Nursing Care of Adults Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Nursing Care of Adults focuses on the foundational theories, principles, and skills necessary for providing comprehensive nursing care to adult patients across the lifespan. The course covers assessment techniques, common medical-surgical conditions, evidence-based interventions, and individualized care planning while emphasizing the promotion of health, prevention of illness, and management of chronic and acute health issues. Students will develop critical thinking, communication, and clinical reasoning abilities through a combination of didactic instruction, case studies, and hands-on clinical experiences in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Nursing Skills and Techniques 8th Edition by
Anne Griffin Perry
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44 Chapters
1316 Verified Questions
1316 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Using Evidence in Nursing Practice
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evidence-based practice is a problem-solving approach to making decisions about patient care that is grounded in:
A)the latest information found in textbooks.
B)systematically conducted research studies.
C)tradition in clinical practice.
D)quality improvement and risk management data.
Answer: B
Q2) Six months after an early mobility protocol was implemented, the incidence of deep vein thrombosis in patients was decreased.This is an example of what stage in the EBP process?
A)Asking a clinical question
B)Applying the evidence
C)Evaluating the practice decision
D)Communicating your results
Answer: C
Q3) __________________ are the gold standard for research.
Answer: Randomized controlled trials
Individual randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are the gold standard for research (Titler and others, 2001).An RCT establishes cause and effect and is excellent for testing therapies.
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Chapter 2: Admitting, Transfer, and Discharge
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is being transferred from the emergency department to another institution for treatment.Which of the following cannot be delegated to nursing assistive personnel (NAP)?
A)Helping the patient get dressed
B)Gathering IV equipment to go with the patient
C)Escorting the patient to the transport area
D)Assessing the patient's respiratory status before transport
Answer: D
Q2) Once a patient's discharge has been completed, which activity may be delegated to assistive personnel?
A)Provision of prescriptions to the patient
B)Completion of the discharge summary
C)Gathering of the patient's personal care items
D)Provision of instructions on community health resources
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Communication
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which behavior should the nurse who is communicating with a potentially violent patient employ?
A)Sit closer to the patient.
B)Speak loudly and firmly.
C)Use slow, deliberate gestures.
D)Always block the door to prevent escape.
Answer: C
Q2) In caring for patients of different cultures, it is important for the nurse to: (Select all that apply.)
A)use appropriate linguistic services.
B)display empathy and respect.
C)use accurate health history-taking techniques.
D)use patient-centered communication.
E)None of above
Answer: A, B, C, D
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Chapter 4: Documentation and Informatics
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is a 24-year-old man who is diagnosed with possible HIV infection while being treated for active pneumonia.He has stated that the nurse may share test result information with his significant other but nothing else at this time.With whom may the nurse communicate regarding this information?
A)The patient's parents
B)The patient's significant other only
C)No one in the hospital until the patient says so
D)The patient's physician, significant other, and laboratory personnel
Q2) ___________________ provide a format for documenting a patient's health status and progress.
Q3) The patient is ready to go home from the hospital.What does the nurse provide to the patient and his family before he leaves the facility?
A)Discharge summary
B)Standardized care plan
C)Patient care summary
D)Flow sheet
Q4) Multidisciplinary care plans that include key interventions and expected outcomes within an established time frame are known as _______________.
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Chapter 5: Vital Signs
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should report an assessment of _____ respirations per minutes for a(n)
A)14; adult patient
B)16; 8-year-old patient
C)25; toddler
D)38; newborn
Q2) When the benefits of the different types of blood pressure monitoring devices are compared, which of the following patients would be the best candidate for noninvasive electronic blood pressure measurement?
A)A 49-year-old postsurgical patient with no history of heart disease on q15min vital signs
B)A 22-year-old patient undergoing active grand mal seizures
C)A 68-year-old patient with diagnosed peripheral vascular disease
D)A 54-year-old patient with chronic atrial fibrillation
Q3) What is a disadvantage of using the disposable sensor pad for pulse oximetry?
A)It is less restrictive.
B)It contains latex.
C)It is less expensive to use.
D)It is available in different sizes.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Health Assessment
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does a nurse appropriately measure intake and output?
A)Recording 50% of ice chip consumption
B)Checking urinary output every 24 hours
C)Emptying the chest tube drainage every 2 hours
D)Subtracting liquid medications from the total intake
Q2) When breast self-examination is done, it should be done once a month.For women who menstruate, the best time is ______________.
Q3) While performing a cardiovascular assessment on a patient with suspected left-sided congestive heart failure, the nurse is unable to palpate the PMI with the patient lying supine.What might her next step be?
A)Have the patient turn onto his left side.
B)Have the patient lean forward.
C)Have the patient move to a sitting position.
D)Palpate the PMI to the right of the midclavicular line.
