Nursing Care of Adults
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Nursing Care of Adults focuses on the foundational principles and practices required to provide comprehensive care to adult patients across diverse healthcare settings. The course emphasizes the assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation of individualized care for adults experiencing acute and chronic health conditions. Topics include the management of common medical-surgical disorders, understanding complex health alterations, patient education, pharmacologic interventions, and evidence-based practice. Students develop critical thinking, clinical reasoning, and communication skills while exploring ethical and cultural considerations in adult nursing care, preparing them for collaborative roles within the interdisciplinary healthcare team.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology for Nursing Care
8th Edition by Richard A. Lehne
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110 Chapters
1332 Verified Questions
1332 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1567 Page 2
Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31061
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient how a medication works to treat an illness. To do this, the nurse will rely on knowledge of:
A) clinical pharmacology.
B) drug efficacy.
C) pharmacokinetics.
D) pharmacotherapeutics.
Answer: D
Q2) Before administering a medication, what does the nurse need to know to evaluate how individual patient variability might affect the patient's response to the medication?
(Select all that apply.)
A) Chemical stability of the medication
B) Ease of administration
C) Family medical history
D) Patient's age
E) Patient's diagnosis
Answer: C, D, E
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Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31062
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient newly diagnosed with diabetes is to be discharged from the hospital. The nurse teaching this patient about home management should begin by doing what?
A) Asking the patient to demonstrate how to measure and administer insulin
B) Discussing methods of storing insulin and discarding syringes
C) Giving information about how diet and exercise affect insulin requirements
D) Teaching the patient about the long-term consequences of poor diabetes control
Answer: A
Q2) A nurse is reviewing a patient's medical record before administering a medication. Which factor(s) can alter the patient's physiologic response to the drug? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ability to swallow pills
B) Age
C) Genetic factors
D) Gender
E) Height
Answer: B, C, D
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4
Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31063
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks a nurse why drugs that have been approved by the FDA still have unknown side effects. The nurse tell the patient that:
A) testing for all side effects of a medication would be prohibitively expensive.
B) patients in drug trials often are biased by their preconceptions of a drug's benefits. C) researchers tend to conduct studies that will prove the benefits of their new drugs.
D) subjects in drug trials do not always represent the full spectrum of possible patients.
Answer: D
Q2) A nurse educator is conducting a continuing education class on pharmacology. To evaluate the learning of the nurses in the class, the nurse educator asks, "Which drug name is a generic drug name?" Which is the correct response?
A) Acetaminophen
B) Tylenol
C) Cipro
D) Motrin
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31064
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is giving an enteral medication. The patient asks why this method is preferable for this drug. How will the nurse reply?
A) "This route allows more rapid absorption of the drug."
B) "This route is safer, less expensive, and more convenient."
C) "This route is the best way to control serum drug levels."
D) "This route prevents inactivation of the drug by digestive enzymes."
Q2) A patient is given a prescription for azithromycin (Zithromax) and asks the nurse why the dose on the first day is twice the amount of the dose on the next 4 days. Which reply by the nurse is correct?
A) "A large initial dose helps to get the drug to optimal levels in the body faster."
B) "The first dose is larger to minimize the first pass effect of the liver."
C) "The four smaller doses help the body taper the amount of drug more gradually."
D) "Tubular reabsorption is faster with initial doses, so more is needed at first."
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6
Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drugs will not be affected by interpatient variability? (Select all that apply.)
A) Antiseptics applied to the skin to slow bacterial growth
B) Antacids to help with the discomfort of heartburn
C) Broad-spectrum antibiotics that are effective against many organisms
D) Chelating agents that remove metal compounds from the body
E) Topical analgesics used to treat localized pain
Q2) A patient who is taking morphine for pain asks the nurse how a pain medication can also cause constipation. What does the nurse know about morphine?
A) It binds to different types of receptors in the body.
B) It can cause constipation in toxic doses.
C) It causes only one type of response, and the constipation is coincidental.
D) It is selective to receptors that regulate more than one body process.
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Chapter 6: Drug Interactions
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31066
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing multiple medications to a patient whose spouse brings him grapefruit juice every morning. The nurse should be concerned about which classes of drugs? (Select all that apply.)
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
C) Aminoglycosides
D) Beta blockers
E) Penicillins
Q2) A child ingests a parent's aspirin tablets, and the prescriber orders sodium bicarbonate to block the toxic effects of the aspirin. The nurse caring for this patient knows that sodium bicarbonate is effective against the aspirin because it:
A) accelerates its passage through the intestine.
B) alters urinary pH to enhance renal excretion.
C) induces CYP isozymes to increase drug metabolism.
D) raises the pH of the interstitial fluid to facilitate passage out of the cells.
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8
Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31067
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student is preparing to give a medication that has a black box warning. The student asks the nurse what this means. What will the nurse explain about black box warnings?
A) They indicate that a drug should not be given except in life-threatening circumstances.
B) They provide detailed information about the adverse effects of the drug.
C) They alert prescribers to ways to mitigate potential harm from side effects.
D) They provide information about antidotes in the event toxicity occurs.
Q2) Which actions occur in 90% of fatal medication errors? (Select all that apply.)
A) Confusing drugs with similar packaging
B) Giving a drug intravenously instead of intramuscularly
C) Giving Nasarel instead of Nizoral
D) Using an infusion device that malfunctions
E) Writing a prescription illegibly
Q3) A nurse is reviewing a medication administration record before administering medications. Which order should the nurse implement?
A) Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg QD PO
B) Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg qd PO
C) Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg daily
D) Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg PO daily
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Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31068
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to care for a patient who is receiving digoxin. To help minimize the potential for adverse effects from this drug, the nurse will review which of this patient's laboratory results?
A) Albumin
B) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine
C) Hepatic enzymes
D) Serum electrolytes
Q2) A patient asks a nurse why a friend who is taking the same drug responds differently to that drug. The nurse knows that the most common variation in drug response is due to differences in each patient's:
A) drug receptor sites.
B) hypersensitivity potential.
C) metabolism of drugs.
D) psychosocial response.
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10
Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and Breast-Feeding
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31069
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in her second trimester of pregnancy tells the nurse she is worried that a medication she took before knowing she was pregnant might have harmed the fetus. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient what she took and when she learned she was pregnant.
B) Contact the patient's provider to request an ultrasound.
C) Counsel the patient to consider termination of the pregnancy.
D) Suggest to the patient that she go to a high-risk pregnancy center.
Q2) A patient has just given birth to a baby boy with a cleft palate. The nurse will review the patient's medication history with special emphasis on drugs taken during which period?
A) Before she became pregnant
B) During the first trimester
C) During the second trimester
D) During the third trimester
Q3) Which type of drug taken by a pregnant patient is more likely to have effects on a fetus?
A) Drug that is highly polar
B) Ionized drug
C) Lipid-soluble drug
D) Protein-bound drug
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31070
Sample Questions
Q1) The parents of a child with asthma ask the nurse why their child cannot use oral corticosteroids more often, because they are so effective. The nurse will offer which information that is true for children?
A) Chronic steroid use can inhibit growth.
B) Frequent use of this drug may lead to a decreased response.
C) A hypersensitivity reaction to this drug may occur.
D) Systemic steroids can be toxic.
Q2) Parents ask the nurse why an over-the-counter cough suppressant with sedative side effects is not recommended for infants. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Babies have a more rapid gastric emptying time and don't absorb drugs well."
B) "Cough medicine tastes bad, and infants usually won't take it."
C) "Infants are more susceptible to central nervous system effects than are adults."
D) "Infants metabolize drugs too rapidly, so drugs aren't as effective."
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12
Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31071
Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient is admitted to the hospital for treatment of an exacerbation of a chronic illness. Admission laboratory work reveals an extremely low serum drug level of the drug used to treat this condition. The patient has brought the medication to the hospital, along with other medications taken. The patient's renal and hepatic function tests are normal. What might the nurse suspect as a likely cause of this finding?
A) Financial concerns
B) Inability to open drug containers
C) Increased tolerance to the drug's effects
D) Patient's conviction that the drug is unnecessary
Q2) A nurse is reviewing an older adult patient's chart before giving medications. Which patient information is of most concern?
A) Chronic constipation
B) Increased body fat
C) Low serum albumin
D) Low serum creatinine
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13
Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31072
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is administering drug X to a patient. The drug information states that the drug acts by activating receptors in the peripheral nervous system by increasing transmitter synthesis. The nurse understands that the effect of this drug is to:
A) activate axonal conduction.
B) enhance transmitter storage.
C) increase receptor activation.
D) synthesize supertransmitters.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nurses about neuropharmacology. The nurse asks which classes of drugs act by reducing axonal conduction. Which response by a participant is correct?
A) Antihypertensives
B) Antipsychotics
C) Local anesthetics
D) Antidepressants
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14
Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31073
Sample Questions
Q1) Many medications list side effects that include dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention. What kind of effects are these?
A) Alpha adrenergic
B) Anticholinergic
C) Beta adrenergic
D) Sympathetic
Q2) A pregnant patient is in premature labor. Which class of drug will she be given?
A) Alpha<sub>1</sub> agonist
B) Anticholinergic
C) Beta<sub>2</sub> agonist
D) Beta<sub>2</sub> antagonist
Q3) A nurse is teaching a patient about a medication that alters sympathetic nervous system functions. To evaluate understanding, the nurse asks the patient to describe which functions the sympathetic nervous system regulates. Which answer indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "The digestive functions of the body"
B) "The cardiovascular system"
C) "The fight-or-flight response"
D) "Body temperature"
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31074
Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient who lives alone and is somewhat forgetful has an overactive bladder and reports occasional constipation. Which treatment will the nurse anticipate for this patient?
A) Behavioral therapy
B) Oxybutynin (Ditropan XL) extended-release tablets
C) Oxybutynin (Oxytrol) transdermal patch
D) Percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation (PTNS)
Q2) A prescriber has ordered bethanechol (Urecholine) for a postoperative patient who has urinary retention. The nurse reviews the patient's chart before giving the drug. Which part of the patient's history would be a contraindication to using this drug?
A) Asthma as a child
B) Gastroesophageal reflux
C) Hypertension
D) Hypothyroidism
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16
Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in
Myasthenia Gravis
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31075
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is helping a nursing student who is administering a medication to a patient with myasthenia gravis. Which statement by the student indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "I will ask the patient to sip some water before giving the medication."
B) "I will let the patient sleep after giving the medication, because rest is important."
C) "I will record muscle strength assessments before and after I give the medication."
D) "I will report excessive salivation to the patient's prescriber."
Q2) A patient who has myasthenia gravis will be taking neostigmine (Prostigmin). What will the nurse emphasize when teaching this patient about the medication?
A) "Stop taking the drug if you have diarrhea."
