Nursing Care of Adults Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Nursing Care of Adults focuses on the comprehensive nursing management of adult patients experiencing acute and chronic health issues. The course emphasizes the application of the nursing process to promote optimal health, prevent illness, and manage complex health conditions commonly encountered in the adult population. Students will develop clinical judgment and skills through the integration of evidence-based practices, patient safety principles, therapeutic communication, and interprofessional collaboration. Emphasis is placed on culturally competent care, ethical considerations, and patient-centered approaches across diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Lehnes Pharmacology for Nursing Care 10th Edition by Jacqueline Burchum
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110 Chapters
1439 Verified Questions
1439 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1303
Page 2
Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25895
Sample Questions
Q1) What are the properties of an ideal drug?
A) Irreversible action
B) Predictability
C) Ease of administration
D) Chemical stability
E) A recognizable trade name
Answer: B, C, D
Q2) What is a desired outcome when a drug is described as easy to administer?
A) It can be stored indefinitely without need for refrigeration.
B) It does not interact significantly with other medications.
C) It enhances patient adherence to the drug regimen.
D) It is usually relatively inexpensive to produce.
Answer: C
Q3) The nurse is teaching a patient how a medication works to treat an illness. To do this, the nurse will rely on knowledge of which topic?
A) Clinical pharmacology
B) Drug efficacy
C) Pharmacokinetics
D) Pharmacotherapeutics
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postoperative patient has orders for morphine sulfate 1 to 2 mg IV every 1 hour PRN for severe pain and acetaminophen-hydrocodone [Lortab] 7.5 mg PO every 4 to 6 hours
PRN for moderate pain. The patient reports pain at a level of 8 on a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst pain. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A) Administer acetaminophen-hydrocodone 7.5 mg PO every 4 hours.
B) Administer acetaminophen-hydrocodone 7.5 mg PO every 6 hours and change to every 4 hours if not effective.
C) Administer morphine sulfate 1 mg IV every 1 hour until pain subsides.
D) Administer morphine sulfate 2 mg IV and evaluate the patient's pain in 15 to 30 minutes.
Answer: D
Q2) A patient tells a nurse that a medication prescribed for recurrent migraine headaches is not working. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient about the number and frequency of tablets taken.
B) Assess the patient's headache pain on a scale from 1 to 10.
C) Report the patient's complaint to the prescriber.
D) Suggest biofeedback as an adjunct to drug therapy.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names?
A) They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember.
B) They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.
C) They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification.
D) They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex.
Answer: B
Q2) The FDA Amendments Act (FDAAA) was passed in 2007 to address which aspect of drug safety?
A) Allowing pharmaceutical companies to identify off-label uses of medications approved for other uses
B) Evaluating drug safety information that emerges after a drug has been approved and is in use
C) Expediting the approval process of the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) so that needed drugs can get to market more quickly
D) Requiring manufacturers to notify patients before removing a drug from the market
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving intravenous gentamicin. A serum drug test reveals toxic levels. The dosing is correct, and this medication has been tolerated by this patient in the past. Which could be a probable cause of the test result?
A) A loading dose was not given.
B) The drug was not completely dissolved in the IV solution.
C) The patient is taking another medication that binds to serum albumin.
D) The medication is being given at a frequency that is longer than its half-life.
Q2) A nurse is explaining drug metabolism to a nursing student who asks about glucuronidation. The nurse knows that this is a process that allows drugs to be:
A) excreted in hydrolyzed form in the feces to reduce drug toxicity.
B) reabsorbed from the urine into the renal circulation to minimize drug loss.
C) recycled via the enterohepatic recirculation to remain in the body longer.
D) transported across the renal tubules to be excreted in the urine.
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Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two nurses are discussing theories of drug-receptor interaction. Which statements are true regarding the affinity of a drug and its receptor?
A) Affinity and intrinsic activity are dependent properties.
B) Affinity refers to the strength of the attraction between a drug and its receptor.
C) Drugs with high affinity are strongly attracted to their receptors.
D) Drugs with low affinity are strongly attracted to their receptors.
E) The affinity of a drug for its receptors is reflected in its potency.
Q2) Which drugs will not be affected by interpatient variability?
A) Antiseptics applied to the skin to slow bacterial growth
B) Antacids to help with the discomfort of heartburn
C) Broad-spectrum antibiotics that are effective against many organisms
D) Chelating agents that remove metal compounds from the body
E) Topical analgesics used to treat localized pain
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Chapter 6: Drug Interactions
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who is taking multiple medications. To help ensure that adverse drug reactions are prevented or minimized, the nurse will do which of the following?
A) Ask the patient about over-the-counter medications used.
B) Contact the prescriber to request cytochrome P450 levels.
C) Limit the patient's calcium intake.
D) Obtain a thorough diet history.
E) Request orders for PRN medications to treat any anticipated symptoms of drug interactions.
Q2) The nurse is administering morning medications. The nurse gives a patient multiple medications, two of which compete for plasma albumin receptor sites. As a result of this concurrent administration, the nurse can anticipate that what might occur?
A) Binding of one or both agents will be reduced.
B) Plasma levels of free drug will rise.
C) Plasma levels of free drug will fall.
D) The increase in free drug will intensify effects.
E) The increase in bound drug will intensify effects.
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Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is given a new medication and reports nausea within an hour after taking the drug. The nurse consults the drug information manual and learns that nausea is not an expected adverse effect of this drug. When the next dose is due, what will the nurse do?
A) Administer the drug and tell the patient to report further nausea.
B) Hold the drug and notify the provider of the patient's symptoms.
C) Report the symptoms of nausea to the MEDWATCH program.
D) Request an order for an antiemetic to counter this drug's effects.
Q2) A patient is given a drug for the first time and develops shortness of breath. The patient's heart rate is 76 beats/min, the respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute, and the blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg. The nurse checks a drug administration manual to make sure the correct dose was given and learns that some patients taking the drug experience shortness of breath. The nurse will contact the provider to report what?
A) An allergic reaction
B) An idiosyncratic effect
C) An iatrogenic response
D) A side effect
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Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks a nurse why a friend who is taking the same drug responds differently to that drug. The nurse knows that the most common variation in drug response is due to differences in each patient's:
A) drug receptor sites.
B) hypersensitivity potential.
C) metabolism of drugs.
D) psychosocial response.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of women about medications. The women want to know why so many drugs have unpredictable effects in women. The nurse will tell them that:
A) drugs usually have more toxic effects in women.
B) most known drug effects are based on drug trials in men.
C) women have varying responses to drugs during menstrual cycles.
D) women metabolize drugs more slowly.
Q3) Which groups of people are especially sensitive to medication effects?
A) Older adults
B) Caucasians
C) Infants
D) Minorities
E) Women
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Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and Breast-Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has just learned she is pregnant has stopped using a prescription medication that she takes for asthma because she doesn't want to harm her baby. What will the nurse tell her?
A) That asthma medications will not affect the fetus
B) That her baby's health is dependent on hers
C) To avoid taking medications during her pregnancy
D) To resume the medication in her second trimester
Q2) A pregnant patient asks the nurse about the safe use of medications during the third trimester. What will the nurse tell her about drugs taken at this stage?
A) They may need to be given in higher doses if they undergo renal clearance.
B) They require lower doses if they are metabolized by the liver.
C) They are less likely to cross the placenta and affect the fetus.
D) They are more likely to cause anatomical defects if they are teratogenic.
Q3) Which types of drugs taken by a pregnant patient are more likely to have effects on a fetus?
A) Drugs that are highly polar
B) Ionized drugs
C) Lipid-soluble drugs
D) Protein-bound drugs
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant has allergies and often develops a pruritic rash when exposed to allergens. The infant's parents ask the nurse about using a topical antihistamine. What should the nurse tell them?
A) Antihistamines given by this route are not absorbed well in children.
B) Applying an antihistamine to the skin can cause toxicity in this age group.
C) The child will also need oral medication to achieve effective results.
D) Topical medications have fewer side effects than those given by other routes.
Q2) A nurse caring for a 5-year-old child notes that the child has discoloration of several teeth. When taking a medication history, the nurse will ask about which group of medications?
A) Glucocorticoids
B) Salicylates
C) Sulfonamides
D) Tetracyclines
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12
Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25905
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is concerned about renal function in an 84-year-old patient who is taking several medications. What will the nurse assess?
A) Creatinine clearance
B) Sodium levels
C) Potassium levels
D) Serum creatinine
Q2) The nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about adherence to medication in older adults. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "An inability to pay for medications contributes to most intentional nonadherence among older adults."
B) "Most issues associated with nonadherence among older adults would be resolved with simplified drug regimens."
C) "Most nonadherence in older adults results in drug toxicity and adverse drug effects."
D) "The majority of older patients who do not adhere to drug regimens do so intentionally."
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13
Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has allergies and takes an antihistamine. The patient wants to know how the drug works. The nurse understands that antihistamines work because they are what?
A) Activators
B) Agonists
C) Antagonists
D) Antidotes
Q2) A nursing student asks about drugs that interfere with the termination of transmitter action. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Drugs act on this process by altering the diffusion of the transmitter away from the synaptic gap."
B) "Drugs can interfere with termination by either increasing or decreasing reuptake of the transmitter."
C) "Drugs in this category lead to decreased activation by the transmitter in the synapse."
D) "These drugs reduce either reuptake or degradation of the transmitter, causing an increase in receptor activation."
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14
Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient is in premature labor. Which class of drug will she be given?
A) Alpha<sub>1</sub> agonist
B) Anticholinergic
C) Beta<sub>2</sub> agonist
D) Beta<sub>2</sub> antagonist
Q2) A nurse is administering an agonist drug that acts on postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system. Which response will the nurse expect to see?
A) Decreased sweating
B) Bronchodilation
C) Increased cardiac output
D) Pinpoint pupils
Q3) Many medications list side effects that include dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention. What kinds of effects are these?
A) Alpha adrenergic
B) Anticholinergic
C) Beta adrenergic
D) Sympathetic
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15
Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has esophageal cancer is experiencing dry mouth and the provider orders oral pilocarpine to treat this symptom. What will the nurse expect to teach this patient about this medication?
A) "This medication may cause rapid heart rate and elevated blood pressure."
B) "This medication may cause constipation and gastric discomfort in large doses."
C) "You should experience sweating with this medication and should not have other side effects."
D) "You will begin taking 5 mg 3 times daily and may increase the dose to 10 mg."
Q2) An older adult patient who lives alone and is somewhat forgetful has an overactive bladder (OAB) and reports occasional constipation. The patient has tried behavioral therapy to treat the OAB without adequate results. Which treatment will the nurse anticipate for this patient?