Q4) The patient has been immobile at home after having had leg trauma in an automobile accident and is now being admitted with calf pain and localized swelling of the calf muscle.One test that is contraindicated in assessment of this patient is testing for _____________.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Medical Asepsis
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before entering the room of a patient on isolation where all protective barriers are required, the nurse first puts on the: A)gown.
B)gloves.
C)eyewear.
D)mask/respirator.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to provide care for the patient.Before making patient contact, she washes her hands.This practice is known as __________________.
Q3) The nurse is planning to care for a patient diagnosed with possible tuberculosis ( TB ).Assessment of possible TB may be based on which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)A positive AFB smear or culture
B)Signs or symptoms of TB
C)Cavitation on chest x-ray study
D)History of recent exposure
E)TB skin test
Q4) _______________, also known as sterile technique, includes procedures used to eliminate all microorganisms from an area.
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9
Chapter 8: Sterile Technique
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____________ is one practice designed to make and maintain objects and areas free from pathogenic microorganisms.
Q2) The nurse is applying for a job at a local hospital.She wants to look her best for the interview and decides to wear artificial nails.She does this knowing that artificial nails: A)are appropriate in the ICU setting as long as the nurse washes her hands frequently. B)can lead to fungal growth under the nail.
C)can actually lower the bacterial count on the hands because they cover the natural nail.
D)are banned only in areas where patients are critically ill.
Q3) Nurses commonly use surgical asepsis in which of the following situations? (Select all that apply.)
A)In labor and delivery areas
B)When inserting an intravenous catheter
C)When treating patients with surgical incisions or burns
D)When inserting a urinary catheter
E)When dressing a MRSA-positive wound
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Chapter 9: Safe Patient Handling, Transfer, and Positioning
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does a nurse move a patient who has been confined to bed for a few days slowly from a sitting to a standing position?
A)Fatigue
B)Muscle injury
C)Sensory disorientation
D)Orthostatic hypotension
Q2) The nurse prevents self-injury by using which of the following when transferring a patient? (Select all that apply.)
A)Correct posture
B)Maximal muscle strength
C)Effective body mechanics
D)Effective lifting techniques
Q3) The patient is immobile and is being placed in the supine position.To reduce extension of the fingers and abduction of the thumb, the nurse places _________________ in the patient's hands.
Q4) The term _____________ refers to the conditions of the joints, tendons, ligaments, and muscles in various body positions.
Q5) Awareness of posture and changes in equilibrium is known as _______________.
Q6) Body balance is achieved when a wide _____________ exists.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Exercise and Ambulation
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _________________ increase muscle tension but do not change the length of muscle fibers.
Q2) The patient is a paraplegic who possesses good arm and hand strength.When the following devices are compared, which would be most appropriate for this patient?
A)Axillary crutch
B)Platform crutch
C)Lofstrand crutch
D)Standard crook cane
Q3) The patient is performing ROM exercises independently.These are known as __________ exercises.
Q4) The patient is an elderly gentleman who has been on bed rest for the past several days.When getting the patient up, the nurse should:
A)tell the patient not to move his legs when dangling.
B)tell the patient to hold his breath while dangling.
C)raise the head of the bed and allow a few minutes before dangling.
D)have the patient stand without dangling.
Q5) Virchow's triad (hypercoagulability of blood, venous wall damage, and stasis of blood flow) has been found to contribute to ________________.
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Chapter 11: Orthopedic Measures
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While in Buck's extension traction, the patient may be positioned on the back:
A)with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees.
B)turning to the unaffected side for 10- to 15-minute periods.
C)with the buttocks slightly elevated off of the bed.
D)with the bed tilted toward the side that is opposite the traction.
Q2) ____________________ consists of a metal frame that secures pins inserted through the bone above and below the fracture site.It stabilizes a fracture with hardware visible outside the body.
Q3) The patient has fallen and broken her leg.To keep the leg bones aligned and to reduce muscle spasms, the physician orders the patient to be placed in
Q4) An appropriate technique for the nurse to implement for a patient who is being placed in traction is to:
A)apply a traction boot tightly.
B)drop the weights after the traction is attached.
C)assess neurovascular status every 1 to 2 hours for the first day.
D)shave the hair off the area where traction is to be placed.
Q5) _________________ may occur when pressure within a casted extremity increases.
Q6) An immobilization device used to immobilize and protect a body part is known as a ________.
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Chapter 12: Support Surfaces and Special Beds
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is admitted with a large stage IV pressure ulcer on his coccyx.After comparing the benefits of the following support surfaces, the nurse would choose which of the following as most appropriate for this patient?
A)Water mattress
B)Gel overlay
C)Foam overlay
D)Air-fluidized bed
Q2) What is the most important factor in preventing and treating pressure ulcers?
