Nursing Care of Adults Final Exam - 1446 Verified Questions

Nursing Care of Adults Final Exam

Course Introduction

This course explores the principles and practices of nursing care for adult patients experiencing acute and chronic health conditions. Students will develop critical thinking and clinical decision-making skills through the study of common diseases, evidence-based interventions, and holistic care strategies. Emphasis is placed on assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation of care, as well as patient education, collaboration with interdisciplinary teams, and cultural competence. Through lectures, case studies, and clinical experiences, students will learn to apply nursing concepts to promote optimal health outcomes for diverse adult populations.

Recommended Textbook

Lehnes Pharmacology for Nursing Care 9th Edition by Burchum

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110 Chapters

1446 Verified Questions

1446 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology

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5 Verified Questions

5 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient how a medication works to treat an illness. To do this,the nurse will rely on knowledge of which topic?

A) Clinical pharmacology

B) Drug efficacy

C) Pharmacokinetics

D) Pharmacotherapeutics

Answer: D

Q2) What are the properties of an ideal drug? (Select all that apply.)

A) Irreversible action

B) Predictability

C) Ease of administration

D) Chemical stability

E) A recognizable trade name

Answer: B,C,D

Q3) What is a desired outcome when a drug is described as easy to administer?

A) It can be stored indefinitely without need for refrigeration.

B) It does not interact significantly with other medications.

C) It enhances patient adherence to the drug regimen.

D) It is usually relatively inexpensive to produce.

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice

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Sample Questions

Q1) A postoperative patient has orders for morphine sulfate 1 to 2 mg IV every 1 hour PRN for severe pain and acetaminophen-hydrocodone [Lortab] 7.5 mg PO every 4 to 6 hours

PRN for moderate pain. The patient reports pain at a level of 8 on a scale of 1 to 10,with 10 being the worst pain. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

A) Administer acetaminophen-hydrocodone 7.5 mg PO every 4 hours.

B) Administer acetaminophen-hydrocodone 7.5 mg PO every 6 hours and change to every 4 hours if not effective.

C) Administer morphine sulfate 1 mg IV every 1 hour until pain subsides.

D) Administer morphine sulfate 2 mg IV and evaluate the patient's pain in 15 to 30 minutes.

Answer: D

Q2) A patient tells a nurse that a medication prescribed for recurrent migraine headaches is not working. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient about the number and frequency of tablets taken.

B) Assess the patient's headache pain on a scale from 1 to 10.

C) Report the patient's complaint to the prescriber.

D) Suggest biofeedback as an adjunct to drug therapy.

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse educator is conducting a continuing education class on pharmacology. To evaluate the learning of the nurses in the class,the nurse educator asks,"Which drug name gives information about the drug's pharmacologic classification?" Which is the correct response?

A) Amoxicillin

B) Tylenol

C) Cipro

D) Motrin

Answer: A

Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names?

A) They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember.

B) They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.

C) They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification.

D) They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex.

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A provider has written an order for a medication: drug ´ 100 mg PO every 6 hours. The half-life for the drug is approximately 6 hours. The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose at 8:00 AM on Tuesday. On Wednesday,when will the serum drug level reach plateau?

A) 2:00 AM

B) 8:00 AM

C) 2:00 PM

D) 8:00 PM

Q2) A patient is receiving intravenous gentamicin. A serum drug test reveals toxic levels. The dosing is correct,and this medication has been tolerated by this patient in the past. Which could be a probable cause of the test result?

A) A loading dose was not given.

B) The drug was not completely dissolved in the IV solution.

C) The patient is taking another medication that binds to serum albumin.

D) The medication is being given at a frequency that is longer than its half-life.

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Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which drugs will not be affected by interpatient variability? (Select all that apply.)

A) Antiseptics applied to the skin to slow bacterial growth

B) Antacids to help with the discomfort of heartburn

C) Broad-spectrum antibiotics that are effective against many organisms

D) Chelating agents that remove metal compounds from the body

E) Topical analgesics used to treat localized pain

Q2) A patient is receiving digoxin twice daily. When assessing the patient before giving a dose,the nurse counts a pulse of 60 beats per minute and learns that the patient is experiencing nausea. The nurse consults a drug manual and verifies that the ordered dose is correct. What should the nurse do?

A) Contact the prescriber to report the symptoms.

B) Delay the dose so the drug can clear from receptor sites.

C) Give the medication as ordered, because the dose is correct.

D) Request an antinausea medication from the prescriber.

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Chapter 6: Drug Interactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is administering morning medications. The nurse gives a patient multiple medications,two of which compete for plasma albumin receptor sites. As a result of this concurrent administration,the nurse can anticipate that what might occur? (Select all that apply.)

A) Binding of one or both agents will be reduced.

B) Plasma levels of free drug will rise.

C) Plasma levels of free drug will fall.

D) The increase in free drug will intensify effects.

E) The increase in bound drug will intensify effects.

Q2) The nurse is providing multiple medications to a patient whose spouse brings grapefruit juice every morning. The nurse will be concerned about which classes of drugs? (Select all that apply.)

A) Calcium channel blockers

B) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

C) Aminoglycosides

D) Beta blockers

E) Penicillins

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8

Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is taking a drug that has known toxic side effects. What will the nurse do?

A) Discontinue the drug at the first signs of toxicity.

B) Ensure that complete blood counts are ordered periodically.

C) Monitor the function of all organs potentially affected by the drug.

D) Teach the patient how to treat the symptoms if they develop.

Q2) A nurse is preparing to give an antibiotic to a patient who reports being allergic to antibiotics. Before giving the medication,what will the nurse do first?

A) Ask whether the patient has taken this antibiotic for other infections

B) Question the patient about allergies to other medications

C) Request an order for a lower dose of the antibiotic

D) Request an order for an antihistamine

Q3) Which actions occur in 90% of fatal medication errors? (Select all that apply.)

A) Confusing drugs with similar packaging

B) Giving a drug intravenously instead of intramuscularly

C) Giving Nasarel instead of Nizoral

D) Using an infusion device that malfunctions

E) Writing a prescription illegibly

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Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient asks a nurse why a friend who is taking the same drug responds differently to that drug. The nurse knows that the most common variation in drug response is due to differences in each patient's:

A) drug receptor sites.

B) hypersensitivity potential.

C) metabolism of drugs.

D) psychosocial response.

Q2) Which groups of people are especially sensitive to medication effects? (Select all that apply.)

A) Older adults

B) Caucasians

C) Infants

D) Minorities

E) Women

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Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and Breast-Feeding

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a class to a group of pregnant patients. The nurse correctly teaches that the highest risk of teratogen-induced gross malformations exists during which time?

A) Immediately before conception

B) During the first trimester

C) During the second trimester

D) During the third trimester

Q2) A pregnant patient asks the nurse about the safe use of medications during the third trimester. What will the nurse tell her about drugs taken at this stage?

A) They may need to be given in higher doses if they undergo renal clearance.

B) They require lower doses if they are metabolized by the liver.

C) They are less likely to cross the placenta and affect the fetus.

D) They are more likely to cause anatomical defects if they are teratogenic.

Q3) Which types of drugs taken by a pregnant patient are more likely to have effects on a fetus?

A) Drugs that are highly polar

B) Ionized drugs

C) Lipid-soluble drugs

D) Protein-bound drugs

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Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients

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Sample Questions

Q1) A prescriber has ordered medication for a newborn. The medication is eliminated primarily by hepatic metabolism. The nurse expects the prescriber to:

A) order a dose that is lower than an adult dose.

B) order a dose that is higher than an adult dose.

C) increase the frequency of medication dosing.

D) discontinue the drug after one or two doses.

Q2) An infant is receiving a medication that has a narrow therapeutic range. The nurse reviews the medication information and learns that the drug is excreted by the kidneys. When giving the medication,the nurse will assess the infant for:

A) decreased effectiveness of the drug.

B) shorter period of the drug's effects.

C) signs of drug toxicity.

D) unusual CNS effects.

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Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for an older adult patient during the immediate postoperative period after a total hip replacement. The surgeon has ordered meperidine [Demerol] for severe pain. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the medication as prescribed and initiate a fall risk protocol.

B) Ask for a PRN order for diphenhydramine [Benadryl] for the expected side effect of itching.

C) Request an order for morphine instead of meperidine [Demerol].

D) Suggest to the surgeon that the patient receive diazepam [Valium] to reduce anxiety and the need for narcotics.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about administering medications to older adult patients. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Alteration in hepatic function requires more frequent drug dosing."

B) "Changes in GI function in older adult patients lead to lower serum drug levels."

C) "Most adverse drug reactions in older adult patients are related to altered renal function."

D) "Most nonadherence among older adult patients is intentional."

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Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is administering drug X to a patient. The drug information states that the drug acts by activating receptors in the peripheral nervous system by increasing transmitter synthesis. The nurse understands that the effect of this drug is to:

A) activate axonal conduction.

B) enhance transmitter storage.

C) increase receptor activation.

D) synthesize supertransmitters.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about neuropharmacology. Which statement by a student about peripheral nervous system (PNS)drugs indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Drugs affecting axonal conduction have a variety of uses."

B) "Drugs that alter synaptic transmission can be highly selective."

C) "Many PNS drugs act by altering synaptic transmission."

D) "These drugs work by influencing receptor activity."

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14

Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the target organ when a beta₁agonist is administered?

A) heart

B) kidney

C) respiratory

D) liver

Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about neurotransmitters. Which statement by a student about acetylcholine indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "It activates three cholinergic receptor subtypes."

B) "It has effects in the parasympathetic, sympathetic, and somatic nervous systems."

C) "It is used at most junctions of the peripheral nervous system."

D) "Its transmission is terminated by reuptake into the cholinergic nerve terminal."

Q3) A pregnant patient is in premature labor. Which class of drug will she be given?

A) Alpha₁ agonist

B) Anticholinergic

C) Beta₂ agonist

D) Beta₂ antagonist

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Page 15

Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has esophageal cancer is experiencing dry mouth and the provider orders oral pilocarpine to treat this symptom. What will the nurse expect to teach this patient about this medication?

A) "This medication may cause rapid heart rate and elevated blood pressure."

B) "This medication may cause constipation and gastric discomfort in large doses."

C) "You should experience sweating with this medication and should not have other side effects."

D) "You will begin taking 5 mg three times daily and may increase the dose to 10 mg."

Q2) A prescriber has ordered bethanechol [Urecholine] for a postoperative patient who has urinary retention. The nurse reviews the patient's chart before giving the drug. Which part of the patient's history would be a contraindication to using this drug?

A) Asthma as a child

B) Gastroesophageal reflux

C) Hypertension

D) Hypothyroidism

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16

Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in

Myasthenia Gravis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with myasthenia gravis who is taking a cholinesterase inhibitor is being admitted to the intensive care unit and is on mechanical ventilation. The prescriber has ordered a challenge dose of edrophonium to distinguish between a myasthenic crisis and a medication overdose. The nurse will expect to do what?

A) Administer neostigmine if muscle strength decreases.