A) Oxybutynin short-acting syrup
B) Oxybutynin [Ditropan XL] extended-release tablets
C) Oxybutynin [Oxytrol] transdermal patch
D) Percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation (PTNS)
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Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in
Myasthenia Gravis
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has myasthenia gravis will be taking neostigmine. What will the nurse emphasize when teaching this patient about the medication?
A) "Stop taking the drug if you have diarrhea."
B) "Take a supplementary dose before exercise."
C) "Use atropine if you have excessive salivation."
D) "Withhold the dose if ptosis occurs."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Diazepam is given to reverse inhibition of cholinesterase when overdose occurs."
B) "Irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors are rapidly absorbed by all routes."
C) "These agents are often used to treat glaucoma."
D) "Toxic doses of these agents produce an anticholinergic crisis."
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Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic
Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will receive atracurium [Tracrium] during surgery for neuromuscular blockade. The nurse caring for this patient will correctly perform which of the following actions?
A) Assess the patient for signs of CNS depression.
B) Ensure that dantrolene is available in case of a serious adverse reaction.
C) Monitor the patient's blood pressure closely.
D) Review the preprocedure laboratory values related to renal and hepatic function.
Q2) While preparing a patient for a procedure in which a neuromuscular blocking agent will be used, the nurse reviews the patient's preprocedure laboratory values. Which abnormality would cause the most concern?
A) Hyponatremia
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hypomagnesemia
D) Hypokalemia
Q3) Which areas of the body show the effects of neuromuscular blockers last?
A) Levator muscle of the eyelids and the muscles of mastication
B) Muscles in the lower extremities
C) Muscles controlling the glottis
D) Muscles of respiration and the diaphragm
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving dobutamine [Dobutrex] as a continuous infusion in the immediate postoperative period. The patient also is receiving a diuretic. What adverse drug reactions are possible in this patient?
A) Angina
B) Dysrhythmias
C) Hypotension
D) Oliguria
E) Tachycardia
Q2) A patient brought to the emergency department requires sutures. The prescriber orders a local anesthetic with epinephrine. The nurse understands that epinephrine is ordered to:
A) prevent hypertension induced by the anesthetic.
B) allow a reduced dose of the anesthetic.
C) reduce anesthetic-induced nausea.
D) reduce the pain of an injection.
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19
Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin taking propranolol [Inderal] for hypertension. Which statement by the nurse is important when teaching this patient about the medication?
A) "Check your hands and feet for swelling and report that to your provider."
B) "It is safe to take this medication with a calcium channel blocker."
C) "Stop taking the drug if you become short of breath."
D) "Take your pulse and do not take the medication if your heart rate is fast."
Q2) A patient with migraines is started on a beta blocker. The nurse explains the benefits of taking the medication for migraines. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the medication's effects?
A) "I need to take it every day to reduce the frequency of migraines."
B) "I will take it as needed to get relief from migraines."
C) "I will take it to shorten the duration of my migraines."
D) "I will take this drug when a migraine starts."
Q3) Which are conditions that may be treated using beta blockers?
A) Cardiac dysrhythmias
B) Heart failure
C) Hypotension
D) Hypothyroidism
E) Stage fright
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with hypertension has a previous history of opioid dependence. Which medication would the nurse question?
A) Clonidine [Catapres]
B) Guanabenz [Wytensin]
C) Methyldopa
D) Reserpine [Serpasil]
Q2) A prescriber has ordered clonidine [Catapres] for a patient who has hypertension. The nurse teaches the patient about the side effects of this drug. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should chew sugar-free gum or drink water to reduce dry mouth."
B) "I should not drive as long as I am taking this drug."
C) "I should stand up slowly when taking this medication."
D) "I should stop taking this drug if I feel anxious or depressed."
Q3) A patient who has been taking clonidine [Catapres] for several weeks complains of drowsiness and constipation. What will the nurse do?
A) Recommend that the patient take most of the daily dose at bedtime.
B) Suggest asking the provider for a transdermal preparation of the drug.
C) Suspect that the patient is overusing the medication.
D) Tell the patient to stop taking the drug and call the provider.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which monoamines act as neurotransmitters in the central nervous system?
A) Acetylcholine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Serotonin
D) Dopamine
E) Epinephrine
F) Histamine
Q2) Which are medical applications of central nervous system drugs?
A) Analgesia
B) Anesthesia
C) Depression
D) Euphoria
E) Seizure control
Q3) A psychiatric nurse is teaching a patient about an antidepressant medication. The nurse tells the patient that therapeutic effects may not occur for several weeks. The nurse understands that this is likely the result of:
A) changes in the brain as a result of prolonged drug exposure.
B) direct actions of the drug on specific synaptic functions in the brain.
C) slowed drug absorption across the blood-brain barrier.
D) tolerance to exposure to the drug over time.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinson Disease
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has taken levodopa [Dopar] for Parkinson disease for 2 weeks but reports no improvement in the symptoms. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Another agent will be needed to manage your symptoms."
B) "Double the dose to see whether an effect occurs."
C) "It may take several months for a response to occur."
D) "The prescriber may need to change your drug regimen."
Q2) A patient with Parkinson disease is taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet]. The prescriber orders bromocriptine [Parlodel] to treat dyskinesias. The nurse notes that the patient is agitated, and the patient reports having frequent nightmares. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
A) adding an antipsychotic medication.
B) changing from bromocriptine to cabergoline [Dostinex].
C) reducing the dose of bromocriptine.
D) reducing the dose of levodopa/carbidopa.
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Chapter 22: Drugs for Alzheimers Disease
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for an older adult patient who has Alzheimer's disease. The patient is taking a cholinesterase inhibitor drug. Which side effects would concern the nurse?
A) Confusion and memory impairment
B) Dizziness and headache
C) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
D) Slowed heart rate and lightheadedness
Q2) An older adult patient has confusion, memory loss, and disorientation in familiar surroundings. The patient has been taking donepezil [Aricept] 10 mg once daily for 6 months. The patient's symptoms have begun to worsen, and the patient's spouse asks if the medication dose can be increased. What will the nurse tell the spouse?
A) The dose can be increased, because the patient has been taking the drug for longer than 3 months.
B) The dose can be increased to twice daily dosing instead of once daily dosing.
C) The increase in symptoms is the result of hepatotoxicity from the medication's side effects.
D) The patient must take the drug for longer than 1 year before the dose can be increased.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient administers interferon beta-1a SQ [Rebif] 22 mcg/0.5 mL 3 times each week. The patient calls the nurse to report unrelieved itching and erythema at the injection site, despite the use of topical hydrocortisone for several weeks. What will the nurse tell this patient to do?
A) Apply ice to the injection site before and after the injection.
B) Ask the provider to reduce the dose of interferon beta to 8.8 mcg/0.2 mL.
C) Discuss using a prescription-strength hydrocortisone product with the provider.
D) Take oral diphenhydramine [Benadryl].
Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) for 10 years and has a history of 3 periods of neurologic dysfunction lasting several weeks separated by long periods of full recovery. In the past 6 months, the patient has had a prolonged period of neurologic dysfunction without remission. The nurse understands that the patient may have which MS subtype?
A) Primary progressive MS
B) Progressive-relapsing MS
C) Relapsing-remitting MS
D) Secondary progressive MS
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25
Chapter 24: Drugs for Seizure Disorders
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital and has a partial convulsive episode shortly after arriving on the unit. The patient has been taking phenytoin [Dilantin] 100 mg 3 times daily and oxcarbazepine [Trileptal] 300 mg twice daily for several years. The patient's phenytoin level is 8.6 mcg/mL, and the oxcarbazepine level is 22 mcg/mL. The nurse contacts the provider to report these levels and the seizure. What will the nurse expect the provider to order?
A) A decreased dose of oxcarbazepine
B) Extended-release phenytoin
C) An increased dose of phenytoin
D) Once-daily dosing of oxcarbazepine
Q2) A child who receives valproic acid [Depakote] begins taking lamotrigine [Lamictal] because of an increase in the number of seizures. The nurse will observe this child closely for which symptom?
A) Angioedema
B) Hypohidrosis
C) Rash
D) Psychosis
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Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with cerebral palsy who has been receiving baclofen [Lioresal] via gastrostomy tube for 3 months is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of new-onset seizures. What may the nurse suspect to be the cause of these seizures?
A) Baclofen toxicity
B) Common adverse effect of baclofen
C) Idiopathic causes related to disease process
D) Missed doses of baclofen
Q2) Which drugs are used to treat spasticity?
A) Baclofen [Lioresal]
B) Dantrolene [Dantrium]
C) Diazepam [Valium]
D) Metaxalone [Skelaxin]
E) Tizanidine [Flexeril]
Q3) Which patient should receive dantrolene [Dantrium] with caution?
A) A 20-year-old woman with a spinal cord injury
B) A 45-year-old man with a history of malignant hyperthermia
C) A 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis
D) An 8-year-old child with cerebral palsy
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27
Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics
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11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient receives an epidural anesthetic during labor and delivery. The nurse caring for the newborn in the immediate postpartum period will observe the infant for:
A) bradycardia.
B) hypoglycemia.
C) jitteriness.
D) tachypnea.
Q2) A nurse is assisting the physician during a procedure in which a local anesthetic is administered. Within a few minutes of administration of the anesthetic, the patient has a pulse of 54 beats/min, respirations of 18 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 90/42 mm Hg. The nurse should monitor the patient for further signs of:
A) heart block.
B) anaphylaxis.
C) central nervous system excitation.
D) respiratory depression.
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Chapter 27: General Anesthetics
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25921
Sample Questions
Q1) An anesthesiologist completes preoperative teaching for a patient the night before surgery. The patient asks the nurse to clarify the reason methohexital [Brevital] will be given as an adjunct to the anesthetic. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding?
A) "Brevital allows a larger amount of inhaled anesthetic to be used without increased side effects."
B) "Brevital is given to enhance the analgesic and muscle relaxation effects of the inhaled anesthetic."
C) "Brevital is used to produce rapid unconsciousness before administration of the inhaled anesthetic."
D) "Brevital is used to reduce cardiovascular and respiratory depression caused by the inhaled anesthetic."
Q2) A preoperative patient receives atropine before induction of anesthesia. The nurse caring for this patient understands that this agent is used to prevent:
A) anxiety.
B) bradycardia.
C) dry mouth.
D) hypertension.
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Chapter 28: Opioid Analgesics, Opioid Antagonists, and Nonopioid Centrally Acting Analgesics
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25922
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is administering morphine sulfate to a postoperative patient. Which are appropriate routine nursing actions when giving this drug?
A) Counting respirations before and after giving the medication
B) Encouraging physical activity and offering increased fluids
C) Monitoring the patient's blood pressure closely for hypertension
D) Palpating the patient's lower abdomen every 4 to 6 hours
E) Requesting an order for methylnaltrexone [Relistor] to prevent constipation
Q2) A patient who has biliary colic reports a pain level of 8 on a 1 to 10 pain scale with 10 being the most severe pain. The patient has an order for ibuprofen as needed for pain. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Administer the ibuprofen as ordered.
