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This course provides a comprehensive overview of the principles and practices involved in delivering nursing care to adult patients. Emphasis is placed on the assessment and management of common health conditions across the adult lifespan, with attention to physiological, psychological, social, and cultural aspects of care. Students will develop clinical reasoning skills through the application of evidence-based practice, interdisciplinary collaboration, and patient-centered care strategies within acute and long-term care settings. The course also addresses health promotion, disease prevention, and the management of chronic illness, preparing students to support adults' health and recovery needs in diverse healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Surgical Nursing in Canada 3rd Canadian Edition by Lewis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
72 Chapters
1742 Verified Questions
1742 Flashcards
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78758
Sample Questions
Q1) An emaciated older adult patient is admitted to the critical care unit.The nurse plans a schedule of turning the patient every two hours to prevent skin breakdown.This is considered to be what type of nursing action?
A) Dependent
B) Cooperative
C) Independent
D) Collaborative
Answer: D
Q2) Which characteristic is consistent with critical thinking?
A) Do not use abstract ideas.
B) Think within alternative systems of thought.
C) Encourage cooperative relationships from positions of power and authority.
D) Use the trial-and-error method for effective problem-solving options.
Answer: B
Q3) Which phase of the nursing process is too often not addressed sufficiently?
A) Planning
B) Diagnosis
C) Implementation
D) Evaluation
Answer: D
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78747
Sample Questions
Q1) An Aboriginal patient tells the nurse that he thinks his abdominal pain is caused by eating too much seal fat and that strong massage over the stomach will help it.What is this patient describing?
A) Awareness and knowledge of his own culture
B) Encounters with cultures different from his own
C) Explanatory model of health and health practices
D) Knowledge about the differences in modern and folk health practices
Answer: C
Q2) If an interpreter is not available when a patient speaks a language different from the nurse's,which action is most appropriate?
A) Use specific medical terms in the Latin form.
B) Talk loudly and slowly so that each word is clearly heard.
C) Repeat important words so that the patient recognizes their importance.
D) Use pantomime to demonstrate what is to be communicated to the patient.
Answer: D
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78736
Sample Questions
Q1) A man is admitted to the hospital with difficulty breathing.What is the best approach to obtain a health history?
A) Obtain subjective data about the patient from his family members.
B) Delay any subjective data collection,and focus only on his physical examination.
C) Schedule several short sessions with the patient to gather necessary subjective data.
D) Use the physician's medical history as the primary source of subjective data.
Answer: C
Q2) A patient reports that she has periodic fainting spells.In gathering more specific information,the nurse asks where these episodes most commonly occur.In what area is the nurse pursuing symptom investigation?
A) Setting
B) Frequency
C) Chronology
D) Associated manifestations
Answer: A
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78725
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient with peripheral vascular disease about foot care.Which is a correctly written specific learning objective for this patient?
A) "The nurse will instruct the patient on appropriate foot care."
B) "Demonstrate the proper technique for trimming toenails to the patient."
C) "By discharge,the patient will list three ways to protect the feet from injury."
D) "The patient will understand the rationale for proper foot care after instruction."
Q2) When using the transtheoretical model of health behaviour change during patient teaching,the nurse listens to the patient state,"I told my wife that I was going to start exercising,and I think I will join a fitness club." Which stage of change is this patient in?
A) Action
B) Preparation
C) Termination
D) Maintenance
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78714
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following reflects a characteristic of health-related hardiness known as "challenge"?
A) Confidence to appraise a health stressor
B) Ability to modify responses to health stressors
C) Viewing a health stressor as an opportunity for growth
D) Optimal psychosocial adaptation to a health stressor
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic illness?
A) Abrupt onset
B) Usually single cause
C) Cure usually likely
D) Uncertainty pervasive
Q3) Chronic illness accounts for well over half (63%)of all deaths globally.Which chronic illness accounts for the highest proportion of those deaths in Canada?
A) Cancer
B) Diabetes
C) Cardiovascular disease
D) Chronic respiratory disease
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78703
Sample Questions
Q1) How should the nurse describe home care services to a patient requiring extended care?
A) Home care services are limited to visits by nurses or home health aides.
B) For the expenses of home care to be covered,the patient must be confined to bed.
C) The patient's family will need to be included in planning and teaching about the patient's care.
D) Technologically complex therapies,such as parenteral chemotherapy and mechanical ventilators,cannot be managed at home.
Q2) Primary health care is increasingly being embraced as a strategy to shift the health system's focus from treatment of disease to health promotion.This shift is known as which of the following?
A) Economic shift
B) Reforming the system
C) Enhancing primary health care
D) Chronic disease management in home care settings
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78692
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a normal physiological age-related change of the cardiovascular system?
A) Elastin and smooth muscle increases.
B) Vessel rigidity decreases.
C) Heart muscle decreases.
D) Mitral valve constriction increases.
Q2) Why is ageism an important concept to understand when caring for the elderly?
A) May damage the self-esteem of older adults
B) Increases social awareness of the needs of older adults
C) Provides statistical information regarding the older adult population
D) Promotes consideration of the diversity of the older adult population
Q3) In planning care for older adult patients with chronic illnesses,what does the nurse recognize that management of chronic illness requires?
A) Institutionalization in long-term care facilities
B) Adjusting to changes in the course of the disease
C) Restricting social interactions outside of the home
D) Frequent hospitalizations for treatment of acute episodes of the illness
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78688
Sample Questions
Q1) Which complementary and alternative therapy is an ancient strategy that is used to relax and promote mindfulness?
A) Imagery
B) Meditation
C) Acupuncture
D) Music for relaxation
Q2) According to the general adaptation theory,which of the following occurs when a patient is in the alarm reaction phase?
A) Decreased cardiac output
B) Peripheral vasodilatation
C) Decreased stroke volume
D) Decreased gastrointestinal secretions
Q3) When developing a pathophysiological map for a cognitive appraisal process,what must occur first?
A) A stimulus
B) A patient-identified need
C) Evidence of alteration in cognitive functioning
D) A primary appraisal of the patient and the situation
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78687
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should the nurse teach a patient to assist him or her with a sleep disturbance?
A) If you are not asleep within one hour of going to bed,get out of the bed.
B) Exercise an hour before going to bed.
C) Have a glass of wine or a beer just before bedtime.
D) Avoid caffeine and alcohol for at least four hours before bedtime.
Q2) Which of the following is an arousal parasomnia that occurs during NREM sleep?
A) Enuresis
B) Hallucinations
C) Sleepwalking
D) Nightmares
Q3) What should the nurse do,initially,to assist in determining whether a patient seen in the ambulatory care setting has chronic insomnia?
A) Schedule a polysomnography (PSG)study.
B) Arrange for the patient to have a sleep study.
C) Ask the patient to keep a two-week sleep diary.
D) Teach the patient about the use of an actigraph.
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78757
Sample Questions
Q1) To obtain the most complete assessment data about a patient's chronic pain pattern,what should the nurse ask the patient?
A) "Can you describe where your pain is the worst?"
B) "What is the intensity of your pain on a scale of 0 to 10?"
C) "Would you describe your pain as aching,throbbing,or sharp?"
D) "Can you describe your daily activities in relation to your pain?"