B) Be prepared to administer atropine and oxygen if muscle weakness increases.

C) Give a second dose of edrophonium if no improvement is seen.

D) Give pralidoxime [Protopam] if cholinergic symptoms worsen.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Diazepam is given to reverse inhibition of cholinesterase when overdose occurs."

B) "Irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors are rapidly absorbed by all routes."

C) "These agents are often used to treat glaucoma."

D) "Toxic doses of these agents produce an anticholinergic crisis."

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Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic

Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which areas of the body show the effects of neuromuscular blockers last?

A) Levator muscle of the eyelids and the muscles of mastication

B) Muscles in the lower extremities

C) Muscles controlling the glottis

D) Muscles of respiration and the diaphragm

Q2) While preparing a patient for a procedure in which a neuromuscular blocking agent will be used,the nurse reviews the patient's preprocedure laboratory values. Which abnormality would cause the most concern?

A) Hyponatremia

B) Hypercalcemia

C) Hypomagnesemia

D) Hypokalemia

Q3) A patient will receive atracurium [Tracrium] during surgery for neuromuscular blockade. The nurse caring for this patient will correctly perform which of the following actions?

A) Assess the patient for signs of CNS depression.

B) Ensure that dantrolene is available in case of a serious adverse reaction.

C) Monitor the patient's blood pressure closely.

D) Review the preprocedure laboratory values related to renal and hepatic function.

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient brought to the emergency department requires sutures. The prescriber orders a local anesthetic with epinephrine. The nurse understands that epinephrine is ordered to:

A) prevent hypertension induced by the anesthetic.

B) allow a reduced dose of the anesthetic.

C) reduce anesthetic-induced nausea.

D) reduce the pain of an injection.

Q2) Because they cause vasoconstriction,alpha₁-adrenergic agonists are especially useful for:

A) causing hemostasis in skin and mucous membranes.

B) producing mydriasis to facilitate ophthalmic examinations.

C) slowing the heart rate in tachycardic patients.

D) treating hypotension.

Q3) A nurse is teaching a nursing student about the two classes of adrenergic agonist drugs. Which statement by the nursing student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Catecholamines may be given orally."

B) "Catecholamines often require continuous infusion to be effective."

C) "Noncatecholamines do not cross the blood-brain barrier."

D) "Noncatecholamines undergo rapid degradation by monoamine oxidase."

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse assesses a patient who has been given phentolamine [OraVerse] to treat pheochromocytoma. The nurse notes a blood pressure of 76/52 mm Hg and a heart rate of 90 beats per minute. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A) Contact the provider to request an order for epinephrine.

B) Continue to monitor the patient's vital signs and notify the provider if the heart rate increases.

C) Notify the provider and request an order for a beta blocker.

D) Notify the provider and request an order for norepinephrine.

Q2) A patient with migraines is started on a beta blocker. The nurse explains the benefits of taking the medication for migraines. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the medication's effects?

A) "I need to take it every day to reduce the frequency of migraines."

B) "I will take it as needed to get relief from migraines."

C) "I will take it to shorten the duration of my migraines."

D) "I will take this drug when a migraine starts."

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Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A prescriber orders transdermal clonidine [Catapres TTS] for a patient with hypertension. What will the nurse teach this patient?

A) That medication given by transdermal patch has fewer systemic side effects

B) That localized skin reactions are uncommon

C) To apply the patch to intact skin on the forearm or leg

D) To change the patch every week

Q2) A patient who has been taking clonidine [Catapres] for several weeks complains of drowsiness and constipation. What will the nurse do?

A) Recommend that the patient take most of the daily dose at bedtime.

B) Suggest asking the provider for a transdermal preparation of the drug.

C) Suspect that the patient is overusing the medication.

D) Tell the patient to stop taking the drug and call the provider.

Q3) A prescriber orders clonidine [Kapvay] ER tablets for a 12-year-old child. The nurse understands that this drug is being given to treat which condition?

A) ADHD

B) Hypertension

C) Severe pain

D) Tourette's syndrome

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21

Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System

Pharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A psychiatric nurse is teaching a patient about an antidepressant medication. The nurse tells the patient that therapeutic effects may not occur for several weeks. The nurse understands that this is likely the result of:

A) changes in the brain as a result of prolonged drug exposure.

B) direct actions of the drug on specific synaptic functions in the brain.

C) slowed drug absorption across the blood-brain barrier.

D) tolerance to exposure to the drug over time.

Q2) An infant who receives a drug that does not produce CNS side effects in adults exhibits drowsiness and sedation. The nurse understands that this is because of differences in which physiologic system in infants and adults?

A) Blood-brain barrier

B) First-pass effect

C) Gastrointestinal absorption

D) Renal filtration

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22

Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinsons Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nurses about Parkinson's medications. The nurse is correct to state that one side effect associated with pramipexole [Mirapex] that is less likely to occur with other dopamine agonists is:

A) sleep attacks.

B) dizziness.

C) hallucinations.

D) dyskinesias.

Q2) A patient newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease has been taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet] for several weeks and complains of nausea and vomiting. The nurse tells the patient to discuss what with the provider?

A) Taking a lower dose on an empty stomach

B) Taking an increased dose along with a high-protein snack

C) Taking a lower dose with a low-protein snack

D) Taking dopamine in addition to levodopa/carbidopa

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23

Chapter 22: Drugs for Alzheimers Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer memantine [Nemanda] to a patient and notes a slight elevation in the patient's creatinine clearance level. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) Adding sodium bicarbonate to the patient's drug regimen

B) Continuing the memantine as ordered

C) Discontinuing the memantine

D) Reducing the dose of memantine

Q2) A patient is worried about the risk of developing Alzheimer's disease,because both parents had the disease. The nurse will tell this patient that known risk factors include what? (Select all that apply.)

A) Advanced age

B) Alcoholism

C) Family history

D) Gender

E) Obesity

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24

Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Immunomodulator drugs have shown effectiveness for what? (Select all that apply.)

A) Preventing the development of MS

B) Primary progressive MS

C) Progressive-relapsing MS

D) Relapsing-remitting MS

E) Secondary progressive MS

Q2) A patient is being treated with interferon beta-1a [Avonex] for relapsing-remitting MS. The patient calls the clinic to report headache,fever,chills,and muscle aches after administering a dose. What will the nurse recommend?

A) Acetaminophen or ibuprofen

B) Asking the provider to order a complete blood count (CBC)

C) Coming to the clinic for evaluation for leukoencephalopathy

D) Discontinuing the drug immediately

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Chapter 24: Drugs for Epilepsy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is assessing a patient who becomes motionless and seems to stare at the wall and then experiences about 60 seconds of lip smacking and hand wringing. What should the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient about a history of absence seizures.

B) Contact the provider to report symptoms of a complex partial seizure.

C) Notify the provider that the patient has had a grand mal seizure.

D) Request an order for intravenous diazepam [Valium] to treat status epilepticus.

Q2) A patient who has a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital after an increase in seizure frequency,and the prescriber orders carbamazepine [Tegretol] 100 mg twice daily to be added to the patient's medication regimen. The nurse reviewing the patient's medical history notes that the patient is already taking lamotrigine [Lamictal] 375 mg twice daily. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss which action?

A) Reducing the carbamazepine dose to 50 mg twice daily

B) Reducing the lamotrigine dose to 225 mg twice daily

C) Increasing the carbamazepine dose to 200 mg twice daily

D) Increasing the lamotrigine dose to 500 mg twice daily

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Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which patient should receive dantrolene [Dantrium] with caution?

A) A 20-year-old woman with a spinal cord injury

B) A 45-year-old man with a history of malignant hyperthermia

C) A 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis

D) An 8-year-old child with cerebral palsy

Q2) A patient with multiple sclerosis needs pharmacologic treatment for spasticity to begin strengthening exercises to improve walking ability. The nurse anticipates that which medication will be ordered for spasticity?

A) Baclofen [Lioresal]

B) Dantrolene [Dantrium]

C) Diazepam [Valium]

D) Metaxalone [Skelaxin]

Q3) A nurse is admitting a patient to the hospital. The patient reports taking oral baclofen [Lioresal] but stopped taking the drug the day before admission. The nurse would be correct to anticipate which adverse effects?

A) Weakness and dizziness

B) Fatigue and drowsiness

C) Seizures and hallucinations

D) Respiratory depression and coma

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Page 27

Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which are important considerations when spinal anesthesia is being administered? (Select all that apply.)

A) Encouraging the patient to remain supine after the procedure

B) Having epinephrine available in case of adverse effects

C) Injecting a local anesthetic into the sacral region

D) Placing the agent into the spinal column outside the dura mater

E) Using an anesthetic solution from a single-dose vial

Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient in the immediate postoperative period after surgery in which a spinal anesthetic was used. The patient has not voided and complains of headache. The patient has a pulse of 62 beats per minute,a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute,and a blood pressure of 92/48 mm Hg. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

A) Contact the anesthetist to request an order for ephedrine.

B) Have the patient sit up to relieve the headache pain.

C) Lower the head of the bed to a 10- to 15-degree head-down position.

D) Obtain an order for a urinary catheter for urinary retention.

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Chapter 27: General Anesthetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient receives a neuromuscular blocking agent as an adjunct to inhalation anesthesia. When caring for this patient,it is important for the nurse to remember that neuromuscular blocking agents:

A) cause vagal slowing of the heart.

B) increase the required dose of inhalation anesthetics.

C) increase the depth of unconsciousness.

D) prevent contraction of the diaphragm.

Q2) A postoperative patient complains of abdominal bloating and discomfort. The nurse caring for this patient will contact the provider to request which medication?

A) Bethanechol

B) Droperidol

C) Promethazine

D) Ondansetron

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

29

Chapter 28: Opioid Analgesics, Opioid Antagonists, and Nonopioid Centrally Acting Analgesics

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8421

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is administering morphine sulfate to a postoperative patient. Which are appropriate routine nursing actions when giving this drug? (Select all that apply.)

A) Counting respirations before and after giving the medication

B) Encouraging physical activity and offering increased fluids

C) Monitoring the patient's blood pressure closely for hypertension

D) Palpating the patient's lower abdomen every 4 to 6 hours

E) Requesting an order for methylnaltrexone [Relistor] to prevent constipation

Q2) A patient who has biliary colic reports a pain level of 8 on a 1 to 10 pain scale with 10 being the most severe pain. The patient has an order for ibuprofen as needed for pain. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A) Administer the ibuprofen as ordered.

B) Contact the provider to discuss nonpharmacologic pain measures.

C) Request an order for meperidine [Demerol].

D) Request an order for morphine sulfate.

Q3) A patient who has developed opioid tolerance will experience which effect?

A) Decreased analgesic effect

B) Decreased constipation

C) Increased euphoria

D) Increased respiratory depression

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Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients with Cancer

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8422

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is taking a fixed-dose combination drug with an opioid and acetaminophen for cancer pain reports increased muscular pain. The patient asks the nurse if the pain medication dose can be increased. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) An adjuvant analgesic medication will probably be used to help with this pain.