B) "Take a supplementary dose before exercise."
C) "Use atropine if you have excessive salivation."
D) "Withhold the dose if ptosis occurs."
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17
Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic
Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents and Ganglionic Blocking Agents
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31076
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for an intubated patient who is receiving pancuronium for neuromuscular blockade. The patient's eyes are closed, and the patient is not moving any extremities. The heart rate is 76 beats per minute, and the blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. The nurse caring for this patient will do what?
A) Request an order for an antihistamine to prevent a further drop in blood pressure.
B) Request an order for serum electrolytes to evaluate for hyperkalemia.
C) Review the patient's chart for a history of myasthenia gravis (MG).
D) Talk to the patient while giving care and explain all procedures.
Q2) A patient will receive atracurium (Tracrium) during surgery for neuromuscular blockade. The nurse caring for this patient will correctly perform which of the following actions?
A) Assess the patient for signs of CNS depression.
B) Ensure that dantrolene is available in case of a serious adverse reaction.
C) Monitor the patient's blood pressure closely.
D) Review the preprocedure laboratory values related to renal and hepatic function.
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Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31077
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient brought to the emergency department requires sutures. The prescriber orders a local anesthetic with epinephrine. The nurse understands that epinephrine is ordered to:
A) prevent hypertension induced by the anesthetic.
B) prolong absorption of the anesthetic.
C) reduce anesthetic-induced nausea.
D) reduce the pain of an injection.
Q2) A nurse is administering intravenous dopamine (Intropin) to a patient in the intensive care unit. Which assessment finding would cause the most concern?
A) Blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg
B) Increased urine output
C) Edema at the IV insertion site
D) Headache
Q3) A pregnant patient with diabetes and hypertension is given isoproterenol (Isuprel) to delay preterm labor. Which side effect might the nurse expect?
A) Bronchospasm
B) Decreased urine output
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Hypotension
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31078
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with pheochromocytoma is admitted for surgery. The surgeon has ordered an alpha-blocking agent to be given preoperatively. What does the nurse understand about this agent?
A) It is ordered to prevent perioperative hypertensive crisis.
B) It prevents secretion of catecholamines by the adrenal tumor.
C) It reduces contraction of smooth muscles in the adrenal medulla.
D) It is given chronically after the surgery to prevent hypertension.
Q2) Which are adverse effects of alpha blockade? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hypertension
B) Reflex tachycardia
C) Nasal congestion
D) Ejaculation
E) Hypernatremia
Q3) A patient with migraines is started on a beta blocker. The nurse explains the benefits of taking the medication for migraines. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the medication's effects?
A) "I need to take it every day to reduce the frequency of migraines."
B) "I will take it as needed to get relief from migraines."
C) "I will take it to shorten the duration of my migraines."
D) "I will take this drug when a migraine starts."
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Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31079
Sample Questions
Q1) A prescriber has ordered methyldopa for a patient with hypertension. The nurse teaches the patient about drug actions, adverse effects, and the ongoing blood tests necessary with this drug. The nurse is correct to tell the patient what?
A) "If you have a positive Coombs' test result, you will need to discontinue the medication, because this means you have hemolytic anemia."
B) "Methyldopa can be used for its analgesic effects and for its hypertensive effects."
C) "Xerostomia and orthostatic hypotension are serious side effects and indications for withdrawing the medication."
D) "You will need to contact the provider and stop taking the medication if your eyes look yellow."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient about a new prescription for reserpine (Serpasil) for hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "Depressive side effects are common and will improve over time."
B) "I should report gastrointestinal side effects to the provider."
C) "I should stand up slowly when getting up and lie down if I feel dizzy."
D) "Therapeutic effects may not be optimal for a couple of weeks."
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31080
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of students about how CNS drugs are developed. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Central nervous system drug development relies on observations of their effects on human behavior."
B) "Studies of new central nervous system drugs in healthy subjects can produce paradoxical effects."
C) "Our knowledge of the neurochemical and physiologic changes that underlie mental illness is incomplete."
D) "These drugs are developed based on scientific knowledge of CNS transmitters and receptors."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students how the CNS adapts to psychotherapeutic medications. Which statement by a nursing student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Adaptation can lead to tolerance of these drugs with prolonged use."
B) "Adaptation helps explain how physical dependence occurs."
C) "Adaptation often must occur before therapeutic effects develop."
D) "Adaptation results in an increased sensitivity to side effects over time."
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinsons Disease
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31081
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse provides teaching for a patient who is newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the drug therapy for this disease?
A) "A levodopa/carbidopa combination is used to improve motor function."
B) "There are several drugs available to treat dyskinesias."
C) "When 'off' times occur, I may need to increase my dose of levodopa."
D) "With adequate drug therapy, the disease progression may be slowed."
Q2) A patient who has begun taking levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet) reports feeling lightheaded and dizzy, especially when standing up from a sitting position. What will the nurse recommend?
A) An alpha-adrenergic antagonist medication
B) Discussing amantadine with the prescriber
C) Increasing the salt and water intake
D) Taking a drug holiday
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Chapter 22: Alzheimers Disease
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31082
Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient has confusion, memory loss, and disorientation in familiar surroundings. The patient has been taking donepezil (Aricept) 10 mg once daily for 6 months. The patient's symptoms have begun to worsen, and the patient's spouse asks if the medication dose can be increased. What will the nurse tell the spouse?
A) The dose can be increased, because the patient has been taking the drug for longer than 3 months.
B) The dose can be increased to twice daily dosing instead of once daily dosing.
C) The increase in symptoms is the result of hepatotoxicity from the medication's side effects.
D) The patient must take the drug for longer than 1 year before the dose can be increased.
Q2) A nurse is caring for an older adult patient who has Alzheimer's disease. The patient is taking a cholinesterase inhibitor drug. Which side effects would concern the nurse?
A) Confusion and memory impairment
B) Dizziness and headache
C) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
D) Slowed heart rate and lightheadedness
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with multiple sclerosis is to begin treatment with interferon beta. The patient comes to the clinic to have pretreatment laboratory tests. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about these tests?
A) "After the first year of treatment, I will need once yearly blood work."
B) "I will need to have lab tests done every 3 months for the first year."
C) "If my liver function tests are abnormal, I will need to stop using this drug."
D) "These lab tests will measure liver and bone marrow function."
Q2) A patient is being treated with interferon beta-1a (Avonex) for relapsing-remitting MS. The patient calls the clinic to report headache, fever, chills, and muscle aches after administering a dose. What will the nurse recommend?
A) Acetaminophen or ibuprofen
B) Asking the provider to order a complete blood count (CBC)
C) Coming to the clinic for evaluation for leukoencephalopathy
D) Discontinuing the drug immediately
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Chapter 24: Drugs for Epilepsy
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31084
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is providing teaching to a patient newly diagnosed with partial seizures who will begin taking oxcarbazepine (Trileptal). The patient also takes furosemide (Lasix) and digoxin (Lanoxin). Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I may need to increase my dose of Trileptal while taking these medications."
B) "I may develop a rash and itching, but these are not considered serious."
C) "I should report any nausea, drowsiness, and headache to my provider."
D) "I should use salt substitutes instead of real salt while taking these drugs."
Q2) A child is diagnosed with absence seizures, and the prescriber orders ethosuximide (Zarontin). When teaching the child's parents about dosage adjustments for this drug, the nurse will stress the importance of:
A) frequent serum drug level monitoring.
B) learning as much as possible about the disorder and its treatment.
C) recording the number of seizures the child has each day.
D) reporting dizziness and drowsiness to the provider.
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26
Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31085
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient receiving intrathecal baclofen (Lioresal). The patient is unresponsive. After asking a coworker to contact the provider, the nurse anticipates performing which intervention?
A) Preparing to support respirations
B) Administering an antidote to baclofen
C) Administering diazepam to prevent seizures
D) Obtaining an electrocardiogram
Q2) A nurse is admitting a patient to the hospital. The patient reports taking oral baclofen (Lioresal) but stopped taking the drug the day before admission. The nurse would be correct to anticipate which adverse effects?
A) Weakness and dizziness
B) Fatigue and drowsiness
C) Seizures and hallucinations
D) Respiratory depression and coma
Q3) Which patient should receive dantrolene (Dantrium) with caution?
A) A 20-year-old woman with a spinal cord injury
B) A 45-year-old man with a history of malignant hyperthermia
C) A 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis
D) An 8-year-old child with cerebral palsy
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31086
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient in the immediate postoperative period after surgery in which a spinal anesthetic was used. The patient has not voided and complains of headache. The patient has a pulse of 62 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 92/48 mm Hg. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A) Contact the anesthetist to request an order for ephedrine.
B) Have the patient sit up to relieve the headache pain.
C) Lower the head of the bed to a 10- to 15-degree head-down position.
D) Obtain an order for a urinary catheter for urinary retention.
Q2) A nurse is assisting a physician who is preparing to suture a superficial laceration on a patient's leg. The physician asks the nurse to draw up lidocaine with epinephrine. The nurse understands that epinephrine is used with the lidocaine to:
A) allow more systemic absorption to speed up metabolism of the lidocaine.
B) increase the rate of absorption of the lidocaine.
C) improve perfusion by increasing blood flow to the area.
D) prolong anesthetic effects and reduce the risk of systemic toxicity from lidocaine.
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28
Chapter 27: General Anesthetics
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31087
Sample Questions
Q1) A postoperative patient complains of abdominal bloating and discomfort. The nurse caring for this patient will contact the provider to request which medication?
A) Bethanechol
B) Droperidol
C) Promethazine
D) Ondansetron
Q2) An anesthesiologist completes preoperative teaching for a patient the night before surgery. The patient asks the nurse to clarify the reason thiopental sodium will be given as an adjunct to the anesthetic. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding?
A) "Pentothal allows a larger amount of inhaled anesthetic to be used without increased side effects."
B) "Pentothal is given to enhance the analgesic and muscle relaxation effects of the inhaled anesthetic."
C) "Pentothal is used to produce rapid unconsciousness before administration of the inhaled anesthetic."
D) "Pentothal is used to reduce cardiovascular and respiratory depression caused by the inhaled anesthetic.
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Chapter 28: Opioid Narcotic Analgesics, Opioid
Antagonists, and Nonopioid Centrally Acting Analgesics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31088
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with chronic pain has been receiving morphine sulfate but now has decreased pain. The prescriber changes the medication to pentazocine (Talwin). The nurse will monitor the patient for:
A) euphoria.
B) hypotension.
C) respiratory depression.
D) yawning and sweating.
Q2) A patient who has had abdominal surgery has been receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. The nurse assesses the patient and notes that the patient's pupils are dilated and that the patient is drowsy and lethargic. The patient's heart rate is 84 beats per minute, the respiratory rate is 10 breaths per minute, and the blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. What will the nurse do?