A)Proper use of foam or air mattresses
B)Proper utilization of an air-fluidized bed
C)Frequent repositioning of the patient
D)Proper use of a low-air-loss bed
Q3) The patient will be going home but still requires an air-fluidized bed.Before discharge, it will be necessary for the company that is leasing the bed to inspect the home for accessibility and ________________.
Q4) The _______________ bed rotates and improves skeletal alignment with constant side-to-side rotation up to 90 degrees.
Q5) Use of the bariatric bed is contraindicated in patients with ___________________.
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Chapter 13: Safety and Quality Improvement
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Upon entering the patient's room, the nurse sees a fire burning in the trash can next to the bed.The nurse removes the patient and reports the fire.What is the nurse's next action?
A)Extinguish the fire.
B)Remove all other patients from the unit.
C)Close all doors of patient rooms.
D)Move the trash can into the bathroom.
Q2) When applying a belt restraint to a patient, it is important for the nurse to:
A)apply the belt under the hospital gown.
B)place the restraint around the abdomen.
C)have the patient in a sitting position.
D)apply the belt as tightly as possible.
Q3) As part of an attempt to implement a restraint-free environment, the nurse:
A)provides constant activity for the patient.
B)covers or camouflages tubes and drains.
C)changes caregivers as often as possible.
D)reduces visiting hours and times in therapy.
Q4) It is important for nurses to understand what patients perceive as ___________ so that patients will become partners in programs to prevent them.
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Chapter 14: Disaster Preparedness
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An outbreak of an infectious disease such as SARS in many parts of the world is known as a ______________.
Q2) The patient is admitted to the emergency department with possible smallpox exposure.The patient has never had a smallpox immunization.The nurse prepares to administer a smallpox vaccination, realizing that vaccination:
A)within 3 days of exposure will completely prevent the disease.
B)is effective only if received before exposure.
C)4 to 7 days after exposure will completely prevent the disease.
D)within 3 days will offer only some protection from disease.
Q3) Which of the following should make the nurse suspect a biological event? (Select all that apply.)
A)Large numbers of ill persons with unexplained similar symptoms
B)Unexplained deaths among young and healthy populations
C)A patient population with symptoms suggestive of a common agent
D)An unusual geographical pattern associated with the symptoms
Q4) The dispersal of radioactive material via a "dirty bomb" or by deliberate contamination of food supplies or water supplies is known as a _________________.
Q5) It is recommended that every household prepare a ____________.
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Chapter 15: Pain Assessment and Basic Comfort Measures
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse checks the continuous IV infusion for the intraspinal analgesia.The IV setup should be changed if:
A)tubing with a Y-port is attached.
B)an infusion pump is attached.
C)the tubing connections are all taped.
D)a diluted, preservative-free medication is used.
Q2) The patient states that the PCA is not controlling his pain.The nurse checks the infusion setup and IV site and then evaluates the patient's ability to use the system.All looks in order.The nurse should notify the physician to: (Select all that apply.)
A)report suspected drug-seeking behavior.
B)possibly change the drug being used.
C)adjust the dosage of the drug being used.
D)request placebo medication to evaluate true pain.
Q3) Which of the following statements about evaluating patients in pain is true?
A)The best judge of the existence of pain is the nurse.
B)Visible signs always accompany pain.
C)Patients often are hesitant to report pain.
D)Nonpharmacological interventions are better than pain medications.
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Chapter 16: Palliative Care
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23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a patient in the final stages of dying, a nurse expects to:
A)keep the patient's room cool.
B)avoid catheterizing the patient.
C)elevate the head of the bed as tolerated.
D)encourage the patient to eat and drink more.
Q2) Nurses provide _______________ that is defined as care of the body after death in a manner consistent with the patient's religious and cultural beliefs.
Q3) The World Health Organization (2002) defines ___________ as an "approach that improves the quality of life of individuals and their families facing life-threatening illness, through the prevention and relief of suffering by means of early identification and impeccable assessment and treatment of pain and other physical, psychological, and spiritual problems."
Q4) _____________ helps people live as well as possible through the dying process.
Q5) A person experiences an actual _________ when an object or a person can no longer be felt, heard, or experienced.
Q6) ___________________ specify medical interventions that the patient does not want in certain situations, such as mechanical ventilation, and are used to communicate the care a patient wants, for example, pain relief to the fullest extent possible.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Personal Hygiene and Bed Making
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ____________ is the largest human organ.
Q2) Critically ill patients on a ventilator are at risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP).Sources of VAP include: (Select all that apply.)
A)bacteria in the oral pharynx.
B)dental plaque.
C)chlorhexidine rinses.
D)frequent oral hygiene.
Q3) The nurse plans to give the patient a therapeutic bath.Which of the following is considered therapeutic?