B) Contact the provider to discuss nonpharmacologic pain measures.
C) Request an order for meperidine [Demerol].
D) Request an order for morphine sulfate.
Q3) A patient who has developed opioid tolerance will experience which effect?
A) Decreased analgesic effect
B) Decreased constipation
C) Increased euphoria
D) Increased respiratory depression
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Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients With Cancer
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25923
Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient who has cancer and Alzheimer's disease is crying but shakes his or her head "no" when asked about pain. The prescriber has ordered morphine sulfate 2 to 4 mg IV every 2 hours PRN pain. It has been 4 hours since a dose has been given. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer 4 mg of morphine and monitor this patient's verbal and nonverbal responses.
B) Give 2 mg of morphine for pain to avoid increasing this patient's level of confusion.
C) Request an order for a nonopioid analgesic or an antidepressant adjuvant analgesic.
D) Withhold any analgesic at this time and reassess the patient in 30 to 60 minutes.
Q2) A patient with cancer who has been receiving an opioid analgesic reports having pain at a new location even though the previous pain is well controlled. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
A) breakthrough pain.
B) drug-seeking behavior.
C) infection or metastasis.
D) tolerance to drug therapy.
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Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25924
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman with moderate migraine headaches asks a nurse why the provider has ordered metoclopramide [Reglan] as an adjunct to aspirin therapy, because she does not usually experience nausea and vomiting with her migraines. The nurse will tell her that the metoclopramide is used to:
A) help induce sleep.
B) improve absorption of the aspirin.
C) prevent gastric irritation caused by the aspirin.
D) prolong the effects of the aspirin.
Q2) A patient who has migraine headaches is prescribed sumatriptan [Imitrex] 5 mg unit-dose nasal spray. The patient has administered 2 sprays at 1400, 1600, and 1800 and calls to report little relief from headache pain. What will the nurse instruct the patient to do?
A) Administer 2 sprays at 2000 and call the provider if no relief.
B) Continue using 2 sprays every 2 hours as needed to relieve discomfort.
C) Contact the provider to ask about using an ergot alkaloid medication.
D) Use 3 sprays at the next dose to increase the dose.
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Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25925
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with schizophrenia receives a dose of risperidone [Risperdal Consta] IM. The nurse teaching this patient about this medication will make which statement?
A) "You will experience therapeutic levels of this drug in 1 to 2 weeks."
B) "You will need injections of this drug every 6 weeks."
C) "You will need to take an oral antipsychotic drug for 3 weeks."
D) "You probably will not have extrapyramidal symptoms with this drug."
Q2) A nurse and a nursing student are discussing the plan of care for a patient with schizophrenia. The patient, who has been taking a high-potency FGA for 2 months, has become restless and constantly needs to be in motion. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further education?
A) "Anticholinergic medications may help control these symptoms."
B) "Because this may be an exacerbation of psychosis, the provider may increase the dose of the FGA."
C) "The provider may try a low-potency FGA instead of the high-potency FGA."
D) "This patient may need to take a benzodiazepine or a beta blocker."
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Chapter 32: Antidepressants
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25926
Sample Questions
Q1) A neonate is born to a patient who reports taking venlafaxine [Effexor XR]. The nurse caring for the infant will observe the infant for:
A) irritability, tremor, and respiratory distress.
B) poor appetite and disturbed sleeping patterns.
C) serotonin syndrome.
D) sustained mydriasis.
Q2) A patient has been taking fluoxetine [Prozac] for 2 years and reports feeling cured of depression. The nurse learns that the patient is sleeping well, participates in usual activities, and feels upbeat and energetic most of the time. The patient's weight has returned to normal. The patient reports last having symptoms of depression at least 9 months ago. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) Indefinite drug therapy is necessary to maintain remission.
B) Discuss gradual withdrawal of the medication with the provider.
C) Stop the drug while remaining alert for the return of symptoms.
D) Take a drug holiday to see whether symptoms recur.
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34
Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25927
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a hospitalized patient who has been taking lithium [Lithobid] for 3 days. The patient is complaining of mild nausea and abdominal bloating. The patient's lithium level is 0.8 mEq/L. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the dose and tell the patient that the side effects are temporary.
B) Contact the prescriber to request an order for serum electrolytes.
C) Hold the dose and notify the prescriber of the patient's lithium level.
D) Request an order for amiloride [Midamor].
Q2) A patient with bipolar disorder who wants to minimize the need for drug therapy asks the nurse what else can be done to treat the disorder. The nurse will recommend which measures?
A) Electroconvulsive therapy
B) Moderate use of alcohol to reduce stress
C) Psychotherapy
D) Regular sleep and exercise
E) Using a chart to monitor mood changes
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Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25928
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient complains of chronic insomnia and reports being tired all the time. The patient is reluctant to try pharmacologic remedies and asks the nurse what to do. What will the nurse suggest?
A) "Eat a large meal in the evening to induce drowsiness."
B) "Get out of bed for a while if you can't fall asleep."
C) "Have a glass of wine at bedtime to relax."
D) "Take a short nap early in the afternoon every day."
Q2) A patient who has been using secobarbital for several months to treat insomnia tells the nurse that the prescriber has said the prescription will be changed to temazepam [Restoril] because it is safer. The patient asks why this agent is safer. The nurse is correct in telling the patient that temazepam:
A) does not depress the central nervous system.
B) shows no respiratory depression, even in toxic doses.
C) mimics the actions of a central nervous system inhibitory neurotransmitter.
D) potentiates endogenous gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) producing a finite CNS depression.
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Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25929
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a patient. The patient reports taking alprazolam [Xanax] for "nerves." The nurse knows that this patient is most likely being treated for which condition?
A) Generalized anxiety disorder
B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
C) Panic disorder
D) Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
Q2) During an admission history, a patient reports a frequent need to return to a room multiple times to make sure an iron or other appliance is unplugged. What does the nurse understand about this patient's behavior?
A) It helps the patient reduce anxiety about causing a fire.
B) It usually is treated with alprazolam [Xanax].
C) It seems perfectly normal to the patient.
D) It will best respond to deep brain stimulation.
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Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and
Attention-Deficithyperactivity Disorder
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25930
Sample Questions
Q1) A parent thinks a school-aged child has ADHD. The nurse asks the parent to describe the child's behaviors. Which behaviors are characteristics of ADHD?
A) Anxiety
B) Compulsivity
C) Hyperactivity
D) Inattention
E) Impulsivity
Q2) A child will begin taking methylphenidate [Ritalin] for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. Important baseline information about this patient will include:
A) results of an electrocardiogram (ECG).
B) family history of psychosis.
C) height and weight.
D) renal function.
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Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25931
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been taking a medication with a side effect of drowsiness stops taking the medication after several weeks. The patient reports feeling anxious and jittery. The nurse understands that this response is due to:
A) addiction.
B) psychologic dependence.
C) tolerance.
D) withdrawal syndrome.
Q2) The nurse is teaching a nursing student about management of controlled substances in medication administration. Which statement by the nursing student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "If there is a difference between state and federal laws governing a scheduled drug, the federal law takes precedence."
B) "Prescriptions for drugs in Schedules III and IV may be written to include up to 5 refills."
C) "Schedule I drugs may only be given to hospitalized patients."
D) "To reduce the possibility of abuse of a drug that is Schedule II, the prescriber should call the prescription to the pharmacy."
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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse II: Alcohol
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25932
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is providing education to a group of college students about the long-term effects of alcohol. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Chronic alcohol use contributes to the development of osteoporosis."
B) "Chronic use of alcohol can actually decrease the risk of cardiomyopathy."
C) "Even small amounts of alcohol are related to the development of certain cancers."
D) "Pancreatitis is not a common problem among chronic users of alcohol."
Q2) A patient who is an alcoholic is prescribed disulfiram [Antabuse] to help prevent relapse and the nurse provides teaching about the use of this drug. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I may use alcohol in cooking since heating foods destroys the alcohol."
B) "I should avoid shaving lotion and mouthwashes that contain even small amounts of alcohol."
C) "If I decide to drink, I should stop taking the disulfiram at least one week prior to consuming alcohol."
D) "If I use alcohol, the effects will be uncomfortable but are not dangerous."
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Chapter 39: Drug Abuse III: Nicotine and Smoking
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25933
Sample Questions
Q1) A 4-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with symptoms of nausea and vomiting and a weak, thready pulse of 120 beats per minute after ingesting several cigarettes at home. The nurse caring for this child will expect to provide which treatment?
A) Gastric lavage
B) Hemodialysis
C) Respiratory support
D) Vasoconstrictors
Q2) A patient asks about nicotine patches for smoking cessation and wants to know the difference between the 24-hour patch and the 16-hour patch. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "The 16-hour patch is for patients who have trouble sleeping."
B) "The 16-hour patch simulates usual nicotine ingestion patterns."
C) "The 24-hour patch is for persons weighing more than 100 pounds."
D) "The 24-hour patch is recommended for heavier smokers."
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Chapter 40: Drug Abuse IV: Major Drugs of Abuse Other
Than Alcohol and Nicotine
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25934
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is an opioid addict has undergone detoxification with buprenorphine [Subutex] and has been given a prescription for buprenorphine with naloxone [Suboxone]. The patient asks the nurse why the drug was changed. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Suboxone has a lower risk of abuse."
B) "Suboxone has a longer half-life."
C) "Subutex causes more respiratory depression."
D) "Subutex has more buprenorphine."
Q2) A college student tells the nurse that several friends have been using synthetic marijuana to get high. What will the nurse tell this patient about this type of substance?
A) "These substances are fairly safe because they are derived from herbs."
B) "They can cause hypertension, nausea, vomiting, and hallucinations."
C) "These substances do not have mind-altering affects."
D) "These substances produce a high and they are not illegal."
Q3) What is the primary reason for opioid abuse?
A) Ease of access
B) Initial "rush" similar to orgasm
C) Peer pressure
D) Prolonged sense of euphoria
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Diuretics
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25935
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with chronic congestive heart failure has repeated hospitalizations in spite of ongoing treatment with hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL] and digoxin. The prescriber has ordered spironolactone [Aldactone] to be added to this patient's drug regimen, and the nurse provides education about this medication. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I can expect improvement within a few hours after taking this drug."
B) "I need to stop taking potassium supplements."
C) "I should use salt substitutes to prevent toxic side effects."
D) "I should watch closely for dehydration."
Q2) A patient is brought to the emergency department with shortness of breath, a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute, intercostal retractions, and frothy, pink sputum. The nurse caring for this patient will expect to administer which drug?