B) An additional dose of acetaminophen can be used to enhance pain relief.

C) Increasing the dose is possible, because there is no ceiling to opioid pain relief.

D) The provider will prescribe separate dosing of the opioid and acetaminophen.

Q2) Which nonpharmacologic therapies are effective in reducing cancer pain? (Select all that apply.)

A) Acupuncture

B) Cold

C) Exercise

D) Heat

E) Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)

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Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8423

Sample Questions

Q1) Which drugs are used to prevent migraine headaches? (Select all that apply.)

A) Divalproex [Depakote]

B) Amitriptyline [Elavil]

C) Timolol

D) Ergotamine [Ergomar]

E) Acebutolol

Q2) A patient who has migraine headaches has been using sumatriptan [Imitrex] with good results,but reports frequent migraine recurrence 24 hours later. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) Aspirin

B) Ergotamine [Ergomar]

C) Naratriptan [Amerge]

D) Zolmitriptan [Zomig]

Q3) Supplemental oxygen has been shown to help reduce symptoms for which type of headache?

A) Cluster

B) Menstrual migraine

C) Migraine

D) Tension-type

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32

Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8424

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient in whom drug therapy has failed several times in the past is readmitted to a hospital to begin therapy for schizophrenia. What will the nurse do to help improve adherence?

A) Encourage the patient to take responsibility for medication management.

B) Teach the patient about drug side effects and how to manage them.

C) Tell the patient that an abstinence syndrome will occur if the drug is stopped.

D) Tell the patient that the drug may be taken as needed to control symptoms.

Q2) A patient with schizophrenia has been taking an oral FGA for 1 week. The patient has been taking the drug daily in two divided doses. The individual complains of daytime drowsiness. The patient's family reports a decrease in the person's hostility and anxiety but states that the patient remains antisocial with disordered thinking. What will the nurse tell the patient and the family?

A) An increased dose of the drug may be needed.

B) Intramuscular dosing may be needed.

C) Some symptoms take months to improve.

D) The entire dose may be taken at bedtime.

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Chapter 32: Antidepressants

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8425

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been taking fluoxetine [Prozac] for 2 years and reports feeling cured of depression. The nurse learns that the patient is sleeping well,participates in usual activities,and feels upbeat and energetic most of the time. The patient's weight has returned to normal. The patient reports last having symptoms of depression at least 9 months ago. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) Indefinite drug therapy is necessary to maintain remission.

B) Discuss gradual withdrawal of the medication with the provider.

C) Stop the drug while remaining alert for the return of symptoms.

D) Take a drug holiday to see whether symptoms recur.

Q2) An older adult patient who is to begin taking imipramine [Tofranil] asks the nurse when the drug should be taken. The nurse will instruct the patient to:

A) divide the daily dose into two equal doses 12 hours apart.

B) take the entire dose at bedtime to minimize sedative effects.

C) take the medication once daily in the late afternoon.

D) take the medication once daily in the morning.

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Page 34

Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder

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11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8426

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is admitted to a hospital for treatment for first-time symptoms of mania and is exhibiting euphoric mania. Which medication will the provider order?

A) Lithium [Lithobid]

B) Olanzapine [Zyprexa]

C) Risperidone [Risperdal]

D) Divalproex sodium [Valproate]

Q2) A patient with bipolar disorder who is taking divalproex sodium [Valproate] has just been admitted to the hospital. During the admission assessment,the patient tells the nurse about recent suicidal ideation. The nurse observes several areas of bruising over soft tissue areas and notes a weight gain of 10 pounds since the last admission 1 year ago. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient whether the bruises are self-inflicted.

B) Contact the provider to report these findings.

C) Give the patient information about weight loss.

D) Request an order for an increased dose to help with depressive symptoms.

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35

Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs

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15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse recognizes that the actions of benzodiazepines include which findings? (Select all that apply.)

A) Sleep deprivation

B) Relief of general anxiety

C) Suppression of seizures and/or seizure activity

D) Development of tardive dyskinesia

E) Increase in muscle spasms

Q2) A patient has been taking high doses of clorazepate [Tranxene] for several months for an anxiety disorder. The nurse assessing the patient observes that the patient is agitated,euphoric,and anxious. What will the nurse do?

A) Double-check the chart to make sure the last dose was given.

B) Request an order for a longer-acting benzodiazepine.

C) Suspect a possible paradoxical reaction to the clorazepate.

D) Withhold the next dose until a drug level can be drawn.

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Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) An agitated,extremely anxious patient is brought to the emergency department. The prescriber orders a benzodiazepine. The nurse understands that benzodiazepines are used in this clinical situation based on which principle?

A) Benzodiazepines have a very short half-life.

B) Physical dependence is not a risk when taking benzodiazepines.

C) Benzodiazepines are known to cure generalized anxiety.

D) Benzodiazepines have a rapid onset of action.

Q2) A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a patient. The patient reports taking alprazolam [Xanax] for "nerves." The nurse knows that this patient is most likely being treated for which condition?

A) Generalized anxiety disorder

B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)

C) Panic disorder

D) Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

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Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and

Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8429

Sample Questions

Q1) A parent thinks a school-aged child has ADHD. The nurse asks the parent to describe the child's behaviors. Which behaviors are characteristic of ADHD? (Select all that apply.)

A) Anxiety

B) Compulsivity

C) Hyperactivity

D) Inattention

E) Impulsivity

Q2) A nurse is providing education to a group of patients regarding amphetamines. To evaluate the group's understanding,the nurse asks a participant what effects amphetamines would have on her. The participant shows that she understands the effects of these drugs if she gives which answers? (Select all that apply.)

A) "Amphetamines increase fatigue."

B) "Amphetamines suppress the perception of pain."

C) "Amphetamines increase appetite."

D) "Amphetamines increase the heart rate."

E) "Amphetamines elevate mood."

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38

Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations

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8 Verified Questions

8 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8430

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is teaching a nursing student about management of controlled substances in medication administration. Which statement by the nursing student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "If there is a difference between state and federal laws governing a scheduled drug, the federal law takes precedence."

B) "Prescriptions for drugs in Schedules III and IV may be written to include up to 5 refills."

C) "Schedule I drugs may only be given to hospitalized patients."

D) "To reduce the possibility of abuse of a drug that is Schedule II, the prescriber should call the prescription to the pharmacy."

Q2) A patient who has been taking a medication with a side effect of drowsiness stops taking the medication after several weeks. The patient reports feeling anxious and jittery. The nurse understands that this response is due to:

A) addiction.

B) psychologic dependence.

C) tolerance.

D) withdrawal syndrome.

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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse II: Alcohol

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8431

Sample Questions

Q1) A college student who is unresponsive is brought to the emergency department by friends,who say that their friend drank more than half of a large bottle of whiskey 3 hours ago. Assessment reveals a blood alcohol level of 0.32%. The vital signs are BP,88/32 mm Hg; R,6/min; T,96.8°F; and P,76/min and weak and thready. The nurse should prepare the patient for which intervention?

A) IV fluids and stimulants

B) Charcoal administration

C) Gastric lavage and dialysis

D) Naloxone [Narcan] administration

Q2) A nurse is discussing alcohol abuse with a group of nursing students. One student asks whether alcohol consumption has any beneficial effects. The nurse replies that,in moderate amounts,alcohol:

A) helps people to sleep well.

B) improves sexual responsiveness.

C) may protect against dementia.

D) prevents hypothermia.

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Chapter 39: Drug Abuse III: Nicotine and Smoking

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A prescriber has ordered nicotine nasal spray for a patient to assist with smoking cessation. Which statement will the nurse include when teaching the patient about the medication?

A) "This will produce a steady level of nicotine to reduce your cravings."

B) "You should gradually reduce the dose after 3 months of use."

C) "You should use 1 spray in each nostril per dose up to 5 times per hour."

D) "You will not develop dependence on the nicotine in the nasal spray."

Q2) A patient with a desire to stop smoking asks a nurse about nicotine chewing gum [Nicorette]. The patient currently smokes 30 cigarettes per day. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "Stop using the gum 6 months after you stop using cigarettes."

B) "Use the 4-mg strength gum and chew one piece every 2 to 3 hours."

C) "Use the gum whenever you feel a craving for a cigarette."

D) "You should start with 30 pieces of the 2-mg strength gum per day."

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Chapter 40: Drug Abuse IV: Major Drugs of Abuse Other

Than Alcohol and Nicotine

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8433

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is an opioid addict has undergone detoxification with buprenorphine [Subutex] and has been given a prescription for buprenorphine with naloxone [Suboxone]. The patient asks the nurse why the drug was changed. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Suboxone has a lower risk of abuse."

B) "Suboxone has a longer half-life."

C) "Subutex causes more respiratory depression."

D) "Subutex has more buprenorphine."

Q2) A college student tells the nurse that several friends have been using synthetic marijuana to get high. What will the nurse tell this patient about this type of substance?

A) "These substances are fairly safe because they are derived from herbs."

B) "They can cause hypertension, nausea, vomiting, and hallucinations."

C) "These substances do not have mind-altering affects."

D) "These substances produce a high and they are not illegal."

Q3) What is the primary reason for opioid abuse?

A) Ease of access

B) Initial "rush" similar to orgasm

C) Peer pressure

D) Prolonged sense of euphoria

Page 42

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Chapter 41: Diuretics

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) An older adult patient with congestive heart failure develops crackles in both lungs and pitting edema of all extremities. The physician orders hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]. Before administering this medication,the nurse reviews the patient's chart. Which laboratory value causes the nurse the most concern?

A) Elevated creatinine clearance

B) Elevated serum potassium level

C) Normal blood glucose level

D) Low levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol

Q2) A patient with chronic congestive heart failure has repeated hospitalizations in spite of ongoing treatment with hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL] and digoxin. The prescriber has ordered spironolactone [Aldactone] to be added to this patient's drug regimen,and the nurse provides education about this medication. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I can expect improvement within a few hours after taking this drug."

B) "I need to stop taking potassium supplements."

C) "I should use salt substitutes to prevent toxic side effects."

D) "I should watch closely for dehydration."

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Page 43

Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a postoperative patient who has a nasogastric tube with continuous suction. The nurse notes that the patient has shallow respirations and suspects that this patient has developed:

A) metabolic acidosis.

B) metabolic alkalosis.

C) respiratory acidosis.

D) respiratory alkalosis.

Q2) A nurse is caring for a child whose respirations are shallow and marked by a prolonged expiratory phase. The nurse auscultates wheezes and poor air movement bilaterally. The child's respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute,and the oxygen saturation is 89%. What does the nurse suspect?

A) Metabolic acidosis

B) Metabolic alkalosis

C) Respiratory acidosis

D) Respiratory alkalosis

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44

Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving a drug that causes constriction of arterioles. The nurse expects to observe which effect from this drug?

A) Decreased stroke volume

B) Increased stroke volume

C) Decreased myocardial contractility

D) Increased myocardial contractility

Q2) A patient is taking a drug that interferes with venous constriction. The nurse will tell the patient to:

A) ask for assistance when getting out of bed.