A)Bed bath
B)Sponge bath at the sink
C)Sitz bath
D)Bag bath
Q4) When bathing a patient, which sequence is the correct approach to use?
A)Wash the feet after the legs.
B)Wash the eyes after the face.
C)Wash the legs before the abdomen.
D)Wash the back area before the extremities.
Q5) _____________ is balding patches in the periphery of the hairline.
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Chapter 18: Pressure Ulcer Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) After teaching a home caregiver how to manage a pressure ulcer, the nurse realizes that further education is needed when the caregiver says:
A)"I will be sure to reposition her frequently and keep her off of the pressure ulcer."
B)"I will wash the pressure ulcer with saline and report any changes in the drainage."
C)"I know that a thick, black covering will protect the pressure ulcer from getting worse."
D)"I will let you know if the pressure ulcer starts to smell rotten."
Q2) The nurse is aware that pressure ulcers can occur: (Select all that apply.)
A)from any position that causes soft tissue compression.
B)because of lack of blood flow ( ischemia ).
C)only in bedbound patients.
D)in as little as 90 minutes.
Q3) In a patient with a stage II pressure ulcer, the nurse describes the wound as:
A)superficial blistering.
B)nonblanchable redness.
C)loss of skin without bone exposure.
D)loss of skin with exposed muscle.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Care of the Eye and Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse decides that assistive personnel can provide care to a patient with contact lenses when the assistive personnel states:
A)"If I am in a hurry, I will use tap water for rinsing the lenses."
B)"Gloves aren't necessary; the eye is a clean organ."
C)"I will check with the patient to see if the lenses are disposable."
D)"It is normal for contact lens wearers to have red, teary eyes."
Q2) In caring for a patient with contact lenses, the nurse should be aware that:
A)rigid gas-permeable (RGP) lenses are no longer used.
B)soft contact lenses are smaller than the cornea.
C)all lenses must be removed periodically.
D)extended wear lenses can be used for only 6 nights.
Q3) The patient is brought to the emergency department after receiving a chemical burn to his eyes.The doctor orders immediate eye irrigations.Of the following solutions, which would be the most beneficial for this patient?
A)Lactated Ringer's solution
B)Normal saline
C)Tap water
D)Dextrose and water
Q4) ____________ is the complete surgical removal of the eyeball.
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Chapter 20: Safe Medication Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse administers a medication to the wrong patient but the patient suffers no harm from the medication error.What actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
A)Prepare a written incident report.
B)Document in the nurses' notes that an incident report was completed.
C)Report the incident to a manager only if the patient is harmed.
D)Notify the prescriber.
Q2) The prescriber orders 3 mg/kg/d of a medication to be given in 3 equal doses.The patient weighs 44 pounds.The nurse calculates that the proper amount per dose is
Q3) The nurse receives an order to give a drug parenterally.The nurse will administer this medication by which route?
A)Oral
B)Topical
C)Sublingual
D)Intramuscular
Q4) A medication distribution system that uses individual patient drawers and whereby medication is packaged according to what the patient would receive at one time is known as the _______ system.
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Chapter 21: Oral and Topical Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is to administer several medications to a patient via a nasogastric (NG) tube.What should the nurse do first?
A)Add the medications to the tube feeding being given.
B)Crush all tablets and capsules before administration.
C)Administer all of the medications mixed together.
D)Check for placement of the NG tube.
Q2) Handheld devices that deliver inhaled medication in a fine powder to penetrate lung airways are known as ___________.
Q3) The nurse is administering a beta-adrenergic medication via a small-volume nebulizer.Which assessment finding requires the nurse to withhold the medication immediately?
A)Episodes of coughing
B)Rapid and shallow respirations
C)Wheezing noted on auscultation of the lungs
D)Irregular pulse with light-headedness
Q4) The easiest and most desirable way to administer medications is via the _________ route.
Q5) Handheld devices that disperse medications through an aerosol spray or mist to penetrate lung airways are known as ___________.
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Chapter 22: Parenteral Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) While checking the patient's intravenous (IV) site, the nurse notices that the site is cool, pale, and swollen.She immediately stops the IV infusion, realizing that these are signs indicating _____________.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer an immunization to a toddler.Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A)Grasp the body of the muscle during injection.
B)Place one hand above the knee and one below the knee to find the site.
C)Have the patient's knee flexed with the foot internally rotated.
D)Ask the mother to hold the toddler on his side.
Q3) The patient is complaining of tenderness at his intravenous (IV) insertion site.The nurse examines the site and notices that the site is swollen, warm, and reddened.The nurse stops the intravenous infusion, realizing that the patient has ________________.
Q4) The nurse is preparing to administer a medication using a volume-controlled administration set or Volutrol.Which action should the nurse do first?
