Timolol
D) Ergotamine [Ergomar]
E) Acebutolol
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with schizophrenia shows suicidal behaviors,and the provider orders clozapine [Clozaril]. The nurse teaches the family about the medication and its side effects. Which statement by a family member indicates a need for further teaching about this drug?
A) "Blood counts are necessary for several weeks after discontinuation of the drug."
B) "Fever, sore throat, and sores in the mouth should be reported immediately."
C) "If the ANC is less than 3000, the drug will be discontinued permanently."
D) "Use of this drug requires weekly evaluation of blood work."
Q2) Which side effects are more common in second-generation antipsychotic medications than in first-generation antipsychotic medications? (Select all that apply.)
A) Agranulocytosis
B) Anticholinergic effects
C) Extrapyramidal symptoms
D) Metabolism by CYP3A4
E) Prolactin elevation
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Chapter 32: Antidepressants
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient whose spouse has died recently reports feeling down most of each day for the past 2 months. On further questioning,the nurse learns that the patient has quit participating in church and social activities,has difficulty falling asleep,and has lost 5 pounds. The patient reports feeling tired and confused all the time but does not have suicidal thoughts. What does the nurse suspect?
A) Grief and sadness
B) Hypomania
C) Major depression
D) Situational depression
Q2) A woman who is nursing a newborn develops postpartum depression and her provider orders sertraline [Zoloft] to treat her symptoms. The patient is concerned about the safety of this medication for her infant. What will the nurse tell her about this medication?
A) To stop nursing while taking the medication
B) To expect symptoms of colic and poor weight gain in the baby
C) That sertraline is safer than other antidepressants for nursing mothers
D) To ask her provider about switching to fluoxetine [Prozac] instead
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Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with bipolar disorder has been taking lithium [Lithobid] for several years. The patient has developed a goiter,and serum tests reveal hypothyroidism. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Administration of levothyroxine
B) Increasing the lithium dose
C) Iodine supplements
D) Referral to an endocrinologist
Q2) A patient recently was diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The patient,who has a history of seasonal allergies,is an athlete who participates in track. The nurse is teaching the patient about lithium [Lithobid],which the prescriber has just ordered. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "I can continue to use ibuprofen as needed for muscle pain."
B) "I should drink extra fluids before and during exercise."
C) "I should not use antihistamines while taking lithium."
D) "I should report muscle weakness and tremors to my provider."
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35
Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking high doses of clorazepate [Tranxene] for several months for an anxiety disorder. The nurse assessing the patient observes that the patient is agitated,euphoric,and anxious. What will the nurse do?
A) Double-check the chart to make sure the last dose was given.
B) Request an order for a longer-acting benzodiazepine.
C) Suspect a possible paradoxical reaction to the clorazepate.
D) Withhold the next dose until a drug level can be drawn.
Q2) A patient with a history of depression and suicidal ideation is taking fluoxetine [Prozac]. The patient reports difficulty maintaining sleep and is prescribed secobarbital [Seconal] as a sedative-hypnotic. The nurse preparing this patient for discharge from the hospital will:
A) contact the provider to suggest an order for ramelteon [Rozerem].
B) instruct the patient to use alcohol in moderation.
C) request an order to change to trazodone [Desyrel] for sleep.
D) suggest that the patient try alternative remedies for sleep.
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Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders
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Q1) A patient describes feelings of anxiety and fear when speaking in front of an audience and is having difficulty at work because of an inability to present information at meetings three or four times each year. The patient is reluctant to take long-term medications. The nurse will expect the provider to order which treatment?
A) Alprazolam [Xanax] as needed
B) Cognitive behavioral therapy
C) Paroxetine [Paxil]
D) Psychotherapy
Q2) An agitated,extremely anxious patient is brought to the emergency department. The prescriber orders a benzodiazepine. The nurse understands that benzodiazepines are used in this clinical situation based on which principle?
A) Benzodiazepines have a very short half-life.
B) Physical dependence is not a risk when taking benzodiazepines.
C) Benzodiazepines are known to cure generalized anxiety.
D) Benzodiazepines have a rapid onset of action.
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Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and
Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is morbidly obese is admitted for treatment. The prescriber orders lisdexamfetamine [Vyvanse]. The nurse will be concerned if this patient shows signs of:
A) anorexia.
B) dyspnea.
C) insomnia.
D) loquaciousness.
Q2) An adult patient will begin taking atomoxetine [Strattera] for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. What will the nurse teach this patient?
A) Appetite suppression does not occur, because this drug is not a stimulant.
B) Stopping the drug abruptly will cause an abstinence syndrome.
C) Suicidal thoughts may occur and should be reported to the provider.
D) Therapeutic effects may not be felt for 1 to 3 weeks after beginning therapy.
Q3) A nurse working the night shift begins taking modafinil [Alertec]. The nurse is telling a coworker about the medication. Which statement is correct?
A) "I can take it during pregnancy."
B) "It doesn't have cardiovascular side effects."
C) "It is safe and has no serious adverse effects."
D) "It will not interfere with my normal sleep."
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Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations
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Q1) A psychiatric nurse is caring for a drug-addicted patient. The nurse knows that the ideal goal of drug rehabilitation for this patient is:
A) abstinence from the drug.
B) decreasing episodes of relapse.
C) minimizing drug cravings.
D) reduction of drug use.
Q2) A nurse is caring for four patients. The nurse would be concerned about which patient developing a substance use disorder?
A) A college student who reports having experimented with marijuana in the past year
B) An older adult patient with terminal cancer who requires twice the normal dose of morphine for pain relief
C) A patient in moderate to severe pain after a total hip replacement who asks for pain medication an hour before the next dose is due
D) A patient whose history indicates the use of prescription narcotic analgesics for back and headache pain
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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse II: Alcohol
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a health history,the nurse asks a male patient about alcohol use. The patient tells the nurse that he and his wife are trying to conceive a pregnancy and he is using alcohol to lower his inhibitions. What will the nurse counsel this patient?
A) "Alcohol causes increased masculinization."
B) "Alcohol may cause testicular atrophy and sterility."
C) "Alcohol will improve your chances of conceiving."
D) "Alcohol will also help you to ejaculate."
Q2) A nurse is screening a patient being admitted to the hospital. The patient reports being fired for drinking at work. On further questioning,the patient reveals a history of daily alcohol consumption of more than a six-pack of beer each day,regular morning drinking,and several unsuccessful attempts to stop drinking. The nurse detects alcohol on the patient's breath. The nurse will inform the provider of these findings and request an order for which medication?
A) Chlordiazepoxide [Librium]
B) Clonidine
C) Disulfiram [Antabuse]
D) Naltrexone [ReVia]
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Drug Abuse III: Nicotine and Smoking
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a desire to stop smoking asks a nurse about nicotine chewing gum [Nicorette]. The patient currently smokes 30 cigarettes per day. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Stop using the gum 6 months after you stop using cigarettes."
B) "Use the 4-mg strength gum and chew one piece every 2 to 3 hours."
C) "Use the gum whenever you feel a craving for a cigarette."
D) "You should start with 30 pieces of the 2-mg strength gum per day."
Q2) A patient who wants to quit smoking has a prescription for varenicline [Chantix],which will be used with a nicotine patch. The patient asks the nurse why the varenicline is necessary. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "It helps patients experiencing withdrawal to sleep better."
B) "It helps reduce anxiety and other withdrawal symptoms."
C) "It will help reduce the likelihood of addiction to the patch."
D) "The drug blocks nicotine's access to 'pleasure' receptors."
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Chapter 40: Drug Abuse IV: Major Drugs of Abuse Other
Than Alcohol and Nicotine
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient arrives in the emergency department acutely intoxicated and difficult to arouse. The patient's friends tell the nurse that the patient took a handful of diazepam [Valium] pills while at a party several hours ago. The nurse will expect to administer which drug?