Q2) The physician plans to titrate narcotic analgesic to provide pain relief for a patient with surgical pain.What does the nurse's role in include?
A) Monitoring the effects of continuous intravenous (IV)infusion of narcotic analgesics
B) Teaching the patient to try to increase the time between doses of pain medication
C) Assisting the patient to plan the use of a specific total dose of analgesic over a 24-hour period
D) Determining with the patient the optimal analgesic dosage required for pain relief with attention to the side effects produced
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78756
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient hospitalized for elective surgery stopped smoking two days before admission as advised by the nurse.When caring for the patient postoperatively,what does the nurse recognize that nicotine withdrawal may cause?
A) Insomnia,craving,and hyperirritability
B) Headache,nervousness,and depression
C) Fatigue,somnolence,and shortness of breath
D) Loss of appetite,increased heart rate,and increased blood pressure
Q2) When working with individuals with any substance dependency,during cessation and recovery,why does the nurse advise them to avoid activities and places associated with the substance use?
A) To decrease cue-induced craving
B) To increase their motivation to continue abstinence
C) To prevent substance-abusing friends from influencing their behaviour
D) To avoid reminders of the negative behaviours they previously demonstrated
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78755
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding healing touch?
A) It has strong ties to religious beliefs.
B) It is a physician-based program.
C) It assists the patient to self-heal.
D) The nurse determines its effectiveness.
Q2) Which of the following patients does the nurse deduce is seeing an alternative medical practitioner?
A) A patient who prevents and treats migraine headaches with acupuncture
B) A patient who uses progressive relaxation to control the nausea of cancer chemotherapy
C) A patient who supplements chiropractic manipulation for low back pain with muscle relaxants
D) A patient who takes vitamin and mineral supplements as treatment for gastrointestinal malabsorption
Q3) Which therapy is appropriate for the nurse to suggest for a patient with fibromyalgia?
A) Acupuncture
B) Aromatherapy
C) Magnetic therapy
D) Therapeutic touch
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78754
Sample Questions
Q1) A 48-year-old man has been diagnosed with metastatic malignant melanoma and has a poor prognosis.He plans an extensive trip around the country to visit family he has not seen or talked with in years.What psychosocial response does the nurse recognize that the patient is manifesting?
A) Restlessness
B) Saying goodbye
C) Unfinished business
D) Altered decision making
Q2) Which of the following health care providers is legally qualified to complete a certification of death?
A) Paramedic
B) Physician
C) Registered nurse
D) Licensed practical nurse
Q3) Which of the following is a lay term used to describe instructions about future medical care?
A) DNR orders
B) Living will
C) Advance directive
D) Power of attorney for personal care
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78753
Sample Questions
Q1) In evaluating a patient's inflammatory response,by what does the nurse understand that the activation of the classical complement pathway to mediate an inflammatory response is stimulated?
A) Lysis of bacterial cells
B) An antigen-antibody complex
C) Monocyte diapedesis to injured tissue
D) Release of histamine from injured cells
Q2) During which stage of the febrile response would the nurse expect to see the patient sweating?
A) Chill
B) Flush
C) Prodromal
D) Defervescence
Q3) A patient with a systemic bacterial infection has "goose pimples," feels cold,and has a shaking chill.At this stage of the febrile response,what would the nurse expect to find?
A) Flushing of the skin
B) Rising body temperature
C) Decreasing blood pressure
D) Relief of muscle aching and fatigue
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78752
Sample Questions
Q1) When completing a pedigree,the nurse knows to use the symbol g (blue square)to denote which of the following?
A) Unknown sex,normal
B) Normal male
C) Female heterozygote
D) Affected male
Q2) On average,what percentage of children in a family will be affected with the mutated gene in an autosomal recessive trait?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 100%
Q3) A pregnant woman has asked the nurse when the best time is to undergo chorionic villus sampling.The nurse's best response is which of the following statements?
A) Any time before the tenth week of gestation
B) Between the eleventh and twelfth week of gestation
C) Between the twenty-fourth and twenty-sixth week of gestation
D) Any time during the second trimester of pregnancy
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78751
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).What does the nurse understand is included in the pathophysiology that occurs in this autoimmune disorder?
A) Systemic tissue destruction initiated by sensitized T cells attacking DNA antigens and releasing lymphokines
B) A deficiency of T suppressor (CD8)cells,allowing unchecked destruction of all organ tissue by T cytotoxic cells
C) Activation of the complement cascade as a result of IgM binding with viral antigens,causing cytolysis of vascular tissue
D) DNA released into the circulation and reacting with an antibody
Q2) A patient has been undergoing immunotherapy for 1 year.How does the nurse recognize that the goals of immunotherapy are achieved?
A) When blood analysis reveals increased IgG levels
B) When blood analysis reveals decreased IgE levels
C) When blood analysis reveals increased natural killer cells
D) When blood analysis reveals decreased T helper (CD4)cells
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78750
Sample Questions
Q1) In health care workers,which following activity poses the highest risk for acquiring HIV from an HIV-infected patient?
A) A needle stick with a suture needle
B) Contamination of open skin lesions with vaginal secretions
C) A needle stick with a needle and syringe used to draw blood
D) A needle stick with a needle and syringe used to administer an intramuscular injection
Q2) During which period of chronic HIV infection would the patient experience lymphadenopathy and nervous system manifestations?
A) Early
B) Intermediate
C) Late
D) Terminal
Q3) The nurse should counsel a newly infected HIV patient to anticipate that symptoms of acute retroviral syndrome will appear at which time?
A) Within 48 hours of diagnosis
B) During the initial 7 days after diagnosis
C) 1 to 3 weeks after diagnosis
D) Within the first 6 months after diagnosis
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78749
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving chemotherapy for a large tumour of the liver.For which of the following reasons does the nurse recognize that the expected response to this therapy is limited?
A) The fewer the cancer cells,the greater is the response to chemotherapy.
B) Large tumours become encapsulated,preventing exposure to chemotherapeutic agents.
C) The patient's natural defences are compromised by the presence of numerous tumour cells.
D) Large tumours have a greater number of undifferentiated cells.
Q2) When administering vesicant chemotherapeutic agents intravenously,what is an important consideration?
A) Stop the infusion if swelling is observed at the site.
B) Administer the drug by intravenous (IV)push.
C) Administer the chemotherapy through a small-bore catheter.
D) Administer the drug only through a central vascular access device.
Q3) Which one of the flowing malignancies has been linked to radiation?
A) Cervical cancer
B) Breast cancer
C) Thyroid cancer
D) Lung cancer
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78748
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is receiving iso-osmolar continuous tube feedings develops restlessness,agitation,and weakness.Which serum laboratory finding would the nurse expect to find?
A) K<sup>+</sup> 3.2 mmol/L
B) Ca<sup>2+</sup> 1.95 mmol/L
C) Na<sup>+</sup> 154 mmol/L
D) PO<sub>4</sub><sup>3</sup><sup>-</sup> 1.55 mmol/L
Q2) A patient with renal insufficiency develops lethargy and somnolence with a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg,a pulse of 62 beats/min,and respirations of 10 breaths/min.The nurse notes that the patient has been taking an aluminum hydroxide-magnesium hydroxide suspension (Maalox)for indigestion.Which of the following drugs would the nurse expect to be used by IV administration in the management of this patient?