A) Discuss possible opiate dependence with the patient's provider.
B) Encourage the patient to turn over and cough and take deep breaths.
C) Note the effectiveness of the analgesia in the patient's chart.
D) Prepare to administer naloxone and possibly ventilatory support.
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30
Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients With Cancer
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31089
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the differences between pure opioid agonists and agonist-antagonist opioids. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Agonist-antagonists opioids act as agonists at mu receptors only."
B) "Agonist-antagonists opioids are effective for treating cancer pain."
C) "Agonist-antagonists opioids enhance the effects of pure agonists."
D) "Pure agonists act as agonists at both mu receptors and kappa receptors."
Q2) A patient who is taking a fixed-dose combination drug with an opioid and acetaminophen for cancer pain reports increased muscular pain. The patient asks the nurse if the pain medication dose can be increased. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) An adjuvant analgesic medication will probably be used to help with this pain.
B) An additional dose of acetaminophen can be used to enhance pain relief.
C) Increasing the dose is possible, because there is no ceiling to opioid pain relief.
D) The provider will prescribe separate dosing of the opioid and acetaminophen.
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Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31090
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has a history of asthma experiences three or four migraine headaches each month. The patient uses sumatriptan (Imitrex) as an abortive medication and has developed medication overuse headaches. The patient asks the nurse what can be done to prevent migraines. The nurse will suggest that the patient discuss which preventive medication with the provider?
A) Botulinum toxin
B) Meperidine (Demerol)
C) Timolol
D) Topiramate (Topamax)
Q2) A patient on the unit complains of cluster headaches. A new graduate nurse is asked to differentiate between a migraine headache and cluster headaches. The graduate nurse is correct to state that manifestations and/or risk factors for a patient with cluster headaches include what? (Select all that apply.)
A) Female gender
B) Male gender
C) Complaints of nausea and vomiting
D) Short duration (15 minutes to 2 hours)
E) Auras before the onset of headache pain
F) Throbbing, sometimes piercing pain
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Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31091
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking an antipsychotic drug for schizophrenia comes to the clinic for evaluation. The nurse observes that the patient has a shuffling gait and tremors and is drooling. The nurse will ask the patient's provider about which course of action?
A) Administering a direct dopamine antagonist
B) Giving an anticholinergic medication
C) Increasing the dose of the antipsychotic drug
D) Stopping the antipsychotic drug
Q2) What are negative symptoms of schizophrenia? (Select all that apply.)
A) Delusions
B) Disordered thinking
C) Poor judgment
D) Poor self-care
E) Poverty of speech
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33
Chapter 32: Antidepressants
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31092
Sample Questions
Q1) A neonate is born to a patient who reports taking venlafaxine (Effexor XR). The nurse caring for the infant will observe the infant for:
A) irritability, tremor, and respiratory distress.
B) poor appetite and disturbed sleeping patterns.
C) serotonin syndrome.
D) sustained mydriasis.
Q2) A young adult patient has been taking an antidepressant medication for several weeks and reports having increased thoughts of suicide. The nurse questions further and learns that the patient has attempted suicide more than once in the past. The patient identifies a concrete plan for committing suicide. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
A) changing the medication to another drug class.
B) discontinuing the medication immediately.
C) hospitalizing the patient for closer monitoring.
D) requiring more frequent clinic visits for this patient.
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34
Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31093
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with bipolar disorder who wants to minimize the need for drug therapy asks the nurse what else can be done to treat the disorder. The nurse will recommend which measures? (Select all that apply.)
A) Electroconvulsive therapy
B) Moderate use of alcohol to reduce stress
C) Psychotherapy
D) Regular sleep and exercise
E) Using a chart to monitor mood changes
Q2) A patient recently was diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The patient, who has a history of seasonal allergies, is an athlete who participates in track. The nurse is teaching the patient about lithium (Lithobid), which the prescriber has just ordered. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "I can continue to use ibuprofen as needed for muscle pain."
B) "I should drink extra fluids before and during exercise."
C) "I should not use antihistamines while taking lithium."
D) "I should report muscle weakness and tremors to my provider."
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Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31094
Sample Questions
Q1) Which sedative-hypnotics are useful for both difficulty falling asleep and difficulty maintaining sleep? (Select all that apply.)
A) Eszopiclone (Lunesta)
B) Flurazepam
C) Temazepam (Restoril)
D) Triazolam (Halcion)
E) Extended-release zolpidem (Ambien CR)
Q2) A nurse is obtaining a health history from an older adult patient in an outpatient clinic. The patient reports chronic difficulty falling asleep and staying asleep. The nurse knows that the best treatment for this patient will be:
A) alternative medications.
B) improved sleep hygiene.
C) short-term barbiturates.
D) triazolam (Halcion).
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Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31095
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing a patient to change from taking lorazepam (Ativan) for anxiety to buspirone (Buspar). Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I can drink alcohol when taking Buspar, but not grapefruit juice."
B) "I may need to use a sedative medication if I experience insomnia."
C) "I may not feel the effects of Buspar for a few weeks."
D) "I should stop taking the Ativan when I start taking the Buspar."
Q2) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are known to be effective for which disorders? (Select all that apply.)
A) Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
C) Panic disorder
D) Post-traumatic stress disorder
E) Social anxiety disorder
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Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and
Attention-Deficithyperactivity Disorder
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31096
Sample Questions
Q1) A university student is brought to the emergency department after having a seizure at a party. The heart rate is 110 beats per minute, the respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute, and the blood pressure is 160/95 mm Hg. The patient is agitated and restless and has tremors. The patient takes clonidine for ADHD. The nurse smells alcohol on the patient's breath. Toxicology results are pending. The nurse suspects what about this patient?
A) The patient has severe alcohol poisoning.
B) An adverse drug interaction between the clonidine and the alcohol has occurred.
C) The patient may have consumed a large amount of caffeine.
D) The patient may have ingested strychnine.
Q2) A child is diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). The prescriber orders a central nervous system stimulant. Which statement by the child's parent indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should report insomnia and poor appetite to his provider."
B) "I will make sure he takes his medication after breakfast every day."
C) "This drug will make him less impulsive while he's at school."
D) "This medication will help my child focus so he can learn new behaviors."
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31097
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is ready for discharge home from a lengthy hospital stay after a motor vehicle accident. The patient suffered multiple fractures and required large doses of morphine for several weeks. The nurse preparing the patient for discharge notes that the patient requests the maximum dose of the oral opioid analgesic at the exact intervals it is prescribed. The nurse is correct to suspect that what has occurred?
A) Addiction
B) Compulsive drug seeking
C) Cross-tolerance
D) Drug tolerance
Q2) A nursing student is caring for a patient who is addicted to several drugs. The student tells the nurse that the patient "got this way on purpose." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) "Peer pressure and social factors determine individual choices."
B) "Physical dependence is necessary for addiction to occur."
C) "Pre-existing psychopathology underlies most drug abuse."
D) "Some individuals are more vulnerable to drug abuse than others."
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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse 2: F Alcohol
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31098
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The patient's speech is slurred. The nurse notes the smell of alcohol on the patient's breath and observes hand tremors. The patient's blood alcohol level is 0.4%. The nurse will expect to:
A) find that the patient has lost consciousness within a short time.
B) administer naltrexone (ReVia) and prepare for gastric lavage.
C) give carbamazepine to reduce the risk of seizures.
D) provide mechanical ventilation and oxygen.
Q2) A college student is brought unresponsive to the emergency department by friends, who say that their friend drank more than half of a large bottle of whiskey 3 hours ago. Assessment reveals a blood alcohol level of 0.32%. The vital signs are BP, 88/32 mm Hg; R, 6/min; T, 96.8° F; and P,76/min and weak and thready. The nurse should prepare the patient for which intervention?
A) IV fluids and stimulants
B) Charcoal administration
C) Gastric lavage and dialysis
D) Naloxone (Narcan) administration
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Chapter 39: Drug Abuse I2: F Nicotine and Smoking
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31099
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who wants to quit smoking has a prescription for varenicline (Chantix), which will be used with a nicotine patch. The patient asks the nurse why the varenicline is necessary. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "It helps patients experiencing withdrawal to sleep better."
B) "It helps reduce anxiety and other withdrawal symptoms."
C) "It will help reduce the likelihood of addiction to the patch."
D) "The drug blocks nicotine's access to 'pleasure' receptors."
Q2) A patient asks about nicotine patches for smoking cessation and wants to know the difference between the 24-hour patch and the 16-hour patch. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "The 16-hour patch is for patients who have trouble sleeping."
B) "The 16-hour patch simulates usual nicotine ingestion patterns."
C) "The 24-hour patch is for persons weighing more than 100 pounds."
D) "The 24-hour patch is recommended for heavier smokers."
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Chapter 40: Drug Abuse Iv: Major Drugs of Abuse Other
Than Alcohol and Nicotine
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31100
Sample Questions
Q1) A college student admits frequent use of LSD to a nurse and reports plans to stop using it. What will the nurse tell this student?
A) Flashback episodes and episodic visual disturbances are common.
B) Tolerance to the effects of LSD will fade quickly once use of the drug has stopped.
C) Withdrawal symptoms can be mitigated with haloperidol (Haldol).
D) Withdrawal from LSD is associated with a severe abstinence syndrome.
Q2) A pregnant patient reports using marijuana during her pregnancy. She asks the nurse whether this will affect the fetus. What should the nurse tell her?
A) Children born to patients who use marijuana will have smaller brains.
B) Neonates born to patients who use marijuana will have withdrawal syndromes.
C) Preschool-aged children born to patients who use marijuana are more likely to be hyperactive.
D) School-aged children born to patients who use marijuana often have difficulty with memory.
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42
Chapter 41: Diuretics
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31101
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities bilaterally. Auscultation of the lungs reveals crackles bilaterally, and the serum potassium level is 6 mEq/L. Which diuretic agent ordered by the prescriber should the nurse question?
A) Bumetanide (Bumex)
B) Furosemide (Lasix)
C) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
D) Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)
Q2) A patient is taking gentamicin (Garamycin) and furosemide (Lasix). The nurse should counsel this patient to report which symptom?
A) Frequent nocturia
B) Headaches
C) Ringing in the ears
D) Urinary retention
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Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31102
Sample Questions
Q1) While performing an admission assessment on a patient, the nurse learns that the patient is taking furosemide (Lasix), digoxin, and spironolactone (Aldactone). A diet history reveals the use of salt substitutes. The patient is confused and dyspneic and complains of hand and foot tingling. Which is an appropriate nursing action for this patient?
A) Contact the provider to request orders for an electrocardiogram and serum electrolyte levels.
B) Evaluate the patient's urine output and request an order for intravenous potassium.
