Nursing Care and Pharmacology Review Questions - 1446 Verified Questions

Nursing Care and Pharmacology Review Questions

Course Introduction

This course provides an in-depth exploration of the principles and practices related to nursing care and pharmacology. Students will develop a comprehensive understanding of medication administration, drug classifications, mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, and potential side effects, with a strong focus on patient safety and evidence-based nursing interventions. Emphasis is placed on applying pharmacological knowledge to clinical scenarios, monitoring patient outcomes, and educating patients and families about medication regimens. Topics covered include dosage calculations, legal and ethical considerations, and the integration of pharmacological therapy into holistic nursing care across diverse populations and healthcare settings.

Recommended Textbook

Lehnes Pharmacology for Nursing Care 9th Edition by Burchum

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110 Chapters

1446 Verified Questions

1446 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology

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5 Verified Questions

5 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Before administering a medication,what does the nurse need to know to evaluate how individual patient variability might affect the patient's response to the medication? (Select all that apply.)

A) Chemical stability of the medication

B) Ease of administration

C) Family medical history

D) Patient's age

E) Patient's diagnosis

Answer: C,D,E

Q2) A patient tells the nurse that an analgesic he will begin taking may cause drowsiness and will decrease pain up to 4 hours at a time. Based on this understanding of the drug's effects by the patient,the nurse will anticipate which outcome?

A) Decreased chance of having a placebo effect

B) Decreased motivation to take the drug

C) Improved compliance with the drug regimen

D) Increased likelihood of drug overdose

Answer: C

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3

Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse consults a drug manual before giving a medication to an 80-year-old patient. The manual states that older-adult patients are at increased risk for hepatic side effects. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A) Contact the provider to discuss an order for pretreatment laboratory work.

B) Ensure that the drug is given in the correct dose at the correct time to minimize the risk of adverse effects.

C) Notify the provider that this drug is contraindicated for this patient.

D) Request an order to give the medication intravenously so that the drug does not pass through the liver.

Answer: A

Q2) A patient newly diagnosed with diabetes is to be discharged from the hospital. The nurse teaching this patient about home management should begin by doing what?

A) Asking the patient to demonstrate how to measure and administer insulin

B) Discussing methods of storing insulin and discarding syringes

C) Giving information about how diet and exercise affect insulin requirements

D) Teaching the patient about the long-term consequences of poor diabetes control

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information

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6 Verified Questions

6 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse about pharmaceutical research and wants to know the purpose of randomization in drug trials. The nurse explains that randomization is used to do what?

A) To ensure that differences in outcomes are the result of treatment and not differences in subjects

B) To compare the outcome caused by the treatment to the outcome caused by no treatment

C) To make sure that researchers are unaware of which subjects are in which group

D) To prevent subjects from knowing which group they are in and prevent preconception bias

Answer: A

Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names?

A) They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember.

B) They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.

C) They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification.

D) They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex.

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) An adult male patient is 1 day postoperative from a total hip replacement. On a pain scale of 0 to 10,with 10 being the greatest pain,the patient reports a pain level of 10. Which medication would be most appropriate for the nurse to administer to this patient?

A) 60 mg morphine sulfate PO

B) 75 mg meperidine [Demerol] intramuscularly

C) 6 mg morphine sulfate intravenously

D) Fentanyl [Duragesic] patch 50 mcg transdermally

Q2) A patient is receiving intravenous gentamicin. A serum drug test reveals toxic levels. The dosing is correct,and this medication has been tolerated by this patient in the past. Which could be a probable cause of the test result?

A) A loading dose was not given.

B) The drug was not completely dissolved in the IV solution.

C) The patient is taking another medication that binds to serum albumin.

D) The medication is being given at a frequency that is longer than its half-life.

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6

Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which drugs will not be affected by interpatient variability? (Select all that apply.)

A) Antiseptics applied to the skin to slow bacterial growth

B) Antacids to help with the discomfort of heartburn

C) Broad-spectrum antibiotics that are effective against many organisms

D) Chelating agents that remove metal compounds from the body

E) Topical analgesics used to treat localized pain

Q2) Two nurses are discussing theories of drug-receptor interaction. Which statements are true regarding the affinity of a drug and its receptor? (Select all that apply.)

A) Affinity and intrinsic activity are dependent properties.