B) expect bradycardia for a few days.

C) notify the provider if headache occurs.

D) report shortness of breath.

Q3) A nurse is teaching a nursing student how blood can return to the heart when pressure in the venous capillary beds is very low. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Constriction of small muscles in the venous wall increases venous pressure."

B) "Negative pressure in the left atrium draws blood toward the heart."

C) "Skeletal muscles relax to allow the free flow of blood."

D) "Venous valves help prevent the backflow of blood."

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Page 45

Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the

Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System

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12 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A prescriber orders ramipril [Altace] for an obese patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has developed hypertension. The nurse provides teaching before dismissing the patient home. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I am less likely to develop diabetic nephropathy when taking this medication."

B) "I should check my blood sugar more often, because hyperglycemia is a side effect of this drug."

C) "Taking this medication helps reduce my risk of stroke and heart attack."

D) "This medication will probably prevent the development of diabetic retinopathy."

Q2) A patient who stops taking an ACE inhibitor because of its side effects will begin taking an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB)medication. Which side effect of ACE inhibitors will not occur with an ARB medication?

A) Angioedema

B) Cough

C) Hyperkalemia

D) Renal failure

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46

Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient who will begin taking verapamil [Calan] for hypertension about the drug's side effects. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I may become constipated, so I should increase fluids and fiber."

B) "I may experience a rapid heart rate as a result of taking this drug."

C) "I may have swelling of my hands and feet, but this will subside."

D) "I may need to increase my digoxin dose while taking this drug."

Q2) A nurse is preparing to assist a nursing student to administer intravenous verapamil to a patient who also receives a beta blocker. The nurse asks the nursing student to discuss the plan of care for this patient. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I will check to see when the last dose of the beta blocker was given."

B) "I will monitor vital signs closely to assess for hypotension."

C) "I will monitor the heart rate frequently to assess for reflex tachycardia."

D) "I will prepare to administer intravenous norepinephrine if necessary."

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Chapter 46: Vasodilators

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11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is taking a vasodilator that relaxes smooth muscles in veins. To help minimize drug side effects,the nurse caring for this patient will:

A) caution the patient not to get up abruptly.

B) encourage the patient to increase fluid intake.

C) tell the patient to report shortness of breath.

D) warn the patient about the possibility of bradycardia.

Q2) A nursing student asks a nurse why a patient in hypertensive crisis is receiving both intravenous sodium nitroprusside [Nitropress] and oral hydralazine. The nurse will explain that this is done to prevent:

A) cyanide poisoning.

B) fluid retention.

C) rebound hypertension.

D) reflex tachycardia.

Q3) A patient is admitted with severe hypertensive crisis. The nurse will anticipate administering which medication?

A) Captopril PO

B) Hydralazine [Apresoline] 25 mg PO

C) Minoxidil 20 mg PO

D) Sodium nitroprusside [Nitropress] IV

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Page 48

Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension

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Sample Questions

Q1) A hospitalized patient has a blood pressure of 145/96 mm Hg. The nurse caring for this patient notes that the blood pressure the day before was 132/98 mm Hg. The patient reports ambulatory blood pressure readings of 136/98 and 138/92 mm Hg. The patient has a history of a previous myocardial infarction and has adopted a lifestyle that includes use of the DASH diet and regular exercise. What will the nurse do?

A) Notify the provider and discuss ordering a beta blocker for this patient.

B) Notify the provider and suggest a thiazide diuretic as initial therapy.

C) Order a diet low in sodium and high in potassium for this patient.

D) Recheck the patient's blood pressure in 4 hours to verify the result.

Q2) A patient has been taking chlorthalidone to treat hypertension. The patient's prescriber has just ordered the addition of spironolactone to the patient's drug regimen. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I should continue following the DASH diet when adding this drug."

B) "I should not take an ACE inhibitor when adding this drug."

C) "I will need to take potassium supplements when adding this drug."

D) "I will not experience a significant increase in diuresis when adding this drug."

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Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has heart failure and is taking an ACE inhibitor. The patient has developed fibrotic changes in the heart and vessels. The nurse expects the provider to order which medication to counter this development?

A) Aldosterone antagonist

B) Angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB)

C) Beta blocker

D) Direct renin inhibitor (DRI)

Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin [Lanoxin] to a patient. The patient's heart rate is 62 beats per minute,and the blood pressure is 120/60 mm Hg. The last serum electrolyte value showed a potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the provider to request an increased dose of digoxin.

B) Give the dose of digoxin and notify the provider of the potassium level.

C) Request an order for a diuretic.

D) Withhold the dose and notify the provider of the heart rate.

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Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is in the intensive care unit after a myocardial infarction. The nurse notes that the QT interval on this patient's electrocardiogram has been elongating. The nurse is concerned that which cardiac dysrhythmia may occur?

A) AV block

B) Bradycardia

C) Supraventricular tachycardia

D) Torsades de pointes

Q2) The nurse is teaching a class on dysrhythmias and associated therapy. The nurse asks the class,"Which cardiac dysrhythmia would result in the lowest cardiac output,and what treatment would be effective?" The class best demonstrates understanding by responding that ____ results in the lowest cardiac output,and treatment includes ____.

A) atrial flutter; lidocaine

B) tachycardia; atropine

C) first-degree heart block; verapamil [Calan]

D) ventricular fibrillation; defibrillation

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Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular

Disease: Drugs That Help Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels

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Sample Questions

Q1) An Asian patient will begin taking rosuvastatin [Crestor] to treat hypercholesterolemia. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this medication?

A) Higher than usual doses may be necessary for this patient.

B) Renal toxicity is a common adverse effect among Asian patients.

C) Serum drug levels must be monitored more frequently than with other patients.

D) Yellow skin and sclera are more common side effects with Asian patients but are not concerning.

Q2) A postmenopausal woman will begin taking atorvastatin [Lipitor] to treat hypercholesterolemia. The woman reports a history of osteopenia with a family risk of osteoporosis. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient?

A) The need to discuss taking a bisphosphonate medication with her provider

B) That statins are known to reduce the risk of osteoporosis

C) That she should avoid foods high in calcium

D) To discuss vitamin D supplements with her provider since statins deplete calcium

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Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student is helping to care for a patient who takes verapamil for stable angina. The nurse asks the student to explain the purpose of verapamil in the treatment of this patient. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "It relaxes coronary artery spasms."

B) "It reduces peripheral resistance to reduce oxygen demands."

C) "It reduces the heart rate, AV conduction, and contractility."

D) "It relaxes the peripheral arterioles to reduce afterload."

Q2) A patient with angina who uses sublingual nitroglycerin tells the nurse that the episodes are increasing in frequency and usually occur when the patient walks the dog. The patient reports needing almost daily doses of the nitroglycerin and states that one tablet usually provides complete relief. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the provider to suggest ordering a transdermal patch for this patient.

B) Question the patient about consumption of grapefruit juice.

C) Suggest that the patient limit walking the dog to shorter distances less frequently.

D) Suggest that the patient take two tablets of nitroglycerin each time, because the symptoms are increasing in frequency.

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been receiving heparin while in the hospital to treat deep vein thromboses and will be discharged home with a prescription for enoxaparin [Lovenox]. The nurse provides teaching for the nursing student who asks about the advantages of enoxaparin over heparin. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Enoxaparin does not require coagulation monitoring."

B) "Enoxaparin has greater bioavailability than heparin."

C) "Enoxaparin is more cost-effective than heparin."

D) "Enoxaparin may be given using a fixed dosage."

Q2) A patient who takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation undergoes hip replacement surgery. On the second postoperative day,the nurse assesses the patient and notes an oxygen saturation of 83%,pleuritic chest pain,shortness of breath,and hemoptysis. The nurse will contact the provider to report possible ____ and request an order for ____.

A) congestive heart failure; furosemide [Lasix]

B) hemorrhage; vitamin K (phytonadione)

C) myocardial infarction; tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

D) pulmonary embolism; heparin

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Page 54

Chapter 53: Management of ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has undergone a PCI,and the provider orders clopidogrel to be given for 12 months,along with an ACE inhibitor and heparin. What will the nurse do?

A) Question the need for heparin.

B) Request an order for a beta blocker.

C) Request an order for aspirin.

D) Suggest ordering clopidogrel for 14 days.

Q2) A patient diagnosed with STEMI is about to undergo a primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Which combination of pharmacotherapeutic agents will be given to augment this procedure?

A) Beta blocker and nitroglycerin

B) Abciximab and a fibrinolytic drug

C) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor and aspirin

D) Heparin, aspirin, and clopidogrel

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Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8447

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for an African American patient with severe hemophilia A who has been admitted for bleeding into the knee joint. The prescriber has ordered intravenous factor VIIa [NovoSeven RT]. A nursing student wants to know why this patient is not receiving factor VIII. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "Factor VIIa is stronger than factor VIII and will work faster."

B) "Factor VIII is used for prophylaxis, and factor VIIa is used for acute episodes."

C) "Factor VIIa is used when patients develop antibodies against factor VIII."

D) "Factor VIIa provides immune tolerance therapy so that factor VIII will be more effective."

Q2) A nurse is caring for a child who has hemophilia. While reviewing this child's immunization records,the nurse notes that the child needs the tetanus and reduced diphtheria toxoids and acellular pertussis (Tdap)vaccine and the hepatitis A vaccine.

The nurse should notify the provider and obtain an order to give:

A) both vaccines intramuscularly.

B) both vaccines subcutaneously.

C) the hepatitis A vaccine only subcutaneously.

D) the Tdap vaccine only intramuscularly.

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Page 56

Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias

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15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with renal failure is undergoing chronic hemodialysis. The patient's hemoglobin is 10.6 gm/dL. The provider orders sodium-ferric gluconate complex (SFGC [Ferrlecit]). What will the nurse expect to do?

A) Administer the drug intravenously with erythropoietin.

B) Give a test dose before each administration of the drug.

C) Have epinephrine on hand to treat anaphylaxis if needed.

D) Infuse the drug rapidly to achieve maximum effects quickly.

Q2) A patient is receiving oral iron for iron deficiency anemia. Which antibiotic drug,taken concurrently with iron,would most concern the nurse?

A) Tetracycline

B) Cephalosporin

C) Metronidazole [Flagyl]

D) Penicillin

Q3) The patient with which of the following is most at risk for folic acid deficiency?

A) Alcoholism

B) Sprue

C) Gastrectomy

D) Peptic ulcer disease

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Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which patients are eligible to receive erythropoiesis stimulating agents? (Select all that apply.)

A) All patients with nonmyeloid malignancies who require transfusions

B) All patients with nonmyeloid malignancies whose chemotherapy is palliative

C) All patients whose goal of therapy is curative

D) All patients with nonmyeloid malignancies and chemotherapy-induced anemia

E) All patients with leukemias or myeloid malignancies

Q2) A prescriber has ordered filgrastim (granulocyte colony-stimulating factor)for a patient undergoing myelosuppressive chemotherapy. The nurse will prepare the patient for which potential side effect?