C) Hold the next dose of furosemide and request an order for intravenous magnesium sulfate.
D) Request an order for intravenous insulin to help this patient regulate extracellular potassium.
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44
Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31103
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of hypertension is admitted for a procedure. If the patient's arterial pressure decreases, which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to see?
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Increased heart rate
C) Decreased blood pressure
D) Syncope
Q2) A patient is taking a drug that interferes with venous constriction. The nurse will tell the patient to:
A) ask for assistance when getting out of bed.
B) expect bradycardia for a few days.
C) notify the provider if headache occurs.
D) report shortness of breath.
Q3) A nurse is teaching a nursing student how blood can return to the heart when pressure in the venous capillary beds is very low. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Constriction of small muscles in the venous wall increases venous pressure."
B) "Negative pressure in the left atrium draws blood toward the heart."
C) "Skeletal muscles relax to allow the free flow of blood."
D) "Venous valves help prevent the backflow of blood."
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31104
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who stops taking an ACE inhibitor because of its side effects will begin taking an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) medication. Which side effect of ACE inhibitors will not occur with an ARB medication?
A) Angioedema
B) Cancer
C) Cough
D) Renal failure
Q2) A patient who has been taking an antihypertensive medication for several years is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The prescriber changes the patient's medication to an ACE inhibitor. The patient asks the nurse why a new drug is necessary. What is the nurse's response?
A) "ACE inhibitors can prevent or reverse pathologic changes in the heart's structure."
B) "ACE inhibitors help lower LDL cholesterol and raise HDL cholesterol."
C) "ACE inhibitors increase venous return to the heart, improving cardiac output."
D) "ACE inhibitors regulate electrolytes that affect the cardiac rhythm."
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Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31105
Sample Questions
Q1) Which are therapeutic uses for verapamil? (Select all that apply.)
A) Angina of effort
B) Cardiac dysrhythmias
C) Essential hypertension
D) Sick sinus syndrome
E) Suppression of preterm labor
Q2) A patient who took an overdose of verapamil has been treated with gastric lavage and a cathartic. The emergency department nurse assesses the patient and notes a heart rate of 50 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg. The nurse will anticipate:
A) administering intravenous norepinephrine (NE) and isoproterenol.
B) assisting with direct-current (DC) cardioversion.
C) placing the patient in an upright position.
D) preparing to administer a beta blocker.
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Chapter 46: Vasodilators
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31106
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse why a patient in hypertensive crisis is receiving both intravenous sodium nitroprusside (Nitropress) and oral hydralazine (Apresoline). The nurse will explain that this is done to prevent:
A) cyanide poisoning.
B) fluid retention.
C) rebound hypertension.
D) reflex tachycardia.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking a vasodilator that dilates capacitance vessels. The nurse will expect which effect in this patient?
A) Decrease in cardiac work
B) Increase in cardiac output
C) Increase in tissue perfusion
D) Increase in venous return
Q3) A patient is admitted with severe hypertensive crisis. The nurse will anticipate administering which medication?
A) Captopril PO
B) Hydralazine (Apresoline) 25 mg PO
C) Minoxidil 20 mg PO
D) Sodium nitroprusside (Nitropress) IV
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31107
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking chlorthalidone to treat hypertension. The patient's prescriber has just ordered the addition of spironolactone to the patient's drug regimen. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should continue following the DASH diet when adding this drug."
B) "I should not take an ACE inhibitor when adding this drug."
C) "I will need to take potassium supplements when adding this drug."
D) "I will not experience a significant increase in diuresis when adding this drug."
Q2) A nurse is discussing how beta blockers work to decrease blood pressure with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Beta blockers block the actions of angiotensin II."
B) "Beta blockers decrease heart rate and contractility."
C) "Beta blockers decrease peripheral vascular resistance."
D) "Beta blockers decrease the release of renin."
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Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31108
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse prepares to administer a scheduled dose of digoxin. The nurse finds a new laboratory report showing a plasma digoxin level of 0.7 ng/mL. What action should the nurse take?
A) Withhold the drug for an hour and reassess the level.
B) Withhold the drug and notify the prescriber immediately.
C) Administer Digibind to counteract the toxicity.
D) Check the patient's apical pulse, and if it is within a safe range, administer the digoxin.
Q2) An 88-year-old patient with heart failure has progressed to Stage D and is hospitalized for the third time in a month. The nurse will expect to discuss which topic with the patient's family?
A) Antidysrhythmic medications
B) End-of-life care
C) Heart transplantation
D) Implantable mechanical assist devices
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Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31109
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) and develops a dysrhythmia. The nurse reports this finding to the prescriber, who will most likely order what? (Select all that apply.)
A) Amiodarone
B) Diltiazem
C) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
D) Quinidine
E) Serum electrolytes
Q2) A patient is in the intensive care unit after a myocardial infarction. The nurse notes that the QT interval on this patient's electrocardiogram has been elongating. The nurse is concerned that which cardiac dysrhythmia may occur?
A) AV block
B) Bradycardia
C) Supraventricular tachycardia
D) Torsades de pointes
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Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Coronary Heart Disease: Drugs
That Help Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31110
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is providing patient education about colesevelam (Welchol), a bile acid sequestrant. Which statement made by the patient demonstrates a need for further teaching?
A) "Colesevelam will reduce my levels of low-density lipoprotein."
B) "Colesevelam will augment my statin drug therapy."
C) "I will not have to worry about having as many drug interactions as I did when I took cholestyramine."
D) "I cannot take digoxin while on this medication."
Q2) A patient with malaise has been taking daptomycin (Cubicin) for an infection and is concurrently taking simvastatin (Zocor). The nurse should be concerned if the patient complains of:
A) nausea.
B) tiredness.
C) muscle pain.
D) headache.
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Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31111
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse how beta blockers increase the oxygen supply to the heart in the treatment of anginal pain. The nurse tells the student that beta blockers:
A) dilate arterioles to improve myocardial circulation.
B) improve cardiac contractility, which makes the heart more efficient.
C) increase arterial pressure to improve cardiac afterload.
D) increase the time the heart is in diastole.
Q2) A patient with variant angina wants to know why a beta blocker cannot be used to treat the angina. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "A beta<sub>1</sub>-selective beta blocker could be used for variant angina."
B) "Beta blockers do not help relax coronary artery spasm."
C) "Beta blockers do not help to improve the cardiac oxygen supply."
D) "Beta blockers promote constriction of arterial smooth muscle."
Q3) A patient asks a nurse how nitroglycerin works to relieve anginal pain. The nurse correctly states, "Nitroglycerin:
A) dilates coronary arteries to increase blood flow to the heart."
B) increases the oxygen supply to the cardiac muscle."
C) increases ventricular filling to improve cardiac output."
D) promotes vasodilation, which reduces preload and oxygen demand."
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53
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31112
Sample Questions
Q1) A postoperative patient will begin anticoagulant therapy with rivaroxaban (Xarelta) after knee replacement surgery. The nurse performs a history and learns that the patient is taking erythromycin. The patient's creatinine clearance is 50 mL/min. The nurse will:
A) administer the first dose of rivaroxaban as ordered.
B) notify the provider to discuss changing the patient's antibiotic.
C) request an order for a different anticoagulant medication.
D) request an order to increase the dose of rivaroxaban.
Q2) A patient who is taking warfarin (Coumadin) has just vomited blood. The nurse notifies the provider, who orders lab work revealing a PT of 42 seconds and an INR of 3.5. The nurse will expect to administer:
A) phytonadione (vitamin K<sub>1</sub>) 1 mg IV over 1 hour.
B) phytonadione (vitamin K<sub>1</sub>) 2.5 mg PO.
C) protamine sulfate 20 mg PO.
D) protamine sulfate 20 mg slow IV push.
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Chapter 53: Management of St-Elevation Myocardial
Infarction
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31113
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in the emergency department has severe chest pain. The nurse administers morphine intravenously. The patient asks the nurse why morphine is given. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Morphine helps by reducing anxiety and relieving pain."
B) "Morphine helps by reducing pain and dissolving clots."
C) "Morphine helps by relieving pain and lowering blood pressure."
D) "Morphine helps by relieving pain and reducing the cardiac oxygen demand."
Q2) A nurse is discussing fibrinolytic therapy for the acute phase of STEMI management with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of this therapy?
A) "Fibrinolytics are effective when the first dose is given up to 24 hours after symptom onset."
B) "Fibrinolytics should be given once cardiac troponins reveal the presence of STEMI."
C) "Fibrinolytics should be used with caution in patients with a history of cerebrovascular accident."
D) "Patients should receive either an anticoagulant or an antiplatelet agent with a fibrinolytic drug."
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31114
Sample Questions
Q1) A child with moderate hemophilia A who weighs 20 kg is admitted to the hospital after a knee injury with bleeding into the joint. The nurse will expect the provider to order which medication?
A) Advate 400 units IV over 10 minutes
B) Benefix 800 units slow IV push
C) Desmopressin 6 mcg IV over 15 to 30 minutes
D) Tranexamic acid (Cyklokapron) 200 mg IV
Q2) A nurse is caring for a child with hemophilia. While reviewing this child's immunization records, the nurse notes that the child needs the tetanus and reduced diphtheria toxoids and acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine and the hepatitis A vaccine. The nurse should notify the provider and obtain an order to give:
A) both vaccines intramuscularly.
B) both vaccines subcutaneously.
C) the hepatitis A vaccine only subcutaneously.
D) the Tdap vaccine only intramuscularly.
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56
Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31115
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has recently immigrated to the United States from an impoverished country appears malnourished. The patient's folic acid levels are low, and the vitamin <sub>12</sub> levels are normal. The nurse expects this patient's treatment to include:
A) a diet high in folic acid.
B) intramuscular folic acid.
C) oral folic acid and vitamin B<sub>12</sub>.
D) oral folic acid supplements.
Q2) The patient with which of the following is most at risk for folic acid deficiency?
A) Alcoholism
B) Sprue
C) Gastrectomy
D) Peptic ulcer disease
Q3) A patient is receiving oral iron for iron deficiency anemia. Which antibiotic drug, taken concurrently with iron, would most concern the nurse?
A) Tetracycline
B) Cephalosporin
C) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
D) Penicillin
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Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31116
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with CRF who will begin receiving an erythropoiesis stimulating agent (ESA) is admitted to the hospital. The nurse notes that the patient's heart rate is 82 beats per minute, and the blood pressure is 140/100 mm Hg. A complete blood count reveals a hemoglobin of 8 gm/dL and a hematocrit of 29%. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the ESA and request an order for a blood transfusion.
B) Withhold the ESA and request an order for an antihypertensive medication.
C) Request an order to increase the dose of ESA to raise the hemoglobin more quickly.
D) Suggest initiating dialysis while giving the ESA.