B) Affinity refers to the strength of the attraction between a drug and its receptor.

C) Drugs with high affinity are strongly attracted to their receptors.

D) Drugs with low affinity are strongly attracted to their receptors.

E) The affinity of a drug for its receptors is reflected in its potency.

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Chapter 6: Drug Interactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is taking drug X and receives a new prescription for drug Y,which is listed as an inducing agent. The nurse caring for this patient understands that this patient may require ____ doses of drug ____.

A) lower; X

B) lower; Y

C) higher; X

D) higher; Y

Q2) A patient taking oral contraceptives thinks she may be pregnant. As part of this patient's history,what will the nurse ask the patient?

A) "Do you drink grapefruit juice?"

B) "Do you take seizure medication?"

C) "Do you take your contraception with milk?"

D) "Do you use laxatives regularly?"

Q3) Which statement about food and drug interactions is true?

A) Foods alter drug absorption and metabolism but not drug action.

B) Medications are best absorbed on an empty stomach.

C) Patient discomfort is the food and drug interaction of most concern.

D) Some foods can inhibit CYP isoenzymes and alter drug metabolism.

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Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse provides teaching to a patient who will begin taking a drug with a known risk of hepatotoxicity. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I should avoid taking acetaminophen while taking this drug."

B) "I will need periodic evaluation of aspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferase levels."

C) "If I experience nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain, I should call my provider."

D) "Routine testing and early detection of problems will prevent liver failure."

Q2) A patient is given a new medication and reports nausea within an hour after taking the drug. The nurse consults the drug information manual and learns that nausea is not an expected adverse effect of this drug. When the next dose is due,what will the nurse do?

A) Administer the drug and tell the patient to report further nausea.

B) Hold the drug and notify the provider of the patient's symptoms.

C) Report the symptoms of nausea to the MEDWATCH program.

D) Request an order for an antiemetic to counter this drug's effects.

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9

Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient asks a nurse why a friend who is taking the same drug responds differently to that drug. The nurse knows that the most common variation in drug response is due to differences in each patient's:

A) drug receptor sites.

B) hypersensitivity potential.

C) metabolism of drugs.

D) psychosocial response.

Q2) A nurse is caring for a woman with breast cancer who is receiving tamoxifen. A review of this patient's chart reveals a deficiency of the CYP2D6 gene. The nurse will contact the provider to suggest:

A) a different medication.

B) an increased dose.

C) a reduced dose.

D) serum drug levels.

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Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and Breast-Feeding

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Sample Questions

Q1) A woman who is breast-feeding her infant must take a prescription medication for 2 weeks. The medication is safe,but the patient wants to make sure her baby receives as little of the drug as possible. What will the nurse tell the patient to do?

A) Give the baby formula as long as the mother is taking the medication

B) Take the medication immediately after breast-feeding

C) Pump breast milk and feed the baby by bottle

D) Take the medication 1 hour before breast-feeding

Q2) A pregnant patient asks the nurse about the safe use of medications during the third trimester. What will the nurse tell her about drugs taken at this stage?

A) They may need to be given in higher doses if they undergo renal clearance.

B) They require lower doses if they are metabolized by the liver.

C) They are less likely to cross the placenta and affect the fetus.

D) They are more likely to cause anatomical defects if they are teratogenic.

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11

Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients

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Sample Questions

Q1) An infant is receiving a medication that has a narrow therapeutic range. The nurse reviews the medication information and learns that the drug is excreted by the kidneys. When giving the medication,the nurse will assess the infant for:

A) decreased effectiveness of the drug.

B) shorter period of the drug's effects.

C) signs of drug toxicity.

D) unusual CNS effects.

Q2) A pediatric nurse is teaching nursing students to calculate medication doses for children using a formula based on body surface area. Which statement by a nursing student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "This formula helps approximate the first dose; other doses should be based on clinical observations."

B) "This formula accounts for pharmacokinetic factors that are different in children."

C) "Using this formula will prevent side effects of medications in children."

D) "This formula can determine medication dosing for a child of any age."

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Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients

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Sample Questions

Q1) An older adult patient is admitted to the hospital for treatment of an exacerbation of a chronic illness. Admission laboratory work reveals an extremely low serum drug level of the drug used to treat this condition. The patient has brought the medication to the hospital,along with other medications taken. The patient's renal and hepatic function tests are normal. What might the nurse suspect as a likely cause of this finding?