A) Calcium gluconate
B) Magnesium sulphate
C) Potassium chloride
D) 50% dextrose and regular insulin
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78746
Sample Questions
Q1) Which following class of preoperative medications is administered to increase the patients' gastric pH and decrease gastric volume?
A) Narcotics
B) Benzodiazepines
C) Anticholinergics
D) Histamine H<sub>2</sub>-receptor antagonists
Q2) How would the nurse document the preoperative rating of physical status for a patient who has a history of controlled asthma?
A) Healthy patient with no systemic disease
B) Mild systemic disease without functional limitations
C) Severe systemic disease associated with functional limitations
D) Severe systemic disease that is an ongoing threat to life
Q3) Which of the following should be the nurse's preoperative consideration when the patient states that she takes a garlic pill every day?
A) Garlic may cause inflammation of the liver.
B) Garlic may inhibit platelet activity.
C) Garlic may increase bleeding.
D) Garlic may increase pulse rate.
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78745
Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following intraoperative patient positions would the nurse anticipate for the patient who is being prepared for abdominal surgery?
A) Prone
B) Supine
C) Trendelenburg
D) Lateral decubitus
Q2) A patient with a dislocated shoulder is prepared for a closed,manual reduction of the dislocation with conscious sedation.Which of the following would the nurse anticipate would be administered preoperatively?
A) Inhaled nitrous oxide
B) IV midazolam
C) Intramuscular ketamine (Ketalar)
D) Intramuscular fentanyl-droperidol (Innovar)
Q3) Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to observe in a patient with malignant hyperthermia?
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Low,irregular respirations
C) Decreased temperature
D) Ventricular dysrhythmias
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78744
Sample Questions
Q1) A 70-year-old patient becomes restless and agitated as he begins to regain consciousness in the PACU,and his SpO<sub>2</sub> is 88%.What is the most common cause of hypoxemia during anaesthesia recovery that the nurse bases her knowledge on to intervene?
A) Atelectasis
B) Bronchospasm
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Aspiration of gastric contents
Q2) When a patient is transferred from the PACU to the clinical surgical unit,what is the first nursing action on the surgical unit?
A) Assess the patient's pain.
B) Take the patient's vital signs.
C) Check the rate of the IV infusion.
D) Check the physician's postoperative orders.
Q3) Which of the following is an ambulatory surgery discharge criterion?
A) Voided at least three times
B) No IV narcotics for last 30 minutes
C) Had at least one bowel movement
D) Oxygen saturation 88%
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78743
Sample Questions
Q1) At a clinic visit,a patient's wife tells the nurse that her husband is losing his hearing.The patient protests,saying that his wife mumbles.During the visit,the nurse identifies a hearing loss in the patient based on which of the following findings?
A) He speaks softly but slurs constantly during conversation.
B) He cannot repeat a word whispered at 25 cm from one ear.
C) He asks for frequent repetition and has a flat facial expression.
D) He leans forward to hear the nurse and complains of buzzing in the ears.
Q2) A 42-year-old man complains of seeing small spots moving in front of his eyes.What should the nurse do?
A) Refer the patient to an ophthalmologist for further evaluation.
B) Explain that these "floaters" are usually normal and caused by liquefaction of the vitreous.
C) Examine the retina of the patient's eye with an ophthalmoscope to visualize the spots.
D) Inform the patient that these spots usually occur with aging and can be surgically removed if they are bothersome.
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78742
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a manifestation of cerumen impaction?
A) Temporal headache
B) Difficulty breathing
C) Amplified low-pitch sounds
D) Cardiac depression
Q2) A counsellor at a camp for children with diabetes was tending a campfire when a log exploded,sending sparks into his eyes.Initially,as the camp nurse,what should the nurse do?
A) Apply ice packs to the eyes.
B) Flush the eyes with cool,sterile,normal saline for 10 minutes.
C) Cover the eyes with dry,sterile patches and protective eye shields.
D) Apply an antiseptic ophthalmic ointment from the first aid kit to the eyes.
Q3) A patient is seen at a clinic for repeated hordeolum of her eyes during the last 6 months.To help prevent further infection,what should the nurse advise the patient to do?
A) Discard all open or used eye cosmetics.
B) Avoid wearing contact lenses as much as possible.
C) Use an antiseborrheic shampoo on the scalp and eyebrows.
D) Be evaluated for the presence of sexually transmitted infections.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78741
Sample Questions
Q1) A dark-skinned patient has been admitted to the hospital in severe respiratory distress.What knowledge does the nurse use to assess for cyanosis in the patient?
A) Cyanosis in patients with dark skin can be seen only in the sclera.
B) Cyanosis is not possible to assess in patients with dark skin.
C) Cyanosis can be seen in the conjunctiva of the eye and mucous membranes of patients with dark skin.
D) Cyanosis will blanch out with direct pressure to the soles of the feet in dark-skinned patients.
Q2) When obtaining a self-care integument history,the nurse will ask the patient about which of the following?
A) Pain associated with skin conditions
B) The brands of moisturizers and cosmetics used
C) Lifestyle changes associated with skin conditions
D) Changes in the condition of the skin,hair,and nails
Q3) What is the primary function of the skin?
A) Sensory perception
B) Mirroring of emotions
C) Protecting underlying tissues of the body
D) Displaying the individual identity of the person
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78740
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient complains of severe itching,especially at night,and the nurse notes the presence of burrows in the flexor surface of his wrists.What does the nurse suspect?
A) Scabies
B) Bedbugs
C) Pediculosis
D) Lyme disease
Q2) The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of "Risk for infection related to skin lesions and presence of environmental pathogens" for a patient with an allergic dermatitis.The nurse recognizes that the teaching regarding prevention of infection has been effective when the patient states which of the following?
A) "I will use measures to keep me from scratching the inflamed areas."
B) "I should use antibiotic solutions to moisten dressings applied to the rash."
C) "I should take my temperature twice a day to detect the onset of any fever."
D) "I should use sterile dressings and towels when applying wet compresses to the rash."
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78739
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns of the face and chest has the wounds treated with the open method.The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection and an expected patient outcome of absence of wound infections.What is an appropriate nursing intervention to help the patient meet the expected outcome?
A) Restrict all visitors to prevent cross-contamination of wounds.
B) Wear gowns,caps,masks,and gloves during all care of the patient.
C) Use sterile water for cleansing and debridement in the hydrotherapy tank.
D) Administer prophylactic broad-spectrum antibiotics to prevent bacterial colonization of wounds.
Q2) When does the nurse recognize that the patient with a burn injury moves from the emergent phase to the acute phase?
A) When inflammatory symptoms subside
B) When the burn area is completely covered
C) When granulation tissue forms in the wounds
D) When diuresis occurs with low urine specific gravity
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78738
Sample Questions
Q1) On auscultation of a patient's lungs,the nurse hears short,low-pitched,'bubbling' sounds in the right and left lower lung areas.How should the nurse document this finding?
A) Inspiratory wheezes in both lungs
B) Crackles in the right and left lower lobes
C) Abnormal lung sounds in the bases of both lungs
D) Pleural friction rub in the right and left lower lobes
Q2) On auscultation of a patient's lungs,the nurse hears short,high-pitched sounds just before the end of inspiration in the right and left lower lobes.How should the nurse document this finding?