Q2) A prescriber has ordered filgrastim (granulocyte colony-stimulating factor) for a patient undergoing myelosuppressive chemotherapy. The nurse will prepare the patient for which potential side effect?
A) Bone pain
B) Fatigue
C) Headache
D) Hemorrhage
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58
Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31117
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with type 1 diabetes reports mixing NPH and regular insulin to allow for one injection. What should the nurse tell the patient?
A) This is an acceptable practice.
B) These two forms of insulin are not compatible and cannot be mixed.
C) Mixing these two forms of insulin may increase the overall potency of the products.
D) NPH insulin should only be mixed with insulin glargine.
Q2) An adolescent patient recently attended a health fair and had a serum glucose test. The patient telephones the nurse and says, "My level was 125 mg/dL. Does that mean I have diabetes?" What is the nurse's most accurate response?
A) "Unless you were fasting for longer than 8 hours, this does not necessarily mean you have diabetes."
B) "At this level, you probably have diabetes. You will need an oral glucose tolerance test this week."
C) "This level is conclusive evidence that you have diabetes."
D) "This level is conclusive evidence that you do not have diabetes."
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59
Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31118
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient who will begin taking methimazole (Tapazole) for Graves' disease about the medication. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Because of the risk for liver toxicity, I will need frequent liver function tests."
B) "I should report a sore throat or fever to my provider if either occurs."
C) "I will need a complete blood count every few months."
D) "It is safe to get pregnant while taking this medication."
Q2) A patient has been taking levothyroxine for several years and reports that "for the past 2 weeks, the drug doesn't seem to work as well as before." What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient when the prescription was last refilled.
B) Expect the patient to have an elevated temperature and tachycardia.
C) Suggest that the patient begin taking calcium supplements.
D) Tell the patient to try taking the medication with food.
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Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31119
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is hospitalized with head trauma after a motor vehicle accident. The nurse caring for the patient notes a marked increase in the output of pale, dilute urine. The nurse suspects which condition?
A) Diabetes insipidus
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
D) Water intoxication
Q2) A patient with acromegaly asks the nurse about treatments for this condition. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) Drugs are generally used after surgical and radiation therapies have been tried.
B) Drug therapy is easy to administer.
C) Drug therapy is inexpensive.
D) Drug therapy is generally short term.
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Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31120
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is explaining congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) to a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "CAH is caused by a deficiency of ACTH production."
B) "CAH is the result of an inability to synthesize glucocorticoids."
C) "Newborn screening provides a definitive diagnosis for CAH"
D) "The enzyme 21-alpha-hydroxylase increases the production of androgens."
Q2) A patient with arthritis is admitted to the hospital. The patient's serum glucose level is 350 gm/dL, and the blood pressure is 182/98 mm Hg. The nurse notes that the patient's face appears rounded and puffy. The patient complains of feeling weak. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask which drugs the patient takes for arthritis.
B) Contact the provider to discuss whether the patient has a pituitary carcinoma.
C) Request an order for ketoconazole (Nizoral).
D) Suspect that this patient has Addison's disease.
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Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and
Noncontraceptive Applications
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31121
Sample Questions
Q1) According to studies of estrogen therapy (EPT), what are known benefits of ET? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cardiovascular protection in older patients
B) Decreased osteoporosis risk
C) Glycemic control
D) Improved wound healing
E) Prevention of colorectal cancer
Q2) The nurse is providing patient education about the application of transdermal estrogen. Which statement made by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the application of this medication? "I should apply this medication to my:"
A) waistline."
B) abdomen."
C) breast."
D) posterior thigh."
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63
Chapter 62: Birth Control
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31122
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking a combination oral contraceptive begins taking carbamazepine. After several weeks, the patient tells the nurse she has begun experiencing spotting during her cycle. What will the nurse tell her to do?
A) Change to condoms instead of oral contraceptives.
B) Discuss an oral contraceptive with increased estrogen.
C) Request a decreased dose of carbamazepine.
D) Stop taking the oral contraceptive immediately.
Q2) A nurse is teaching an adolescent female patient about 28-day monophasic combination oral contraceptives. The provider has instructed the patient to begin taking the pills on the first Sunday after the onset of her next period. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) "If breakthrough spotting occurs, you should begin taking a new pack of pills."
B) "Protection from pregnancy will begin immediately."
C) "Use another form of contraception for the next month."
D) "You may take the pills at different times of day."
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64
Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31123
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is explaining to a nursing student how clomiphene (Clomid) works to improve fertility. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Clomiphene blocks estrogen receptors to cause increased secretion of gonadotropins."
B) "Clomiphene directly stimulates the ovary, causing follicular maturation and ovulation."
C) "If follicular maturation is the only result of clomiphene therapy, human chorionic gonadotropin may be given."
D) "If the pituitary gland cannot produce LH and FSH, clomiphene will not be effective."
Q2) A patient receiving menotropin (Repronex) for infertility comes to the clinic for evaluation on the ninth day of treatment. Her serum estrogen level is 200 pg/mL per maturing follicle. An ultrasound reveals that follicles have enlarged to 22 mm. The patient complains of left lower abdominal pain. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer human chorionic gonadotropin, because the ovary has ripened.
B) Assess for abdominal fullness and distension and auscultate lung sounds.
C) Inform the patient that the pain is associated with ovulation.
D) Recommend ibuprofen for pain and administer the next dose of menotropin.
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Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31124
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is in preterm labor, and the prescriber orders magnesium sulfate for its neuroprotective effect on the fetus. The order calls for 4 gm given as an intravenous bolus over 20 minutes, followed by a maintenance infusion of 2 gm/hr. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the drug as ordered.
B) Question the bolus amount.
C) Question the bolus rate.
D) Question the maintenance amount.
Q2) A patient who is having her sixth child has gone beyond term, and her labor is being induced with oxytocin (Pitocin). The patient is having increased frequency, duration, and intensity of contractions. The nurse will interrupt the oxytocin infusion if what occurs?
A) Contractions occur every 2 to 3 minutes.
B) Individual contractions last 2 minutes.
C) Mild to moderate pain occurs with uterine contractions.
D) Resting intrauterine pressure is greater than 10 to 15 mm Hg.
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Chapter 65: Androgens
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31125
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of parents about the role of testosterone in puberty for boys. To evaluate the group's understanding, the nurse asks, "What physiologic effects related to testosterone can you expect to see in your sons?" Which responses indicate an understanding of the role of testosterone in male puberty? (Select all that apply.)
A) "It promotes skeletal muscle growth."
B) "It increases height and weight."
C) "It delays epiphyseal closure."
D) "It causes a high-pitched voice."
E) "It causes acne."
Q2) A female patient who swims competitively admits to using anabolic steroids to increase her muscle mass and improve her performance. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) Anabolic steroids may actually regulate her periods.
B) Breast size may increase as a result of this drug use.
C) The risk of liver disease will increase.
D) Voice changes and facial hair will reverse when she stops the drug.
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Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign
Prostatic Hyperplasia
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31126
Sample Questions
Q1) A 68-year-old male patient receives a prescription for 25-mg tablets of sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. When he asks the nurse how to take the medication, the nurse will tell him to:
A) begin taking one tablet twice daily, 12 hours apart.
B) start with one tablet about 1 hour before anticipated sexual activity.
C) take 25 to 100 mg per dose 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity.
D) take two tablets 1 hour before sexual activity with a high-fat meal.
Q2) A male patient tells the nurse he awakens once or twice each night to void and has difficulty starting his stream of urine. He describes these symptoms as "annoying." The patient's provider examines him and notes that the prostate is moderately enlarged. The patient is sexually active and tells the nurse that he does not want to take any medication that will interfere with sexual function. The nurse anticipates the provider will order:
A) doxazosin (Cardura).
B) finasteride (Proscar).
C) silodosin (Rapaflo).
D) a transurethral prostatectomy.
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Page 68
Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31127
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about immunoglobulins. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "IgD provides a first line of defense against microbes entering the body through the lungs."
B) "IgE plays a role in hypersensitivity reactions and responses to parasites."
C) "IgG and IgM participate in the complement response to promote target cell lysis."
D) "Neonatal immunity is the result of IgG crossing the placenta."
Q2) A patient has a delayed-type hypersensitivity response to an infection. The nurse understands that which two types of cells are necessary for this response?
A) Antigen-presenting cells and mast cells
B) Cytolytic T lymphocytes and target cells
C) Immunoglobulin cells and dendritic cells
D) Infected macrophages and CD4 helper T cells
Q3) Which statement is true about helper T cells?
A) They are useful but are not essential to immune responses.
B) They do not play a role in antibody production.
C) They have highly specific receptors to antigens on their surface.
D) They prevent CD4 molecules from attaching to antigens.
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69
Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31128
Sample Questions
Q1) An 11-year-old boy received all childhood immunizations before attending school as a kindergartner. Which vaccines are recommended for this child at his current age?
A) DTaP, MCV4, Varivax
B) PCV-23, Td, MMR
C) Tdap, MCV4, HPV
D) Tdap, Varivax, hepatitis B
Q2) Which are recommended measures to help minimize pain associated with vaccine administration? (Select all that apply.)
A) Administer acetaminophen or ibuprofen before the vaccine is given.
B) Apply a topical anesthetic to the injection site before the vaccine is given.
C) Give intramuscular vaccines rapidly without aspiration.
D) Have the child lie down while the vaccine is given.
E) Provide tactile stimulation as a diversion.
Q3) The parent of a child who attends day care questions the need for Varivax. What will the nurse tell the parent?
A) "Chickenpox is not as contagious as other communicable diseases."
B) "The child will be protected by herd immunity and does not need the vaccine."
C) "Varicella is an uncomfortable disease, but it is not that serious."
D) "Varicella in adults can have serious consequences."
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Page 70
Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31129
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is started on immunosuppressant drugs after kidney transplantation and will be taking azathioprine (Imuran) as part of the drug regimen. The patient asks the nurse why it is necessary to have a specimen for a complete blood count drawn at the beginning of therapy and then periodically thereafter. The nurse explains that azathioprine can alter blood cells and tells the patient to report:
A) alopecia.
B) easy bruising.
C) fatigue.
D) gastrointestinal (GI) upset.
Q2) The nurse knows that which two immunosuppressants are the most effective?
A) Azathioprine (Imuran) and everolimus (Zortress)
B) Cyclosporine (Sandimmune) and tacrolimus (Prograf)
C) Methotrexate (Rheumatrex) and muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone OKT3)
D) Sirolimus (Rapamune) and methylprednisolone
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Chapter 70: Antihistamines
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31130
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has seasonal allergies and needs an antihistamine to control symptoms. The patient likes to have wine with dinner several times a week and wants to know which antihistamine will be the safest to take. The nurse will tell the patient to discuss which medication with the provider?