A) Financial concerns

B) Inability to open drug containers

C) Increased tolerance to the drug's effects

D) Patient's conviction that the drug is unnecessary

Q2) A nurse is caring for an older adult patient during the immediate postoperative period after a total hip replacement. The surgeon has ordered meperidine [Demerol] for severe pain. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the medication as prescribed and initiate a fall risk protocol.

B) Ask for a PRN order for diphenhydramine [Benadryl] for the expected side effect of itching.

C) Request an order for morphine instead of meperidine [Demerol].

D) Suggest to the surgeon that the patient receive diazepam [Valium] to reduce anxiety and the need for narcotics.

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Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology

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8 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is administering drug X to a patient. The drug information states that the drug acts by activating receptors in the peripheral nervous system by increasing transmitter synthesis. The nurse understands that the effect of this drug is to:

A) activate axonal conduction.

B) enhance transmitter storage.

C) increase receptor activation.

D) synthesize supertransmitters.

Q2) A nursing student asks about drugs that interfere with the termination of transmitter action. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "Drugs act on this process by altering the diffusion of the transmitter away from the synaptic gap."

B) "Drugs can interfere with termination by either increasing or decreasing reuptake of the transmitter."

C) "Drugs in this category lead to decreased activation by the transmitter in the synapse."

D) "These drugs reduce either reuptake or degradation of the transmitter, causing an increase in receptor activation."

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14

Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System

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9 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is wheezing and short of breath. The nurse assesses a heart rate of 88 beats per minute,a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute,and a blood pressure of 124/78 mm Hg. The prescriber orders a nonspecific beta agonist medication. Besides evaluating the patient for a reduction in respiratory distress,the nurse will monitor for which side effect?

A) Hypotension

B) Tachycardia

C) Tachypnea

D) Urinary retention

Q2) A pregnant patient is in premature labor. Which class of drug will she be given?

A) Alpha₁ agonist

B) Anticholinergic

C) Beta₂ agonist

D) Beta₂ antagonist

Q3) What is the target organ when a beta₁agonist is administered?

A) heart

B) kidney

C) respiratory

D) liver

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Page 15

Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists

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9 Verified Questions

9 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Bethanechol [Urecholine] is used to treat urinary retention but is being investigated for use in which other condition?

A) Gastric ulcers

B) Gastroesophageal reflux

C) Hypotension

D) Intestinal obstruction

Q2) A patient received atropine intravenously before surgery. The recovery room nurse notes that the patient is delirious upon awakening and has a heart rate of 96 beats per minute,a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute,and a blood pressure of 110/78 mm

Hg. The nurse notifies the anesthesiologist,who will order:

A) activated charcoal to minimize intestinal absorption of the antimuscarinic agent.

B) an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor to compete with the antimuscarinic agent at receptors.

C) an antipsychotic medication to treat the patient's central nervous system symptoms.

D) ipratropium bromide [Atrovent] to counter the respiratory effects of the antimuscarinic agent.

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Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in

Myasthenia Gravis

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9 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse working in the emergency department is assigned to a child who is arriving by ambulance after being involved in a spill of organophosphate insecticides. What will the nurse expect to be the initial priority for treating this child?

A) Administering diphenhydramine to control secretions

B) Giving diazepam to control seizures

C) Providing mechanical ventilation and oxygen

D) Reporting the spill to the Environmental Protection Agency

Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Diazepam is given to reverse inhibition of cholinesterase when overdose occurs."

B) "Irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors are rapidly absorbed by all routes."

C) "These agents are often used to treat glaucoma."

D) "Toxic doses of these agents produce an anticholinergic crisis."

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17

Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic

Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will receive atracurium [Tracrium] during surgery for neuromuscular blockade. The nurse caring for this patient will correctly perform which of the following actions?

A) Assess the patient for signs of CNS depression.

B) Ensure that dantrolene is available in case of a serious adverse reaction.

C) Monitor the patient's blood pressure closely.

D) Review the preprocedure laboratory values related to renal and hepatic function.

Q2) A patient who will undergo electroconvulsive therapy to treat severe depression will be given succinylcholine just prior to the procedure. When teaching the patient about the procedure the nurse will explain that the succinylcholine is given for what purpose?