A)Open the clamp between the Volutrol and the main IV bag.
B)Open the air vent on the Volutrol.
C)Inject the medication into the Volutrol.
D)Clean the injection port on top of the Volutrol.
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Chapter 23: Oxygen Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is on mechanical ventilation.Which actions by the nurse are appropriate? (Select all that apply.)
A)Keep the patient in a supine position.
B)Note and mark the level of the endotracheal (ET) tube at the lips or nares.
C)Have suction equipment available for immediate use.
D)Perform mouth care at least twice daily.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient on a mechanical ventilator and the low-pressure alarm sounds.Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A)Assess for secretions in the airway and suction the patient.
B)Administer a sedative to the patient to prevent coughing.
C)Assess the endotracheal tube cuff to make sure it is deflated.
D)Check the ventilator tubing and reconnect if disconnected.
Q3) A patient diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease ( COPD ) is on oxygen therapy at 3 L per nasal cannula.Which assessment finding should alert the nurse to a potential problem with this patient?
A)Respiratory rate of 26
B)Low carbon dioxide levels
C)Arterial oxygen saturation level of 99%
D)Lower oxygen saturation levels at night than during the day
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Performing Chest Physiotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _______________ provides positive expiratory pressure (PEP) with oral airway oscillations.
Q2) The patient is complaining of feeling congested.After assessing the patient, the nurse places the patient in the proper position and claps her cupped hands against the patient's thorax.She does this because she is aware that ______________ assists in loosening retained secretions from the airway.
Q3) To move secretions from small distal airways into larger central airways, the nurse would use ________________ and _______________.
Q4) The nurse is planning to perform postural drainage on a patient who is receiving continuous tube feedings.What should the nurse do before performing the treatment? (Select all that apply.)
A)Stop the tube feedings for 1 to 2 hours before and after postural drainage.
B)Check for residual feeding in the patient's stomach and hold treatment if greater than 100 mL.
C)Give the prescribed inhaled bronchodilator 20 minutes before the procedure.
D)Auscultate all lung fields, assess vital signs, and draw arterial blood gas levels (ABG).
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Airway Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has a tracheostomy.To prevent the patient from developing an airway obstruction, the nurse assesses which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Patient's nutritional status
B)Environmental humidity
C)Existing respiratory infection
D)Patient's ability to cough
E)None of above
Q2) The nurse is caring for an infant who has been vomiting and is having difficulty breathing.What actions by the nurse are appropriate for suctioning the infant?
A)Place the infant in a supine position.
B)Suction only when a large amount of mucus is present.
C)Suction for only 30 seconds.
D)Compress the bulb syringe after it is placed in the nostril.
Q3) Too much oxygen reduces the drive to breathe in patients with chronic
Q4) A _______________ is inserted directly into the trachea through a small incision made in the patient's neck.
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Chapter 26: Closed Chest Drainage Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an expected outcome of chest tube insertion?
A)Mild chest pain is maintained.
B)Breath sounds are auscultated in all lobes.
C)Drainage from the pleural cavity increases over time.
D)Lung expansion is increased beyond the unaffected side.
Q2) A pneumothorax can be caused by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Trauma
B)Rupture of a blister
C)Emphysema
D)Dyspnea
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who has had a chest tube in place for 2 days.As the nurse begins her shift assessment, she should ensure that what equipment is at the bedside? (Select all that apply.)
A)Two rubber-tipped clamps
B)Plain gauze 4×4
C)Sterile petroleum gauze
D)Extra drainage system
E)A sterile chest tube of the same size as the one inserted in the patient
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Chapter 27: Emergency Measures for Life Support
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29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39797
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is performing CPR on an adult patient who has an endotracheal tube in place.At what rate does the nurse, who is alone, administer breaths?
A)8 per minute
B)12 per minute
C)20 per minute
D)24 per minute
Q2) The nurse observes a person collapse and stop breathing.The nurse would establish an airway by:
A)inserting an endotracheal tube.
B)inserting a finger to pull the tongue forward.
C)using the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.
D)using a modified jaw-thrust maneuver.
Q3) Which of the following is the appropriate technique for a nurse to implement when inserting an oral airway?
A)Insert the airway with the curved end up, then rotate it 180 degrees at the back of the throat.
B)Insert the airway with the curved end down along the curve of the tongue.
C)Use a tongue blade to insert and push the airway into position.
D)Insert the airway sideways, then rotate it with the curved end up.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Intravenous and Vascular Access Therapy
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44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39798
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is on daily weights and is receiving intravenous therapy.The nurse notices that the patient has gained 2 kg since the previous morning.What else would the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.)
A)Dry skin and mucous membranes
B)Distended neck veins
C)Tenting of the skin
D)Crackles or rhonchi in the lungs
Q2) For which patients are electronic infusion devices ( EIDs ) used? (Select all that apply.)