A) Inspiratory wheezes in both lungs
B) Crackles in the right and left lower lobes
C) Abnormal lung sounds in the bases of both lungs
D) Pleural friction rub in the right and left lower lobes
Q3) While assessing a patient with respiratory problems,what should the nurse specifically ask about?
A) Smoking habits
B) Alterations in sexual activity
C) The course of the patient's illness
D) Occupational exposure to heavy lifting
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78737
Sample Questions
Q1) In which position should the nurse position the patient before commencing tracheostomy care?
A) Prone position
B) Supine position
C) Semi-Fowler's position
D) High-Fowler's position
Q2) When the nurse is deflating the cuff of a tracheostomy tube to evaluate the patient's ability to swallow,what is it most important to do?
A) Deflate the cuff during the patient's inhalation.
B) Clean the inner cannula of the tracheostomy tube.
C) Suction the mouth and trachea before deflation of the tube.
D) Measure the amount of air removed from the cuff during deflation.
Q3) To which one of the following patients should the nurse strongly recommend an influenza immunization in the autumn each year?
A) A 24-year-old woman who has an allergy to penicillin
B) A 42-year-old man who has a history of smoking for 20 years
C) A 36-year-old man who had pneumonia when he was in university
D) A 30-year-old woman who takes corticosteroids for rheumatoid arthritis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Four days after admission,a patient with chronic obstructive lung disease is diagnosed with hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP).Which of the following organisms does the nurse recognize is a common cause of this type of pneumonia?
A) Pneumocystis carinii
B) Haemophilus influenzae
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Q2) The physician inserts two chest tubes connected with a Y-connecter in a patient with a hemopneumothorax.When monitoring the patient after the chest tube placement,the nurse will be concerned about which of the following?
A) A large air leak in the water-seal chamber
B) 400 mL of blood in the collection chamber
C) Severe pain with each deep patient inspiration
D) Subcutaneous emphysema at the insertion site
Q3) In relation to lung cancer and gender,which of the following statements is true?
A) More women than men are diagnosed with lung cancer.
B) Men are more likely to develop small-cell carcinoma than women.
C) Women develop lung cancer after fewer years of smoking than men do.
D) Lung cancer incidence and deaths are increasing in men.
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78734
Sample Questions
Q1) After teaching the patient with asthma about home care,the nurse will evaluate that the teaching has been successful if the patient states which of the following?
A) "I will use my corticosteroid inhaler as soon as I start to get short of breath."
B) "I will turn the home oxygen level up only after checking with the doctor first."
C) "My medications are working if I wake up short of breath only once during the night."
D) "No changes in my medications are needed if my peak flow is at 80% of normal."
Q2) Clinically significant airway obstruction develops in what percentage of smokers?
A) 5% to 10%
B) 15% to 20%
C) 25% to 30%
D) 40% to 50%
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78733
Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately what percentage of the composition of blood is plasma?
A) 30%
B) 45%
C) 55%
D) 75%
Q2) Which one of the following hematological findings would the nurse question in a 78-year-old patient?
A) White blood cell (WBC)count 3500 cells/microlitre
B) Hematocrit 37%
C) Platelets 450,000 cells/microlitre
D) Hemoglobin 7.3 mmol/L (11.8 g/dL)
Q3) While obtaining a health history from a patient with numerous petechiae on the skin,the nurse asks the patient specifically about the patient's use of which of the following drugs?
A) Antiseizure medications
B) Oral contraceptives
C) Aspirin compounds
D) Antihypertensive agents
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78732
Sample Questions
Q1) During discharge teaching for the patient with neutropenia,which of the following issues should the nurse include?
A) Caffeine and alcohol intake
B) Excessive dietary iron intake
C) Limiting fluids to 2 L per day
D) Exposure to crowds
Q2) During treatment of the patient who has sepsis-induced DIC with moderate bleeding,on what would the nurse expect the initial collaborative care will focus?
A) Administration of heparin to reduce intravascular clotting
B) Treatment of the infectious process with IV antibiotics
C) Infusion of whole blood to replace clotting factors and RBCs
D) Supportive management of symptoms until the DIC is resolved
Q3) When preparing a patient for a blood transfusion,the nurse will prepare the blood.Which IV solution would the nurse prepare to administer in a Y-type tubing adjacent to the blood?
A) Dextrose 5%
B) Lactated Ringer's
C) Normal saline
D) Dextrose 10%

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78731
Sample Questions
Q1) While assessing a patient who has just arrived in the emergency department,the nurse notes a pulse deficit.Which of the following does the nurse anticipate that the patient may require?
A) Hourly blood pressure (BP)checks
B) A coronary arteriogram
C) Electrocardiographic (ECG)monitoring
D) A two-dimensional echocardiogram
Q2) A patient has a BP of 142/84 mm Hg.The nurse will calculate and document the patient's mean arterial pressure (MAP)as being which following amount?
A) 103 mm Hg
B) 113 mm Hg
C) 123 mm Hg
D) 131 mm Hg
Q3) When auscultating over the patient's abdominal aorta,the nurse hears a humming sound.How will the nurse document this finding?
A) Bruit
B) Thrill
C) Heave
D) Arterial obstruction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning patient teaching for a patient who has just been diagnosed with hypertension and has a new prescription for captopril (Capoten).Which of the following information is important to include when teaching the patient?
A) Increase fluid intake if dryness of the mouth is a problem.
B) Check BP daily before taking the medication.
C) Include high-potassium foods such as citrus fruits in the diet.
D) Change position slowly to help prevent dizziness and falls.
Q2) The nurse assesses the risk factors for hypertension in a patient with high normal BP.Which risk factor would the nurse identify from the health history and advise the patient to change,in order to prevent hypertension?
A) Little or no regular exercise
B) No use of relaxation techniques
C) High dietary intake of simple sugars
D) Drinking wine with dinner once a week
Q3) Which of the following is a correct mechanism action of aldosterone?
A) Increased sodium reabsorption
B) Decreased water reabsorption
C) Decreased blood volume
D) Increased potassium excretion
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78729
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a mnemonic to assist the nurse in obtaining thorough information from a patient who has chest pain?
A) ABCDEF
B) PAIN
C) PQRST
D) AQSP
Q2) For a patient who was admitted the previous day to the CCU with an AMI,the nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about which one of the following?
A) The pathophysiology of CAD
B) When patient cardiac rehabilitation will begin
C) Home-discharge drugs such as aspirin and b-blockers
D) Typical emotional responses to MI
Q3) After the nurse teaches the patient about the use of atenolol (Tenormin)in preventing anginal episodes,which statement by the patient indicates that the teaching has been effective?
A) "Atenolol will increase the strength of my heart muscle."
B) "I can expect to feel short of breath when taking atenolol."
C) "Atenolol will improve the blood flow to my coronary arteries."
D) "It is important not to suddenly stop taking the atenolol."
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78728
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common form of initial heart failure?
A) Left-sided
B) Right-sided
C) Biventricular
D) All types occur equally;there is no one common form of heart failure.
Q2) Which of the following is a common cause of chronic heart failure?