A) To minimize the amount of electroshock treatment required

B) To prevent harm caused by electroshock-induced convulsions

C) To prolong the therapeutic electroshock-induced convulsions

D) To stop the electroshock-induced convulsions once therapeutic effects have occurred

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Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists

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12 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is administering intravenous dopamine [Intropin] to a patient in the intensive care unit. Which assessment finding would cause the most concern?

A) Blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg

B) Increased urine output

C) Edema at the IV insertion site

D) Headache

Q2) A nursing student asks the nurse why epinephrine,and not other adrenergic agonists,is used to treat anaphylactic shock. What will the nurse tell the student?

A) "Epinephrine is the only adrenergic agonist that may be given parenterally."

B) "Epinephrine has the ability to activate multiple types of adrenergic receptors."

C) "Other adrenergic agonists have more severe adverse effects and are not safe in the doses needed to treat anaphylaxis."

D) "Other adrenergic agonists have little or no effects on beta₂-adrenergic receptors."

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Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will begin taking propranolol [Inderal] for hypertension. Which statement by the nurse is important when teaching this patient about the medication?

A) "Check your hands and feet for swelling and report that to your provider."

B) "It is safe to take this medication with a calcium channel blocker."

C) "Stop taking the drug if you become short of breath."

D) "Take your pulse and do not take the medication if your heart rate is fast."

Q2) A patient taking a beta blocker complains of shortness of breath. The patient has respirations of 28 breaths per minute,a blood pressure of 162/90 mm Hg,and a pulse of 88 beats per minute. The nurse auscultates crackles in all lung fields. The nurse understands that these assessments are consistent with:

A) bronchoconstriction.

B) left-sided heart failure.

C) rebound cardiac excitation.

D) sinus bradycardia.

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Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) Clonidine is approved for the treatment of which conditions? (Select all that apply.)

A) ADHD

B) Hypertension

C) Opioid withdrawal

D) Severe pain

E) Smoking cessation

Q2) A prescriber orders clonidine [Kapvay] ER tablets for a 12-year-old child. The nurse understands that this drug is being given to treat which condition?

A) ADHD

B) Hypertension

C) Severe pain

D) Tourette's syndrome

Q3) A prescriber orders transdermal clonidine [Catapres TTS] for a patient with hypertension. What will the nurse teach this patient?

A) That medication given by transdermal patch has fewer systemic side effects

B) That localized skin reactions are uncommon

C) To apply the patch to intact skin on the forearm or leg

D) To change the patch every week

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Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System

Pharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A group of nursing students asks a nurse to explain the blood-brain barrier. The nurse would be correct to say that the blood-brain barrier:

A) prevents some potentially toxic substances from crossing into the central nervous system.

B) causes infants to be less sensitive to CNS drugs and thus require larger doses.

C) allows only ionized or protein-bound drugs to cross into the central nervous system.

D) prevents lipid-soluble drugs from entering the central nervous system.

Q2) A psychiatric nurse is teaching a patient about an antidepressant medication. The nurse tells the patient that therapeutic effects may not occur for several weeks. The nurse understands that this is likely the result of:

A) changes in the brain as a result of prolonged drug exposure.

B) direct actions of the drug on specific synaptic functions in the brain.

C) slowed drug absorption across the blood-brain barrier.

D) tolerance to exposure to the drug over time.

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Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinsons Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease (PD)and begins treatment with levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet]. After several months of therapy,the patient reports no change in symptoms. The nurse will expect the provider to:

A) add a dopamine agonist.

B) discuss the "on-off" phenomenon.

C) increase the dose of Sinemet.

D) re-evaluate the diagnosis.

Q2) The nurse provides teaching for a patient who will begin taking rotigotine [Neupro] to treat Parkinson's disease. What will the nurse include in teaching?

A) "If you develop nausea and vomiting, you should stop taking the medication."

B) "If you need to stop this drug, your provider will order a gradual withdrawal."

C) "You will start this drug regimen with a higher than usual loading dose."

D) "You will take this medication by mouth with food."

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Chapter 22: Drugs for Alzheimers Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) The spouse of a patient with Alzheimer's disease asks a nurse for more information about the rivastigmine [Exelon] transdermal patch that is being used. Which statement by the spouse indicates a need for further explanation?