A) Bone pain

B) Fatigue

C) Headache

D) Hemorrhage

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Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus

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17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8450

Sample Questions

Q1) Insulin glargine is prescribed for a hospitalized patient who has diabetes. When will the nurse expect to administer this drug?

A) Approximately 15 to 30 minutes before each meal

B) In the morning and at 4:00 PM

C) Once daily at bedtime

D) After meals and at bedtime

Q2) A patient who has type 2 diabetes will begin taking glipizide [Glucotrol]. Which statement by the patient is concerning to the nurse?

A) "I will begin by taking this once daily with breakfast."

B) "It is safe to drink grapefruit juice while taking this drug."

C) "I may continue to have a glass of wine with dinner."

D) "I will need to check my blood sugar once daily or more."

Q3) A nurse is educating the staff nurses about ketoacidosis. To evaluate the group's understanding,the nurse asks,"Which sign or symptom would not be consistent with ketoacidosis?" The group gives which correct answer?

A) Blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL

B) Blood glucose level of 60 mg/dL

C) Acidosis

D) Ketones in the urine

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Page 59

Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders

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14 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is admitted to the hospital and will begin taking levothyroxine [Synthroid]. The nurse learns that the patient also takes warfarin [Coumadin]. The nurse will notify the provider to discuss ____ the ____ dose.

A) reducing; levothyroxine

B) reducing; warfarin

C) increasing; levothyroxine

D) increasing; warfarin

Q2) The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient recently diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The patient tells the nurse she does not want to take medications while she is pregnant.

What will the nurse explain to this patient?

A) Hypothyroidism is a normal effect of pregnancy and usually is of no consequence.

B) Neuropsychologic deficits in the fetus can occur if the condition is not treated.

C) No danger to the fetus exists until the third trimester.

D) Treatment is required only if the patient is experiencing symptoms.

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Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function

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13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of growth hormone and reconstitutes the medication. After adding the diluent,the nurse notices that the preparation is cloudy. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the drug as ordered.

B) Discard the drug and prepare another dose.

C) Notify the prescriber.

D) Shake the drug to dissipate the particles.

Q2) A male patient reports decreased libido and the nurse notes galactorrhea during a physical assessment. The nurse will report these findings to the provider and will anticipate an order for which medication?

A) Cabergoline

B) Conivaptan

C) Dopamine

D) Prolactin

Q3) What are the effects of prolactin secretion in males? (Select all that apply.)

A) Breast development

B) Decreased libido

C) Delayed puberty

D) Galactorrhea

E) Infertility

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Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex

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10 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is providing patient education to a patient who will begin taking fludrocortisone [Florinef] as adjunctive therapy to hydrocortisone. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I should move from sitting to standing slowly."

B) "I should report any swelling of my hands and feet."

C) "I should report weight loss to my provider."

D) "I should report excessive urine output."

Q2) A patient is given 1 mg of dexamethasone at 11:00 PM; a plasma cortisol level recorded at 8:00 PM the next day is normal. The nurse knows that this is an indication that the patient has what condition?

A) Addison's disease

B) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

C) Cushing's syndrome

D) Secondary adrenal insufficiency

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Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and

Noncontraceptive Applications

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8454

Sample Questions

Q1) A 50-year-old postmenopausal patient who has had a hysterectomy has moderate to severe vasomotor symptoms and is discussing estrogen therapy (ET)with the nurse. The patient is concerned about adverse effects of ET. The nurse will tell her that:

A) an estrogen-progesterone product will reduce side effects.

B) an intravaginal preparation may be best for her.

C) side effects of ET are uncommon among women her age.

D) transdermal preparations have fewer side effects.

Q2) A patient with osteopenia asks a nurse about the benefits of hormone therapy in preventing osteoporosis. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "Estrogen can help reverse bone loss."

B) "Hormone therapy increases bone resorption."

C) "Hormone therapy does not decrease fracture risk."

D) "When hormone therapy is discontinued, bone mass is quickly lost."

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63

Chapter 62: Birth Control

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17 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching an adolescent female patient about 28-day monophasic combination oral contraceptives. The provider has instructed the patient to begin taking the pills on the first Sunday after the onset of her next period. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) "If breakthrough spotting occurs, you should begin taking a new pack of pills."

B) "Protection from pregnancy will begin immediately."

C) "Use another form of contraception for the next month."

D) "You may take the pills at different times of day."

Q2) A patient has just purchased a 1-year supply of 28-day-cycle oral contraceptives. She tells the nurse she wishes she had planned things better,because she has calculated that her period will begin during her upcoming honeymoon. What will the nurse suggest?

A) She should discard the inert pills and start a new pack during the honeymoon.

B) She should discontinue the oral contraceptives and use an alternative form of birth control.

C) She should discuss a prescription for an extended-cycle product with her provider.

D) She should discuss DMPA (Depo-Provera) injections in addition to the OC with her provider.

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Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility

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11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient receiving menotropins [Repronex] for infertility comes to the clinic for evaluation on the ninth day of treatment. Her serum estrogen level is 200 pg/mL per maturing follicle. An ultrasound reveals that follicles have enlarged to 22 mm. The patient complains of left lower abdominal pain. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer human chorionic gonadotropin, because the ovary has ripened.

B) Assess for abdominal fullness and distension and auscultate lung sounds.

C) Inform the patient that the pain is associated with ovulation.

D) Recommend ibuprofen for pain and administer the next dose of menotropins.

Q2) A patient with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)asks the nurse what she can do to improve her chances of getting pregnant. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Clomiphene will help induce ovulation but will not treat the other symptoms of polycystic ovarian disease."

B) "If I lose weight, my infertility and irregular periods could resolve without medications."

C) "Metformin improves insulin sensitivity and reduces male hormone levels."

D) "Spironolactone, which reduces androgens and facial hair, is helpful if I'm trying to conceive."

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65

Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function

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12 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse provides teaching to a woman who is taking tranexamic acid [Lysteda] for menorrhagia. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I may experience back pain or muscle cramps while taking this drug."

B) "I may take two tablets 3 times daily for up to 5 days with each period."

C) "I should take an oral contraceptive to prevent pregnancy while taking this drug."

D) "I should take this medication with food to improve absorption of the drug."

Q2) A patient who has experienced preterm births with her previous two pregnancies will begin receiving hydroxyprogesterone caproate [Makena] to prevent preterm delivery with her current pregnancy. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about this drug?

A) "I should report any calf pain immediately."

B) "I will eventually learn to administer the injections of this drug myself."

C) "This drug may cause fluid retention and glucose intolerance."

D) "This medication must be given once a week until 37 weeks' gestation."

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66

Chapter 65: Androgens

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12 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 14-year-old male patient who plays football is admitted to the hospital. The nurse notes that the patient has short stature for his age according to a standard growth chart. The patient is muscular,has a deep voice,and needs to shave. The nurse notifies the provider of these findings. Which test will the nurse expect the provider to order?

A) Coagulation studies

B) Complete blood count (CBC) with differential C) Liver function tests and serum cholesterol

D) Serum glucose and hemoglobin A_1c

Q2) A nurse provides teaching for a female patient with anemia who has had cancer chemotherapy and who will begin treatment with testosterone. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Facial hair may develop with this drug but will go away over time."

B) "I may experience an increase in breast size while taking this drug."

C) "Testosterone may increase my high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol and reduce my low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol."

D) "Testosterone treats anemia by stimulating the synthesis of a renal hormone."

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Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign

Prostatic Hyperplasia

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of sildenafil [Viagra] for erectile dysfunction. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "If my erection lasts longer than 4 hours, I should contact my provider."

B) "I should not use nitroglycerin within 12 hours of using sildenafil."

C) "I should take this drug about 15 minutes before sexual activity."

D) "This drug may cause me to have an erection when I don't want one."

Q2) A nurse is obtaining a history from a patient who will receive tadalafil [Cialis] for erectile dysfunction. The patient reports that he expects to have sexual activity three or four times a week. What should the nurse tell the patient?

A) Adverse effects of tadalafil resolve more quickly than those of sildenafil.

B) There is an increased risk of priapism with frequent sexual activity.

C) He should take tadalafil 30 to 60 minutes before sexual activity.

D) He should talk to his provider about daily dosing of tadalafil.

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68

Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8460

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is reviewing the immune system with a group of nursing students. One student asks about the difference between cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity. What should the nurse reply?

A) "Humoral immunity does not involve helper T cells in the immune response."

B) "Humoral immunity does not have a role in hypersensitivity reactions."

C) "Humoral immunity requires cytolytic T cells that attack antigens directly."

D) "Humoral immunity uses cells produced by B lymphocytes in the immune response."

Q2) A nurse is teaching a nursing student about a specific acquired immunity system. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity are both types of specific acquired immune responses."

B) "Each exposure to an antigen causes a faster, more intense response."

C) "Immune responses occur only after exposure to a foreign substance."

D) "The skin is a factor in specific acquired immunity."

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69

Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization

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Sample Questions

Q1) The parent of a 2-month-old infant who has just received the first dose of DTaP asks the nurse about expected reactions to the vaccine. The nurse will respond by saying that:

A) "Mild reactions, including a low-grade fever, are common."

B) "Most children do not experience any reaction."

C) "Seizures are common and may require anticonvulsant medication."

D) "The most common reaction is a rash that develops into itchy vesicles."

Q2) A 3-year-old child who has asthma is in the clinic for a well-child checkup. The nurse notes that the child is up-to-date for the DTaP,Hepatitis A,Hepatitis B,and the MMR vaccines but has only had one each of the Hib,the Rotavirus,and the PCV13 vaccines. Which vaccine(s)will the nurse anticipate administering to this child?

A) Hib and Rotavirus vaccines

B) PCV13

C) PCV13 and Hib

D) Rotavirus

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Page 70

Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse provides teaching to a patient who has undergone kidney transplantation and will begin taking cyclosporine [Sandimmune],a glucocorticoid,and sirolimus [Rapamune]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I should take sirolimus at the same time as the cyclosporine."

B) "I will need to have my blood sugar checked regularly."

C) "I will need to take an antibiotic to prevent lung infections."

D) "Taking this combination of drugs lowers my risk of kidney damage."

Q2) A nursing student asks the nurse how antibodies provide immune suppression. The nurse responds by telling the student that antibodies:

A) block T-cell function.

B) boost immune responses.

C) reduce proliferation of B cells.

D) suppress interferon production.

Q3) The nurse knows that which immunosuppressants are among the most effective?

A) Azathioprine [Imuran] and everolimus [Zortress]

B) Cyclosporine [Sandimmune] and tacrolimus [Prograf]

C) Methotrexate [Rheumatrex] and muromonab-CD3 [Orthoclone OKT3]

D) Sirolimus [Rapamune] and methylprednisolone

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Chapter 70: Antihistamines

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has chronic allergies takes loratadine [Claritin] and develops a severe reaction to bee stings. The patient asks the nurse why the antihistamine did not prevent the reaction. What will the nurse say?

A) "Allergy symptoms that are severe are caused by mediators other than histamine."

B) "H₁ blockers do not prevent the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils."