A) Furosemide [Lasix]
B) Hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]
C) Mannitol [Osmitrol]
D) Spironolactone [Aldactone]
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Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25936
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient collapses after running a marathon on a hot day and is brought to the emergency department to be treated for dehydration. The nurse will expect to provide which therapy?
A) Intravenous hypertonic fluids given slowly over several hours
B) Intravenous hypotonic fluids administered in stages
C) Intravenous isotonic fluids given as a rapid bolus
D) Oral electrolyte replacement fluids with potassium
Q2) A patient who is a chronic alcoholic is admitted to the hospital. Admission laboratory work reveals a magnesium level of 1.2 mEq/L. The prescriber orders intravenous magnesium sulfate in a 10% solution at a rate of 10 mL/min. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the IV dose as ordered and have calcium gluconate on hand.
B) Administer the IV dose and make preparations for mechanical ventilation.
C) Hold the IV dose until the infusion rate has been clarified with the provider.
D) Request an order for renal function tests before administering the IV dose.
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44
Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25937
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking a drug that interferes with venous constriction. The nurse will tell the patient to:
A) ask for assistance when getting out of bed.
B) expect bradycardia for a few days.
C) notify the provider if headache occurs.
D) report shortness of breath.
Q2) A patient with a history of hypertension is admitted for a procedure. If the patient's arterial pressure decreases, which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to see?
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Increased heart rate
C) Decreased blood pressure
D) Syncope
Q3) A patient is taking a beta<sub>1</sub>-adrenergic drug to improve the stroke volume of the heart. The nurse caring for this patient knows that this drug acts by increasing:
A) cardiac afterload.
B) cardiac preload.
C) myocardial contractility.
D) venous return.
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Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone
System
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25938
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with hypertension is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse reviewing this patient's chart before administering the medication will be most concerned about which other disease process?
A) Bronchial asthma
B) Coronary artery disease
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Renal artery stenosis
Q2) A patient who has been taking an antihypertensive medication for several years is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The prescriber changes the patient's medication to an ACE inhibitor. The patient asks the nurse why a new drug is necessary. What is the nurse's response?
A) "ACE inhibitors can prevent or reverse pathologic changes in the heart's structure."
B) "ACE inhibitors help lower LDL cholesterol and raise HDL cholesterol."
C) "ACE inhibitors increase venous return to the heart, improving cardiac output."
D) "ACE inhibitors regulate electrolytes that affect the cardiac rhythm."
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Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25939
Sample Questions
Q1) Which are therapeutic uses of verapamil?
A) Angina of effort
B) Cardiac dysrhythmias
C) Essential hypertension
D) Sick sinus syndrome
E) Suppression of preterm labor
Q2) A patient who has been taking verapamil [Calan] for hypertension complains of constipation. The patient will begin taking amlodipine [Norvasc] to avoid this side effect. The nurse provides teaching about the difference between the two drugs. Which statement by the patient indicates that further teaching is needed?
A) "I can expect dizziness and facial flushing with nifedipine."
B) "I should notify the provider if I have swelling of my hands and feet."
C) "I will need to take a beta blocker to prevent reflex tachycardia."
D) "I will need to take this drug once a day."
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Chapter 46: Vasodilators
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25940
Sample Questions
Q1) Which patients may receive hydralazine to treat hypertension?
A) A 1-month-old infant
B) A 5-year-old child
C) A pregnant woman
D) A mother breast-feeding a newborn
E) An older adult
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who will begin taking hydralazine to treat hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the nurse's teaching about this drug?
A) "I will need to ask for assistance when getting up out of a chair."
B) "I will also take a beta blocker medication with this drug to prevent rapid heart rate."
C) "I may develop joint pain, but this side effect will decrease over time."
D) "This drug may cause excessive hair growth on my face, arms, and back."
Q3) A patient is admitted with severe hypertensive crisis. The nurse will anticipate administering which medication?
A) Captopril PO
B) Hydralazine [Apresoline] 25 mg PO
C) Minoxidil 20 mg PO
D) Sodium nitroprusside [Nitropress] IV
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension
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19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25941
Sample Questions
Q1) Which two-drug regimen would be appropriate for a patient with hypertension who does not have other compelling conditions?
A) Hydrochlorothiazide and nadolol
B) Hydralazine and minoxidil
C) Spironolactone and amiloride
D) Trichlormethiazide and hydrochlorothiazide
Q2) A patient who does not consume alcohol or nicotine products reports a strong family history of hypertension and cardiovascular disease. The patient has a blood pressure of 126/82 and a normal weight and body mass index for height and age. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about:
A) ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blocker medications.
B) the DASH diet, sodium restriction, and exercise.
C) increased calcium and potassium supplements.
D) thiazide diuretics and lifestyle changes.
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Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure
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20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25942
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with heart failure who has been given digoxin [Lanoxin] daily for a week complains of nausea. Before giving the next dose, the nurse will:
A) assess the heart rate (HR) and give the dose if the HR is greater than 60 beats/min.
B) contact the provider to report digoxin toxicity.
C) request an order for a decreased dose of digoxin.
D) review the serum electrolyte values and withhold the dose if the potassium level is greater than 3.5 mEq/L.
Q2) A patient newly diagnosed with heart failure is admitted to the hospital. The nurse notes a pulse of 90 beats/min. The nurse will observe this patient closely for:
A) decreased urine output.
B) increased blood pressure.
C) jugular vein distension.
D) shortness of breath.
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Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25943
Sample Questions
Q1) Which two classes of antidysrhythmic drugs have nearly identical cardiac effects?
A) Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers
B) Beta blockers and potassium channel blockers
C) Calcium channel blockers and sodium channel blockers
D) Sodium channel blockers and potassium channel blockers
Q2) A patient is taking digoxin [Lanoxin] and quinidine to treat sustained ventricular tachycardia. Before giving medications, the nurse reviews the patient's electrocardiogram (ECG) and notes a QRS complex that has widened by 50% from the baseline ECG. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the medications as ordered, because this indicates improvement.
B) Contact the provider to discuss reducing the digoxin dose.
C) Contact the provider to request an increase in the quinidine dose.
D) Withhold the quinidine and contact the provider to report the ECG finding.
Q3) A nursing student asks a nurse how digoxin causes dysrhythmias. The nurse correctly states that digoxin:
A) reduces automaticity in the AV node.
B) increases automaticity in the Purkinje fibers.
C) increases automaticity in the SA node.
D) speeds up AV conduction.
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease:
Drugs That Help Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels
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18 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) While giving discharge instructions to a patient who will be taking cholestyramine [Questran], the nurse wants to assess the patient's understanding of the treatment. Which statement made by the patient best demonstrates a need for additional teaching?
A) "I will take cholestyramine [Questran] 1 hour before my other medications."
B) "I will increase fluids and fiber in my diet."
C) "I will weigh myself weekly."
D) "I will have my blood pressure checked weekly."
Q2) A nurse is providing discharge teaching instructions for a patient taking cholestyramine [Questran]. Which statement made by the patient demonstrates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will take warfarin [Coumadin] 1 hour before my medicine."
B) "I will increase the fluids and fiber in my diet."
C) "I can take cholestyramine with my hydrochlorothiazide."
D) "I will take digoxin 4 hours after taking the cholestyramine."
Q3) Which is a possible benefit of taking fish-oil supplements?
A) A decrease in low-density lipoprotein and triglyceride levels
B) Decreased risk of thrombotic stroke
C) Prevention of heart disease in high-risk patients
D) Reduced risk of dysrhythmia in patients after myocardial infarction Page 52
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Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris
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17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25945
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is discussing the difference between stable and variant angina with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "Beta blockers are effective in stable angina but not in variant angina."
B) "In both types of angina, prophylactic treatment is possible."
C) "Variant angina is primarily treated with vasodilators to increase oxygen supply."
D) "Variant angina is the result of increased oxygen demand by the heart."
Q2) A patient with variant angina wants to know why a beta blocker cannot be used to treat the angina. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "A beta<sub>1</sub>-selective beta blocker could be used for variant angina."
B) "Beta blockers do not help relax coronary artery spasm."
C) "Beta blockers do not help to improve the cardiac oxygen supply."
D) "Beta blockers promote constriction of arterial smooth muscle."
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54
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse caring for a patient receiving heparin therapy notes that the patient has a heart rate of 98 beats/min and a blood pressure of 110/72 mm Hg. The patient's fingertips are purplish in color. A stat CBC shows a platelet count of less than 100,000 mm³. The nurse will:
A) administer oxygen and notify the provider.
B) discontinue the heparin and notify the provider.
C) request an order for protamine sulfate.
D) request an order for vitamin K (phytonadione).
Q2) A nursing student who is preparing to care for a postoperative patient with deep vein thrombosis asks the nurse why the patient must take heparin rather than warfarin. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Heparin has a longer half-life."
B) "Heparin has fewer adverse effects."
C) "The onset of warfarin is delayed."
D) "Warfarin prevents platelet aggregation."
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Page 55
Chapter 53: Management of St-Elevation Myocardial Infarction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is evaluating a patient admitted to the emergency department with an evolving STEMI for possible administration of thrombolytic therapy. Which information, identified during history taking, would contraindicate this type of therapy?
A) The patient just completed her last menstrual cycle.
B) The patient states that the chest pain started 1 hour ago.
C) The patient has a history of a small cerebral aneurysm.
D) The patient has hypertension that is well controlled by diuretic therapy.
Q2) A patient has undergone a primary percutaneous coronary intervention with a stent placement. The provider has ordered a daily dose of 81 mg of aspirin and clopidogrel. The patient asks the nurse how long the medications must be taken. What will the nurse tell this patient about the medication regimen?
A) This drug regimen will continue indefinitely.
B) The clopidogrel will be discontinued in 1 year and the aspirin will be given indefinitely.
C) The aspirin will be discontinued in 1 year and the clopidogrel will be given indefinitely.
D) Both drugs will be discontinued in 1 year.
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Page 56
Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25948
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with hemophilia is hospitalized for infusion of factor VIII replacement through a venous port. While giving the drug, the nurse notes that the patient's temperature is 101.5°F. The nurse will contact the provider to report which possibility?
A) Anaphylactic reaction
B) Contamination of factor replacement
C) Port infection
D) Thrombolytic event
Q2) A patient with hemophilia B is admitted to the hospital for surgery. The patient's history reveals long-term use of factor replacement as prophylaxis for bleeding episodes. The nurse anticipates that the provider will order which medication to prevent excessive perioperative bleeding?
A) Desmopressin
B) Factor VIII
C) Ibuprofen
D) Tranexamic acid
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Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25949
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is reviewing a patient's most recent blood count and notes that the patient has a hemoglobin of 9.6 gm/dL and a hematocrit of 33%. The nurse will notify the provider and will expect initial treatment to include:
A) determining the cause of the anemia.
B) giving intravenous iron dextran.