A) Buprenorphine [Subutex]
B) Flumazenil [Romazicon]
C) Nalmefene [Revex]
D) Naloxone [Narcan]
Q2) A patient who is an opioid addict has undergone detoxification with buprenorphine [Subutex] and has been given a prescription for buprenorphine with naloxone [Suboxone]. The patient asks the nurse why the drug was changed. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Suboxone has a lower risk of abuse."
B) "Suboxone has a longer half-life."
C) "Subutex causes more respiratory depression."
D) "Subutex has more buprenorphine."
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Diuretics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking digoxin is admitted to the hospital for treatment of congestive heart failure. The prescriber has ordered furosemide [Lasix]. The nurse notes an irregular heart rate of 86 beats per minute,a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute,and a blood pressure of 130/82 mm Hg. The nurse auscultates crackles in both lungs. Which laboratory value causes the nurse the most concern?
A) Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL
B) Oxygen saturation of 90%
C) Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
D) Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
Q2) An older adult patient with congestive heart failure develops crackles in both lungs and pitting edema of all extremities. The physician orders hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]. Before administering this medication,the nurse reviews the patient's chart. Which laboratory value causes the nurse the most concern?
A) Elevated creatinine clearance
B) Elevated serum potassium level
C) Normal blood glucose level
D) Low levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids
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Q1) A patient collapses after running a marathon on a hot day and is brought to the emergency department to be treated for dehydration. The nurse will expect to provide which therapy?
A) Intravenous hypertonic fluids given slowly over several hours
B) Intravenous hypotonic fluids administered in stages
C) Intravenous isotonic fluids given as a rapid bolus
D) Oral electrolyte replacement fluids with potassium
Q2) Which order for potassium (KCl)would the nurse question? (Select all that apply.)
A) \( D_{5} 1 / 2 \) NS with 20 mEq KCl to start after patient voids
B) \( D_{5} 1 / 2 \) NS with 60 mEq KCl for a patient with a serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
C) K-Dur, 1 tablet daily for a patient in diabetic ketoacidosis
D) K-Dur, 1 tablet with a full glass of water
E) Potassium chloride, 10 mEq rapid IV push
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Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is assessing a patient who has heart failure. The patient complains of shortness of breath,and the nurse auscultates crackles in both lungs. The nurse understands that these symptoms are the result of:
A) decreased force of ventricular contraction.
B) increased force of ventricular contraction.
C) decreased ventricular filling.
D) increased ventricular filling.
Q2) A patient is taking a drug that interferes with venous constriction. The nurse will tell the patient to:
A) ask for assistance when getting out of bed.
B) expect bradycardia for a few days.
C) notify the provider if headache occurs.
D) report shortness of breath.
Q3) A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving a drug that causes constriction of arterioles. The nurse expects to observe which effect from this drug?
A) Decreased stroke volume
B) Increased stroke volume
C) Decreased myocardial contractility
D) Increased myocardial contractility
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A provider has ordered captopril [Capoten] for a patient who has hypertension. The patient reports a history of swelling of the tongue and lips after taking enalapril [Vasotec] in the past. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Administer the captopril and monitor for adverse effects.
B) Hold the dose and notify the provider.
C) Request an order to administer fosinopril instead of captopril.
D) Reassure the patient that this is not a serious side effect.
Q2) A female patient who begins taking spironolactone [Aldactone] as an adjunct to furosemide [Lasix] complains that her voice is deepening. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider to obtain an order for a complete blood count (CBC) and liver function tests.
B) Explain that this drug binds with receptors for steroid hormones, causing this effect.
C) Report this side effect to the provider and request another medication for this patient.
D) Teach the patient to report any associated cough, which may indicate a more severe side effect.
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Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers
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Q1) A patient who has been taking verapamil [Calan] for hypertension complains of constipation. The patient will begin taking amlodipine [Norvasc] to avoid this side effect. The nurse provides teaching about the difference between the two drugs. Which statement by the patient indicates that further teaching is needed?
A) "I can expect dizziness and facial flushing with nifedipine."
B) "I should notify the provider if I have swelling of my hands and feet."
C) "I will need to take a beta blocker to prevent reflex tachycardia."
D) "I will need to take this drug once a day."
Q2) A patient begins taking nifedipine [Procardia],along with metoprolol,to treat hypertension. The nurse understands that metoprolol is used to:
A) reduce flushing.
B) minimize gingival hyperplasia.
C) prevent constipation.
D) prevent reflex tachycardia.
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Chapter 46: Vasodilators
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Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient with essential hypertension is being treated with hydralazine 25 mg twice daily. The nurse assesses the patient and notes a heart rate of 96 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 110/72 mm Hg. The nurse will request an order to:
A) administer a beta blocker.
B) administer a drug that dilates veins.
C) reduce the dose of hydralazine.
D) give the patient a diuretic.
Q2) A nurse is reviewing the phenomenon of reflex tachycardia with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of this phenomenon?
A) "Baroreceptors in the aortic arch stimulate the heart to beat faster."
B) "Reflex tachycardia can negate the desired effects of vasodilators."
C) "Reflex tachycardia is more likely to occur when beta blockers are given."
D) "Venous dilation must occur for reflex tachycardia to occur."
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Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension
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Q1) A nursing student asks the nurse why multi-drug therapy is often used to treat hypertension. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Multi-drug therapy often means that drugs may be given in lower doses."
B) "Some agents are used to offset adverse effects of other agents."
C) "Treatment of hypertension via different mechanisms increases success."
D) "Two or more drugs will lower blood pressure more quickly."
Q2) A patient has three separate blood pressure (BP)readings of 120/100 mm Hg,138/92 mm Hg,and 126/96 mm Hg. Which category describes this patient's BP?
A) Hypertension
B) Isolated systolic hypertension
C) Normal
D) Prehypertension
Q3) A nurse checks a patient's vital signs in the hospital and notes a blood pressure of 146/98 mm Hg. What will the nurse do?
A) Instruct the patient to consume a low-sodium diet.
B) Prepare the patient for an electrocardiogram and blood tests.
C) Recheck the patient's blood pressure in the other arm.
D) Request an order for a thiazide diuretic.
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Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure
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Q1) A patient has been taking digoxin [Lanoxin] 0.25 mg,and furosemide [Lasix] 40 mg,daily. Upon routine assessment by the nurse,the patient states,"I see yellow halos around the lights." The nurse should perform which action based on this assessment?
A) Check the patient for other symptoms of digitalis toxicity.
B) Withhold the next dose of furosemide.
C) Continue to monitor the patient for heart failure.
D) Document the findings and reassess in 1 hour.
Q2) An 88-year-old patient with heart failure has progressed to Stage D and is hospitalized for the third time in a month. The nurse will expect to discuss which topic with the patient's family?
A) Antidysrhythmic medications
B) End-of-life care
C) Heart transplantation
D) Implantable mechanical assist devices
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Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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Q1) A patient will be taking amiodarone [Cordarone]. Which baseline tests are necessary before this medication is started? (Select all that apply.)
A) Chest radiograph and pulmonary function tests
B) Complete blood count with differential
C) Ophthalmologic examination
D) Renal function tests
E) Thyroid function tests
Q2) The nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about dofetilide [Tikosyn] to treat dysrhythmias. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Dofetilide is a first-line medication to treat atrial flutter or atrial fibrillation."
B) "Dofetilide carries a lower risk of causing torsades de pointes than other drugs."
C) "Dofetilide is used for patients with severe symptoms of atrial dysrhythmias."
D) "Dofetilide may be safely used as outpatient therapy to treat atrial fibrillation."
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Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular
Disease: Drugs That Help Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is instructing a patient receiving a cholesterol-lowering agent. Which information should the nurse include in the patient education?
A) "This medication will replace other interventions you have been trying."
B) "It is important for you to double your dose if you miss one to maintain therapeutic blood levels."
C) "Stop taking the medication if you experience constipation."
D) "You should continue your exercise program to increase your HDL serum levels."
Q2) A patient is being started on nicotinic acid [Niaspan] to reduce triglyceride levels. The nurse is providing patient education and should include teaching about which adverse effects? (Select all that apply.)