A)Those who require low hourly rates
B)Those who are at risk for volume overload
C)Those who have impaired renal clearance
D)Those who are receiving fluids that require a specific hourly volume
E)None of above
Q3) What should the nurse do once she recognizes that the patient has phlebitis at his IV site?
A)Reduce the IV flow rate.
B)Elevate the affected extremity.
C)Place a moist warm compress over the site.
D)Adjust the additive in the current IV.
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Chapter 29: Blood Transfusions
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29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39799
Sample Questions
Q1) An appropriate technique for the nurse to implement for a blood transfusion is to:
A)provide medication through the IV line with the blood.
B)regulate the flow of blood so that it infuses over 8 hours.
C)clear the IV tubing with normal saline after the blood infuses.
D)administer a blood product with clots through a filter line.
Q2) Transfusion therapy is the intravenous ( IV ) administration of which of the following?
(Select all that apply.)
A)Whole blood
B)Plasma products
C)Red blood cells ( RBCs )
D)Platelets
E)None of above
Q3) The patient is scheduled to receive 1 unit of packed RBCs.She has small, fragile veins, and a 22-gauge intravenous (IV) patent catheter is in place.What should the nurse do?
A)Cancel the blood transfusion.
B)Insert a 16-gauge IV catheter into the antecubital fossa.
C)Use the IV catheter that is in place.
D)Transfuse the blood over 6 hours.
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Chapter 30: Oral Nutrition
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28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted to the hospital for evaluation for sleep apnea.The nurse calculates his body mass index (BMI) at 42 kg/m².What does this indicate about the patient's weight?
A)The patient is overweight.
B)The patient falls into the class 1 range of obesity.
C)The patient falls into the class 2 range of obesity.
D)The patient falls into the class 3 range of extreme obesity.
Q2) ______________ are measures of height; weight; head, arm, and muscle circumferences; and skinfold thickness.
Q3) The patient is on the dysphagia puree stage of the national dysphagia diet.Which of the following foods may the patient select?
A)Mashed potatoes
B)Dry cereals moistened with milk
C)Well-cooked noodles in gravy
D)Well-moistened cereals
Q4) A nurse's role includes performing ___________________ to assess a patient's risk status for malnutrition, assessing and assisting an adult patient with feeding, and identifying patients at risk for aspiration during oral feeding.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Enteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is checking gastric residual on a patient who has a continuously running tube feeding.She finds that the patient has a 600-mL residual volume.How should the nurse respond?
A)Stop the tube feeding.
B)Slow the tube feeding.
C)Continue the tube feeding at the same rate.
D)Increase the rate of the tube feeding.
Q2) The nurse is initiating a continuous tube feeding for a patient who has a gastrostomy tube.Which of the following procedures indicates proper practice?
A)Allow the container to empty gradually over 60 minutes.
B)Change the bag every 24 hours.
C)Do not use water to flush the tube.
D)Quickly increase the rate of administration.
Q3) What is an appropriate amount of nasogastric irrigant for an adult patient?
A)1 or 2 mL
B)30 mL
C)5 to 15 mL
D)250 mL
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Chapter 32: Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has been receiving PN but has not been given lipid emulsion therapy.The nurse notices that the patient is developing dry, scaly skin, his wound is healing more slowly than expected, and he is anemic.Which condition should the nurse anticipate as a potential problem?
A)Excess linoleic acid
B)Omega-6 fatty acid excess
C)Essential fatty acid deficiency
D)Electrolyte instability
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving parenteral nutrition (PN).The nurse realizes that PN is associated with which of the following risks? (Select all that apply.)
A)Decreased mortality
B)Bloodstream infection
C)Pneumothorax
D)Decreased length of stay
E)Liver disease
Q3) For patients receiving PN, ___________ provide supplemental kilocalories and prevent essential fatty acid deficiencies.
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Chapter 33: Urinary Elimination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Catheter use in older adults has been associated with increased
Q2) The nurse has inserted an indwelling catheter and secured the catheter to the patient's thigh, making sure that there is enough slack that movement will not create tension on the catheter.The nurse understands that the chief purpose of properly securing Foley catheters is to obtain which outcome? (Select all that apply.)
A)Minimized risk for bleeding
B)Reduced risk for bladder spasm
C)Reduced risk for meatal necrosis
D)Reduced risk for trauma
E)Increased bladder relaxation
Q3) When evaluating the health care team member's ability to apply a condom catheter, it is most important for the nurse to provide further instruction for which intervention?
A)Clipping of hair at the base of the penis
B)Applying skin prep to the penis before catheter placement
C)Using regular adhesive tape to hold the catheter in place
D)Leaving 1 to 2 inches of space between the tip of the penis and the end of the catheter
Q4) _________________ is the volume of urine in the bladder after a normal voiding.