C) giving oral carbonyl iron [Feosol].
D) teaching about dietary iron.
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with moderate vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency. The nurse reviews the laboratory work and notes that the plasma B<sub>12</sub> is low; also, a Schilling test reveals B<sub>12</sub> malabsorption. The provider orders oral cyanocobalamin 500 mcg/day. The nurse will contact the provider to:
A) discuss IM dosing.
B) request an order for folic acid.
C) suggest an increased dose.
D) suggest platelet transfusion therapy.
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58
Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25950
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient who has chronic renal failure and will begin receiving epoetin alfa [Epogen] about this drug therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "If I have to start dialysis, I will have to stop taking this drug."
B) "Taking this drug will not eliminate my need for blood transfusions."
C) "Taking this medication will prevent the need for dialysis in the future."
D) "When I take this, my serum ferritin levels will increase."
Q2) A prescriber has ordered filgrastim (granulocyte colony-stimulating factor) for a patient undergoing myelosuppressive chemotherapy. The nurse will prepare the patient for which potential side effect?
A) Bone pain
B) Fatigue
C) Headache
D) Hemorrhage
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Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25951
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with type 1 diabetes reports mixing NPH and regular insulin to allow for 1 injection. What should the nurse tell the patient?
A) This is an acceptable practice.
B) These two forms of insulin are not compatible and cannot be mixed.
C) Mixing these two forms of insulin may increase the overall potency of the products.
D) NPH insulin should only be mixed with insulin glargine.
Q2) A patient with type 1 diabetes recently became pregnant. The nurse plans a blood glucose testing schedule for her. What is the recommended monitoring schedule?
A) Before each meal and before bed
B) In the morning for a fasting level and at 4:00 PM for the peak level
C) 6 or 7 times a day
D) 3 times a day, along with urine glucose testing
Q3) What is the most reliable measure for assessing diabetes control over the preceding 3-month period?
A) Self-monitoring blood glucose (SMBG) graph report
B) Patient's report
C) Fasting blood glucose level
D) Glycosylated hemoglobin level
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Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25952
Sample Questions
Q1) A 1-year-old child with cretinism has been receiving 8 mcg/kg/day of levothyroxine [Synthroid]. The child comes to the clinic for a well-child checkup. The nurse will expect the provider to:
A) change the dose of levothyroxine to 6 mcg/kg/day.
B) discontinue the drug if the child's physical and mental development are normal.
C) increase the dose to accommodate the child's increased growth.
D) stop the drug for 4 weeks and check the child's TSH level.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient recently diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The patient tells the nurse she does not want to take medications while she is pregnant. What will the nurse explain to this patient?
A) Hypothyroidism is a normal effect of pregnancy and usually is of no consequence.
B) Neuropsychologic deficits in the fetus can occur if the condition is not treated.
C) No danger to the fetus exists until the third trimester.
D) Treatment is required only if the patient is experiencing symptoms.
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Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25953
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with antidiuretic hormone deficiency is receiving desmopressin (DDAVP). The nurse will teach this patient to:
A) avoid grapefruit juice.
B) increase sodium intake.
C) monitor blood pressure.
D) reduce fluid intake.
Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of growth hormone and reconstitutes the medication. After adding the diluent, the nurse notices that the preparation is cloudy. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the drug as ordered.
B) Discard the drug and prepare another dose.
C) Notify the prescriber.
D) Shake the drug to dissipate the particles.
Q3) A clinic patient who has cirrhosis of the liver develops hypervolemic hypernatremia. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order?
A) Conivaptan [Vaprisol]
B) Desmopressin [DDAVP]
C) Tolvaptan [Samsca]
D) Vasopressin [Pitressin]
Page 62
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Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25954
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been taking 25 mg of hydrocortisone each morning for several months reports feeling fatigued late in the day each day. What will the nurse tell the patient to discuss with the provider?
A) Adding a mineralocorticoid to the drug regimen
B) Assessing serum electrolytes to check for toxicity
C) Increasing the dose to 50 mg daily
D) Splitting the daily dose into a morning and an afternoon dose
Q2) A patient is admitted with nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. The patient appears emaciated and complains of feeling weak. The nurse notes a heart rate of 98 beats/min and a blood pressure of 88/54 mm Hg. The nurse reviews the chart and notes an increased serum potassium level and a decreased serum sodium level. The nurse expects the provider to order which medication initially?
A) Cosyntropin [Cortrosyn]
B) Dexamethasone
C) Fludrocortisone [Florinef]
D) Hydrocortisone
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63
Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and
Noncontraceptive Applications
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25955
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse provides teaching to a patient who has had a hysterectomy and is about to begin hormone therapy to manage menopausal symptoms. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Because I am not at risk for uterine cancer, I can take hormones indefinitely."
B) "I can take estrogen to reduce my risk of cardiovascular disease."
C) "I should take the lowest effective dose for the shortest time needed."
D) "I will need a progestin/estrogen combination since I have had a hysterectomy."
Q2) A patient who will begin combination estrogen/progestin therapy (EPT) for menopause asks the nurse why she cannot take an estrogen-only preparation. The patient has not had a hysterectomy, has a slightly increased risk of cardiovascular disease, and has mild osteopenia. The nurse will tell her that the progestin is necessary to:
A) decrease her risk of endometrial cancer.
B) increase bone resorption to prevent fractures.
C) lower her risk of myocardial infarction (MI).
D) prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
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Chapter 62: Birth Control
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25956
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has just purchased a 1-year supply of 28-day-cycle oral contraceptives. She tells the nurse she wishes she had planned things better, because she has calculated that her period will begin during her upcoming honeymoon. What will the nurse suggest?
A) She should discard the inert pills and start a new pack during the honeymoon.
B) She should discontinue the oral contraceptives and use an alternative form of birth control.
C) She should discuss a prescription for an extended-cycle product with her provider.
D) She should discuss DMPA (Depo-Provera) injections in addition to the OC with her provider.
Q2) A nurse working in a family planning clinic is teaching a class on intrauterine devices (IUDs). Which patient should be advised against using an IUD for contraception?
A) A 45-year-old married woman with four children
B) A 30-year-old monogamous married woman
C) An 18-year-old woman with multiple sexual partners
D) A 35-year-old woman with a history of rosacea
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Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25957
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with infertility will begin taking menotropins [Repronex]. The nurse will evaluate this patient's history to determine whether the:
A) patient has a history of hyperinsulinemia.
B) patient has excessive prolactin secretion.
C) patient's pituitary can produce LH and FSH.
D) patient's ovaries are capable of responding to gonadotropins.
Q2) A patient who has endometriosis has been unable to conceive. She asks the nurse about medications to treat the condition. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) Combination oral contraceptives are effective for improving fertility.
B) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists are used for long-term treatment.
C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are second-line agents for treating pain.
D) Pharmacologic agents used to treat endometriosis do not enhance fertility.
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Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25958
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is in preterm labor, and the prescriber orders magnesium sulfate for its neuroprotective effect on the fetus. The order calls for 4 gm given as an intravenous bolus over 20 minutes, followed by a maintenance infusion of 2 gm/hr. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the drug as ordered.
B) Question the bolus amount.
C) Question the bolus rate.
D) Question the maintenance amount.
Q2) A patient has received two doses of dinoprostone [Prepidil] to initiate labor. It has been 6 hours since the last dose. The nurse assesses the patient and notes that the cervix is ripe and dilated to 4 cm, but contractions are diminishing in intensity and frequency. What will the nurse expect to do?
A) Administer oxytocin.
B) Monitor urine output.
C) Prepare for a cesarean section.
D) Watch closely for fetal distress.
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Chapter 65: Androgens
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25959
Sample Questions
Q1) A 14-year-old male patient has not begun puberty. His parents tell the nurse that their son does not want to go to school, because he gets teased. The nurse learns that the boy's father did not begin puberty until age 16 years. Laboratory tests on this child do not reveal true hypogonadism. What will the nurse tell these parents when they ask what can be done for their son?
A) "A limited course of androgen therapy may be prescribed, but it is not necessary."
B) "He will eventually begin puberty, so this is nothing to worry about."
C) "He will probably have to receive injections of androgens for 3 to 4 years."
D) "The risk of accelerated growth plate closure is too great to warrant androgen therapy."
Q2) An adolescent male patient is beginning androgen therapy for delayed puberty. His parents ask the nurse when this treatment may be stopped. The nurse will offer which response?
A) After 3 to 4 years of therapy
B) If acne and facial hair develop
C) When complete sexual maturation has occurred
D) When testicular enlargement occurs
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Page 68
Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign
Prostatic Hyperplasia
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25960
Sample Questions
Q1) A male patient is being treated for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) by another provider but cannot remember which drug he is taking. He comes to the clinic seeking treatment for erectile dysfunction and receives a prescription for sildenafil [Viagra]. What will the nurse teach this patient?
A) "Sildenafil is not safe to take in conjunction with finasteride [Proscar]."
B) "Sildenafil is safe with any medication for benign prostatic hyperplasia."
C) "To be safe, you should have a transurethral resection before starting sildenafil."
D) "You should not take sildenafil if you are taking silodosin [Rapaflo]."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of sildenafil [Viagra] for erectile dysfunction. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "If my erection lasts longer than 4 hours, I should contact my provider."
B) "I should not use nitroglycerin within 12 hours of using sildenafil."
C) "I should take this drug about 15 minutes before sexual activity."
D) "This drug may cause me to have an erection when I don't want one."
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Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25961
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone organ transplantation. Because the sequence of amino acids in the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules of the donor is different from that of the patient, the nurse will expect to administer which class of drugs?
A) Antibiotics
B) Antihistamines
C) Immune globulins
D) Immunosuppressants
Q2) A nurse is teaching a nursing student about a specific acquired immunity system. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity are both types of specific acquired immune responses."
B) "Each exposure to an antigen causes a faster, more intense response."
C) "Immune responses occur only after exposure to a foreign substance."
D) "The skin is a factor in specific acquired immunity."
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Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25962
Sample Questions
Q1) An 11-year-old boy received all childhood immunizations before attending school as a kindergartner. Which vaccines are recommended for this child at his current age?
A) DTaP, MCV4, Varivax
B) PCV-23, Td, MMR
C) Tdap, MCV4, HPV
D) Tdap, Varivax, hepatitis B
Q2) The parents of an infant who will be attending day care tell the nurse that they do not want their child vaccinated against rotavirus because an older cousin developed intussusception after receiving this vaccine. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Intussusception is much less serious than getting the disease."
B) "It was probably just a coincidental reaction to the vaccine."
C) "The newer vaccines for rotavirus are not associated with intussusception."
D) "Your child will have herd immunity and won't need the vaccine."
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Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25963
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse at an immunization clinic is providing vaccines to children. The parent of a child waiting to receive vaccines tells the nurse that the child has an immune deficiency disorder. The nurse understands that which vaccine should not be administered to this child?
A) Diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccine
B) Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccine
C) Polio injection
D) Varicella virus vaccine
Q2) A 1-year-old child receives the MMR vaccine. The next day the child's parent calls the nurse to report that the child has a temperature of 103°F. What will the nurse do?
A) File an adverse event report with the Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS).
B) Notify the child's provider that thrombocytopenia is likely to occur.
C) Reassure the parent that fever can occur with the MMR vaccine.
D) Tell the parent to take the child to the emergency department.
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Chapter 70: Antihistamines
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25964
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has seasonal allergies and needs an antihistamine to control symptoms. The patient likes to have wine with dinner occasionally and wants to know which antihistamine will be the safest to take. The nurse will tell the patient to discuss which medication with the provider?
A) Cetirizine [Zyrtec]
B) Fexofenadine [Allegra]
C) Levocetirizine [Xyzal]
D) Loratadine [Claritin]
Q2) A pregnant patient asks the nurse if she can take antihistamines for seasonal allergies during her pregnancy. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) Antihistamines should be avoided unless absolutely necessary.
B) Second-generation antihistamines are safer than first-generation antihistamines.
C) Antihistamines should not be taken during pregnancy but may be taken when breast-feeding.
D) The margin of safety for antihistamines is clearly understood for pregnant patients.
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73
Chapter 71: Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors: Nonsteroidal
Anti-Inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25965
Sample Questions
Q1) An adolescent is brought to the emergency department by a parent who reports that the patient took a whole bottle of extended-release acetaminophen tablets somewhere between 8 and 10 hours ago. The nurse will anticipate administering which of the following?
A) Acetylcysteine [Mucomyst]
B) Activated charcoal
C) Hemodialysis
D) Respiratory support
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibitors. A student asks the nurse about characteristics of COX-1 inhibitors. Which statement by the nurse is true?
A) "COX-1 inhibitors protect against colorectal cancer."
B) "COX-1 inhibitors protect against myocardial infarction and stroke."
C) "COX-1 inhibitors reduce fever."
D) "COX-1 inhibitors suppress inflammation."
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Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25966
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is discussing glucocorticoids with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Glucocorticoids have both endocrine and nonendocrine uses."
B) "Patients treated for adrenocortical insufficiency receive pharmacologic doses."
C) "Pharmacologic effects are achieved with low doses of glucocorticoids."
D) "Physiologic doses are used to treat inflammatory disorders."
Q2) A clinic patient who has been taking a glucocorticoid for arthritis for several months remarks to the nurse, "It's a good thing my symptoms are better, because my mother has been quite ill, and I have to take care of her." The patient's blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg. The nurse will report this to the provider and ask about:
A) reducing the patient's dose.
B) using every other day dosing.
C) increasing the patient's dose.
D) tapering the dose.
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Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25967
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient about to begin therapy with etanercept has a positive tuberculin skin test. A chest radiograph is negative. The nurse will expect this patient to:
A) begin taking antituberculosis drugs at the beginning of treatment with etanercept.
B) have periodic chest radiographs during treatment with etanercept.
C) have regular monitoring of symptoms to detect active tuberculosis.
D) undergo tuberculosis treatment prior to beginning etanercept treatment.
Q2) A child who has juvenile idiopathic arthritis and who has been taking methotrexate [Rheumatrex] will begin a course of abatacept [Orencia]. What will the nurse include when teaching the child's family about this drug?
A) That abatacept and methotrexate must both be taken to be effective
B) To continue getting vaccinations during therapy with abatacept
C) That signs of infection may warrant immediate discontinuation of abatacept
D) That a tumor necrosis factor (TNF) antagonist may be added if this therapy is not effective
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Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout
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9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25968
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has had three gouty flare-ups in the past year. Which drug class will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Colchicine
B) Glucocorticoids
C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
D) Urate-lowering drugs
Q2) A patient is being treated with warfarin [Coumadin] to prevent thrombus. The patient develops hyperuricemia, and the provider orders allopurinol [Zyloprim]. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss ____ the ____ dose.
A) increasing; allopurinol
B) increasing; warfarin
C) reducing; allopurinol
D) reducing; warfarin
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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone
Mineralization
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25969
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient taking risedronate IR [Actonel] for osteoporosis reports experiencing diarrhea and headaches. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) These are common side effects of this drug.
B) These symptoms indicate serious toxicity.
C) The patient should discuss taking risedronate DR [Atelvia] with the provider.
D) The medication should be taken after a meal to reduce symptoms.
Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer IV calcium chloride to a patient with a low serum calcium level. Which drug on the patient's medication record, administered concurrently, would require additional patient monitoring by the nurse?
A) Digoxin [Lanoxin]
B) Furosemide [Lasix]
C) Lorazepam [Ativan]
D) Pantoprazole [Protonix]
Q3) Which drugs are approved for treating osteoporosis in men?
A) Alendronate [Fosamax]
B) Calcitonin
C) Raloxifene [Evista]
D) Teriparatide [Forteo]
E) Zoledronate [Reclast]
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Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25970
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has just received a prescription for fluticasone/salmeterol [Advair Diskus]. What will the nurse include as part of the teaching for this patient about the use of this device?
A) "You do not need good hand-lung coordination to use this device."
B) "You will begin to inhale before activating the device."
C) "You will need to use a spacer to help control the medication."
D) "You will take 2 inhalations twice daily."
Q2) A patient with asthma comes to a clinic for treatment of an asthma exacerbation. The patient's medication history lists an inhaled glucocorticoid, montelukast [Singulair], and a SABA as needed via MDI. The nurse assesses the patient and notes a respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, a heart rate of 96 beats per minute, and an oxygen saturation of 95%. The nurse auscultates mild expiratory wheezes and equal breath sounds bilaterally. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider to request a systemic glucocorticoid.
B) Contact the provider to suggest using a long-acting beta<sub>2</sub> agonist.
C) Evaluate the need for teaching about MDI use.
D) Question the patient about how much albuterol has been used.
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Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25971
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with allergic rhinitis is taking a compound product of loratadine/pseudoephedrine [Claritin-D] every 12 hours. The patient complains of insomnia. The nurse notes that the patient is restless and anxious. The patient's heart rate is 90 beats per minute, and the blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to:
A) discuss using an intranasal glucocorticoid and loratadine [Claritin].
B) report acute toxicity caused by pseudoephedrine.
C) suggest using an agent with a sympathomimetic drug only.
D) suggest using a topical decongestant to minimize systemic symptoms.
Q2) A patient who has seasonal allergies in the spring and fall asks the nurse about oral antihistamines. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Anticholinergic effects are more common with second-generation antihistamines."
B) "First-generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine [Benadryl], are more effective."
C) "Make sure you take antihistamines only when you have symptoms to minimize side effects."
D) "You should take oral antihistamines daily during each allergy season to get maximum effects."
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Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25972
Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient with severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has had only minimal relief using a histamine?-receptor antagonist (H?RA). The patient is to begin taking omeprazole [Prilosec]. What will the nurse teach this patient?
A) A complete cure is expected with this medication.
B) Lifestyle changes can be as effective as medication therapy.
C) Long-term therapy may be needed.
D) The medication will be used until surgery can be performed.
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which medication does the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Cimetidine [Tagamet]
B) Esomeprazole [Nexium]
C) Ranitidine [Zantac]
D) Sucralfate [Carafate]
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Chapter 79: Laxatives
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25973
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will undergo a colonoscopy, and the provider has ordered sodium phosphate as a bowel cleanser before the procedure. The nurse reviews the patient's chart and notes that the patient's creatinine clearance and blood urea nitrogen are both elevated. What will the nurse do?
A) Reduce the amount of fluid given with the laxative to prevent fluid retention.
B) Request an order to give polyethylene glycol and electrolytes (PEG-ELS) instead.
C) Suggest that the patient reduce the dietary sodium intake.
D) Suggest using a suppository laxative instead.
Q2) A patient is admitted with lower abdominal pain and nausea. The nurse performing the initial assessment notes that the patient's abdomen is distended and firm, and hypoactive bowel sounds are present. The patient has not had a stool for 3 days. The nurse will contact the provider, who will:
A) order a bulk-forming laxative.
B) order extra fluids and fiber.
C) perform diagnostic tests.
D) prescribe a cathartic laxative.
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Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25974
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing education to a patient with ulcerative colitis who is being treated with sulfasalazine [Azulfidine]. What statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the action of sulfasalazine?
A) "It treats the infection that triggers the condition."
B) "It reduces the inflammation."
C) "It enhances the immune response."
D) "It increases the reabsorption of fluid."
Q2) A nurse caring for a patient who is undergoing a third round of chemotherapy is preparing to administer ondansetron [Zofran] 30 minutes before initiation of the chemotherapy. The patient tells the nurse that the ondansetron did not work as well the last time as it had the first time. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the ondansetron at the same time as the chemotherapy.
B) Contact the provider to suggest using high-dose intravenous dolasetron [Anzemet].
C) Request an order to administer dexamethasone with the ondansetron.
D) Suggest to the provider that loperamide [Lomotil] be given with the ondansetron.
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Chapter 81: Vitamins
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25975
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse about the recommendations for vitamin supplements to prevent cancer. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Foods rich in antioxidant vitamins may confer protection by other means."
B) "Observational studies provide clear proof that some antioxidants reduce the risk of cancer."
C) "Randomized controlled studies have not demonstrated cancer prevention benefits."
D) "Some vitamins have an increased cancer risk associated with too low and too high amounts."
Q2) A patient with hyperlipidemia has been told by the provider to take extra niacin. The nurse will tell the patient to:
A) increase servings of poultry, fish, and cereals.
B) take nicotinamide supplements.
C) take nicotinic acid supplements.
D) take tryptophan supplements.
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Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25976
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks a nurse which weight-loss diet is most effective. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
A) "Low-fat diets may be easiest for weight loss, because fat has a higher concentration of calories than proteins and carbohydrates."
B) "Most diets don't work very well for long-term maintenance, so you should ask your provider about medications to lose weight."
C) "You should be able to lose 30 to 40 lb in the first 6 months of an effective weight-loss diet."
D) "You should select a diet that has a higher fat ratio to prevent hunger between meals."
Q2) A nurse performing an admission history on a patient learns that the patient is taking orlistat [Xenical], warfarin [Coumadin], and levothyroxine [Synthroid]. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider to discuss increasing the warfarin dose.
B) Give the levothyroxine at least 4 hours before giving the orlistat.
C) Suggest that the patient avoid fatty foods while taking these medications.
D) Tell the patient to take the orlistat on an empty stomach.
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Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy
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13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25977
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has been caring for a patient who has been taking antibiotics for 3 weeks. Upon assessing the patient, the nurse notices the individual has developed oral thrush. What describes the etiology of the thrush?