A) Cetirizine (Zyrtec)
B) Fexofenadine (Allegra)
C) Levocetirizine (Xyzal)
D) Loratadine (Claritin)
Q2) A 5-year-old child with seasonal allergies has been taking 2.5 mL of cetirizine (Zyrtec) syrup once daily. The parents tell the nurse that the child does not like the syrup, and they do not think that the drug is effective. The nurse will suggest they discuss which drug with their child's healthcare provider?
A) Cetirizine (Zyrtec) 5 mg chewable tablet once daily
B) Loratadine (Claritin) 10 mg chewable tablet once daily
C) Fexofenadine (Allegra) syrup 5 mL twice daily
D) Desloratadine (Clarinex) 5 mg rapid-disintegrating tablet once daily
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Chapter 71: Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors: Nonsteroidal
Anti-Inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31131
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking acetaminophen for pain wants to know why it does not cause gastrointestinal upset, as do other over-the-counter pain medications. The nurse will explain that this is most likely because of which property of acetaminophen?
A) It does not inhibit cyclooxygenase.
B) It has minimal effects at peripheral sites.
C) It is more similar to opioids than to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
D) It is selective for cyclooxygenase-2.
Q2) A nurse is providing medication teaching for a patient who will begin taking diclofenac (Voltaren) gel for osteoarthritis in both knees and elbows. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Because this is a topical drug, liver toxicity will not occur."
B) "I should cover areas where the gel is applied to protect them from sunlight."
C) "I will apply equal amounts of gel to all affected areas."
D) "The topical formulation has the same toxicity as the oral formulation."
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Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31132
Sample Questions
Q1) The prescriber orders 20 mg of hydrocortisone orally once each day. The nurse will make sure the drug is scheduled to be administered at what time?
A) 8:00 AM
B) 12:00 PM
C) 4:00 PM
D) 9:00 PM
Q2) A 60-year-old female patient is about to begin long-term therapy with a glucocorticoid. Which of the following will be important for minimizing the risk of osteoporosis?
A) Baseline vitamin D level
B) Calcium and vitamin D supplements
C) Estrogen therapy
D) Skeletal x-rays before treatment
Q3) Which disorders may be treated with glucocorticoids? (Select all that apply.)
A) Allergic rhinitis
B) Anaphylaxis
C) Bronchiolitis
D) Gout
E) Ulcerative colitis
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Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31133
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin taking hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) for rheumatoid arthritis. The patient is currently taking high-dose NSAIDs and methotrexate. What will the nurse teach the patient?
A) That an eye exam is necessary at the beginning of therapy with this drug
B) That the dose of NSAIDs may be decreased when beginning hydroxychloroquine
C) To obtain tests of renal and hepatic function while taking this drug
D) To stop taking methotrexate when starting hydroxychloroquine
Q2) A patient will begin taking etanercept (Enbrel) for severe rheumatoid arthritis. The patient has been taking methotrexate (Rheumatrex). The patient asks if the etanercept is stronger than the methotrexate. The nurse will tell the patient that etanercept _____ methotrexate.
A) has synergistic effects with B) helps reduce adverse effects associated with C) is better at delaying progression of joint damage than D) has fewer adverse effects than
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Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31134
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with gout who has increasingly frequent acute gouty attacks will begin receiving allopurinol (Zyloprim) and colchicine. The nurse will include which statement when teaching the patient about this drug regimen?
A) "Allopurinol helps reduce the gastrointestinal side effects of colchicine."
B) "Allopurinol reduces the likelihood of gouty episodes that usually occur with initial colchicine therapy."
C) "The colchicine is given to enhance the effects of the allopurinol."
D) "You will take both drugs initially and then stop taking the colchicine."
Q2) A patient with chronic gout is admitted to the hospital for treatment for an infection. The patient is receiving allopurinol and ampicillin. The nurse is preparing to administer medications and notes that the patient has a temperature of 101° F and a rash. What will the nurse do?
A) Withhold the allopurinol and notify the prescriber of the drug reaction.
B) Withhold the ampicillin and contact the provider to request a different antibiotic.
C) Request an order for an antihistamine to minimize the drug side effects.
D) Suggest giving a lower dose of the allopurinol while giving ampicillin.
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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone
Mineralization
Available
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31135
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has developed postmenopausal osteoporosis will begin taking alendronate (Fosamax). The nurse will teach this patient to take the drug:
A) at bedtime to minimize adverse effects.
B) for a maximum of 1 to 2 years.
C) while sitting upright with plenty of water.
D) with coffee or orange juice to increase absorption.
Q2) A nurse is providing education to a patient who will begin taking alendronate (Fosamax). Which complication should the patient be instructed to report immediately?
A) Difficulty swallowing
B) Dizziness
C) Drowsiness
D) Pallor
Q3) A patient taking risedronate IR (Actonel) for osteoporosis reports experiencing diarrhea and headaches. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) These are common side effects of this drug.
B) These symptoms indicate serious toxicity.
C) The patient should discuss taking risedronate DR (Atelvia) with the provider.
D) The medication should be taken after a meal to reduce symptoms.
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Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31136
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse and a nursing student are reviewing the care of a 30-kg patient who will receive intravenous aminophylline. Which statement by the student indicates an understanding of the administration of this medication?
A) "After the loading dose has been given, the patient will receive 6 mg/kg/hr."
B) "Dosing is titrated based on the serum theophylline levels."
C) "If the patient's serum theophylline level is less than 15 mcg/mL, the rate should be reduced."
D) "The patient will receive a loading dose of 180 mg over 5 minutes."
Q2) A patient who uses an inhaled glucocorticoid for chronic asthma calls the nurse to report hoarseness. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask whether the patient is gargling after each dose of the glucocorticoid.
B) Request an order for an antifungal medication.
C) Suggest that the patient be tested for a bronchial infection.
D) Tell the patient to discontinue use of the glucocorticoid.
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Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31137
Sample Questions
Q1) What is ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)?
A) A cholinergic agent used for perennial rhinitis
B) An anticholinergic used for allergic rhinitis and colds
C) A medication that is used only in patients with asthma
D) A drug that is inappropriate for use in patients with allergic rhinitis
Q2) A child who has perennial allergic rhinitis has been using an intranasal glucocorticoid. The provider has ordered montelukast (Singulair) to replace the glucocorticoid, because the child has frequent nosebleeds. When teaching this child's parents about montelukast, the nurse will include which statement?
A) "Montelukast is also effective for treating infectious rhinitis."
B) "Montelukast may cause behavior changes in your child."
C) "Montelukast will treat both congestion and rhinitis."
D) "Montelukast works best when combined with a topical decongestant."
Q3) A patient asks the nurse what type of medications would be most effective for treating seasonal and perennial rhinitis. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed)
B) Fluticasone propionate (Fluticasone)
C) Loratadine (Claritin)
D) Intranasal cromolyn sodium (Atrovent)
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Page 79
Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31138
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing education to a patient who has been prescribed both an antacid and ranitidine (Zantac). Which instruction should the nurse give the patient about taking the medications?
A) "Take the antacid 1 hour after the ranitidine."
B) "The antacid and ranitidine should be taken at the same time for better effect."
C) "Take the antacid 15 minutes before the ranitidine."
D) "Take the antacid 30 minutes after the ranitidine."
Q2) When metronidazole (Flagyl) is a component of the H. pylori treatment regimen, the patient must be instructed to do what?
A) Avoid any alcoholic beverages
B) Avoid foods containing tyramine
C) Take the drug on an empty stomach
D) Take the drug with food
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Chapter 79: Laxatives
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31139
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will undergo a colonoscopy, and the provider has ordered sodium phosphate as a bowel cleanser before the procedure. The nurse reviews the patient's chart and notes that the patient's creatinine clearance and blood urea nitrogen are both elevated. What will the nurse do?
A) Reduce the amount of fluid given with the laxative to prevent fluid retention
B) Request an order to give polyethylene glycol and electrolytes (PEG-ELS) instead.
C) Suggest that the patient reduce the dietary sodium intake.
D) Suggest using a suppository laxative instead.
Q2) A patient has been taking senna (Senokot) for several days, and the nurse notes that the urine is yellowish-brown. What does the nurse know about this symptom?
A) It indicates that renal failure has occurred.
B) It is caused by dehydration, which is a laxative side effect.
C) It is a sign of toxicity, indicating immediate withdrawal of the drug.
D) It is an expected, harmless effect of senna.
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Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31140
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is discussing the use of immunosuppressants for the treatment of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Azathioprine (Imuran) helps induce rapid remission of IBD."
B) "Cyclosporine (Sandimmune) can be used to induce remission of IBD."
C) "Cyclosporine (Sandimmune) does not have serious adverse effects."
D) "Methotrexate is used long term to maintain remission of IBD."
Q2) Which types of drugs are used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Aminosalicylates
B) Glucocorticoids
C) Immunomodulators
D) Opioid antidiarrheals
E) Sulfonamide antibiotics
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Chapter 81: Vitamins
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31141
Sample Questions
Q1) What are potential beneficial effects of taking vitamin E (alpha-tocopherol) supplements? (Select all that apply.)
A) Delayed progression of macular degeneration
B) Improved blood clotting
C) Lowered risk of developing Alzheimer's disease
D) Reduced risk of cardiovascular disease
E) Reduced risk of colds in elderly patients
Q2) A nursing student asks a nurse working in the newborn nursery how vitamin K deficiency is treated in newborns. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "A newborn infant's intestinal flora will produce vitamin K."
B) "If coagulation studies show a bleeding disorder, oral menadione is given."
C) "Menadione is given intravenously shortly after delivery."
D) "Phytonadione is given intramuscularly immediately after delivery."
Q3) A patient with hyperlipidemia has been told by the provider to take extra niacin. The nurse will tell the patient to:
A) increase servings of poultry, fish, and cereals.
B) take nicotinamide supplements.
C) take nicotinic acid supplements.
D) take tryptophan supplements.
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Page 83
Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31142
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a nursing student about the use of leptin for treating obesity. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Daily injections of leptin appear to stimulate weight loss in the majority of people who use it."
B) "Leptin acts to reduce appetite in patients who are known to be leptin deficient."
C) "Obese patients are almost always leptin deficient and would benefit from this therapy."
D) "Young patients receiving leptin to treat obesity will experience delayed puberty."
Q2) A nurse performing an admission history on a patient learns that the patient is taking orlistat (Xenical), warfarin (Coumadin), and levothyroxine (Synthroid). What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider to discuss increasing the warfarin dose.
B) Give the levothyroxine at least 4 hours before giving the orlistat.
C) Suggest that the patient avoid fatty foods while taking these medications.
D) Tell the patient to take the orlistat on an empty stomach.
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84
Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31143
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a nursing student about the mechanism by which antimicrobial agents achieve selective toxicity. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Some agents disrupt the bacterial cell wall."