A) Facial flushing
B) Constipation
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Gastric upset
E) Itching
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Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris
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Q1) A patient with variant angina wants to know why a beta blocker cannot be used to treat the angina. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "A beta<sub>1</sub>-selective beta blocker could be used for variant angina."
B) "Beta blockers do not help relax coronary artery spasm."
C) "Beta blockers do not help to improve the cardiac oxygen supply."
D) "Beta blockers promote constriction of arterial smooth muscle."
Q2) A nurse is providing teaching for a patient with stable angina who will begin taking nitroglycerin. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should not participate in aerobic exercise while taking this drug."
B) "I should take aspirin daily to reduce my need for nitroglycerin."
C) "If I take nitroglycerin before exertion, I can reduce the chance of an anginal attack."
D) "I take nitroglycerin to increase the amount of oxygen to my heart."
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53
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Q1) A patient is receiving heparin postoperatively to prevent deep vein thrombosis. The nurse notes that the patient has a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg and a heart rate of 98 beats per minute. The patient's most recent aPTT is greater than 90 seconds. The patient reports lumbar pain. The nurse will request an order for:
A) a repeat aPTT to be drawn immediately.
B) analgesic medication.
C) changing heparin to aspirin.
D) protamine sulfate.
Q2) A postoperative patient will begin anticoagulant therapy with rivaroxaban [Xarelto] after knee replacement surgery. The nurse performs a history and learns that the patient is taking erythromycin. The patient's creatinine clearance is 50 mL/min. The nurse will:
A) administer the first dose of rivaroxaban as ordered.
B) notify the provider to discuss changing the patient's antibiotic.
C) request an order for a different anticoagulant medication.
D) request an order to increase the dose of rivaroxaban.
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Chapter 53: Management of ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction
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Q1) A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of chest pain that has lasted longer than 1 hour and is unrelieved by nitroglycerin. The patient's electrocardiogram reveals elevation of the ST segment. Initial cardiac troponin levels are negative. The patient is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula. Which drug should be given immediately?
A) Aspirin 325 mg chewable
B) Beta blocker given IV
C) Ibuprofen 400 mg orally
D) Morphine intravenously
Q2) A patient diagnosed with STEMI is about to undergo a primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Which combination of pharmacotherapeutic agents will be given to augment this procedure?
A) Beta blocker and nitroglycerin
B) Abciximab and a fibrinolytic drug
C) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor and aspirin
D) Heparin, aspirin, and clopidogrel
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Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with epistaxis and a history of hemophilia A is admitted to the unit and is scheduled for replacement therapy. The nurse should prepare to administer which medication?
A) Tranexamic acid [Cyklokapron]
B) Aminocaproic acid [Amicar]
C) Desmopressin [Stimate]
D) Factor VIII
Q2) A patient with hemophilia is hospitalized for infusion of factor VIII replacement through a venous port. While giving the drug,the nurse notes that the patient's temperature is 101.5°F. The nurse will contact the provider to report which possibility?
A) Anaphylactic reaction
B) Contamination of factor replacement
C) Port infection
D) Thrombolytic event
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Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias
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15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8448
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is reviewing a patient's most recent blood count and notes that the patient has a hemoglobin of 9.6 gm/dL and a hematocrit of 33%. The nurse will notify the provider and will expect initial treatment to include:
A) determining the cause of the anemia.
B) giving intravenous iron dextran.
C) giving oral carbonyl iron [Feosol].
D) teaching about dietary iron.
Q2) The nurse is taking a medication history on a newly admitted patient. The patient reports taking folic acid and vitamin B<sub>12</sub>. The nurse notifies the provider because of the concern that folic acid can:
A) cause fetal malformation.
B) mask the signs of vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency.
C) negatively affect potassium levels.
D) worsen megaloblastic anemia.
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Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents
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11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8449
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with chronic renal failure who is on dialysis receives an ESA. The nurse caring for this patient during dialysis notes that the patient's hemoglobin is 10.9 gm/dL,up from the 10.2 gm/dL recorded 2 weeks ago. The patient's blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to suggest:
A) adding an antihypertensive drug.
B) discontinuing the ESA.
C) giving heparin.
D) increasing the dose of the ESA.
Q2) A patient with CRF who will begin receiving an erythropoiesis stimulating agent (ESA)is admitted to the hospital. The nurse notes that the patient's heart rate is 82 beats per minute,and the blood pressure is 140/100 mm Hg. A complete blood count reveals a hemoglobin of 8 gm/dL and a hematocrit of 29%. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the ESA and request an order for a blood transfusion.
B) Withhold the ESA and request an order for an antihypertensive medication.
C) Request an order to increase the dose of ESA to raise the hemoglobin more quickly.
D) Suggest initiating dialysis while giving the ESA.
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Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus
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17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8450
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient newly diagnosed with diabetes expresses concern about losing her vision. Which interventions should be included in the plan of care to reduce this risk? (Select all that apply.)
A) Initiation of reliable contraception to prevent pregnancy
B) Ways to reduce hyperglycemic episodes
C) Use of a prokinetic drug (eg, metoclopramide)
D) Smoking cessation
E) Emphasis on the importance of taking antihypertensive drugs consistently
Q2) Which statement is accurate about the long-term complications of diabetes?
A) Long-term complications are almost always the result of hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis.
B) The complication rates for patients with optimally controlled type 2 diabetes are the same as for those whose disease is not optimally controlled.
C) Optimal control of type 1 diabetes produces excessive episodes of life-threatening hypoglycemia.
D) Optimal control of both types of diabetes reduces the risk of eye, kidney, and nerve damage.
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Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders
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14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8451
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking levothyroxine for several years and reports that "for the past 2 weeks,the drug doesn't seem to work as well as before." What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient when the prescription was last refilled.
B) Expect the patient to have an elevated temperature and tachycardia.
C) Suggest that the patient begin taking calcium supplements.
D) Tell the patient to try taking the medication with food.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who will begin taking methimazole [Tapazole] for Graves' disease about the medication. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Because of the risk for liver toxicity, I will need frequent liver function tests."
B) "I should report a sore throat or fever to my provider if either occurs."
C) "I will need a complete blood count every few months."
D) "It is safe to get pregnant while taking this medication."
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Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8452
Sample Questions
Q1) What are the effects of prolactin secretion in males? (Select all that apply.)
A) Breast development
B) Decreased libido
C) Delayed puberty
D) Galactorrhea
E) Infertility
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient receiving desmopressin [Stimate]. The nurse is performing a physical assessment and notes that the patient is drowsy and listless and complains of a recent onset of headache. Which finding would be most consistent with these symptoms?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hypernatremia
C) Hypertension
D) Water intoxication
Q3) A patient with antidiuretic hormone deficiency is receiving desmopressin (DDAVP). The nurse will teach this patient to:
A) avoid grapefruit juice.
B) increase sodium intake.
C) monitor blood pressure.
D) reduce fluid intake.
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Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex
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10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8453
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted with nausea,vomiting,diarrhea,and abdominal pain. The patient appears emaciated and complains of feeling weak. The nurse notes a heart rate of 98 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 88/54 mm Hg. The nurse reviews the chart and notes an increased serum potassium level and a decreased serum sodium level. The nurse expects the provider to order which medication initially?
A) Cosyntropin [Cortrosyn]
B) Dexamethasone
C) Fludrocortisone [Florinef]
D) Hydrocortisone
Q2) The nurse is providing patient education to a patient who will begin taking fludrocortisone [Florinef] as adjunctive therapy to hydrocortisone. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should move from sitting to standing slowly."
B) "I should report any swelling of my hands and feet."
C) "I should report weight loss to my provider."
D) "I should report excessive urine output."
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Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and
Noncontraceptive Applications
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8454
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is at risk for osteoporosis will begin taking the selective estrogen receptor modulator raloxifene [Evista]. Which statement will the nurse include when teaching this patient about the medication?
A) Raloxifene reduces the risk of thromboembolism.