A) "Doses are lower but more steady with the transdermal patch."

B) "Reduced side effects occur with the transdermal patch."

C) "We only need to change the patch every 2 weeks."

D) "We should remove the old patch before applying the new one."

Q2) An older adult patient with Alzheimer's disease is admitted to the hospital. The patient's spouse reports that the patient is often confused and gets lost walking to the store,which is three blocks from their home. That evening,the nurse observes the patient pacing the hall and screaming. What will the nurse do?

A) Notify the provider of this patient's worsening symptoms.

B) Prepare the patient's spouse for impending death from Alzheimer's disease.

C) Request an increase in the medication dose to treat the exacerbation in symptoms.

D) Tell the spouse that this is an expected progression of the disease.

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24

Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with primary progressive multiple sclerosis for 1 year and reports a recent brief period of being symptom free. The nurse will tell the patient that this indicates what?

A) Hope for long-term remission

B) Temporary improvement

C) Development of relapsing-remitting MS

D) Development of secondary progressive MS

Q2) A nurse provides teaching for a 25-year-old patient who will receive mitoxantrone [Novantrone] for worsening relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I may experience cardiac side effects several years after receiving this drug."

B) "I should report fever, chills, cough, and hoarseness immediately."

C) "I will need an infusion of this medication once weekly."

D) "I will need a liver function test and a pregnancy test before each dose."

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Chapter 24: Drugs for Epilepsy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A child is diagnosed with absence seizures,and the prescriber orders ethosuximide [Zarontin]. When teaching the child's parents about dosage adjustments for this drug,the nurse will stress the importance of:

A) frequent serum drug level monitoring.

B) learning as much as possible about the disorder and its treatment.

C) recording the number of seizures the child has each day.

D) reporting dizziness and drowsiness to the provider.

Q2) A child who receives valproic acid [Depakote] begins taking lamotrigine [Lamictal] because of an increase in the number of seizures. The nurse will observe this child closely for which symptom?

A) Angioedema

B) Hypohidrosis

C) Rash

D) Psychosis

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Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which patient should receive dantrolene [Dantrium] with caution?

A) A 20-year-old woman with a spinal cord injury

B) A 45-year-old man with a history of malignant hyperthermia

C) A 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis

D) An 8-year-old child with cerebral palsy

Q2) A nurse is admitting a patient to the hospital. The patient reports taking oral baclofen [Lioresal] but stopped taking the drug the day before admission. The nurse would be correct to anticipate which adverse effects?

A) Weakness and dizziness

B) Fatigue and drowsiness

C) Seizures and hallucinations

D) Respiratory depression and coma

Q3) A nurse is caring for a patient receiving intrathecal baclofen [Lioresal]. The patient is unresponsive. After asking a coworker to contact the provider,the nurse anticipates performing which intervention?

A) Preparing to support respirations

B) Administering an antidote to baclofen

C) Administering diazepam to prevent seizures

D) Obtaining an electrocardiogram

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Page 27

Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient who has a second-degree burn on one arm about the use of a topical anesthetic for pain. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I will apply a thin layer of the medication to a small area of skin."

B) "I will cover the burn with a dressing after applying the medication."

C) "I will make sure to apply the medication to the entire burn area."

D) "I will use the medication only on the most painful, blistered areas."

Q2) A nurse is discussing the use of cocaine as a local anesthetic with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of this agent?

A) "Anesthetic effects develop slowly and persist for several hours."

B) "Cocaine is a local anesthetic administered by injection."

C) "Vasoconstrictors should not be used as adjunct agents with this drug."

D) "When abused, cocaine causes physical dependence."

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Chapter 27: General Anesthetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A postoperative patient is reporting pain as a 7 on a scale from 1 to 10,with 10 being the worst pain. The nurse caring for the patient assesses vital signs of HR,76; RR,16; and BP,110/70. The patient has vomited twice. Which postoperative medications will the nurse expect to administer?

A) Atropine and morphine

B) Bethanechol and ibuprofen

C) Morphine and ondansetron [Zofran]

D) Promethazine and clonidine [Catapres]

Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about inhalation anesthesia and asks,"What is balanced anesthesia?" Which response by a student is correct?