C) "Second-generation H₁ blockers contain less active drug and do not work in severe reactions."

D) "Severe allergic reactions occur through actions on muscarinic receptors."

Q2) A patient has seasonal allergies and needs an antihistamine to control symptoms. The patient likes to have wine with dinner occasionally and wants to know which antihistamine will be the safest to take. The nurse will tell the patient to discuss which medication with the provider?

A) Cetirizine [Zyrtec]

B) Fexofenadine [Allegra]

C) Levocetirizine [Xyzal]

D) Loratadine [Claritin]

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Chapter

71:

Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors:

Nonsteroidal Anti-inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is providing teaching for an adult patient with arthritis who has been instructed to take ibuprofen [Motrin] for discomfort. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I may experience tinnitus with higher doses of this medication."

B) "I may take up to 800 mg 4 times daily for pain."

C) "I should limit alcohol intake to fewer than three drinks a day."

D) "I will take this medication with meals to help prevent stomach upset."

Q2) A pregnant patient in her third trimester asks the nurse whether she can take aspirin for headaches. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Aspirin is safe during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy."

B) "Aspirin may cause premature closure of the ductus arteriosus in your baby."

C) "Aspirin may induce premature labor and should be avoided in the third trimester."

D) "You should use a first-generation nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication."

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73

Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A woman who is breastfeeding is prescribed a low pharmacologic dose of a glucocorticoid and asks the nurse about potential effects on her infant. What will the nurse tell her about this medication?

A) "At this dose, the concentration in your breast milk is safe."

B) "Contact your provider to discuss lowering the dose."

C) "There will be reversible side effects for your baby."

D) "This drug is likely to cause growth retardation in your baby."

Q2) The prescriber orders 20 mg of hydrocortisone orally once each day. The nurse will make sure the drug is scheduled to be administered at what time?

A) 8:00 AM

B) 12:00 PM

C) 4:00 PM

D) 9:00 PM

Q3) Which disorders may be treated with glucocorticoids? (Select all that apply.)

A) Allergic rhinitis

B) Anaphylaxis

C) Bronchiolitis

D) Gout

E) Ulcerative colitis

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Page 74

Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is taking leflunomide [Arava] and an oral contraceptive. She tells the nurse she would like to get pregnant. What will the nurse tell her?

A) That leflunomide is not dangerous during the first trimester of pregnancy

B) That plasma levels of leflunomide will drop rapidly when she stops taking it

C) To ask her provider about an 11-day course of cholestyramine

D) To stop taking leflunomide when she stops using contraception

Q2) A nurse is discussing the administration of an intravenous infusion of rituximab (Rituxan)with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further education about the care of a patient receiving this drug?

A) "Angioedema and hypersensitivity may occur, but they are usually self-limiting and mild."

B) "I should be prepared to administer epinephrine, glucocorticoids, and oxygen if needed."

C) "I will administer an antihistamine and acetaminophen before beginning the infusion."

D) "I will monitor this patient's blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation closely."

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Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has had three gouty flare-ups in the past year. Which drug class will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) Colchicine

B) Glucocorticoids

C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

D) Urate-lowering drugs

Q2) A patient is being treated with warfarin [Coumadin] to prevent thrombus. The patient develops hyperuricemia,and the provider orders allopurinol [Zyloprim]. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss ____ the ____ dose.

A) increasing; allopurinol

B) increasing; warfarin

C) reducing; allopurinol

D) reducing; warfarin

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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone

Mineralization

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is providing education to a patient who will begin taking alendronate [Fosamax]. Which complication should the patient be instructed to report immediately?

A) Difficulty swallowing

B) Dizziness

C) Drowsiness

D) Pallor

Q2) A nurse is providing teaching for a patient with osteoporosis who has just switched from alendronate [Fosamax] to zoledronate [Reclast]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I will need to have blood tests periodically while taking this drug."

B) "I will only need a dose of this medication every 1 to 2 years."

C) "This drug is less likely to cause osteonecrosis of the jaw."

D) "This drug is only given intravenously."

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Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with asthma is admitted to an emergency department with a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute,a prolonged expiratory phase,tight wheezes,and an oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. The patient reports using fluticasone [Flovent HFA] 110 mcg twice daily and has used 2 puffs of albuterol [Proventil HFA],90 mcg/puff,every 4 hours for 2 days. The nurse will expect to administer which drug?

A) Four puffs of albuterol, oxygen, and intravenous theophylline

B) Intramuscular glucocorticoids and salmeterol by metered-dose inhaler

C) Intravenous glucocorticoids, nebulized albuterol and ipratropium, and oxygen

D) Intravenous theophylline, oxygen, and fluticasone (Flovent HFA) 220 mcg

Q2) A patient with asthma comes to a clinic for treatment of an asthma exacerbation. The patient's medication history lists an inhaled glucocorticoid,montelukast [Singulair],and a SABA as needed via MDI. The nurse assesses the patient and notes a respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute,a heart rate of 96 beats per minute,and an oxygen saturation of 95%. The nurse auscultates mild expiratory wheezes and equal breath sounds bilaterally. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the provider to request a systemic glucocorticoid.

B) Contact the provider to suggest using a long-acting beta₂agonist.

C) Evaluate the need for teaching about MDI use.

D) Question the patient about how much albuterol has been used.

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Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with allergic rhinitis is taking a compound product of loratadine/pseudoephedrine [Claritin-D] every 12 hours. The patient complains of insomnia. The nurse notes that the patient is restless and anxious. The patient's heart rate is 90 beats per minute,and the blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to:

A) discuss using an intranasal glucocorticoid and loratadine [Claritin].

B) report acute toxicity caused by pseudoephedrine.

C) suggest using an agent with a sympathomimetic drug only.

D) suggest using a topical decongestant to minimize systemic symptoms.

Q2) A child who has perennial allergic rhinitis has been using an intranasal glucocorticoid. The provider has ordered montelukast [Singulair] to replace the glucocorticoid,because the child has frequent nosebleeds. When teaching this child's parents about montelukast,the nurse will include which statement?

A) "Montelukast is also effective for treating infectious rhinitis."

B) "Montelukast may cause behavior changes in your child."

C) "Montelukast will treat both congestion and rhinitis."

D) "Montelukast works best when combined with a topical decongestant."

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Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student is caring for a patient who is taking sucralfate [Carafate] and ciprofloxacin [Cipro] to treat peptic ulcer disease. The student asks the nurse about the pharmacokinetics of sucralfate. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Sucralfate adheres to the ulcer and blocks the back-diffusion of hydrogen ions."

B) "Sucralfate and ciprofloxacin should be administered 1 hour apart."

C) "Sucralfate does not cause systemic side effects."

D) "Sucralfate has a moderate acid-neutralizing capacity."

Q2) An older adult patient with severe gastroesophageal reflux disease ( GERD )has had only minimal relief using a histamine₂-receptor antagonist ( H₂RA ). The patient is to begin taking omeprazole [Prilosec]. What will the nurse teach this patient?

A) A complete cure is expected with this medication.

B) Lifestyle changes can be as effective as medication therapy.

C) Long-term therapy may be needed.

D) The medication will be used until surgery can be performed.

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Chapter 79: Laxatives

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15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which condition would cause the nurse to withhold a PRN order for magnesium hydroxide?

A) Chronic renal failure

B) Cirrhosis

C) Hemorrhoids

D) Prostatitis

Q2) A patient is admitted with lower abdominal pain and nausea. The nurse performing the initial assessment notes that the patient's abdomen is distended and firm,and hypoactive bowel sounds are present. The patient has not had a stool for 3 days. The nurse will contact the provider,who will:

A) order a bulk-forming laxative.

B) order extra fluids and fiber.

C) perform diagnostic tests.

D) prescribe a cathartic laxative.

Q3) A nurse receives an order to administer castor oil to a patient. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A) Administer the medication at bedtime.

B) Chill the medication and mix it with fruit juice.

C) Provide teaching about home use of this medication.

D) Teach the patient that the effects will occur slowly.

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Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)is to begin taking oral metoclopramide [Reglan]. The patient asks the nurse about the medication. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "After 3 months, if the drug is not effective, you may need to increase the dose."

B) "Metoclopramide may cause hiccups, especially after meals."

C) "Serious side effects may occur but will stop when the drug is discontinued."

D) "You should take the drug 30 minutes before each meal and at bedtime."

Q2) A nurse explains to a nursing student why opioid antidiarrheal medications are classified as drugs with little or no abuse potential. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Formulations for the treatment of diarrhea have very short half-lives."

B) "Opioid antidiarrheal drugs contain other drugs with unpleasant side effects at higher doses."

C) "Some opioid antidiarrheal drugs do not cross the blood-brain barrier."

D) "Some opioid antidiarrheal medications are not water soluble and cannot be given parenterally."

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Chapter 81: Vitamins

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is known to be a heavy drinker is brought to the emergency department with ataxia and confusion. The patient cannot remember the events of the previous day. The examination reveals nystagmus,and the patient reports having double vision. The nurse will expect to administer which vitamin to this patient?

A) Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) IV

B) Intramuscular pyridoxine (vitamin B₆)

C) Intravenous thiamine (vitamin B₁)

D) Nicotinic acid (niacin) PO

Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient who is malnourished and has a history of poor nutrition. The patient reports difficulty seeing at night. This patient is likely to be deficient in which fat-soluble vitamin?

A) A (retinol)

B) D

C) E (alpha-tocopherol)

D) K

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Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss

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13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A female patient with diabetes who is obese will begin taking lorcaserin [Belviq] to help with weight loss. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this drug?

A) "This drug is safe to take if you become pregnant."

B) "This drug does not have serious adverse effects."

C) "You may need to check your blood glucose levels more often."

D) "You will need to increase your insulin dose to prevent hyperglycemia."

Q2) A patient will begin taking phentermine and topiramate [Osymia] to help with weight loss and asks the nurse why the second ingredient is necessary. Which is the correct response by the nurse?

A) "Topiramate helps reduce the risk of seizures that can occur with phentermine."

B) "Topiramate helps produce feelings of satiety to augment the drug effects."

C) "Topiramate increases the appetite suppression caused by phentermine."

D) "Topiramate increases the rate of weight loss by acting as a stimulant."

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84

Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A child has received amoxicillin [Amoxil] for three previous ear infections,but a current otitis media episode is not responding to treatment. The nurse caring for this child suspects that resistance to the bacterial agent has occurred by which microbial mechanism?

A) Alteration of drug target molecules

B) Antagonist production

C) Drug inactivation

D) Reduction of drug concentration at the site of action

Q2) A nursing student asks a nurse to clarify the differences between the mechanisms of spontaneous mutation and conjugation in acquired resistance of microbes. What will the nurse say?

A) Conjugation results in a gradual increase in resistance.

B) Conjugation results in random changes in the microbe's DNA.

C) Spontaneous mutation leads to resistance to only one antimicrobial agent.

D) Spontaneous mutation can transfer DNA from one organism to another.

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Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I:

Penicillins

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which organisms can be treated with penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin)? (Select all that apply.)

A) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

B) Neisseria meningitidis

C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D) Streptococcus pyogenes

E) Treponema pallidum

Q2) A child with otitis media has had three ear infections in the past year. The child has just completed a 10-day course of amoxicillin [Amoxil] with no improvement. The parent asks the nurse why this drug is not working,because it has worked in the past. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) "Amoxicillin is too narrow in spectrum."

B) "The bacteria have developed a three-layer cell envelope."

C) "The bacteria have developed penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) that have a low affinity for penicillins."

D) "The bacteria have synthesized penicillinase."

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Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall II:

Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, and Fosfomycin

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient receiving a cephalosporin develops a secondary intestinal infection caused by Clostridium difficile. What is an appropriate treatment for this patient?

A) Adding an antibiotic, such as vancomycin [Vancocin], to the patient's regimen

B) Discontinuing the cephalosporin and beginning metronidazole [Flagyl]

C) Discontinuing all antibiotics and providing fluid replacement

D) Increasing the dose of the cephalosporin and providing isolation measures

Q2) A patient has a skin infection and the culture reveals methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). What is an appropriate treatment for this patient?

A) Cefaclor

B) Cefazolin

C) Cefotaxime

D) Ceftaroline

Q3) A provider has ordered ceftriaxone 4 gm once daily for a patient with renal impairment. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the medication as prescribed.

B) Contact the provider to ask about giving the drug in divided doses.

C) Discuss increasing the interval between doses with the provider.

D) Discuss reducing the dose with the provider.

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Chapter 86: Bacteriostatic Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis:

Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others

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21 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which infection(s)may be treated with linezolid [Zyvox])? (Select all that apply.)

A) Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) that is penicillin sensitive

B) Nosocomial pneumonia caused by methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA)

C) Pneumonias caused by Mycoplasma avium

D) Superficial methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus skin infections (MRSA)

E) Vancomycin-resistant infections

Q2) A patient is diagnosed with periodontal disease,and the provider orders oral doxycycline [Periostat]. The patient asks the purpose of the drug. What is the nurse's response?

A) "It is used because of its anti-inflammatory effects."

B) "It inhibits collagenase to protect connective tissue in the gums."

C) "It reduces bleeding and the pocket depth of oral lesions."

D) "It suppresses bacterial growth in the oral mucosa."

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Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is reviewing the culture results of a patient receiving an aminoglycoside. The report reveals an anaerobic organism as the cause of infection. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the provider to discuss an increased risk of aminoglycoside toxicity.

B) Continue giving the aminoglycoside as ordered.

C) Request an order for a different class of antibiotic.

D) Suggest adding a penicillin to the patient's drug regimen.

Q2) A patient shows signs and symptoms of conjunctivitis. Which aminoglycoside would the nurse expect to be ordered?

A) Amikacin [Amikin]

B) Kanamycin [Kantrex]

C) Neomycin [Neomycin]

D) Paromomycin [Humatin]

Q3) A patient is receiving tobramycin 3 times daily. The provider has ordered a trough level with the 8:00 AM dose. The nurse will ensure that the level is drawn at what time?

A) 4:00 AM

B) 7:00 AM

C) 7:45 AM

D) 8:45 AM

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Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is taking immunosuppressant medications develops a urinary tract infection. The causative organism is sensitive to sulfonamides and to another,more expensive antibiotic. The prescriber orders the more expensive antibiotic. The nursing student assigned to this patient asks the nurse why the more expensive antibiotic is being used. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Immunosuppressed patients are folate deficient."

B) "Patients who are immunosuppressed are more likely to develop resistance."

C) "Sulfonamides are bacteriostatic and depend on host immunity to work."

D) "Sulfonamides intensify the effects of immunosuppression."

Q2) A nurse is discussing microbial resistance among sulfonamides and trimethoprim with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Bacterial resistance to trimethoprim is relatively uncommon."

B) "Resistance among gonococci, streptococci, and meningococci to sulfonamides is high."

C) "Resistance to both agents can occur by spontaneous mutation of organisms."

D) "Resistance to sulfonamides is less than resistance to trimethoprim."

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Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pregnant patient with fever,flank pain,and chills has a history of two previous bladder infections before getting pregnant. She is allergic to several antibiotics. She reports having taken methenamine successfully in the past. What will the nurse tell her?

A) "This agent is not effective against infections of the upper urinary tract."

B) "This antiseptic agent is safe for use during pregnancy and has no drug resistance."

C) "This drug is linked to many serious birth defects and is not recommended during pregnancy."

D) "You will need to take this medication with meals to avoid gastric upset."

Q2) The parent of a 5-year-old child who has had four urinary tract infections in the past year asks the nurse why the provider doesn't just order an antibiotic for the child's current symptoms of low-grade fever,flank pain,and dysuria since these are similar symptoms as before. Which is the most important reason given by the nurse?

A) "Your child may need to be hospitalized for treatment."

B) "Your child may need a urine culture before and after treatment."

C) "Your child may need tests to assess for urinary tract abnormalities."

D) "Your child may need additional medications, such as urinary tract antiseptics."

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Chapter

Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium avium Complex

Infection

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is about to begin treatment for latent tuberculosis with a short course of daily rifampin. The patient asks why rifapentine [Priftin] cannot be used,because it can be given twice weekly. What will the nurse tell this patient about rifapentine?

A) It is more toxic than rifampin.

B) It is not approved for treatment of latent TB.

C) It is not well absorbed and thus not as effective.

D) It will stain contact lenses orange.

Q2) Which patient should begin treatment for tuberculosis?

A) A patient with HIV and a tuberculin skin test result of a 4-mm region of induration

B) A recent immigrant from a country with a high prevalence of TB with a 10-mm region of induration

C) A patient with no known risk factors who has a job-related tuberculin skin test result of a 12-mm area of induration

D) An intravenous drug abuser with a tuberculin skin test result of a 5-mm region of induration

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Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:

Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which fluoroquinolone antibiotics may be administered to children? (Select all that apply.)

A) Ciprofloxacin [Cipro]

B) Levofloxacin [Levaquin]

C) Moxifloxacin [Avelox]

D) Norfloxacin [Noroxin]

E) Ofloxacin

Q2) A patient who is taking calcium supplements receives a prescription for ciprofloxacin [Cipro] for a urinary tract infection. The nurse will teach this patient to:

A) consume extra fluids while taking the ciprofloxacin to prevent hypercalciuria.

B) stop taking the calcium supplements while taking the ciprofloxacin.

C) take the two medications together to increase the absorption of both.

D) take the calcium either 6 hours before or 2 hours after taking the ciprofloxacin.

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Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is receiving intravenous voriconazole [Vfend]. Shortly after the infusion starts,the patient tells the nurse,"Colors look different,and the light hurts my eyes." What will the nurse do?

A) Observe the patient closely for the development of hallucinations.

B) Reassure the patient that these effects will subside in about 30 minutes.

C) Stop the infusion and notify the provider of CNS toxicity.

D) Tell the patient that this is an irreversible effect of the drug.

Q2) A patient is being treated for a systemic fungal infection with amphotericin B [Abelcet] and will be discharged home from the hospital to complete every other day infusions of the medication for 6 to 8 weeks. The nurse provides discharge teaching before dismissal. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I may experience headaches and pain in my lower back, legs, and abdomen."

B) "I may need to take potassium supplements while taking this drug."

C) "I should take acetaminophen and diphenhydramine before each infusion."

D) "I will need to have blood drawn for serum creatinine and BUN levels every 3 to 4 days."

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Chapter 93: Antiviral Agents I: Drugs for Non-HIV Viral

Infections

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Sample Questions

Q1) A male patient with hepatitis C will begin triple drug therapy with pegylated interferon alfa 2a [Pegasys],ribavirin [Ribasphere],and boceprevir [Victrelis]. The patient tells the nurse that his wife is pregnant. What will the nurse tell him?

A) Boceprevir is contraindicated in males whose partners are pregnant.

B) He should use a barrier contraceptive when having sex.

C) He should use dual drug therapy with pegylated interferon alfa and ribavirin only.

D) This combination drug therapy is safe for him to use.

Q2) A nurse provides teaching for a patient with cytomegalovirus (CMV)retinitis who will receive the ganciclovir ocular implant [Vitrasert]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "My vision may be blurred for 2 to 4 weeks after receiving the implant."

B) "Surgical placement of the implant is an outpatient procedure."

C) "The implant will remain in place permanently."

D) "The implant will slow progression of CMV retinitis."

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Chapter 94: Antiviral Agents II: Drugs for HIV Infection and Related Opportunistic Infections

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is preparing to discharge a patient with HIV who will continue to take enfuvirtide [Fuzeon] at home. The nurse is providing patient education about the medication. What information about the administration of enfuvirtide is most appropriate for the patient?

A) The importance of injecting the drug into two alternating sites daily

B) How to reconstitute and self-administer a subcutaneous injection

C) The importance of taking the drug with high doses of vitamin E

D) Likely drug interactions between enfuvirtide and other antiretroviral drugs

Q2) A patient who is taking nelfinavir [Viracept] calls the nurse to report moderate to severe diarrhea. What will the nurse expect the provider to recommend?

A) An over-the-counter antidiarrheal drug

B) Immediate discontinuation of the nelfinavir

C) Reducing the dose of nelfinavir by half

D) Taking the nelfinavir with food to avoid side effects

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Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient complains of painful urination. A physical examination reveals vesicles on her labia,vagina,and the foreskin of her clitoris. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about which medication?

A) Acyclovir [Zovirax]

B) Azithromycin [Zithromax]

C) Metronidazole [Flagyl]

D) Tinidazole [Tindamax]

Q2) A patient is diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Which treatment regimen is most appropriate for reducing the risk of sterility in this patient?

A) Azithromycin [Zithromax], 1 gm PO once, and cefoxitin, 2 gm IM once in the clinic

B) Ceftriaxone [Rocephin], 250 mg IM once, with doxycycline [Vibramycin], 100 mg PO twice daily for 14 days as an outpatient

C) Doxycycline [Vibramycin], 100 mg IV twice daily, and cefoxitin, 2 gm IV every 6 hours in the hospital

D) Doxycycline [Vibramycin], 100 mg PO twice daily for 14 days, and metronidazole [Flagyl], 500 mg PO twice daily for 14 days in the hospital

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Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a nursing student how to care for patients in the perioperative period. Which statement by the student about preventing postoperative infections indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Applying hexachlorophene to the operative site preoperatively will help prevent infection."

B) "It is important to ensure that all surgical instruments have been sterilized appropriately."

C) "Operating room personnel should all perform a presurgical scrub with antimicrobial soap."

D) "Preventing contamination by microorganisms in the environment is the most important perioperative measure."

Q2) Which compound can be used to treat localized skin infections and to irrigate wounds?

A) Benzalkonium chloride (BAC)

B) Hexachlorophene (pHisoHex)

C) Oxychlorosene sodium (Clorpactin WCS90)

D) Sodium hypochlorite

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Chapter 97: Anthelmintics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is being treated with albendazole [Albenza] for neurocysticercosis caused by larval forms of the pork tapeworm. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about the drug regimen?