B) The drug is associated with an increased risk of breast cancer.
C) Use of this drug increases the risk of endometrial carcinoma.
D) Vasomotor symptoms are a common side effect of this drug.
Q2) According to studies of estrogen/progestin therapy (EPT),what are its known benefits? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cardiovascular protection in older patients
B) Decreased osteoporosis risk
C) Glycemic control
D) Improved wound healing
E) Prevention of colorectal cancer
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Chapter 62: Birth Control
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17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8455
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient calls a family planning clinic and tells the nurse that her vaginal ring,which has been in place for 2 weeks,came out sometime during the night while she was sleeping. The nurse will instruct her to:
A) clean the ring with warm water, reinsert it, and use condoms for 7 days.
B) discard the ring and insert a new ring after 1 week has passed.
C) discard the ring and insert a new one to begin a new cycle.
D) wash the ring in hot, soapy water and reinsert it.
Q2) A patient who is taking a combination oral contraceptive begins taking carbamazepine. After several weeks,the patient tells the nurse she has begun experiencing spotting during her cycle. What will the nurse tell her to do?
A) Change to condoms instead of oral contraceptives.
B) Discuss an oral contraceptive with increased estrogen.
C) Request a decreased dose of carbamazepine.
D) Stop taking the oral contraceptive immediately.
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64
Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8456
Sample Questions
Q1) An infertile patient has received two 5-day courses of clomiphene [Clomid] to help her conceive. An ultrasound 1 week after the last dose reveals that follicular maturation has occurred without ovulation. The nurse expects the next step for this patient to be:
A) administration of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
B) an order for cabergoline to be given twice weekly.
C) evaluation of ovarian and pituitary function.
D) repeating clomiphene once daily for 5 days.
Q2) A patient receiving menotropins [Repronex] for infertility comes to the clinic for evaluation on the ninth day of treatment. Her serum estrogen level is 200 pg/mL per maturing follicle. An ultrasound reveals that follicles have enlarged to 22 mm. The patient complains of left lower abdominal pain. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer human chorionic gonadotropin, because the ovary has ripened.
B) Assess for abdominal fullness and distension and auscultate lung sounds.
C) Inform the patient that the pain is associated with ovulation.
D) Recommend ibuprofen for pain and administer the next dose of menotropins.
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65
Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function
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12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8457
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient is 1 week post-term and will receive intravenous oxytocin. Which will the nurse evaluate before starting the infusion? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cervical ripening
B) Fetal monitoring
C) Renal function
D) Respiratory function
E) Uterine activity
Q2) Which are indications for early induction of labor? (Select all that apply.)
A) Abruptio placentae
B) Active genital herpes infection
C) Gestational hypertension
D) Premature rupture of the membranes
E) Umbilical cord prolapse
Q3) Which drugs are useful for preventing preterm labor? (Select all that apply.)
A) Antibiotics
B) Hydroxyprogesterone
C) Indomethacin
D) Magnesium sulfate
E) Terbutaline
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Chapter 65: Androgens
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8458
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is obtaining a history and reviewing the chart of an adult male patient who has been taking oral androgens. Which assessment would warrant notifying the provider?
A) Acne and increased facial hair
B) Breast enlargement
C) Increased libido
D) Nausea, anorexia, and fatigue
Q2) An adolescent male patient is beginning androgen therapy for delayed puberty. His parents ask the nurse when this treatment may be stopped. The nurse will offer which response?
A) After 3 to 4 years of therapy
B) If acne and facial hair develop
C) When complete sexual maturation has occurred
D) When testicular enlargement occurs
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Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign
Prostatic Hyperplasia
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8459
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of sildenafil [Viagra] for erectile dysfunction. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "If my erection lasts longer than 4 hours, I should contact my provider."
B) "I should not use nitroglycerin within 12 hours of using sildenafil."
C) "I should take this drug about 15 minutes before sexual activity."
D) "This drug may cause me to have an erection when I don't want one."
Q2) A patient who has erectile dysfunction asks a nurse whether sildenafil [Viagra] would be a good medication for him to take. Which aspect of this patient's history would be of most concern?
A) Benign prostatic hypertrophy
B) Mild hypertension
C) Occasional use of nitroglycerin
D) Taking finasteride
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Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System
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11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8460
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who breast-feeds her infant asks the nurse about the immunity the infant receives from breast milk. What does the nurse tell the patient about immunity through breast-feeding?
A) "The immunity protects the infant from hypersensitivity reactions."
B) "The immunity provides phagocytes to help the infant fight infections."
C) "The immunity results from the transfer of IgA through the breast milk."
D) "The immunity protects the infant from respiratory and gastrointestinal (GI) microbes."
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone organ transplantation. Because the sequence of amino acids in the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)molecules of the donor is different from that of the patient,the nurse will expect to administer which class of drugs?
A) Antibiotics
B) Antihistamines
C) Immune globulins
D) Immunosuppressants
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Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8461
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse at an immunization clinic is providing vaccines to children. The parent of a child waiting to receive vaccines tells the nurse that the child has an immune deficiency disorder. The nurse understands that which vaccine should not be administered to this child?
A) Diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccine
B) Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccine
C) Polio injection
D) Varicella virus vaccine
Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer vaccines to a 1-year-old child. The parents ask the nurse to give the child acetaminophen before administering the vaccine to reduce the pain. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Children don't remember pain, so it isn't necessary to give acetaminophen."
B) "The small needles used to inject the vaccines cause hardly any discomfort."
C) "You can apply a topical anesthetic when you get home to reduce pain from the injection."
D) "Your child's immune response may not be as effective if I give acetaminophen before the vaccine."
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Page 70
Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants
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14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8462
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is started on immunosuppressant drugs after kidney transplantation and will be taking azathioprine [Imuran] as part of the drug regimen. The patient asks the nurse why it is necessary to have a specimen for a complete blood count drawn at the beginning of therapy and then periodically thereafter. The nurse explains that azathioprine can alter blood cells and tells the patient to report:
A) alopecia.
B) easy bruising.
C) fatigue.
D) gastrointestinal (GI) upset.
Q2) A patient with a history of lung transplantation is admitted for treatment for a respiratory infection. The patient has been taking cyclosporine [Sandimmune],prednisone,and azathioprine [Imuran] for 8 months. The provider has ordered azithromycin [Zithromax] to treat the infection and acetaminophen [Tylenol] as needed for fever. The nurse will contact the provider to:
A) ask whether a different antibiotic can be used.
B) ask that the prednisone be discontinued until the infection clears.
C) suggest increasing the dose of cyclosporine.
D) suggest using ibuprofen instead of acetaminophen.
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Chapter 70: Antihistamines
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8463
Sample Questions
Q1) A prescriber orders hydroxyzine [Vistaril] for a patient with acute urticaria. The nurse will include which information when teaching the patient about this drug?
A) The drug will reduce redness and itching but not edema.
B) This antihistamine is not likely to cause sedation.
C) The patient should avoid drinking alcohol while taking the drug.
D) The patient should report shortness of breath while taking the drug.
Q2) A family is preparing for travel and the parents report that their 5-year-old child has frequent motion sickness. The nurse will tell the parents to ask the provider about which antihistamine to help prevent symptoms?
A) Desloratadine [Clarinex]
B) Dimenhydrinate [Dramamine]
C) Hydroxyzine [Vistaril]
D) Promethazine [Phenergan]
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Chapter 71: Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors:
Nonsteroidal Anti-inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen
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15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8464
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking acetaminophen for pain wants to know why it does not cause gastrointestinal upset,as do other over-the-counter pain medications. The nurse will explain that this is most likely because of which property of acetaminophen?
A) It does not inhibit cyclooxygenase.
B) It has minimal effects at peripheral sites.
C) It is more similar to opioids than to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
D) It is selective for cyclooxygenase-2.
Q2) A woman who has arthritis is breast-feeding her infant and asks the nurse if it is safe to take NSAIDs while nursing. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) NSAIDs are safe to take while breast-feeding.