B) "Some agents act to block the conversion of para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) to folic acid."
C) "Some agents cause phagocytosis of bacterial cells."
D) "Some agents weaken the cell wall, causing cell wall lysis."
Q2) The nurse has been caring for a patient who has been taking antibiotics for 3 weeks. Upon assessing the patient, the nurse notices the individual has developed oral thrush. What describes the etiology of the thrush?
A) Antibiotic resistance
B) Community-acquired infection
C) Nosocomial infection
D) Suprainfection
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Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I:
Penicillins
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31144
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has an infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. The prescriber has ordered dicloxacillin PO. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the medication as ordered.
B) Contact the provider to suggest giving the drug IV.
C) Question the need for a penicillinase-resistant penicillin.
D) Suggest ordering vancomycin to treat this infection.
Q2) A child with an ear infection is not responding to treatment with amoxicillin (Amoxil). The nurse will expect the provider to order:
A) amoxicillin-clavulanic acid (Augmentin).
B) ampicillin.
C) nafcillin.
D) penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin).
Q3) A nurse assisting a nursing student with medications asks the student to describe how penicillins (PCNs) work to treat bacterial infections. The student is correct in responding that penicillins:
A) disinhibit transpeptidases.
B) disrupt bacterial cell wall synthesis.
C) inhibit autolysins.
D) inhibit host cell wall function.
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Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall 2: F
Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, Teicoplanin, and Fosfomycin
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31145
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving vancomycin (Vancocin). The nurse notes that the patient is experiencing flushing, rash, pruritus, and urticaria. The patient's heart rate is 120 beats per minute, and the blood pressure is 92/57 mm Hg. The nurse understands that these findings are consistent with:
A) allergic reaction.
B) red man syndrome.
C) rhabdomyolysis.
D) Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
Q2) A patient will be discharged home to complete treatment with intravenous cefotetan with the assistance of a home nurse. The home care nurse will include which instruction when teaching the patient about this drug treatment?
A) Abstain from alcohol consumption during therapy.
B) Avoid dairy products while taking this drug.
C) Take an antihistamine if a rash occurs.
D) Use nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), not acetaminophen, for pain.
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Chapter 86: Bacteriostatic Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis:
Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31146
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a nursing student about dalfopristin/quinupristin (Synercid).
Which statement by the student indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A) "Patients should stop taking the drug if they experience joint and muscle pain."
B) "Patients taking this drug should have blood tests performed frequently."
C) "Patients who are allergic to penicillin should not take this drug."
D) "This drug will be administered intravenously over a 30- to 60-minute period."
Q2) A patient received 500 mg of azithromycin (Zithromax) at 0800 as a first dose. What are the usual amount and time of the second dose of azithromycin?
A) 250 mg at 2000 the same day
B) 500 mg at 2000 the same day
C) 250 mg at 0800 the next day
D) 500 mg at 0800 the next day
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88
Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31147
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted to the unit for treatment for an infection. The patient receives IV amikacin (Amikin) twice a day. When planning for obtaining a peak aminoglycoside level, when should the nurse see that the blood is drawn?
A) 30 minutes after the IV infusion is complete
B) 1 hour after the IV infusion is complete
C) 1 hour before administration of the IV infusion
D) A peak level is not indicated with twice-daily dosing.
Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of gentamicin to a patient who is receiving the drug 3 times daily. The nurse will monitor _____ levels.
A) peak
B) peak and trough
C) serum drug
D) trough
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Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31148
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with bronchitis is taking TMP/SMZ, 106/80 mg orally, twice daily. Before administering the third dose, the nurse notes that the patient has a widespread rash, a temperature of 103° F, and a heart rate of 100 beats per minute. The patient looks ill and reports not feeling well. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the dose and request an order for an antipyretic medication.
B) Withhold the dose and request an order for an antihistamine to treat the rash.
C) Withhold the dose and notify the provider of the symptoms.
D) Request an order for intravenous TMP/SMZ, because the patient is getting worse.
Q2) A patient with a urinary tract infection is given a prescription for TMP/SMZ. When reviewing the drug with the patient, the nurse learns that the patient has type 1 diabetes mellitus and consumes alcohol heavily. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider to request a different antibiotic for this patient.
B) Obtain frequent blood glucose determinations while giving TMP/SMZ.
C) Suggest that the patient take a potassium supplement while taking TMP/SMZ.
D) Tell the patient to avoid excessive fluid intake while taking TMP/SMZ.
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90
Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31149
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking nitrofurantoin calls the nurse to report several side effects. Which side effect of this drug causes the most concern and would require discontinuation of the medication?
A) Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting
B) Brown-colored urine
C) Drowsiness
D) Tingling of the fingers
Q2) A 30-year-old male patient reports having two to four urinary tract infections a year. What will the nurse expect to teach this patient?
A) "Make sure you void after intercourse and drink extra fluids to stay well hydrated."
B) "We will treat each infection as a separate infection and treat with short-course therapy."
C) "You will need to take a low dose of medication for 6 months to prevent infections."
D) "You will need to take antibiotics for 4 to 6 weeks each time you have an infection."
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Chapter 90: Antimycobacterial Agents: Drugs for
Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium Avium Complex
Infection
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31150
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient newly diagnosed with tuberculosis asks the nurse why oral medications must be given in the clinic. The nurse will tell the patient that medications are given in the clinic so that:
A) clinic staff can observe adherence to drug regimens.
B) nurses can monitor for drug toxicities.
C) providers can adjust doses as needed.
D) the staff can ensure that the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulations are met.
Q2) A nursing student asks a nurse why tuberculosis resistance is so high. Which reasons are correct? (Select all that apply.)
A) Adherence to drug regimens is erratic.
B) Drug doses are often too low.
C) Many hosts are immunocompromised.
D) Many regimens contain too few drugs.
E) Some TB drugs are bacteriostatic.
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92
Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:
Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31151
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer an antibiotic to a patient with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The nurse would expect the healthcare provider to order which antibiotic?
A) Daptomycin (Cubicin)
B) Levofloxacin (Levaquin)
C) TMP/SMZ (Bactrim)
D) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
Q2) A nursing student is caring for a patient with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) who also has a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) skin infection. The prescriber has ordered daptomycin (Cubicin). The nurse encourages the student to approach the provider to request a different antibiotic because of which fact(s) about daptomycin? (Select all that apply.)
A) It causes significant renal impairment.
B) It is approved only for bloodstream and skin infections.
C) It increases the risk of serious cardiorespiratory events.
D) It is more likely to produce resistant strains of bacteria.
E) It is not effective against MRSA infections.
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Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31152
Sample Questions
Q1) Which superficial mycosis is generally treated with oral antifungal agents?
A) Tinea capitis
B) Tinea corporis
C) Tinea cruris
D) Tinea pedis
Q2) A patient with histoplasmosis is being treated with itraconazole (Sporanox). The nurse will teach this patient to report which symptoms?
A) Gynecomastia and decreased libido
B) Headache and rash
C) Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia
D) Visual disturbances
Q3) A nursing student asks a nurse to explain the differences between amphotericin B (Abelcet) and the azoles group of antifungal agents. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Amphotericin B can be given orally or intravenously ."
B) "Amphotericin B increases the levels of many other drugs."
C) "Azoles have lower toxicity than amphotericin B."
D) "Only the azoles are broad-spectrum antifungal agents."
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94
Chapter 93: Antiviral Agents I: Drugs for Non-Hiv Viral
Infections
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31153
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a positive test for hepatitis C and is admitted to the hospital. The admission laboratory tests reveal a normal ALT, and a liver biopsy is negative for hepatic fibrosis and inflammation. The nurse will prepare this patient for:
A) dual therapy with pegylated interferon alfa and ribavirin.
B) no medication therapy at this time.
C) pegylated interferon alfa only until ALT levels are elevated.
D) triple drug therapy with pegylated interferon alfa, ribavirin, and boceprevir.
Q2) A patient with hepatitis B begins treatment with adefovir (Hepsera) and asks the nurse how long the drug therapy will last. The nurse will tell the patient that the medication will need to be taken for:
A) a lifetime.
B) an indefinite, prolonged period of time.
C) forty-eight weeks.
D) until nephrotoxicity occurs.
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95
Chapter
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31154
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a patient recently started on Delavirdine (Rescriptor). Which concurrent prescription should the nurse question before administration?
A) Alprazolam (Xanax)
B) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
C) Morphine
D) Penicillin
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient on a protease inhibitor (PI). Upon review of the laboratory test results, the nurse notes that the patient has newly elevated plasma triglycerides and cholesterol. The nurse expects that the prescriber will manage these levels with:
A) lovastatin (Mevacor).
B) simvastatin (Zocor).
C) modified diet and exercise.
D) pancrease.
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Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31155
Sample Questions
Q1) Which infection(s) may be acquired through nonsexual transmission? (Select all that apply.)
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Gardnerella vaginalis
C) Herpes simplex
D) Neisseria gonorrhea
E) Treponema pallidum
F) None of the above
Q2) An adolescent patient comes to the clinic complaining of a burning sensation upon urination and a pus-like discharge from the penis. The nurse is correct to suspect that the patient has which disorder?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Herpes simplex
C) Nongonococcal urethritis
D) Syphilis
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Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31156
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse why systemic antibiotics and not topical antiseptic agents are used to treat localized skin infections. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Systemic agents are not affected by wound exudates."
B) "Systemic agents penetrate to the site of infection."
C) "Topical agents can damage inflamed or abraded tissues."
D) "Topical agents work only against established local infections."
Q2) A student has just performed a physical assessment on a patient who has an infection with C. difficile. The student uses an alcohol hand rub while preparing to leave the room. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Ask the student to wash with soap and water before exiting the room.
B) Discuss the matter with the student later in a quiet area.
C) No action is required.
D) Report the student's action to the instructor.
Q3) For which patient would a topical antiseptic be most appropriate?
A) A patient with a systemic infection
B) A patient with a medium-sized abscess
C) A patient who has a wound with moderate exudate
D) A patient who needs to have wounds cleansed for prophylaxis
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Page 98
Chapter 97: Anthelmintics
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31157
Sample Questions
Q1) A young female patient is seen in a rural clinic after complaining of abdominal pain. The patient is wearing dirty clothing and is barefoot. The provider orders a complete blood count, which shows that the patient is anemic. The nurse may suspect that this patient has which of the following infestations?
A) Ancylostomiasis (hookworm)
B) Ascariasis (giant roundworm)
C) Enterobiasis (pinworm)
D) Trichuriasis (whipworm)
Q2) A patient tells the nurse that a close friend has ascariasis. The patient expresses worry about becoming infested. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) "Ascariasis usually resolves without treatment, so you should not worry."
B) "Avoid going barefoot and practice good hygiene and you won't become infested."