A) "I may need to take this medication for a month before the infestation is cleared."

B) "I should take this drug with a fatty meal to improve absorption."

C) "I will need to have liver function tests before and during treatment."

D) "I will take the drug in 3 consecutive cycles of 28 days, followed by 14 drug-free days."

Q2) A young female patient is seen in a rural clinic after complaining of abdominal pain. The patient is wearing dirty clothing and is barefoot. The provider orders a complete blood count,which shows that the patient is anemic. The nurse may suspect that this patient has which of the following infestations?

A) Ancylostomiasis (hookworm)

B) Ascariasis (giant roundworm)

C) Enterobiasis (pinworm)

D) Trichuriasis (whipworm)

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99

Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which are adverse effects of quinine [Qualaquin]? (Select all that apply.)

A) Cinchonism

B) Hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency

C) Increased ventricular rate

D) Nightmares

E) Prolonged QT interval

Q2) A patient has severe P. falciparum malaria and is unable to tolerate oral medications. Which regimen is the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved treatment of choice for this patient?

A) Intravenous quinidine gluconate plus intravenous doxycycline [Vibramycin]

B) Intravenous artesunate followed by atovaquone/proguanil [Malarone]

C) Intravenous quinine [Qualaquin] plus intravenous clindamycin

D) Intravenous mefloquine plus intravenous primaquine

Q3) A patient who takes imipramine has a moderate infection with P. vivax that is chloroquine resistant. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order?

A) Artemether/lumefantrine [Coartem]

B) Atovaquone/proguanil [Malarone]

C) Artesunate

D) Quinine

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Page 100

Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs II: Miscellaneous Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with severe symptomatic intestinal amebiasis who has just completed a 10-day course of metronidazole [Flagyl]. Which medication would the nurse expect to be ordered for the patient?

A) Atovaquone [Mepron]

B) Iodoquinol [Yodoxin]

C) Nitazoxanide [Alinia]

D) Pentamidine [Pentam]

Q2) A child is diagnosed with cryptosporidiosis,and the prescriber orders nitazoxanide [Alinia]. While preparing the child's parents to administer this drug,the nurse will:

A) determine whether the child is taking immunosuppressant medications.

B) instruct the family to have the child take the drug on an empty stomach.

C) teach the parents that yellow discoloration of the sclerae represents a serious side effect.

D) tell the parents that headache, dry mouth, and a metallic taste are common.

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Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students how to examine children in a day care center for pediculus humanus capitis (head lice). Which statement by a student indicates understanding of this teaching?

A) "Adult lice are easily visible on the hair shaft."

B) "Children from lower socioeconomic families are more likely to have lice."

C) "I may observe hives, boils, and impetigo on the child's scalp if lice are present."

D) "I should be careful to prevent the lice from jumping into my hair."

Q2) A parent has been instructed to apply a combination product of pyrethrins with piperonyl butoxide [RID] to treat head lice in a child. The parent asks the nurse why it is necessary to repeat the application in 9 days. The nurse will respond by telling the parent that:

A) a second treatment helps combat medication resistance.

B) the dose needed to kill lice is too toxic to use all at once.

C) the combination is active only against adult lice and not ova.

D) the second dose helps rid the hair of nits and ova.

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Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A hospitalized patient with cancer is receiving chemotherapy and reports oral pain. Inspection of this patient's oral mucosa reveals erythema and inflammation without denudation or ulceration. The nurse understands that:

A) chemotherapy will have to be stopped until healing of the oral mucosa occurs.

B) the patient can use a mouthwash with a topical anesthetic to control pain.

C) the patient will need an antifungal agent to treat Candida albicans.

D) the patient will need systemic opioids to control discomfort.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about cancer treatment. Which statement by a student indicates an understanding of the characteristics of cancer cells?

A) "Cancer cells are characterized by unrestrained growth and division."

B) "Division of cancer cells is characteristically rapid."

C) "Malignant cells of solid tumors do not invade other tissues."

D) "Telomerase is an enzyme produced by cancer cells that promotes metastases."

Q3) These patients are receiving chemotherapy. Which patient should the nurse see first?

A) The patient with lightly bleeding gums

B) The patient with nausea and vomiting

C) The patient with a fever of 100.3°F

D) The patient with diarrhea and stomatitis

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Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse provides teaching to a patient who will begin taking oral cyclophosphamide to treat non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding about how to minimize side effects while taking this drug?

A) "I don't need to worry about bone marrow suppression with this drug."

B) "I should drink plenty of fluids while taking this drug."

C) "I should take this drug on an empty stomach."

D) "If I shampoo less often, I can prevent hair loss."

Q2) A nurse is discussing vesicant chemotherapeutic agents with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching about this type of drug?

A) "Extravasation of this type of drug may result in the need for skin grafts."

B) "If an IV line used for a vesicant drug infiltrates, it must be discontinued immediately."

C) "These drugs may be administered orally as well as intravenously."

D) "This type of drug may not be infused at a site of previous irradiation."

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Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs II: Hormonal Agents,

Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)begins treatment with imatinib [Gleevec]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this medication?

A) "Resistance to this drug may develop over time."

B) "The intensity of side effects is dose dependent."

C) "This drug does not have significant drug interactions."

D) "This drug must be given intravenously."

Q2) A 43-year-old patient with a strong family history of breast cancer considers taking tamoxifen [Nolvadex] for cancer prevention. Which assessment finding is a possible contraindication?

A) History of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

B) History of osteoporosis

C) Hyperlipidemia

D) Prior hysterectomy

Q3) The nurse would be correct to state that the purpose of angiogenesis inhibitors is to:

A) kill existing cancer cells directly.

B) suppress the formation of new blood vessels in tumors.

C) enhance the size of collateral vessels.

D) enhance red cell development in the bone marrow.

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Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8497

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is reviewing personal knowledge of the medications used in the treatment of open-angle glaucoma. The nurse would be correct to identify which medication(s)as treatment? (Select all that apply.)

A) Alpha₂ agonists

B) Prostaglandin analogs

C) Anticholinergics

D) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

E) Beta blockers

Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who will begin using a fixed-dose preparation of dorzolamide and timolol [Cosopt] for open-angle glaucoma. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Blurred vision, tearing, or eye dryness may occur with this medication."

B) "I may experience a bitter taste in my mouth after instilling these eye drops."

C) "I will need to instill two eye drops 3 times daily in each eye."

D) "If I notice redness in my eyes or eyelids, I should stop using these drops."

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106

Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8498

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will begin initial treatment for severe acne. Which regimen will the nurse expect the provider to order?

A) Clindamycin/benzoyl peroxide [BenzaClin] and tretinoin [Retin-A]

B) Doxycycline [Vibramycin] and tretinoin [Retin-A]

C) Erythromycin [Ery-Tab) and benzoyl peroxide

D) Topical clindamycin and isotretinoin [Accutane]

Q2) A patient is using a high-concentration keratolytic agent containing 20% salicylic acid to remove warts. What will the nurse teach this patient?

A) Peeling and drying are desired effects of this drug.

B) Systemic effects may occur with this medication.

C) Tinnitus is a common side effect of little concern.

D) Tissue injury is unlikely at this dose.

Q3) A nurse is teaching a group of lifeguards about safe sunning. Which statement by a lifeguard indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Sunscreen should be applied 30 minutes before going outside."

B) "I do not need sunscreen when it is cloudy outside."

C) "I should reapply sunscreen after swimming."

D) "UV radiation does not penetrate through water."

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Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8499

Sample Questions

Q1) A 2-year-old child is seen in the clinic in July with otalgia,erythematous,bulging tympanic membranes (TMs); and rupture of the right TM. The child also has a temperature of 39.4°C. The child's parent tells the nurse,"This is the fifth ear infection this year. What can we do?" The nurse will expect the provider to:

A) administer ceftriaxone [Rocephin] IM and give the influenza vaccine.

B) begin prophylactic antibiotic therapy with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Septra].

C) prescribe amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin] and refer the child to an otolaryngologist.

D) prescribe high-dose amoxicillin [Amoxil] and administer the influenza vaccine.

Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with fungal otitis externa (otomycosis). The nurse correctly explains that for the first course of treatment the patient should expect:

A) acidifying drops for 1 week.

B) antibiotic ear drops.

C) intravenous (IV) antifungal agents.

D) oral antibiotics.

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Chapter 107: Additional Noteworthy Drugs

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10 Verified Questions

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8500

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a history of heart disease develops pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH),and the provider is considering prescribing sildenafil [Revatio]. The nurse caring for this patient will perform a careful drug history and notify the provider if the patient is taking which medication?

A) A beta blocker

B) A calcium channel blocker

C) Nitroglycerin

D) Warfarin

Q2) A nurse counsels a patient who is to begin taking gamma-hydroxybutyrate [Xyrem] for narcolepsy. It is important for the nurse to warn the patient that respiratory depression is a potential risk with concomitant use of:

A) alcohol.

B) beta blockers.

C) caffeine.

D) nicotine.

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109

Chapter 108: Dietary Supplements

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8501

Sample Questions

Q1) Which claim may be made by manufacturers of dietary supplements? (Select all that apply.)

A) "Energizes and rejuvenates"

B) "Promotes pulmonary health"

C) "Reduces pain and stiffness from arthritis"

D) "Reduces stress"

E) "Relieves hot flashes associated with menopause"

Q2) A nurse is performing a preoperative drug history on a patient who is admitted to the hospital for surgery. To evaluate the risk of hemorrhage,the nurse will ask the patient about antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications as well as which dietary supplement?

A) Coenzyme Q-10

B) Ginkgo biloba

C) Ma Huang (ephedra)

D) St. John's wort

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Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning

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11 Verified Questions

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8502

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient overdosed on aspirin several hours ago and is brought to the emergency department. The nurse assists with supportive care and then asks the provider about an order for which drug?

A) Activated charcoal

B) Ammonium chloride

C) Fomepizole [Antizol]

D) Sodium bicarbonate

Q2) A prescriber has ordered deferasirox [Exjade] to treat iron overload associated with chronic blood transfusions. The nurse learns that the patient takes cholestyramine to reduce cholesterol. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order to:

A) increase the cholestyramine dose.

B) increase the deferasirox dose.

C) monitor cholesterol levels.

D) monitor liver function tests.

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Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8503

Sample Questions

Q1) A member of a community disaster response team received the smallpox vaccine 3 weeks ago and sees a nurse for a follow-up appointment. The nurse examines the area and should expect to see a:

A) necrotic vesicle.

B) small area of scarification.

C) small, fluid-filled blister.

D) red bump.

Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving an infusion of botulinum antitoxin after consuming botulinum toxin in contaminated food. The patient has developed double vision,slurred speech,and upper body muscle weakness. The patient's spouse asks the nurse what the antitoxin will do. Which response is correct?

A) "The antitoxin is an antidote to the botulinum toxin."

B) "This medication helps restore strength in weakened muscles."

C) "This infusion will help prevent further nerve damage."

D) "The antitoxin will reverse the symptoms within a couple of days."

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