A) Anemia
B) Dysrhythmias
C) Myocarditis
D) Hypertensive crisis
Q3) To promote more efficient ventricular emptying by decreasing preload in the patient with chronic heart failure,the nurse should implement which of the following actions?
A) Administer oxygen per mask.
B) Encourage active leg exercises to increase venous return.
C) Administer sedatives to promote rest and decrease myocardial oxygen demand.
D) Position the patient in a high-Fowler's position with the feet horizontal in the bed.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with supraventricular tachycardia is to receive cardioversion.What should the nurse know about the use of cardioversion?
A) A defibrillator is programmed to deliver a countershock on the T wave.
B) The amount of voltage used is 400 J.
C) The patient should be sedated before the procedure,if possible.
D) The procedure is the same as defibrillation,except that the patient is more hemodynamically stable.
Q2) A patient's sinus rhythm rate is 62 beats/min.The PR interval is 0.18 seconds at 0100 hours,0.20 seconds at 1230 hours,and 0.23 seconds at 1600 hours.Which action should the nurse take?
A) Document the patient's rhythm,and continue to monitor.
B) Prepare for possible pacemaker insertion.
C) Hold the ordered metoprolol (Lopressor),and call the physician.
D) Give the as-needed dose of lidocaine (Xylocaine).
Q3) Which classification of antidysrhythmia drugs has no effect on ECG?
A) Class I: sodium channel blockers
B) Class II: ?-adrenergic blockers
C) Class III: potassium channel blockers
D) Class IV: calcium channel blockers
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78726
Q1) A 21-year-old female student is scheduled for an open mitral valve commissurotomy for treatment of a mitral stenosis resulting from rheumatic endocarditis when she was a child.Which factor supports the choice of valve repair over valve replacement in this patient?
A) No artificial valves are available yet to replace mitral valves.
B) Valve repair has a lower operative mortality rate than does valve replacement.
C) Biological replacement valves necessitate long-term immunosuppressive therapy.
D) Long-term anticoagulation is necessary with mechanical valve replacement.
Q2) Cardiac tamponade is suspected in a patient who has acute pericarditis.To assess for the presence of pulsus paradoxus,what should the nurse do?
A) Subtract one third of the diastolic BP from the systolic BP.
B) Auscultate for a pericardial friction rub that increases in volume during inspiration.
C) Evaluate the rhythm of the pulse in relation to the patient's inspiration and expiration.
D) Note the first Korotkoff sound occurring during both inspiration and expiration while deflating the blood pressure cuff.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78724
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of a venous ulcer?
A) Capillary refill 5 seconds
B) Smooth,uniform ulcer margin.
C) Skin warm to touch
D) No dermatitis
Q2) The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of ineffective peripheral perfusion related to decreased arterial blood flow for a patient with chronic PAD.In evaluating the patient outcomes following patient teaching,the nurse determines a need for further instruction when the patient makes which of the following statements?
A) "I will wear loose clothing that does not bind across my legs or waist."
B) "I will change my position every hour and avoid long periods of sitting with my legs down."
C) "I will use a heating pad on my feet at night to increase the circulation and warmth in my feet."
D) "For about 40 minutes each day,I will walk to the point of pain,rest,and then walk again until I develop pain."
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Q1) Which of the following is an abnormal finding when performing an assessment of an 80-year-old patient?
A) Loss of appetite and anorexia
B) Difficulty chewing and swallowing food
C) Complaints of indigestion and stomach fullness
D) Consistent weight loss without change in dietary habits
Q2) Which following finding would the nurse expect to be present during auscultation of the abdomen of a patient with a bowel obstruction?
A) Decreased,low-pitched bowel sounds
B) Frequent clicking sounds
C) Absence of bowel sounds
D) Loud gurgles
Q3) A patient has an abnormally high serum ammonia level.Which of the following does the nurse recognize this finding to be indicative of?
A) A decreased bile flow into the intestine
B) A decrease in the number of bowel bacteria that deaminate amino acids
C) Failure of the liver to convert ammonia absorbed from the bowel to urea
D) An increased reabsorption of urobilinogen from the bowel into the blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) To determine the underlying factors relating to the undernourishment of an older adult patient,what is the most appropriate question the nurse can ask?
A) "Do you have a history of any malabsorption diseases?"
B) "Do you have a way to get to a grocery store to buy your food?"
C) "Are you taking any medications that alter your taste or tolerance of foods?"
D) "Can you give me an example of what you normally eat throughout the day?"
Q2) When using a soft silicone nasogastric tube for enteral feedings,the nurse will need to do which of the following?
A) Flush the tubing after checking for residual volumes.
B) Administer continuous feedings using an infusion pump.
C) Replace the tube every 3 to 5 days to avoid mucosal damage.
D) Avoid giving medications through the feeding tube.
Q3) During assessment of a patient who is a vegan,the nurse observes for signs of nutritional deficiency.What is the most common nutritional deficiency related to a strict vegan diet that would be manifested?
A) Muscle wasting
B) Bleeding gums and loose teeth
C) Pallor and changes in sensation of the extremities
D) Dry,scaly skin and cracked mucous membranes
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78721
Sample Questions
Q1) In the clinic,the nurse is assessing a new patient who has abdominal obesity and hypertension.What further assessment should the nurse do to assess for possible metabolic syndrome?
A) Take the patient's apical pulse.
B) Ask the patient about dietary intake.
C) Measure the patient's waist size.
D) Determine the patient's ethnic origin.
Q2) The nurse is assessing patients at the outpatient clinic.Which of these patients is at risk for health complications related to weight?
A) A 24-year-old patient with a waist measurement of 75 cm and a hip measurement of 85 cm
B) A 33-year-old patient who has a body mass index (BMI)of 24 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
C) A 56-year-old patient who is 180 cm tall and weighs 68 kg
D) A 71-year-old patient who is 160 cm,weighs 55 kg,and carries most of the weight in the thighs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78720
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a bleeding duodenal ulcer has an NG tube in place,and the physician orders 30 mL of aluminum hydroxide-magnesium hydroxide (Maalox)to be instilled through the tube every hour.How can the nurse evaluate the effectiveness of this treatment?
A) Monitor arterial blood gas values.
B) Check each stool for the presence of occult blood.
C) Periodically aspirate and test stomach contents for pH.
D) Measure the amount of residual stomach contents hourly.
Q2) What is the location of the vomiting centre that coordinates the multiple components involved in vomiting?
A) Chemoreceptor zone
B) Brainstem
C) Vestibular area
D) Visceral receptors from afferent fibres in the gastrointestinal (GI)tract
Q3) Which agent that causes bacterial food poisoning is known to have the quickest onset of symptoms?
A) Listeria
B) Escherichia coli
C) Clostridium botulinum
D) Staphylococcus aureus

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78719
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains to a patient with a new ileostomy that after her system adjusts to the ileostomy,the usual drainage will be about which following amount?
A) 250 mL
B) 500 mL
C) 800 mL
D) 1400 mL
Q2) An 81-year-old patient has a large bowel obstruction that occurred as a result of a fecal impaction.During nursing assessment of the patient,which of the following findings is consistent with a large bowel obstruction?