A) Antibiotic resistance
B) Community-acquired infection
C) Nosocomial infection
D) Superinfection
Q2) An older adult patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) develops bronchitis. The patient has a temperature of 39.5°C. The nurse will expect the provider to:
A) obtain a sputum culture and wait for the results before prescribing an antibiotic.
B) order empiric antibiotics while waiting for sputum culture results.
C) treat symptomatically, because antibiotics are usually ineffective against bronchitis.
D) treat the patient with more than one antibiotic without obtaining cultures.
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Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I: Penicillins
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organisms can be treated with penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin)?
A) Methicillin-resistant S. aureus
B) Neisseria meningitidis
C) P. aeruginosa
D) S. pyogenes
E) T. pallidum
Q2) A patient has an infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. The prescriber has ordered dicloxacillin PO. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the medication as ordered.
B) Contact the provider to suggest giving the drug IV.
C) Question the need for a penicillinase-resistant penicillin.
D) Suggest ordering vancomycin to treat this infection.
Q3) A patient with no known drug allergies is receiving amoxicillin [Amoxil] PO twice daily. Twenty minutes after being given a dose, the patient complains of shortness of breath. The patient's blood pressure is 100/58 mm Hg. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider and prepare to administer epinephrine.
B) Notify the provider if the patient develops a rash.
C) Request an order for a skin test to evaluate possible PCN allergy.
D) Withhold the next dose until symptoms subside.
Page 87
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Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall Ii:
Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, Teicoplanin, and Fosfomycin
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13 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient receiving a cephalosporin develops a secondary intestinal infection caused by Clostridium difficile. What is an appropriate treatment for this patient?
A) Adding an antibiotic, such as vancomycin [Vancocin], to the patient's regimen
B) Discontinuing the cephalosporin and beginning metronidazole [Flagyl]
C) Discontinuing all antibiotics and providing fluid replacement
D) Increasing the dose of the cephalosporin and providing isolation measures
Q2) Besides the cost of administering a given drug, which are considerations when a provider selects a cephalosporin to treat an infection?
A) Adverse effects
B) Antimicrobial spectrum
C) Brand name
D) Manufacturer
E) Pharmacokinetics
Q3) Which cephalosporin may be used to treat meningitis?
A) Cefaclor
B) Cefazolin
C) Cefoxitin
D) Cefotaxime
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Chapter 86: Bacteriostatic Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis:
Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25980
Sample Questions
Q1) A 6-week-old infant who has not yet received immunizations develops a severe cough. While awaiting nasopharyngeal culture results, the nurse will expect to administer which antibiotic?
A) Clindamycin [Cleocin]
B) Doxycycline [Vibramycin]
C) Erythromycin ethylsuccinate
D) Penicillin G
Q2) To prevent yellow or brown discoloration of teeth in children, tetracyclines should not be given:
A) to children once the permanent teeth have developed.
B) to patients taking calcium supplements.
C) to pregnant patients after the fourth month of gestation.
D) with dairy products or antacids.
Q3) A patient who has been taking linezolid [Zyvox] for 6 months develops vision problems. What will the nurse do?
A) Reassure the patient that this is a harmless side effect of this drug.
B) Tell the patient that blindness is likely to occur with this drug.
C) Tell the patient that this symptom is reversible when the drug is discontinued.
D) Tell the patient to take tyramine supplements to minimize this effect.
Page 89
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Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of gentamicin to a patient who is receiving the drug 3 times daily. The nurse will monitor ____ levels.
A) peak
B) peak and trough
C) serum drug
D) trough
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with a lung infection caused by P. aeruginosa. The culture and sensitivity report shows sensitivity to all aminoglycosides. The nurse knows that the rate of resistance to gentamicin is common in this hospital. The nurse will expect the provider to order which medication?
A) Amikacin [Amikin]
B) Gentamicin
C) Paromomycin
D) Tobramycin
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Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will be discharged from the hospital with a prescription for TMP/SMZ [Bactrim]. When providing teaching for this patient, the nurse will tell the patient that it will be important to:
A) drink 8 to 10 glasses of water each day.
B) eat foods that are high in potassium.
C) take the medication with food.
D) take folic acid supplements.
Q2) A patient with bronchitis is taking TMP/SMZ, 160/800 mg orally, twice daily. Before administering the third dose, the nurse notes that the patient has a widespread rash, a temperature of 103°F, and a heart rate of 100 beats/min. The patient looks ill and reports not feeling well. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the dose and request an order for an antipyretic medication.
B) Withhold the dose and request an order for an antihistamine to treat the rash.
C) Withhold the dose and notify the provider of the symptoms.
D) Request an order for intravenous TMP/SMZ, because the patient is getting worse.
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Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25983
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of chills, severe flank pain, dysuria, and urinary frequency. The patient has a temperature of 102.9°F, a pulse of 92 beats/min, respirations of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 119/58 mm Hg. The nurse would be correct to suspect that the patient shows signs and symptoms of:
A) acute cystitis.
B) urinary tract infection.
C) pyelonephritis.
D) prostatitis.
Q2) A patient who is taking nitrofurantoin calls the nurse to report several side effects. Which side effect of this drug causes the most concern and would require discontinuation of the medication?
A) Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting
B) Brown-colored urine
C) Drowsiness
D) Tingling of the fingers
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Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium Avium Complex
Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare worker who is asymptomatic has a screening TST result of 10 mm of induration during a pre-employment physical. What will the nurse reading this test tell the patient?
A) "This is a negative test, so you are cleared for employment."
B) "You have latent TB and will need to take isoniazid for 6 to 9 months."
C) "You need to have a chest radiograph and a sputum culture."
D) "You will begin taking a four-drug regimen to treat tuberculosis."
Q2) A patient has been taking isoniazid [Nydrazid] for 4 months for latent tuberculosis. The patient reports bilateral tingling and numbness of the hands and feet, as well as feeling clumsy. The nurse expects the provider to:
A) discontinue the isoniazid.
B) lower the isoniazid dose and add rifampin.
C) order pyridoxine 100 mg per day.
D) recheck the tuberculin skin test to see whether it worsens.
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Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:
Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking calcium supplements receives a prescription for ciprofloxacin [Cipro] for a urinary tract infection. The nurse will teach this patient to:
A) consume extra fluids while taking the ciprofloxacin to prevent hypercalciuria.
B) stop taking the calcium supplements while taking the ciprofloxacin.
C) take the two medications together to increase the absorption of both.
D) take the calcium either 6 hours before or 2 hours after taking the ciprofloxacin.
Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer an antibiotic to a patient with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The nurse would expect the healthcare provider to order which antibiotic?
A) Daptomycin [Cubicin]
B) Levofloxacin [Levaquin]
C) Norfloxacin [Noroxin]
D) Ciprofloxacin [Cipro]
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94
Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25986
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with histoplasmosis is being treated with itraconazole [Sporanox]. The nurse will teach this patient to report which symptoms?
A) Gynecomastia and decreased libido
B) Headache and rash
C) Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia
D) Visual disturbances
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who has a superficial fungal infection and notes that the provider has ordered 200 mg of ketoconazole [Nizoral], 200 mg PO once daily. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Administer the drug as ordered.
B) Contact the provider to discuss twice daily dosing.
C) Discuss a 400-mg daily drug regimen with the provider.
D) Request an order for a different antifungal medication.
Q3) A patient has an invasive aspergillosis infection. Which antifungal agent is the drug of choice for this infection?
A) Amphotericin B
B) Fluconazole [Diflucan]
C) Posaconazole [Noxafil]
D) Voriconazole [Vfend]
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Page 95
Chapter 93: Antiviral Agents I: Drugs for Non-Hiv Viral
Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) An immunocompromised child is exposed to chickenpox and the provider orders valacyclovir [Valtrex] to be given orally three times daily. The nurse will contact the provider to change this order for which reason?
A) Valacyclovir is not used as varicella prophylaxis.
B) The dosage is too high for this indication.
C) The drug may cause serious adverse effects in immunocompromised patients.
D) Valacyclovir is not approved for use in children.
Q2) A patient with hepatitis B begins treatment with adefovir [Hepsera] and asks the nurse how long the drug therapy will last. The nurse will tell the patient that the medication will need to be taken for:
A) a lifetime.
B) an indefinite, prolonged period of time.
C) 48 weeks.
D) until nephrotoxicity occurs.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking a protease inhibitor (PI). Upon review of the laboratory test results, the nurse notes that the patient has newly elevated plasma triglycerides and cholesterol. The nurse expects that the prescriber will manage these levels with:
A) lovastatin [Mevacor].
B) simvastatin [Zocor].
C) modified diet and exercise.
D) Pancrease.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is HIV positive and is taking zidovudine [Retrovir]. Before administering the medication, the nurse should monitor which laboratory values?
A) Ketones in the urine and blood
B) Serum immunoglobulin levels
C) Serum lactate dehydrogenase
D) Complete blood count (CBC)
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Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25989
Sample Questions
Q1) An adolescent patient comes to the clinic complaining of a burning sensation upon urination and a pus-like discharge from the penis. The nurse is correct to suspect that the patient has which disorder?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Herpes simplex
C) Nongonococcal urethritis
D) Syphilis
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Which treatment regimen is most appropriate for reducing the risk of sterility in this patient?
A) Azithromycin [Zithromax], 1 gm PO once, and cefoxitin, 2 gm IM once in the clinic
B) Ceftriaxone [Rocephin], 250 mg IM once, with doxycycline [Vibramycin], 100 mg PO twice daily for 14 days as an outpatient
C) Doxycycline [Vibramycin], 100 mg IV twice daily, and cefoxitin, 2 gm IV every 6 hours in the hospital
D) Doxycycline [Vibramycin], 100 mg PO twice daily for 14 days, and metronidazole [Flagyl], 500 mg PO twice daily for 14 days in the hospital
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Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which compound can be used to treat localized skin infections and to irrigate wounds?
A) Benzalkonium chloride (BAC)
B) Hexachlorophene (pHisoHex)
C) Oxychlorosene sodium (Clorpactin WCS90)
D) Sodium hypochlorite
Q2) A clinic nurse is preparing to sterilize instruments used in clinic procedures. The nurse will place the instruments in glutaraldehyde [Cidex-7]. Which actions are necessary when using this product?
A) Acidifying the solution to improve its antiseptic properties
B) Cleansing the hands with an alcohol-based hand rub
C) Ensuring adequate ventilation in the room where the solution is used
D) Removing blood from the instruments before soaking them
E) Soaking the instruments for 10 hours or longer
Q3) For which patient would a topical antiseptic be most appropriate?