B) NSAIDs are not safe, even in small amounts.
C) She should take only COX-2 inhibitors while breast-feeding.
D) She should request a prescription for narcotic analgesics.
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73
Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders
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16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8465
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students why glucocorticoids are preferred over nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs in the treatment of inflammation. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Glucocorticoids act by multiple mechanisms and have more anti-inflammatory effects than NSAIDs."
B) "Glucocorticoids have fewer side effects than nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs."
C) "Glucocorticoids help avert damage to tissues from lysosomal enzymes."
D) "Glucocorticoids reduce the immune component of inflammation."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who has taken glucocorticoids for over a year about glucocorticoid withdrawal. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should reduce the dose by half each day until I stop taking the drug."
B) "I will need to have cortisol levels monitored during the withdrawal process."
C) "The withdrawal schedule may take several months."
D) "If I have surgery, I may need to take the drug for a while, even after I have stopped."
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74
Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis
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8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8466
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA)for 1 month and has generalized symptoms is taking high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)and an oral glucocorticoid. The provider has ordered methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The patient asks the nurse why methotrexate is necessary since pain and swelling have been well controlled with the other medications. The nurse will tell the patient that:
A) a methotrexate regimen can reduce overall costs and side effects of treatment.
B) starting methotrexate early can help delay joint degeneration.
C) starting methotrexate now will help increase life expectancy.
D) with methotrexate, doses of NSAIDs can be reduced to less toxic levels.
Q2) A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is taking leflunomide [Arava] and an oral contraceptive. She tells the nurse she would like to get pregnant. What will the nurse tell her?
A) That leflunomide is not dangerous during the first trimester of pregnancy
B) That plasma levels of leflunomide will drop rapidly when she stops taking it
C) To ask her provider about an 11-day course of cholestyramine
D) To stop taking leflunomide when she stops using contraception
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Page 75
Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with chronic gout is admitted to the hospital for treatment for an infection. The patient is receiving allopurinol and ampicillin. The nurse is preparing to administer medications and notes that the patient has a temperature of 101°F and a rash. What will the nurse do?
A) Withhold the allopurinol and notify the prescriber of the drug reaction.
B) Withhold the ampicillin and contact the provider to request a different antibiotic.
C) Request an order for an antihistamine to minimize the drug side effects.
D) Suggest giving a lower dose of the allopurinol while giving ampicillin.
Q2) A patient has had three gouty flare-ups in the past year. Which drug class will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Colchicine
B) Glucocorticoids
C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
D) Urate-lowering drugs
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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone
Mineralization
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18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8468
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient reports experiencing weakness, fatigue, nausea, vomiting, constipation, and nocturia. Total serum calcium is 10.5 mg/dL. A dipstick urinalysis shows a positive result for protein. When questioned, the patient reports taking vitamin D and calcium supplements. The nurse will counsel the patient to:
A) reduce the amount of vitamin D and stop taking the calcium.
B) discuss taking calcitonin-salmon [Fortical] with the provider. C) stop both supplements and discuss the use of a diuretic with the provider.
D) stop taking vitamin D, reduce the amount of calcium, and increase the fluid intake.
Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer IV calcium chloride to a patient with a low serum calcium level. Which drug on the patient's medication record,administered concurrently,would require additional patient monitoring by the nurse?
A) Digoxin [Lanoxin]
B) Furosemide [Lasix]
C) Lorazepam [Ativan]
D) Pantoprazole [Protonix]
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Page 77
Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8469
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has just received a prescription for fluticasone/salmeterol [Advair Diskus]. What will the nurse include as part of the teaching for this patient about the use of this device?
A) "You do not need good hand-lung coordination to use this device."
B) "You will begin to inhale before activating the device."
C) "You will need to use a spacer to help control the medication."
D) "You will take 2 inhalations twice daily."
Q2) A nurse and a nursing student are reviewing the care of a 30-kg patient who will receive intravenous aminophylline. Which statement by the student indicates an understanding of the administration of this medication?
A) "After the loading dose has been given, the patient will receive 6 mg/kg/hr."
B) "Dosing is titrated based on the serum theophylline levels."
C) "If the patient's serum theophylline level is less than 15 mcg/mL, the rate should be reduced."
D) "The patient will receive a loading dose of 180 mg over 5 minutes."
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Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8470
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has a viral upper respiratory infection reports having a runny nose and a cough that prevents sleep and asks the nurse to recommend an over-the-counter medication. Which medication will the nurse recommend?
A) Diphenhydramine [Benadryl]
B) Fexofenadine/pseudoephedrine [Allegra-D]
C) Guaifenesin [Mucinex]
D) Phenylephrine drops
Q2) A patient admitted to the hospital has been using phenylephrine nasal spray [Neo-Synephrine],2 sprays every 4 hours,for a week. The patient complains that the medication is not working,because the nasal congestion has increased. What will the nurse do?
A) Request an order for an oral decongestant to replace the intranasal phenylephrine.
B) Request an order for an intranasal glucocorticoid to be used while the phenylephrine is withdrawn.
C) Tell the patient to increase the dose of phenylephrine to 4 sprays every 4 hours.
D) Tell the patient to stop using the phenylephrine and begin using an intranasal antihistamine.
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Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease
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14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8471
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient newly diagnosed with PUD reports taking low-dose aspirin (ASA)for prevention of cardiovascular disease. The nurse learns that the patient drinks 2 to 3 cups of coffee each day and has a glass of wine with dinner 3 or 4 nights per week. The patient eats three meals a day. The nurse will counsel this patient to:
A) change the meal pattern to five or six smaller meals per day.
B) discontinue taking aspirin, because it can irritate the stomach.
C) stop drinking wine or any other alcoholic beverage.
D) switch to a decaffeinated coffee and reduce the number of servings.
Q2) A 30-year-old male patient will begin a three-drug regimen to treat peptic ulcer disease. The regimen will consist of bismuth subsalicylate,tetracycline,and cimetidine [Tagamet]. The nurse will include which information when teaching this patient about this drug regimen?
A) Black discoloration of the tongue and stools should be reported immediately.
B) Central nervous system depression and confusion are likely to occur.
C) Decreased libido, impotence, and gynecomastia are reversible side effects.
D) Staining of the teeth may occur and is an indication for discontinuation of these drugs.
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Chapter 79: Laxatives
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8472
Sample Questions
Q1) The parent of a child with cerebral palsy reports that the child has pebble-like stools most of the time and seems uncomfortable if several days have passed between stools. The nurse will suggest that the parent discuss which medication with the child's provider?
A) Bisacodyl [Dulcolax] suppositories
B) Magnesium citrate
C) Methylcellulose [Citrucel]
D) Polyethylene glycol [MiraLax]
Q2) A nurse is taking a history on a clinic patient who reports being constipated. Upon further questioning,the nurse learns that the patient's last stool was 4 days ago,that it was of normal,soft consistency,and that the patient defecated without straining. The patient's abdomen is not distended,and bowel sounds are present. The patient reports usually having a stool every 1 to 2 days. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask about recent food and fluid intake.
B) Discuss the use of polyethylene glycol [MiraLax].
C) Recommend a bulk laxative.
D) Suggest using a bisacodyl [Dulcolax] suppository.
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Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs
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20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8473
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is in her first trimester of pregnancy asks the nurse to recommend nonpharmaceutical therapies for morning sickness. What will the nurse suggest?
A) Avoiding fatty and spicy foods
B) Consuming extra clear fluids
C) Eating three meals daily
D) Taking foods later in the day
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient with cancer who has been undergoing chemotherapy. The patient has oral mucositis as a result of the chemotherapy,and the provider has ordered palifermin [Kepivance]. Which is an appropriate nursing action when giving this drug?