A) Metabolic alkalosis
B) Referred pain to the back
C) Bile-coloured vomiting
D) Abdominal distension
Q3) Which of the following is a neoplastic polyp of the large intestine?
A) Familial juvenile polyps
B) Pseudopolyps
C) Hereditary polyposis syndromes
D) Leiomyomas
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with cirrhosis has an episode of bleeding esophageal varices that is controlled with administration of vasopressin and endoscopic sclerotherapy.To detect possible complications of the bleeding episode,what is it most important for the nurse to monitor?
A) Prothrombin time
B) Serum bilirubin levels
C) Serum ammonia levels
D) Serum potassium levels
Q2) The nurse assesses a patient with cirrhosis and finds 4+ pitting edema of the feet and legs and massive ascites.The data indicate that the nurse should monitor which of the following?
A) Temperature
B) Albumin level
C) Hemoglobin
D) Activity level
Q3) Which hepatitis virus has DNA as its characteristic virus type?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis E

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78717
Sample Questions
Q1) For what purpose does the nurse use auscultation during assessment of the urinary system?
A) To determine the position of the kidneys
B) To assess fluid wave patterns in the bladder
C) To determine the level of a distended bladder
D) To identify renal artery and abdominal aortic bruits
Q2) Which component of the nephron is responsible for the reabsorption of sodium and chloride?
A) Glomerulus
B) Proximal tubule
C) Loop of Henle
D) Distal tubule
Q3) Which of the following is an abnormal finding of the urinary system?
A) CVA tenderness
B) Nonpalpable kidney
C) No palpable masses
D) Nonpalpable bladder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The composition of a patient's renal calculi is identified as uric acid.To prevent recurrence of stones,what should the nurse teach the patient to avoid?
A) Milk and dairy products
B) Legumes and dried fruits
C) Spinach,chocolate,and tomatoes
D) Organ meats and fish with fine bones
Q2) Which of the following is considered a storage symptom of a lower UTI?
A) Dysuria
B) Hesitancy
C) Intermittency
D) Urgency
Q3) A 78-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.She is confused and incontinent of urine on admission.In developing a plan of care for the patient,what is an appropriate nursing intervention for the patient's incontinence?
A) Insert an in-dwelling catheter.
B) Apply absorbent incontinence pads.
C) Restrict fluids after the evening meal.
D) Assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78715
Sample Questions
Q1) A 54-year-old patient with diabetes and CKD is considering using continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)as her renal failure becomes worse.In discussing this treatment option with the patient,what should the nurse tell the patient?
A) Patients with diabetes respond better to CAPD than to hemodialysis.
B) Home CAPD requires more extensive equipment than does home hemodialysis.
C) CAPD is contraindicated for patients who may eventually want a kidney transplant.
D) Patients receiving CAPD have more dietary restrictions than are required with hemodialysis.
Q2) Before administering sodium polystyrene sulphonate (Kayexalate)to a patient with hyperkalemia,what should the nurse assess for?
A) BUN and creatinine
B) Blood glucose level
C) Patient's bowel sounds
D) Level of consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is scheduled for a 24-hour urine collection for 17-ketosteroids.The nurse will plan to do which of the following?
A) Insert a retention catheter.
B) Keep the specimen on ice.
C) Have the patient void and save that specimen to start the collection.
D) Encourage the patient to drink 2 to 3 L of fluid during the 24 hours.
Q2) During a physical examination,the nurse finds that a patient's thyroid gland cannot be palpated.What does the nurse interpret this finding as?
A) A normal finding
B) Evidence of an atrophied thyroid gland
C) Insignificant in a patient with elevated triiodothyronine (T<sub>3</sub>)and T<sub>4</sub> levels
D) Abnormal,and confirmation of the finding by another experienced health care provider is necessary
Q3) Which of the following is an age-related change affecting the endocrine system?
A) Increase in TSH secretion
B) Decreased parathyroid secretion
C) Increased glucose intolerance
D) Decreased secretion of norepinephrine
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Sample Questions
Q1) After receiving a change-of-shift report about the following four patients,which patient should the nurse assess first?
A) A 22-year-old patient admitted with SIADH who has a serum sodium level of 130 mmol/L
B) A 31-year-old patient who has iatrogenic Cushing's syndrome with a capillary blood glucose level of 13.6 mmol/L (244 mg/dL)
C) A 53-year-old patient who has Addison's disease and is due for a scheduled dose of hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef)
D) A 70-year-old patient who recently started levothyroxine to treat hypothyroidism and has an irregular pulse of 134 beats/min
Q2) When teaching a patient with chronic SIADH about long-term management of the disorder,the nurse determines that additional instruction is needed when the patient gives which of the following responses?
A) "I need to maintain a sodium-restricted diet at home."
B) "I should weigh myself daily and report a sudden loss or gain."
C) "I need to limit my fluid intake to no more than 950 mL of liquids a day."
D) "I will eat foods high in potassium because the diuretics cause potassium loss."
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78711
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of type 1 diabetes?
A) Incidence in young people is increasing
B) Insidious onset
C) Absent islet-cell antibodies
D) Patient prone to ketosis at onset
Q2) A patient with type 1 diabetes is found unresponsive in the morning by his wife and is admitted to the emergency department.On admission,the patient is unresponsive to stimuli and has fruity,sweet breath with Kussmaul's respirations.Laboratory results include arterial blood gases of pH 7.32,PCO<sub>2</sub> 34 mm Hg,and HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> 11 mmol/L,and a plasma glucose of 28.8 mmol/L (518 mg/dL).Which of the following interventions does the nurse anticipate will be prescribed initially for the patient?
A) IV fluid and electrolyte replacement therapy
B) Administration of an IV bolus of regular insulin
C) Low-dose insulin infusion in a normal saline solution
D) IV administration of sodium bicarbonate to replace bicarbonate and reverse the acidosis
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Q1) Which of the following is an age-related change in male sexual functioning?
A) Increased force of ejaculation
B) Increased rigidity of erection
C) Increased interest in sex
D) Decreased libido
Q2) A patient with a possible ovarian cyst is scheduled for ultrasonography.The nurse will teach the patient which of the following?
A) She should not eat or drink for 4 hours before the procedure.
B) She will experience minimal discomfort during the procedure.
C) She should discontinue taking aspirin before the procedure.
D) She will receive intravenous contrast solution during the procedure.
Q3) Because of the location of the prostate gland in the male reproductive system,when caring for a patient with prostate problems,the nurse should monitor the patient for which of the following?
A) Constipation
B) Low back pain
C) Penile discharge
D) Urinary symptoms
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Q1) Which stage of breast cancer is depicted by the TNM designation of T2 N0 M0?
A) Stage I
B) Stage IIA
C) Stage IIB
D) Stage IIIA
Q2) A 20-year-old university student comes to the student health centre because she has discovered a small lump in her right breast.She is very worried that she may have cancer because her mother had cervical cancer.The nurse's response to the patient is based on the knowledge that what is the most common cause of breast lumps in women her age?
A) Breast cysts
B) Fibroadenoma
C) Breast abscesses
D) Adenocarcinoma
Q3) A patient has a permanent breast implant inserted in an outpatient surgery area.What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
A) Resume normal activities 2 to 3 days after the mammoplasty.
B) Check wound drains for excessive blood or any foul odour.