A) A patient with a systemic infection
B) A patient with a medium-sized abscess
C) A patient who has a wound with moderate exudate
D) A patient who needs to have wounds cleansed for prophylaxis
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Page 99
Chapter 97: Anthelmintics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with strongyloidiasis is being treated with ivermectin [Stromectol]. What will the nurse expect to teach this patient?
A) A Mazotti-type reaction is likely.
B) Hypotension is a common side effect of the drug.
C) The drug should be taken every 6 to 12 months until symptoms have cleared.
D) The drug should be taken with water for 1 to 2 days.
Q2) A child is seen in the clinic after complaining of intense perianal itching. The provider diagnoses the child with pinworms and orders mebendazole [Vermox]. The nurse will expect to teach the child's parents to:
A) administer the drug with a high-fat meal to improve absorption.
B) avoid driving or other hazardous activities until the drug's effects wear off.
C) give each family member one dose of the drug now and another dose in 2 weeks.
D) report serious adverse effects that can occur with death of the causative parasite.
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Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who takes imipramine has a moderate infection with P. vivax that is chloroquine resistant. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order?
A) Artemether/lumefantrine [Coartem]
B) Atovaquone/proguanil [Malarone]
C) Artesunate
D) Quinine
Q2) Which are adverse effects of quinine [Qualaquin]?
A) Cinchonism
B) Hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency
C) Increased ventricular rate
D) Nightmares
E) Prolonged QT interval
Q3) A patient who has contracted falciparum malaria has received a prescription for artemether/lumefantrine [Coartem] and tells the nurse she thinks she may be pregnant. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) "Ask your provider about taking only the artemether component."
B) "The medication should be taken with food to prevent nausea."
C) "This drug is safe during the first trimester of pregnancy."
D) "You should talk to your provider about a different medication."
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Page 101
Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs II: Miscellaneous Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing patient education to a 26-year-old college student who is being treated for Trichomonas vaginalis with metronidazole [Flagyl]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should not consume alcohol while taking this medication."
B) "If I have dark urine, I should stop taking the drug."
C) "The drug is safe throughout pregnancy."
D) "Vertigo and headaches may occur and are signs of toxicity."
Q2) A patient from Africa is being treated for East African trypanosomiasis. The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of suramin sodium [Germanin]. To prevent serious side effects, which action will the nurse take?
A) Administer a small test dose before giving the drug.
B) Ask the patient to lie flat while the drug is given.
C) Give a high-fat snack with the drug to minimize gastric upset.
D) Suggest to the provider that liver function tests (LFTs) be performed.
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Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child is seen in a clinic with a chief complaint of itching, especially at night. The nurse observes small ridges and dotted lines of erythema on the child's neck and buttocks. The nurse will expect the provider to order which medication initially?
A) Benzyl alcohol [Ulesfia]
B) Ivermectin [Stromectol]
C) Malathion [Ovide]
D) Permethrin [Elimite]
Q2) A parent has used permethrin [Nix] twice to treat head lice in a child. Two weeks after the last treatment, head lice are again found in the child's hair. The parent asks the nurse what to do. The nurse will recommend asking the child's provider about which therapy?
A) Applying lindane 1% shampoo
B) Cutting the child's hair
C) Ordering permethrin 5% [Elimite]
D) Using benzyl alcohol [Ulesfia]
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103
Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with cancer has a tumor composed mostly of G<sub>0</sub> cells. When teaching this patient about the disease, the nurse will make which statement?
A) "Cells in this patient's type of tumor will proliferate rapidly."
B) "Chemotherapeutic agents that are not toxic to other tissues may be used."
C) "This type of tumor is especially sensitive to chemotherapy."
D) "This tumor will be managed primarily with surgery."
Q2) Which are guidelines for selecting chemotherapeutic agents to use in combination therapy?
A) Drugs used should have different mechanisms.
B) Each drug should be delivered by different routes.
C) Each drug should be effective.
D) Each drug should have different dosing schedules.
E) Toxicities should be minimally overlapping.
Q3) What contributes to drug resistance to chemotherapeutic agents?
A) Cellular production of P-glycoprotein
B) Creation of selection pressure by drugs
C) Drug-induced cellular mutation
D) Increased drug uptake by tumor cells
E) Reduced target molecule sensitivity
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Page 104
Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has urinary bladder cancer will begin receiving the chemotherapeutic agent valrubicin [Valstar]. What will the nurse do when administering this drug?
A) Administer the drug intravenously using a large bore needle and tubing.
B) Ensure that the tubing used to administer the drug does not contain polyvinyl chloride.
C) Monitor the patient closely for a variety of systemic drug adverse effects.
D) Use a normal saline or sterile water diluent to dilute the medication.
Q2) A patient will begin receiving vincristine [Oncovin] to treat Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which side effect(s) will the nurse tell the patient to report immediately?
A) Diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting
B) Hair loss
C) Headaches
D) Tingling of the extremities
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Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs II: Hormonal Agents,
Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with advanced cancer of the prostate begins treatment with leuprolide [Lupron Depot] injections and will receive 7.5 mg IM once per month. After the first injection, the patient experiences an increase in cancer symptoms. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) Desensitization to the drug over time will result in a decrease in these symptoms.
B) The dose of leuprolide may have to be increased to 22.5 mg per month.
C) These symptoms indicate a need for surgical castration to treat the cancer.
D) This is a sign that the patient's cancer is getting worse.
Q2) A patient with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) begins treatment with imatinib [Gleevec]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this medication?
A) "Resistance to this drug may develop over time."
B) "The intensity of side effects is dose dependent."
C) "This drug does not have significant drug interactions."
D) "This drug must be given intravenously."
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Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient comes to an ophthalmology clinic complaining of increased difficulty reading in dim light. The provider examines the patient and notes three large yellow deposits under the patient's cornea. The nurse will expect the provider to order which treatment for this patient?
A) High doses of vitamins C and E, beta-carotene, and zinc
B) Laser therapy
C) Pegaptanib [Macugen]
D) Photodynamic therapy
Q2) The nurse is reviewing personal knowledge of the medications used in the treatment of open-angle glaucoma. The nurse would be correct to identify which medications as treatment?
A) Alpha<sub>2</sub> agonists
B) Prostaglandin analogs
C) Anticholinergics
D) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
E) Beta blockers
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107
Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with actinic keratoses has received a prescription for fluorouracil [Carac]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this medication?
A) "Healing should occur 6 weeks after beginning treatment."
B) "I will apply this drug twice daily."
C) "Severe inflammation is an indication for stopping treatment."
D) "Tissue ulceration and necrosis are desired effects."
Q2) An adolescent has begun using benzoyl peroxide lotion twice daily to treat acne. The patient reports experiencing drying and burning of the skin. What will the nurse suggest?
A) Applying lotion to the skin after applying the drug
B) Reducing the frequency to one application a day
C) Discontinuing the medication, because this is likely an allergic reaction
D) Requesting a prescription for a gel formulation of the drug
Q3) A nurse is teaching a group of lifeguards about safe sunning. Which statement by a lifeguard indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Sunscreen should be applied 30 minutes before going outside."
B) "I do not need sunscreen when it is cloudy outside."
C) "I should reapply sunscreen after swimming."
D) "UV radiation does not penetrate through water."
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Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26000
Sample Questions
Q1) Which are components of otitis externa management?
A) Ciprofloxacin and hydrocortisone otic drops
B) Cleaning the ear canals with a cotton-tipped applicator
C) Keeping the external ear canal dry after swimming
D) Taking systemic antibiotics, such as amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin]
E) Using a solution of alcohol and acetic acid to dry and acidify the ear
Q2) A 6-year-old child has otitis media and is being treated with amoxicillin [Amoxil] and ibuprofen [Motrin]. The child's parent calls the nurse to report that the child's pain is not relieved with the ibuprofen. The child is afebrile and there is no drainage from either ear. The nurse will discuss which additional treatment with the child's provider?
A) Adding acetaminophen [Tylenol] to the pain medication regimen
B) Applying antipyrine and benzocaine [Aurodex] solution to the ear canals
C) Changing the antibiotic to amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin]
D) Performing a tympanostomy to relieve pressure in the middle ear
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Chapter 107: Additional Noteworthy Drugs
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26001
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) is receiving epoprostenol [Flolan] at a rate of 210 ng/min using a portable pump. The patient weighs 70 kg. The patient calls the clinic to report headache, nausea, and vomiting. The nurse will counsel the patient to:
A) decrease the infusion to 100 ng/min
B) discuss these side effects with the provider.
C) prepare for a hospital admission.
D) stop the infusion and contact the provider.
Q2) A patient with a history of heart disease develops pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH), and the provider is considering prescribing sildenafil [Revatio]. The nurse caring for this patient will perform a careful drug history and notify the provider if the patient is taking which medication?
A) A beta blocker
B) A calcium channel blocker
C) Nitroglycerin
D) Warfarin
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Chapter 108: Complementary and Alternative Therapy
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26002
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is obtaining a history from a patient who discloses daily use of St. John's wort in addition to prescription drugs. Which effect of this dietary supplement would most concern the nurse?
A) It accelerates the metabolism of some drugs.
B) It enhances the effects of digoxin.
C) It counteracts the effects of CNS depressants.
D) It increases the risk of bleeding.
Q2) A nurse is performing a preoperative drug history on a patient who is admitted to the hospital for surgery. To evaluate the risk of hemorrhage, the nurse will ask the patient about antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications as well as which dietary supplement?
A) Coenzyme Q-10
B) Ginkgo biloba
C) Ma Huang (ephedra)
D) St. John's wort
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Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26003
Sample Questions
Q1) A child is admitted to the hospital after a routine lead screen reveals an elevated serum lead level. The prescriber has ordered edetate calcium disodium (calcium EDTA) as a chelating agent. During this drug treatment, the nurse will expect to:
A) collect a daily urine specimen.
B) give the medication on an empty stomach.
C) monitor the child's heart rate and blood pressure.
D) request orders for liver function tests.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who works with heavy metals and who is about to begin taking a chelating agent to treat heavy metal poisoning. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "This drug will not affect any metals already bound to cells in my body."
B) "This drug will bind with the metals to form less toxic molecules."
C) "This type of drug can block the metal from binding with molecules in my body."
D) "When the drug forms a chelate with the metal, the chelate can be excreted safely."
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Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26004
Sample Questions
Q1) A group of people has been exposed to ricin by inhalation of ricin mist. When preparing to receive these victims in the emergency department, nurses will prepare to:
A) administer antidotes.
B) give chelating agents.
C) provide respiratory support.
D) start hemodialysis.
Q2) The nurse is providing smallpox vaccinations after determining that an individual who works for a local military laboratory was exposed. After administering the vaccine, how should the nurse instruct the individual to care for the site?
A) Cover the site with a bandage.
B) Leave the site open to the air.
C) Cover the site with a nonpermeable, occlusive dressing.
D) Cover the site with sterile gauze and tape the edges.
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