A) Administering the drug as a slow IV infusion
B) Flushing the IV line with heparin before infusing the drug
C) Giving the drug within 6 hours of the chemotherapy
D) Warning the patient about the potential for distortion of taste
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Chapter 81: Vitamins
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8474
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who recently immigrated from a Third World country. The patient is thin and appears malnourished. The nurse notes that the patient has loose and missing teeth,gingivitis,and bleeding gums. The patient has multiple sores and ecchymoses. The nurse will expect the provider to order:
A) cyanocobalamin (vitamin B<sub>12</sub>).
B) high-dose nicotinic acid.
C) intramuscular thiamine for 1 to 2 weeks.
D) intravenous ascorbic acid.
Q2) A child is diagnosed with rickets. The nurse knows that this child is most likely deficient in which vitamin?
A) Niacin (nicotinic acid)
B) Thiamin (vitamin B<sub>1</sub>)
C) Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)
D) Vitamin D
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Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8475
Sample Questions
Q1) A 50-year-old patient with a body mass index (BMI)of 26 and a waist circumference (WC)of 37 who smokes asks a nurse about drugs for weight loss. She tells the nurse,"I keep trying to eat less,but it doesn't work." What will the nurse do?
A) Ask her to begin keeping a log of her food intake and activities.
B) Counsel her to quit smoking to reduce her health risk.
C) Suggest she begin walking every day to increase the number of calories burned.
D) Tell her she is a candidate for drug therapy and suggest she contact her provider.
Q2) A patient will begin taking phentermine and topiramate [Osymia] to help with weight loss and asks the nurse why the second ingredient is necessary. Which is the correct response by the nurse?
A) "Topiramate helps reduce the risk of seizures that can occur with phentermine."
B) "Topiramate helps produce feelings of satiety to augment the drug effects."
C) "Topiramate increases the appetite suppression caused by phentermine."
D) "Topiramate increases the rate of weight loss by acting as a stimulant."
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Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8476
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a pharmacology refresher course to a group of nurses. A student asks what host factors affect the choice of agents in antimicrobial therapy. The nurse will tell the students that such host factors include what? (Select all that apply.)
A) Age
B) Gender
C) Immune system status
D) Infection site
E) Weight
Q2) A patient has a viral sinus infection,and the provider tells the patient that antibiotics will not be prescribed. The patient wants to take an antibiotic and asks the nurse what possible harm could occur by taking an antibiotic. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Antibiotics are mutagenic and can produce changes that cause resistance."
B) "Even normal flora can develop resistance and transfer this to pathogens."
C) "Host cells become resistant to antibiotics with repeated use."
D) "Patients who overuse antibiotics are more likely to have nosocomial infections."
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Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I:
Penicillins
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8477
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with no known drug allergies is receiving amoxicillin [Amoxil] PO twice daily. Twenty minutes after being given a dose,the patient complains of shortness of breath. The patient's blood pressure is 100/58 mm Hg. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider and prepare to administer epinephrine.
B) Notify the provider if the patient develops a rash.
C) Request an order for a skin test to evaluate possible PCN allergy.
D) Withhold the next dose until symptoms subside.
Q2) A nurse assisting a nursing student with medications asks the student to describe how penicillins (PCNs)work to treat bacterial infections. The student is correct in responding that penicillins:
A) disinhibit transpeptidases.
B) disrupt bacterial cell wall synthesis.
C) inhibit autolysins.
D) inhibit host cell wall function.
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Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall II:
Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, and Fosfomycin
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8478
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a skin infection and the culture reveals methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). What is an appropriate treatment for this patient?
A) Cefaclor
B) Cefazolin
C) Cefotaxime
D) Ceftaroline
Q2) A provider has ordered ceftriaxone 4 gm once daily for a patient with renal impairment. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the medication as prescribed.
B) Contact the provider to ask about giving the drug in divided doses.
C) Discuss increasing the interval between doses with the provider.
D) Discuss reducing the dose with the provider.
Q3) A patient who has cystic fibrosis has a Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection and the provider has ordered aztreonam [Cayston]. What will the nurse teach this patient about administration of this drug?
A) Administer the drug intramuscularly twice daily.
B) Give a daily dose every day for 28 days and then stop.
C) Inhale the powdered drug as ordered three times each day.
D) Use the nebulizer to administer the drug three times daily.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 87
Chapter 86: Bacteriostatic Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis:
Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8479
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is providing teaching for a patient who will begin taking clarithromycin ER [Biaxin XL] to treat an Helicobacter pylori infection. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I may experience distorted taste when taking this medication."
B) "I should take 1 tablet twice daily for 10 days."
C) "I should take this medication on an empty stomach."
D) "This medication does not interact with other drugs."
Q2) A patient received 500 mg of azithromycin [Zithromax] at 0800 as a first dose. What are the usual amount and time of the second dose of azithromycin?
A) 250 mg at 2000 the same day
B) 500 mg at 2000 the same day
C) 250 mg at 0800 the next day
D) 500 mg at 0800 the next day
Q3) A patient develops CDAD. Which antibiotic is recommended for treating this infection?
A) Chloramphenicol
B) Clindamycin [Cleocin]
C) Linezolid [Zyvox]
D) Vancomycin
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Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8480
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection that is sensitive to aminoglycosides,and the prescriber orders gentamicin. The patient tells the nurse that a friend received amikacin [Amikin] for a similar infection and wonders why amikacin was not ordered. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) "Amikacin is given when infectious agents are resistant to other aminoglycosides."
B) "Amikacin is more vulnerable to inactivation by bacterial enzymes."
C) "Amikacin is a narrow-spectrum drug and will probably not work for this infection."
D) "Gentamicin is less toxic to the ears and the kidneys."
Q2) A patient is receiving tobramycin three times daily. A tobramycin peak level is 4.5 and the trough is 1.2. What will the nurse do?
A) Give the next dose as ordered.
B) Hold the next dose and notify the provider.
C) Monitor the patient for signs of nephrotoxicity.
D) Tell the patient to report tinnitus.
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Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8481
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking immunosuppressant medications develops a urinary tract infection. The causative organism is sensitive to sulfonamides and to another,more expensive antibiotic. The prescriber orders the more expensive antibiotic. The nursing student assigned to this patient asks the nurse why the more expensive antibiotic is being used. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Immunosuppressed patients are folate deficient."
B) "Patients who are immunosuppressed are more likely to develop resistance."
C) "Sulfonamides are bacteriostatic and depend on host immunity to work."
D) "Sulfonamides intensify the effects of immunosuppression."
Q2) A pregnant patient is treated with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMZ)[Bactrim] for a urinary tract infection at 32 weeks' gestation. A week later,the woman delivers her infant prematurely. The nurse will expect to monitor the infant for:
A) birth defects.
B) hypoglycemia.
C) rash.
D) kernicterus.
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Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8482
Sample Questions
Q1) The parent of a 5-year-old child who has had four urinary tract infections in the past year asks the nurse why the provider doesn't just order an antibiotic for the child's current symptoms of low-grade fever,flank pain,and dysuria since these are similar symptoms as before. Which is the most important reason given by the nurse?
A) "Your child may need to be hospitalized for treatment."
B) "Your child may need a urine culture before and after treatment."
C) "Your child may need tests to assess for urinary tract abnormalities."
D) "Your child may need additional medications, such as urinary tract antiseptics."
Q2) A pregnant patient with fever,flank pain,and chills has a history of two previous bladder infections before getting pregnant. She is allergic to several antibiotics. She reports having taken methenamine successfully in the past. What will the nurse tell her?
A) "This agent is not effective against infections of the upper urinary tract."
B) "This antiseptic agent is safe for use during pregnancy and has no drug resistance."
C) "This drug is linked to many serious birth defects and is not recommended during pregnancy."
D) "You will need to take this medication with meals to avoid gastric upset."
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Chapter 90: Antimycobacterial Agents: Drugs for
Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium avium Complex
Infection
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8483
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is about to begin treatment for latent tuberculosis. The patient is an alcoholic,has difficulty complying with drug regimens,and has mild liver damage. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) "You must stop drinking before adequate treatment can begin."
B) "You must take isoniazid with close monitoring of hepatic function."
C) "You must take rifampin daily for 4 months."