C) Wear a loose-fitting bra to decrease irritation of the sutures.
D) Take aspirin every 4 hours to reduce inflammation.
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Q1) A Gram-stained smear of a patient's urethral discharge reveals the presence of N.gonorrhoeae.The patient tells the nurse that he had sexual contact with a new girlfriend but does not think he was exposed to gonorrhea because she did not appear to have any infection.In responding to the patient,what should the nurse explain?
A) Women develop subclinical cases of gonorrhea that do not cause tissue damage or symptoms.
B) Women do not develop gonorrhea infections but can serve as carriers to spread the infection to males.
C) Many women are not aware they have gonorrhea because they often do not have symptoms of infection.
D) When gonorrhea infections occur in women,the infection affects only the ovaries and not the other genital organs.
Q2) Which virus is responsible for genital warts?
A) Cytomegalovirus
B) HSV
C) Human immunodeficiency virus
D) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
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Q1) When teaching a patient about ways to prevent primary dysmenorrhea,which of the following will the nurse suggest?
A) Avoid aerobic exercise during her menstrual period.
B) Use cold packs on the abdomen and back for pain relief.
C) Start taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)regularly when her menstrual period starts.
D) Talk with her health care provider about antidepressant therapy.
Q2) Six months after being raped,a woman tells the nurse that she has nightmares about the incident and develops acute anxiety if she finds herself alone in situations where several men are present.What is an appropriate nursing diagnosis that the nurse will document for this patient?
A) Anxiety related to effects of being raped
B) Rape-trauma syndrome related to rape experience
C) Disturbed sleep pattern related to frightening dreams
D) Ineffective coping related to inability to resolve rape incident
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26 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78706
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Q1) Which of the following is the term given to a narrowing of the retracted uncircumcised foreskin that prevents its normal return over the glans and can cause strangulation?
A) Phimosis
B) Priapism
C) Paraphimosis
D) Hypospadias
Q2) A married couple is seen at the infertility clinic because they have not been able to conceive.The nurse includes examination of the man's testicles early in the assessment of the couple based on the knowledge that which of the following testicular problems is related to infertility?
A) Hydrocele
B) Varicocele
C) Epididymitis
D) Spermatocele
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78705
Sample Questions
Q1) Which area of the cerebrum would the nurses suspect is injured when the patient is unable to understand spoken words?
A) Broca's area
B) Precentral gyrus
C) Wernicke's area
D) Postcentral gyrus
Q2) Neurological testing of the patient by the nurse indicates impaired functioning of the left glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX)and the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X).Based on these findings,what should the nurse plan to do?
A) Insert an oral airway.
B) Withhold oral fluid or foods.
C) Provide highly seasoned foods.
D) Apply artificial tears to protect the cornea.
Q3) When interviewing an acutely confused patient who has a head injury,which question will provide the most useful information?
A) "Have you ever been hospitalized for a neurological problem?"
B) "Do you have any pain at the present time?"
C) "What have you had to eat in the last 24 hours?"
D) "Can you describe your usual pattern for coping with injury?"
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78704
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse notes that a patient with a head injury has a clear nasal drainage.What is the most appropriate nursing action for this finding?
A) Obtain a specimen of the fluid for culture and sensitivity.
B) Check the nasal drainage for glucose with a Dextrostix or Tes-Tape.
C) Take the patient's temperature to determine whether a fever is present.
D) Instruct the patient to blow his nose and then check the nares for inflammation.
Q2) The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective breathing pattern related to loss of central nervous system integrative function for a patient who has post-traumatic brain swelling based on which of the following findings?
A) Apneustic breathing
B) Crackles on inspiration
C) Glasgow Coma Scale score less than 8
D) CPP less than 60 mm Hg
Q3) Rabies manifests as which of the following?
A) Bacterial meningitis
B) Viral encephalitis
C) Viral meningitis
D) Bacterial encephalitis
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28 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78702
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assisting the patient who is recovering from an acute stroke and has right-sided hemiplegia to transfer from the bed to the wheelchair.Which nursing action is appropriate?
A) Positioning the wheelchair next to the bed on the patient's right side
B) Placing the wheelchair parallel to the bed on the patient's left side
C) Setting the wheelchair directly in front of the patient,who is sitting on the side of the bed
D) Moving the wheelchair a few steps from the bed and having the patient walk to the chair
Q2) A patient with homonymous hemianopsia resulting from a stroke has a nursing diagnosis of disturbed sensory perception related to hemianopsia.What is an appropriate nursing intervention that will help the patient learn to compensate for the deficit during the rehabilitation period?
A) Apply an eye patch to the affected eye.
B) Approach the patient on the unaffected side.
C) Place objects necessary for activities of daily living on the affected side.
D) Teach the patient to exercise the eye muscles with full range of motion at least twice a day.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78701
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Q1) A patient with Parkinson's disease tells the nurse that she is having increasing problems with constipation.The nurse explains that constipation occurring with Parkinson's disease is most often a result of which of the following factors?
A) Advanced age
B) Decreased physical activity
C) Side effects of dopaminergic agents
D) Diminished nerve conduction to the bowel
Q2) When a patient experiences a generalized tonic-clonic seizure in the emergency department after a head injury,all of the following orders are received.Which one will the nurse implement first?
A) Send patient to radiology department for a CT scan.
B) Administer midazolam (Versed).
C) Check capillary blood glucose.
D) Monitor level of consciousness.
Q3) What is the most important nursing tool in diagnosing a cluster headache?
A) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)of the brain
B) Electromyography
C) The patient history
D) Computed tomography (CT)imaging of the brain
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78700
Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following conditions does the patient have fluctuations in consciousness throughout the course of the disease?
A) Delirium
B) Depression
C) Psychosis
D) Dementia
Q2) A family member of a patient with possible Alzheimer's disease asks the nurse the purpose of the MMSE.Which response is appropriate?
A) "The MMSE helps in establishing the diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease."
B) "The MMSE is useful in determining the degree of mental impairment."
C) "The MMSE determines the choice of the most appropriate treatment."
D) "The MMSE aids in differentiating acute delirium from chronic dementia."
Q3) When administering a mental status examination to a patient,the nurse suspects depression when the patient gives which of the following responses?
A) "I don't know."
B) "Is that the right answer?"
C) "Wait,let me think about that."
D) "What are those people doing over there?"
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78699
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient admitted to the emergency department is diagnosed with botulism poisoning,and botulinum antitoxin is to be administered.Before administration of the antitoxin,what should the nurse do?
A) Obtain baseline vital signs.
B) Administer an intradermal test dose.
C) Ask the patient about a history of allergies.
D) Document the presence of neurological symptoms.
Q2) When teaching patients who are at risk for Bell's palsy because of previous herpes simplex infection,which information should the nurse include?
A) "You should call the doctor if pain or herpes lesions occur near the ear."
B) "Treatment of herpes with antiviral agents will prevent development of Bell's palsy."
C) "Medications to treat Bell's palsy work only if started before paralysis onset."
D) "You may be able to prevent Bell's palsy by doing facial exercises regularly."
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Q1) A patient suffers an injury to the shoulder while playing football.To identify abnormalities of cartilage and soft tissue surrounding the joint,what would the nurse expect the patient to be evaluated with?