C) "Treatment is always indicated if you are exposed, because ascariasis is contagious."
D) "You should be tested, because serious complications can occur without treatment."
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Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31158
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient who is preparing to travel for a month-long missionary trip to Africa. The provider has ordered chloroquine (Aralen Phosphate) as suppressive therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should continue taking the drug for 2 weeks after returning home."
B) "I should take 500 mg of this drug once each week."
C) "I should take the first dose 1 week before leaving for Africa."
D) "I should take this drug with meals."
Q2) A patient who is a missionary has returned from Africa to the United States and has completed treatment for an acute attack of P. vivax malaria. The provider has determined that clinical cure has been achieved. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about:
A) beginning medications for a radical cure.
B) beginning suppressive therapy.
C) reporting visual disturbances and headaches.
D) using insect repellents and mosquito netting.
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Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs 2: F Miscellaneous Agents
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31159
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient taking metronidazole (Flagyl) for asymptomatic intestinal amebiasis complains of tingling and numbness of the hands and feet. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Encourage the patient to exercise to improve circulation.
B) Inform the patient that numbness is a common and reversible side effect.
C) Stress the need to avoid constrictive clothing and crossing the legs.
D) Withhold the drug and notify the prescriber.
Q2) A patient from Africa is being treated for East African trypanosomiasis. The nurse is preparing to administer a first dose of suramin sodium (Germanin). To prevent serious side effects, which action will the nurse take?
A) Administer a small test dose before giving the drug.
B) Ask the patient to lie flat while the drug is given.
C) Give a high-fat snack with the drug to minimize gastric upset.
D) Suggest to the provider that liver function tests (LFTs) be performed.
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Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31160
Sample Questions
Q1) A public health nurse visits with the parents of a child who has body lice. It is most important that the nurse tell the parents that:
A) body lice are transmitted by direct person-to-person contact.
B) treatment of skin surfaces will eradicate the infestation.
C) all clothing and bedding must be disinfected.
D) lice burrow into the body, and vigorous scrubbing is required to remove them.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a class at a community center on communicable diseases. Which statement by a member of the class best demonstrates understanding of the epidemiology of head lice?
A) "All socioeconomic groups are at risk for this infestation."
B) "Head lice affect only people in crowded environments."
C) "Head lice are transmitted only by direct person-to-person contact."
D) "The infestation can be acquired from house pets."
Q3) Which patient should not use lindane? (Select all that apply.)
A) A child with a history of seizures
B) A patient who has used lindane in the past 2 months
C) A person who weighs 115 pounds
D) A person with an autoimmune disorder
E) A person with atopic dermatitis
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Page 102
Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31161
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has just been diagnosed with cancer and will begin chemotherapy. The patient asks the nurse about the possibility of nausea and vomiting. The nurse will tell the patient that:
A) nausea and vomiting can be avoided by having a snack before chemotherapy.
B) nausea and vomiting are common side effects and will abate over time.
C) nausea and vomiting are common and will be treated with antiemetics when they occur.
D) the provider will order drugs to help prevent nausea and vomiting before each dose.
Q2) A patient is receiving chemotherapy. Seven days after a dose, the patient's neutrophil count is 1,000 cells/mm³. The nurse will tell this patient:
A) that hospitalization is necessary to provide infection prophylaxis.
B) that the provider will probably repeat the work in 3 to 5 days.
C) to ask the provider about skipping the next dose of chemotherapy.
D) to report any symptoms such as pus, abscesses, or cough.
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103
Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31162
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is discussing the care of a patient with cancer with a nursing student. The patient is about to begin chemotherapy with a bifunctional alkylating agent. Which statement by the student indicates an understanding of this chemotherapeutic agent?
A) "Alkylating agents are toxic to tissues that have rapidly dividing cells."
B) "Bifunctional alkylating agents do not have the capacity to form cross-links in DNA."
C) "Resistance to alkylating agents is rare."
D) "This drug needs to be given as a prolonged infusion."
Q2) A patient will receive intrathecal liposomal cytarabine (DepoCyt) to treat acute myelogenous leukemia. The provider has ordered the concurrent administration of dexamethasone. The nurse understands that this is given to:
A) prevent bone marrow suppression.
B) prevent hair loss and stomatitis.
C) reduce the incidence of pulmonary edema.
D) reduce the severity of chemical arachnoiditis.
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Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs 2: F Hormonal Agents,
Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31163
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would be correct to state that the purpose of angiogenesis inhibitors is to:
A) kill existing cancer cells directly.
B) suppress the formation of new blood vessels in tumors.
C) enhance the size of collateral vessels.
D) enhance red cell development in the bone marrow.
Q2) A 45-year-old patient with a family history of breast cancer is considering using tamoxifen (Nolvadex) for cancer prevention. The nurse performs a health history and learns that the woman had a child when she was 35 years old, that she has not had a hysterectomy, and that she experienced DVT when she was pregnant. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) Because of her family risk and late childbearing, this drug is a good choice for her.
B) Her history of DVT outweighs any possible benefits she may have with this drug.
C) Since she has not had a hysterectomy, the risk of endometrial cancer is too great.
D) When she turns 50 years old, this drug will carry fewer risks for her.
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Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31164
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse in an ophthalmology clinic instills an anticholinergic agent into a patient's eyes. The nurse provides teaching when the patient asks the reason for the drops. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "The drops help prevent my lenses from moving during the exam."
B) "The drops will cause me to have blurred vision and sensitivity to light."
C) "These drops allow the ophthalmologist to see inside my eyes."
D) "This medication anesthetizes my eyes so that the exam won't be painful."
Q2) A patient is about to undergo emergency surgery for acute angle-closure glaucoma. Before surgery, which agent(s) will the nurse expect to administer? (Select all that apply.)
A) Acetazolamide
B) Brimonidine (Alphagan)
C) Mannitol
D) Phenylephrine
E) Timolol
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Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31165
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is using a high-concentration keratolytic agent containing salicylic acid to remove warts. What will the nurse teach this patient?
A) Peeling and drying are desired effects of this drug.
B) Systemic effects may occur with this medication.
C) Tinnitus is a common side effect of little concern.
D) Tissue injury is unlikely at this dose.
Q2) A patient asks a nurse what a sun protection factor (SPF) of 15 indicates. The nurse will tell the patient that an SPF of 15 indicates:
A) a 93% block of UVB radiation.
B) half the protection of a sunscreen with an SPF of 30.
C) low protection.
D) it takes 15 minutes for the sun to burn.
Q3) A 50-year-old patient asks about using tretinoin (Renova) to minimize wrinkles. What will the nurse will tell the patient?
A) The drug may be discontinued once results are obtained.
B) Results may be visible within a few weeks of starting therapy.
C) Systemic toxicity is a common effect in patients with sensitive skin.
D) The drug is not effective on coarse wrinkles or sun-damaged skin.
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Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31166
Sample Questions
Q1) A 12-month-old child attends day care and is seen in a clinic for a second middle ear infection since age 8 months. The parent calls the nurse to report that after the third day of giving amoxicillin (Amoxil), the child continues to have a temperature of 39.5° C and is unable to sleep well because of pain. What will the nurse do?
A) Encourage the parent to discuss amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) with the child's provider.
B) Recommend that the parent consider removing the child from day care to reduce exposure to infection.
C) Schedule a clinic appointment for the child to clinic to receive ceftriaxone (Rocephin) IM.
D) Tell the parent the child will probably need surgery for tympanostomy tubes to reduce infections.
Q2) Which are components of otitis externa management? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ciprofloxacin and hydrocortisone otic drops
B) Cleaning the ear canals with a cotton-tipped applicator
C) Keeping the external ear canal dry after swimming
D) Taking systemic antibiotics, such as amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin)
E) Using a solution of alcohol and acetic acid to dry and acidify the ear
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Chapter 107: Miscellaneous Noteworthy Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) is receiving epoprostenol (Flolan) at a rate of 210 ng per minute using a portable pump. The patient weighs 70 kg. The patient calls the clinic to report headache, nausea, and vomiting. The nurse will counsel the patient to:
A) decrease the infusion to 100 ng per minute.
B) discuss these side effects with the provider.
C) prepare for a hospital admission.
D) stop the infusion and contact the provider.
Q2) A patient with cystic fibrosis uses inhaled tobramycin (TOBI) 300 mg every 12 hours in repeating cycles of 4 weeks on and 4 weeks off. The patient reports hoarseness and tinnitus. The nurse will tell the patient that:
A) an intravenous form may be used to avoid hoarseness.
B) hearing loss may occur with continued use of the drug.
C) the provider will need to monitor renal function closely.
D) these are common side effects of this medication.
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Chapter 108: Dietary Supplements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which claim may be made by manufacturers of dietary supplements? (Select all that apply.)
A) "Energizes and rejuvenates"
B) "Promotes pulmonary health"
C) "Reduces pain and stiffness from arthritis"
D) "Reduces stress"
E) "Relieves hot flashes associated with menopause"
Q2) A patient will begin taking drugs for hyperlipidemia. The patient asks about using flaxseed supplements to increase fiber. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) Not to use defatted flaxseed
B) That flaxseed helps with the absorption of medications
C) That flaxseed is not recommended
D) To take the flaxseed one hour before taking the drug
Q3) A patient will begin taking immunosuppressant drugs for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse will caution this patient to avoid which dietary supplement?
A) Black cohosh
B) Echinacea
C) Feverfew
D) Glucosamine
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Page 110
Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient overdosed on aspirin several hours ago and is brought to the emergency department. The nurse assists with supportive care and then asks the provider about an order for which drug?
A) Activated charcoal
B) Ammonium chloride
C) Fomepizole (Antizole)
D) Sodium bicarbonate
Q2) A patient will begin taking dimercaprol (BAL in Oil) for arsenic poisoning. The nurse performs a medical history on this patient. Which aspect of the patient's history would cause the most concern?
A) Anemia
B) Lead exposure
C) Peanut allergy
D) Peptic ulcer disease
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Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient reported to have been exposed to mustard gas is brought to the emergency department. The patient's skin is red and swollen with small blisters, and the patient's eyes are red and tearing. The patient has a runny nose and a dry, barking cough. What should the nurse's initial action be?
A) Prepare for renal dialysis.
B) Provide oxygen and prepare for mechanical ventilation.
C) Remove the patient's clothing and clean the skin with soap and water.
D) Rush the patient to the intensive care unit for cardiorespiratory monitoring.
Q2) A patient is admitted to the hospital with fever, cough, malaise, and weakness. Forty-eight hours later, the symptoms have become progressively worse, and they progress to severe respiratory distress, septicemia, and hemorrhagic meningitis. The nurse recognizes these signs and symptoms as:
A) tularemia.
B) smallpox.
C) inhalation anthrax.
D) pneumonic plague.
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