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Bowel Elimination and Gastric Intubation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has been directed to provide an enema for an elderly female patient who has very poor rectal sphincter control.Which position is most appropriate for this patient?
A)Sims' position
B)Dorsal recumbent position on the bedpan
C)Sitting on the toilet
D)Right lateral position
Q2) A bedpan that is designed for patients with body or leg casts or for patients restricted from raising their hips (e.g., following total joint replacement) is known as a
Q3) In advancing the NG tube, which technique provides the safest outcome?
A)Rotate the tube if resistance is felt.
B)Advance the tube in between swallows.
C)Start with the patient's head flexed.
D)Check the tube placement by instilling air and auscultating over the stomach.
Q4) Infrequent bowel movements (less often than every 3 days), difficulty in evacuating feces, inability to defecate, and hard feces are signs of ________________.
Q5) The inability to pass a hard collection of stool is known as ______________.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Ostomy Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The output from a urinary or fecal stoma is called the _______________.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to catheterize a patient who has a urostomy and uses a two-piece pouch system.The nurse should take which action?
A)Place the patient in a semi-recumbent position.
B)Remove both pieces of the pouch system.
C)Remove the pouch and leave the barrier attached.
D)Use sterile gloves to remove the system.
Q3) A ______________ is an opening in the large intestine or colon for elimination of fecal material.
Q4) An ostomy that is created from a portion of the ileum to form a stoma through which urine can exit the body is called a(n) _____________.
Q5) The nurse is caring for a patient who had a colostomy placed 5 days earlier.The nurse notes that the stoma is red and moist.Which action should the nurse take?
A)Notify the physician immediately.
B)Apply pressure.
C)Note the condition of the stoma in her notes.
D)Change the appliance pouch.
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Chapter 36: Preoperative and Postoperative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) When providing teaching to a patient, which action is important to help the patient in performing controlled coughing?
A)Repeat the breathing exercises twice.
B)Cough two to three times and inhale between coughs.
C)Place a pillow over the incisional site for splinting.
D)Use the chest and shoulder muscles while inhaling during diaphragmatic breathing.
Q2) When providing care for a postoperative patient, it is important for the nurse to include which postoperative exercise?
A)Turning every 4 hours
B)Completing leg exercises once daily
C)Repeating individual leg exercises 20 times
D)Performing exercises with the unaffected extremities
Q3) When providing care for a patient who has received spinal anesthesia, the nurse recognizes that which position prevents spinal headaches?
A)Prone
B)Lying on the side
C)Supine, with the head flat
D)Trendelenburg's position
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Chapter 37: Intraoperative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) When planning care for a surgical patient, the nurse implements which technique to maintain sterility in the operating room?
A)Keeps the hands below the waist
B)Tucks the hands under the axilla
C)Uses sterile gloved hands to move a sterile drape under a table
D)Has anyone who is unscrubbed stay at least 1 foot away from the sterile field
Q2) Which of the following is true about the circulating nurse's primary responsibility?
A)She is a "sterile" member of the surgical team.
B)She provides the surgeon with instruments.
C)She is a "nonsterile" member of the surgical team.
D)She performs delegated medical functions or skills.
Q3) The scrub nurse's hands are being washed in preparation for a surgical procedure.As the nurse finishes, the scrub nurse accidentally touches the faucet with one hand.Which action should the nurse take next?
A)Apply sterile gloves.
B)Apply a sterile gown.
C)Apply a sterile mask.
D)Wash her hands.
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Chapter 38: Wound Care and Irrigations
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Sample Questions
Q1) ___________ is black, brown, or tan tissue in the wound that should be removed before wound healing can begin.
Q2) The nurse answers the patient's call light to find the patient agitated and stating that she "felt something pop." The nurse finds that the patient's abdominal surgical wound has eviscerated.What should the nurse do?
A)Try to reinsert the abdominal contents.
B)Cover the wound with a dry sterile dressing.
C)Notify the surgeon when he makes rounds.
D)Cover the wound with a moist saline dressing.
Q3) Which of the following approaches is correct technique when wound irrigation is performed?
A)Placing the patient in supine position
B)Placing the syringe directly into the wound
C)Using sterile technique for a chronic wound
D)Selecting a soft catheter for deep wounds with small openings
Q4) Healing by ________ intention occurs when surgical wounds are not closed immediately but are left open for 3 to 5 days to allow edema or infection to diminish.
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Chapter 39: Dressings, Bandages, and Binders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse anticipate might happen to a patient if bleeding cannot be controlled?