D) "You will begin a regimen of isoniazid and rifampin."
Q2) A patient newly diagnosed with tuberculosis asks the nurse why oral medications must be given in the clinic. The nurse will tell the patient that medications are given in the clinic so that:
A) clinic staff can observe adherence to drug regimens.
B) nurses can monitor for drug toxicities.
C) providers can adjust doses as needed.
D) the staff can ensure that the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulations are met.
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Page 92
Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:
Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins
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11 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 65-year-old patient who receives glucocorticoids for arthritis is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a urinary tract infection. The prescriber has ordered intravenous ciprofloxacin [Cipro]. Before administering the third dose of this drug,the nurse reviews the bacterial culture report and notes that the causative organism is Escherichia coli. The bacterial sensitivity report is pending. The patient complains of right ankle pain. What will the nurse do?
A) Withhold the dose of ciprofloxacin and notify the provider of the patient's symptoms.
B) Instruct the patient to exercise the right foot and ankle to minimize the pain.
C) Question the patient about the consumption of milk and any other dairy products.
D) Request an order to increase this patient's dose of glucocorticoids.
Q2) Which antibiotics may be administered topically? (Select all that apply.)
A) Bacitracin
B) Daptomycin
C) Ofloxacin
D) Polymyxin B
E) Rifampin
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Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8485
Sample Questions
Q1) Which superficial mycosis is generally treated with oral antifungal agents?
A) Tinea capitis
B) Tinea corporis
C) Tinea cruris
D) Tinea pedis
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving amphotericin B [Abelcet] for a systemic fungal infection. In spite of receiving diphenhydramine and acetaminophen before initiation of treatment,the patient has fever and chills with rigors. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss the addition of which drug?
A) Aspirin
B) Dantrolene
C) Hydrocortisone
D) Omeprazole
Q3) A nursing student asks a nurse about flucytosine [Ancobon]. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Flucytosine has a broad antifungal spectrum."
B) "Irreversible neutropenia and thrombocytopenia may occur with this drug."
C) "Resistance is common with this medication."
D) "Severe hepatic injury is common and limits this drug's use."
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Page 94
Chapter 93: Antiviral Agents I: Drugs for Non-HIV Viral
Infections
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8486
Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient who has hepatitis C is being treated with pegylated interferon alfa and ribavirin [Ribasphere]. It will be important for the nurse to teach this patient that:
A) if she gets pregnant, she should use the inhaled form of ribavirin [Virazole].
B) if she is taking oral contraceptives, she should also take a protease inhibitor.
C) she should use a hormonal contraceptive to avoid pregnancy.
D) she will need a monthly pregnancy test during her treatment.
Q2) An immunocompromised child is exposed to chickenpox and the provider orders valacyclovir [Valtrex] to be given orally three times daily. The nurse will contact the provider to change this order for which reason?
A) Valacyclovir is not used as varicella prophylaxis.
B) The dosage is too high for this indication.
C) The drug may cause serious adverse effects in immunocompromised patients.
D) Valacyclovir is not approved for use in children.
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95
Chapter
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8487
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking a protease inhibitor (PI). Upon review of the laboratory test results,the nurse notes that the patient has newly elevated plasma triglycerides and cholesterol. The nurse expects that the prescriber will manage these levels with:
A) lovastatin [Mevacor].
B) simvastatin [Zocor].
C) modified diet and exercise.
D) Pancrease.
Q2) A patient taking stavudine [Zerit] telephones the clinic and reports numbness and tingling in the hands and feet. What should the nurse tell the patient?
A) The numbness is an expected side effect of the medication and will diminish once the drug is withdrawn.
B) The medication will probably be stopped, and the patient should come into the clinic for further evaluation.
C) The dose may be too high, and the patient should cut the tablet in half.
D) The patient should take the medication on a full stomach to reduce absorption of the drug.
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Page 96
Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8488
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of adolescent students about sexually transmitted diseases. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of infections caused by C. trachomatis?
A) "C. trachomatis conjunctivitis in newborns can result in blindness."
B) "The CDC recommends screening for chlamydial infections in all sexually active men."
C) "Treatment for C. trachomatis should be initiated when infections are symptomatic."
D) "Women with asymptomatic Chlamydia trachomatis infections can become sterile."
Q2) An adolescent patient comes to the clinic complaining of a burning sensation upon urination and a pus-like discharge from the penis. The nurse is correct to suspect that the patient has which disorder?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Herpes simplex
C) Nongonococcal urethritis
D) Syphilis
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Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8489
Sample Questions
Q1) For which patient would a topical antiseptic be most appropriate?
A) A patient with a systemic infection
B) A patient with a medium-sized abscess
C) A patient who has a wound with moderate exudate
D) A patient who needs to have wounds cleansed for prophylaxis
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient with an infection caused by Bacillus anthracis. What action is most important for reducing the transmission of this disease?
A) Disinfecting the bedpan with an antiseptic solution
B) Using antibacterial hand soap when washing the hands
C) Using an alcohol-based hand rub after each patient contact
D) Wearing gloves while caring for the patient
Q3) Which compound can be used to treat localized skin infections and to irrigate wounds?
A) Benzalkonium chloride (BAC)
B) Hexachlorophene (pHisoHex)
C) Oxychlorosene sodium (Clorpactin WCS90)
D) Sodium hypochlorite
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Chapter 97: Anthelmintics
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9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8490
Sample Questions
Q1) A child has been diagnosed with enterobiasis,and the prescriber orders mebendazole [Vermox] to treat the infestation. When teaching this child's parents about the treatment,the nurse will include which statement?
A) "A single dose of mebendazole will eradicate the infestation."
B) "Everyone in the household should be treated with mebendazole."
C) "Serious complications of this type of infestation are common."
D) "Treatment should be limited to family members with symptoms."
Q2) A patient is taking diethylcarbamazine [Hetrazan] to treat a filarial infestation. The patient reports intense itching and a rash after several days of therapy. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) These symptoms are caused by death of the parasite.
B) This is a minor, direct adverse effect of the drug.
C) This is a sign the infestation is worsening.
D) This warrants discontinuation of the drug.
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Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents
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11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8491
Sample Questions
Q1) Which are adverse effects of quinine [Qualaquin]? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cinchonism
B) Hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency
C) Increased ventricular rate
D) Nightmares
E) Prolonged QT interval
Q2) A patient who frequently travels to Africa has been treated for an acute attack of P. vivax malaria. The patient asks the nurse about medications to prevent relapse. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "The form of malaria that you have does not relapse after a clinical cure has been achieved."
B) "Until you are no longer traveling to Africa, relapse drugs will be postponed."
C) "Using mosquito netting and DEET when you travel will prevent relapse."
D) "You will be given prophylactic medications when you travel to prevent relapse."
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Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs II: Miscellaneous Agents
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8492
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing patient education to a 26-year-old college student who is being treated for Trichomonas vaginalis with metronidazole [Flagyl]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should not consume alcohol while taking this medication."
B) "If I have dark urine, I should stop taking the drug."
C) "The drug is safe throughout pregnancy."
D) "Vertigo and headaches may occur and are signs of toxicity."
Q2) A family has just returned from a camping trip,and all family members have diarrhea and colicky abdominal pain after eating. The parents report that they drank water from a well while on the camping trip. While awaiting stool cultures,the nurse will expect the provider to order which agent empirically?
A) Iodoquinol [Yodoxin]
B) Metronidazole [Flagyl]
C) Miltefosine [Impavido]
D) Sodium stibogluconate [Pentostam]
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Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8493
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a class at a community center on communicable diseases. Which statement by a member of the class best demonstrates understanding of the epidemiology of head lice?
A) "All socioeconomic groups are at risk for this infestation."
B) "Head lice affect only people in crowded environments."
C) "Head lice are transmitted only by direct person-to-person contact."
D) "The infestation can be acquired from house pets."
Q2) A patient is treated for Phthirus pubis with permethrin 1% lotion. Two days after using the lotion as directed,the patient calls to report increased itching,erythema,and edema of the pubic skin. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) This is an expected effect of the treatment and will subside.