A) A bone scan
B) An arthrogram
C) Standard X-ray films
D) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Q2) Which of the following is an age-related change in the musculoskeletal system?
A) Increased diameter of muscle cells
B) Increased storage of glycogen
C) Loss of water from discs between vertebrae
D) Widening of intervertebral spaces
Q3) Skeletal muscle accounts for approximately what percentage of a person's body weight?
A) 25%
B) 33%
C) 50%
D) 66%
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38 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78697
Sample Questions
Q1) A 20-year-old baseball pitcher has an arthroscopic repair of a rotator cuff injury performed as same-day surgery.When the nurse plans postoperative teaching for the patient,which information will be included?
A) "You have an appointment with a physiotherapist for tomorrow."
B) "Leave the shoulder immobilizer on for the first few days to minimize pain."
C) "The doctor will use the drop-arm test to determine the success of the procedure."
D) "You should try to find a different position to play on the baseball team."
Q2) While working in an urgent care centre,the nurse sees many patients with sports-related injuries.In teaching these patients about health promotion during physical activity,what should the nurse emphasize?
A) Stretching and warm-up exercises are an important part of the exercise routine.
B) All joints at risk for injury should be wrapped with adhesive tape before exercising.
C) Low-impact activities should be substituted for strenuous,physically stressful exercise.
D) All strenuous exercise should be followed with a period of complete physical relaxation.
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Q1) Following a laminectomy with a spinal fusion,a patient reports numbness and tingling of the right lower leg.What is the first nursing action?
A) Report the patient's complaint to the surgeon.
B) Check the vital signs for indications of hemorrhage.
C) Turn the patient to the side to relieve pressure on the operative area.
D) Compare these findings with preoperative assessments of neuromuscular symptoms.
Q2) A patient is being discharged after 2 weeks of intravenous (IV)antibiotic therapy for acute osteomyelitis in the left leg.Which information will be included in the discharge teaching?
A) The reason for taking oral antibiotics for 7 to 10 days after discharge
B) The need for daily aerobic exercise to help maintain muscle strength
C) How to monitor and care for the long-term IV catheter site
D) How to apply warm packs safely to the leg to reduce pain
Q3) Which reflex is affected in a patient with a disc herniation at the level of L3?
A) None
B) Patellar
C) Achilles
D) Deep-tendon reflex
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41 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78695
Sample Questions
Q1) A 71-year-old obese man has bilateral OA of the hips.The nurse teaches the patient that the most beneficial measure to protect his joints is to do which of the following activities?
A) Use a wheelchair to avoid walking as much as possible.
B) Use a weight-reduction diet to obtain a healthy body weight.
C) Use a walker for ambulation to relieve the pressure on his hips.
D) Sit in chairs that do not cause his hips to be lower than his knees.
Q2) When teaching a patient to protect the small joints affected by RA,what should the nurse instruct the patient to do?
A) Stand rather than sit when performing household chores.
B) Avoid activities that require continuous use of the same muscles.
C) Strengthen small hand muscles by wringing sponges or washcloths.
D) Protect the knee joints by sleeping with a small pillow under the knees.
Q3) Which of the following is a major problem facing many patients with chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS)?
A) Obesity
B) Malnutrition
C) Financial instability
D) Homelessness

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38 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78694
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of disturbed sensory perception related to sleep deprivation for a patient in the CCU.What is an appropriate nursing intervention for this problem?
A) Cluster nursing activities and plan uninterrupted rest periods.
B) Administer prescribed sedatives or hypnotics at bedtime to promote sleep.
C) Silence the alarms on monitoring equipment to allow the patient to take 30- to 40-minute naps.
D) Explain to the patient the types of noise in the environment and reasons that the noise is necessary.
Q2) A patient with severe heart failure has a ventricular assist device (VAD)implanted.Which of the following should be included when developing the plan of care?
A) Teaching the patient the reason for continuous bed rest
B) Preparing the patient to have the VAD in place permanently
C) Monitoring the surgical incision for signs of infection
D) Administering immunosuppressive medications
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Q1) When caring for a patient in shock,the nurse notifies the physician of the patient's deteriorating status when the patient's arterial blood gas results include which of the following findings?
A) pH 7.48,partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO<sub>2</sub>)33 mm Hg
B) pH 7.33,PaCO<sub>2</sub> 30 mm Hg
C) pH 7.50,PaCO<sub>2</sub> 50 mm Hg
D) pH 7.38,PaCO<sub>2</sub> 45 mm Hg
Q2) Which of the following is a patient outcome that is appropriate for the patient in shock who has a nursing diagnosis of decreased cardiac output related to relative hypovolemia?
A) Normal mentation
B) Increase in BP
C) Verbalization of reduced anxiety
D) Reduction in heart and respiratory rates
Q3) Which of the following nursing interventions prevents the development of shock?
A) Routine checking of stools for occult blood
B) Keeping patients warm to prevent chilling or shivering
C) Identifying situations in which patients are at risk for shock
D) Frequent monitoring of patient status to detect compensatory changes
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78691
Sample Questions
Q1) While performing an admission assessment of a patient in hypercapnic respiratory failure due to COPD,what symptoms would the nurse expect the patient to report?
A) Confusion
B) Cyanosis
C) Anxiety and restlessness
D) A morning headache and dyspnea
Q2) Which of the following findings indicates to the nurse that a patient with acute respiratory distress who has no history of chronic lung disease is in acute respiratory failure?
A) pH of 7.34
B) Arterial partial pressure of oxygen (PaO<sub>2</sub>)of 45 mm Hg
C) Arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO<sub>2</sub>)of 50 mm Hg
D) Evidence of respiratory muscle fatigue
Q3) Which assessment finding would the nurse expect in a patient with hypoxemia?
A) Apnea
B) Decreased respiratory rate
C) Increased SpO<sub>2</sub>
D) Prolonged expiration
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78690
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Q1) When completing the secondary survey,the nurse knows that the E in EFGHI represents which one of the following?
A) Evaluating vital signs
B) Exposure and environmental control
C) Environmental scan
D) Effect of immediate treatment
Q2) Which assessment finding would the nurse anticipate with a patient who is hypothermic?
A) Hyperventilation
B) Hypertension
C) Tachycardia
D) Fixed,dilated pupils
Q3) During immediate care of a victim of a bite or sting to the hands or fingers,it is most important for the nurse to carry out which of the following actions?
A) Elevate the affected extremity.
B) Scrub the wound with an antibacterial solution.
C) Apply ice to the site with ice water or ice packs.
D) Remove rings and watches from the affected extremity.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78689
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Q1) Accountability for emergency planning and response in Canada is the responsibility of which of the following?
A) Municipal government
B) Provincial government
C) Federal government
D) Health Canada
Q2) Assessment of a patient in the emergency department reveals the following: hemoptysis,cough,temperature of 41°C,headache and lymph node enlargement.Based upon these findings,what does the nurse suspect as a diagnosis?
A) Botulism
B) Plague
C) Tularemia
D) Severe acute respiratory syndrome
Q3) During a mass casualty incident,disaster triage in the hospital is completed in what time frame?
A) 15 seconds
B) 30 seconds
C) 1 minute
D) 2 minutes
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