A)Skin dryness
B)Bradycardia
C)Hypovolemic shock
D)Hypertension
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who had a negative-pressure wound dressing.The nurse realizes that the system is working properly when the vacuum setting is set at which of the following levels?
A)-40 mm Hg
B)-210 mm Hg
C)-125 mm Hg
D)-25 mm Hg
Q3) What should the nurse do for a patient with a sudden severe hemorrhage?
A)Go for help.
B)Drape the patient.
C)Apply direct pressure.
D)Put on clean or sterile gloves.
Q4) _______________ dressings are used for wounds that require debridement.
Q5) _____________ dressings cover or hold primary dressings in place.
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Chapter 40: Therapeutic Use of Heat and Cold
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient is to receive a cold application for a sprain, he or she should have:
A)a prolonged application time.
B)the body part carefully aligned.
C)a colder temperature applied.
D)extra packing under the cooling device.
Q2) What procedure should the nurse follow when applying hot compresses to an open wound?
A)Apply clean gloves.
B)Cover all wound surfaces.
C)Leave the application in place for 30 to 40 minutes.
D)Apply an electrical heating unit directly over the compress.
Q3) Advantages of moist heat over dry heat include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Reduces drying of skin
B)Softens wound exudate
C)Does not cause skin maceration
D)Penetrates deeply into tissue layers
Q4) ___________ exerts a profound physiological effect on the body, reducing inflammation caused by injury to the musculoskeletal system.
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Chapter 41: Home Care Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who require home care often experience physical alterations that require changes in their home environment.In the case of older adults, what is the best way to make these changes?
A)Make changes quickly to prevent problems.
B)Make changes to limit the patient's need to move around.
C)Make changes to complement the patient's strengths.
D)Make changes regardless of the patient's previous sense of personal space.
Q2) Which assistive device would most benefit a patient with a neuromuscular weakness?
A)Large-print labels
B)A syringe with a magnifier
C)Screw-top medication containers
D)Color-coded tops for medications
Q3) Activities of daily living (ADLs) include the patient's ability to bathe, dress, go to the toilet, transfer, maintain continence, and feed himself; _______ include the ability to use a telephone, prepare meals, travel, do housework, take medication, and shop.
Q4) ___________ is a generalized impairment of intellectual functioning, with the most common form being Alzheimer's disease.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Home Care Teaching
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse instruct the parents to do when teaching them about temperature monitoring for a child?
A)Use only a glass mercury thermometer.
B)Take the temperature after shivering subsides.
C)Avoid the use of tepid water sponging for fever.
D)Take the temperature, but adjust the reading if the child has eaten a popsicle.
Q2) The patient is taking Synthroid (a thyroid medication) for hypothyroidism.What should the nurse instruct the patient to do when teaching the patient how to assess her own blood pressure and pulse?
A)Withhold the medication if her blood pressure is above the normal range or if her pulse is over 100 beats per minute.
B)Withhold the medication if her blood pressure is below the normal range or if her pulse is less than 60 beats per minute.
C)Never withhold her medication.Have the patient take it and notify the physician at the next office visit.
D)Withhold her medication only if both her blood pressure and pulse rate are too high.
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44
Chapter 43: Specimen Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using a commercially prepared tube to collect a culture, the nurse should:
A)take the swab and mix it in the reagent to check for color changes.
B)place the swab into the culture tube and then add a special reagent to the tube.
C)crush the ampule at the end of the tube and put the tip of the swab into the solution.
D)place the swab into the tube, close it securely, and keep it warm until it is sent to the laboratory.
Q2) The nurse evaluates that an expected outcome for analysis of gastric secretions is:
A)inability of the patient to discuss the rationale for the test.
B)negative occult blood.
C)the presence of clumps or clots.
D)the presence of brown, "coffee-ground" secretions.
Q3) What instructions does the nurse provide to the patient to obtain a double-voided urine specimen?
A)Save two separate specimens from the first voiding in the morning.
B)Add two specimens together from the morning voiding and the evening voiding.
C)Discard the first sample, then wait a half hour and void again.
D)Void first and then self-catheterize to obtain the specimens.
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45
Chapter 44: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) When explaining about a lumbar puncture, the nurse informs the patient that during the procedure, he or she will be asked to:
A)remain very still.
B)cough during the fluid aspiration.
C)change position.
D)breathe deeply during the needle insertion.
Q2) The removal of a small amount of the liquid organic material in the medullary canals of selected bones, in particular the sternum and the posterior superior iliac crests in adults, is known as _______________.
Q3) You are caring for a patient who has received moderate sedation for a procedure at the bedside.Which task can you delegate to the nurse assistant during this procedure?
A)Assessing sedation score
B)Obtaining blood pressure
C)Monitoring respiratory rate
D)Recording urine output
Q4) _____________________ apply manual compression to prevent bleeding at the arterial site.
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