B) This represents an allergic reaction to the lotion.
C) The patient should ask the provider about using malathion 0.5% lotion.
D) The patient should repeat the permethrin now and contact the provider if no improvement is seen.
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Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy
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16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8494
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse why chemotherapeutic agents are given intermittently instead of continuously. The nurse will tell the student that intermittent dosing:
A) allows normal cells to recover and repopulate.
B) catches malignant cells in latent phases.
C) increases cancer cell kill and speeds up treatment.
D) suppresses drug resistance in tumor cells.
Q2) These patients are receiving chemotherapy. Which patient should the nurse see first?
A) The patient with lightly bleeding gums
B) The patient with nausea and vomiting
C) The patient with a fever of 100.3°F
D) The patient with diarrhea and stomatitis
Q3) A patient with cancer who is receiving chemotherapy develops a fever. The patient's chest radiograph is normal. The patient's neutrophil count is 750/mm³. The nurse expects the provider to:
A) begin empiric therapy with intravenous antibiotics.
B) obtain cultures and wait for results before prescribing antibiotics.
C) order colony-stimulating factor to minimize neutrophilia.
D) reassure the patient that serious infection is unlikely.
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Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8495
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving intravenous vincristine [Oncovin]. The patient complains of pain at the IV insertion site. The nurse examines the site and notes an area of erythema and edema. What will the nurse do?
A) Change the IV site and notify the provider of the extravasation.
B) Contact the provider to suggest using a different chemotherapeutic agent.
C) Obtain an order for a topical anesthetic to minimize discomfort.
D) Slow the rate of infusion to reduce the patient's discomfort.
Q2) A patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is about to begin chemotherapy with a massive dose of methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The nurse will expect to administer which medication concurrently with this drug?
A) Dexamethasone
B) Folic acid
C) Leucovorin
D) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
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104
Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs II: Hormonal Agents,
Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)begins treatment with imatinib [Gleevec]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this medication?
A) "Resistance to this drug may develop over time."
B) "The intensity of side effects is dose dependent."
C) "This drug does not have significant drug interactions."
D) "This drug must be given intravenously."
Q2) A patient with colorectal cancer is admitted to the hospital oncology unit to receive cetuximab [Erbitux]. The nurse notes that the prescriber has not ordered any other medications. The nurse will contact the prescriber to request an order for which medication in order to minimize cetuximab's side effects?
A) Diphenhydramine [Benadryl]
B) Epinephrine
C) Ondansetron [Zofran]
D) Magnesium supplements
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105
Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye
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14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8497
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is about to undergo emergency surgery for acute angle-closure glaucoma. Before surgery,which agent(s)will the nurse expect to administer? (Select all that apply.)
A) Acetazolamide
B) Brimonidine [Alphagan]
C) Mannitol
D) Phenylephrine
E) Timolol
Q2) A nurse administers timolol [Timoptic] ophthalmic drops to a patient who has glaucoma. The patient reports stinging of the eyes shortly after the drops were administered. What will the nurse do?
A) Monitor the patient's heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure.
B) Notify the provider that the patient shows signs of angle-closure glaucoma.
C) Reassure the patient that these are localized, reversible effects of the drug.
D) Request an order for an antihistamine to treat this allergic response to the drug.
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106
Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8498
Sample Questions
Q1) An adolescent has begun using benzoyl peroxide lotion twice daily to treat acne. The patient reports experiencing drying and burning of the skin. What will the nurse suggest?
A) Applying lotion to the skin after applying the drug
B) Reducing the frequency to one application a day
C) Discontinuing the medication, because this is likely an allergic reaction
D) Requesting a prescription for a gel formulation of the drug
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of lifeguards about safe sunning. Which statement by a lifeguard indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Sunscreen should be applied 30 minutes before going outside."
B) "I do not need sunscreen when it is cloudy outside."
C) "I should reapply sunscreen after swimming."
D) "UV radiation does not penetrate through water."
Q3) A 50-year-old patient asks about using tretinoin [Renova] to minimize wrinkles. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) The drug may be discontinued once results are obtained.
B) Results may be visible within a few weeks of starting therapy.
C) Systemic toxicity is a common effect in patients with sensitive skin.
D) The drug is not effective on coarse wrinkles or sun-damaged skin.
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Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8499
Sample Questions
Q1) A provider has told a parent that a 3-year-old child has a minor ear infection and that an antibiotic would be prescribed in a couple of days if the child's symptoms worsened. The parent asks the nurse why the child cannot get an antibiotic today. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "If the eardrum ruptures, we can culture the fluid to determine which antibiotic is best."
B) "Most ear infections are caused by viruses, so antibiotics are not effective."
C) "Most ear infections will resolve on their own without antibiotics."
D) "Your child will develop tolerance to antibiotics if they are prescribed too often."
Q2) A child has been diagnosed with otitis media with effusion (OME),and the child's parent asks the nurse what this means. The nurse will explain that OME is:
A) a condition with a heightened risk of acute otitis media.
B) an acute ear infection with fluid in the middle ear.
C) an infection of the skin and tissues of the outer ear.
D) fluid in the middle ear without localized or systemic infection.
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Page 108
Chapter 107: Additional Noteworthy Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8500
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of heart disease develops pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH),and the provider is considering prescribing sildenafil [Revatio]. The nurse caring for this patient will perform a careful drug history and notify the provider if the patient is taking which medication?
A) A beta blocker
B) A calcium channel blocker
C) Nitroglycerin
D) Warfarin
Q2) The nurse provides teaching for a patient who will begin taking bosentan [Tracleer] for pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH). Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about this medication?
A) "I may take this medication with or without food."
B) "I may develop irreversible liver damage while taking this drug."
C) "I should not take cyclosporine while taking this medication."
D) "I will need to have lab tests every month while taking this drug."
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Chapter 108: Dietary Supplements
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8501
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient admitted to the emergency department with abdominal pain tells the nurse he has been taking kava. Which action is the nurse's priority at this time?
A) Review liver function studies.
B) Assess breath sounds and respiratory effort.
C) Monitor cardiovascular status.
D) Review complete blood count results.
Q2) A patient will begin taking immunosuppressant drugs for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse will caution this patient to avoid which dietary supplement?
A) Black cohosh
B) Echinacea
C) Feverfew
D) Glucosamine
Q3) A patient will begin taking drugs for hyperlipidemia. The patient asks about using flaxseed supplements to increase fiber. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) Not to use defatted flaxseed
B) That flaxseed helps with the absorption of medications
C) That flaxseed is not recommended
D) To take the flaxseed 1 hour before taking the drug
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Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8502
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin taking dimercaprol [BAL in Oil] for arsenic poisoning. The nurse performs a medical history on this patient. Which aspect of the patient's history would cause the most concern?
A) Anemia
B) Lead exposure
C) Peanut allergy
D) Peptic ulcer disease
Q2) A pediatric patient ingested a narcotic analgesic at a grandparent's house 15 minutes before arriving in the emergency department. The nurse is preparing to administer activated charcoal. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "The charcoal will cause the child's stools to be black."
B) "The charcoal should absorb about 37% of the drug."
C) "The charcoal will make the child vomit the medication."
D) "We will need to give the charcoal several times for it to work."
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Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8503
Sample Questions
Q1) A member of a community disaster response team received the smallpox vaccine 3 weeks ago and sees a nurse for a follow-up appointment. The nurse examines the area and should expect to see a:
A) necrotic vesicle.
B) small area of scarification.
C) small, fluid-filled blister.
D) red bump.
Q2) Terrorists have detonated a "dirty bomb" in a shopping center. Nurses are called to the site to assist with triage of victims. Besides treating injuries incurred from the blast itself,the priorities for treatment for most of the victims will include:
A) administering potassium iodide as soon as possible.
B) giving Prussian blue and monitoring electrolytes.
C) monitoring urine and stool samples for radioactivity.
D) removing clothing and bathing victims.
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