A) "An anesthesia that has a brief induction period with a rapid emergence from its effects."

B) "An inhalation anesthesia that produces both muscle relaxation and unconsciousness."

C) "An anesthesia that provides maximum analgesia with minimal respiratory side effects."

D) "An anesthesia that combines other drugs with inhalation anesthesia to produce the desired effects."

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29

Nonopioid Centrally Acting Analgesics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has developed opioid tolerance will experience which effect?

A) Decreased analgesic effect

B) Decreased constipation

C) Increased euphoria

D) Increased respiratory depression

Q2) A patient with chronic pain has been receiving morphine sulfate but now has decreased pain. The prescriber changes the medication to pentazocine [Talwin]. The nurse will monitor the patient for:

A) euphoria.

B) hypotension.

C) respiratory depression.

D) yawning and sweating.

Q3) A nurse is administering morphine sulfate to a postoperative patient. Which are appropriate routine nursing actions when giving this drug? (Select all that apply.)

A) Counting respirations before and after giving the medication

B) Encouraging physical activity and offering increased fluids

C) Monitoring the patient's blood pressure closely for hypertension

D) Palpating the patient's lower abdomen every 4 to 6 hours

E) Requesting an order for methylnaltrexone [Relistor] to prevent constipation

Page 30

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Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients with Cancer

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Sample Questions

Q1) An older adult patient who has cancer and Alzheimer's disease is crying but shakes her head "no" when asked about pain. The prescriber has ordered morphine sulfate 2 to 4 mg IV every 2 hours PRN pain. It has been 4 hours since a dose has been given. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer 4 mg of morphine and monitor this patient's verbal and nonverbal responses.

B) Give 2 mg of morphine for pain to avoid increasing this patient's level of confusion.

C) Request an order for a nonopioid analgesic or an antidepressant adjuvant analgesic.

D) Withhold any analgesic at this time and reassess the patient in 30 to 60 minutes.

Q2) A patient newly diagnosed with cancer reports having pain at a level of 7 to 8 on a scale of 10. Which type of pain management will be used initially to treat pain in this patient?

A) Acetaminophen [Tylenol]

B) Ibuprofen [Motrin]

C) Nonpharmacologic measures

D) Opioid analgesics

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Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has migraine headaches has been using sumatriptan [Imitrex] with good results,but reports frequent migraine recurrence 24 hours later. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) Aspirin

B) Ergotamine [Ergomar]

C) Naratriptan [Amerge]

D) Zolmitriptan [Zomig]

Q2) A patient who has migraine headaches is prescribed sumatriptan [Imitrex] 5 mg unit-dose nasal spray. The patient has administered two sprays at 1400,1600,and 1800 and calls to report little relief from headache pain. What will the nurse instruct the patient to do?

A) Administer 2 sprays at 2000 and call the provider if no relief.

B) Continue using 2 sprays every 2 hours as needed to relieve discomfort.

C) Contact the provider to ask about using an ergot alkaloid medication.

D) Use 3 sprays at the next dose to increase the dose.

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32

Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is taking a first-generation antipsychotic (FGA)drug for schizophrenia comes to the clinic for evaluation. The nurse observes that the patient has a shuffling gait and mild tremors. The nurse will ask the patient's provider about which course of action?

A) Administering a direct dopamine antagonist

B) Giving an anticholinergic medication

C) Increasing the dose of the antipsychotic drug

D) Switching to a second-generation antipsychotic drug

Q2) A patient with schizophrenia shows suicidal behaviors,and the provider orders clozapine [Clozaril]. The nurse teaches the family about the medication and its side effects. Which statement by a family member indicates a need for further teaching about this drug?

A) "Blood counts are necessary for several weeks after discontinuation of the drug."

B) "Fever, sore throat, and sores in the mouth should be reported immediately."

C) "If the ANC is less than 3000, the drug will be discontinued permanently."

D) "Use of this drug requires weekly evaluation of blood work."

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Chapter 32: Antidepressants

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been taking fluoxetine [Prozac] for 2 years and reports feeling cured of depression. The nurse learns that the patient is sleeping well,participates in usual activities,and feels upbeat and energetic most of the time. The patient's weight has returned to normal. The patient reports last having symptoms of depression at least 9 months ago. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) Indefinite drug therapy is necessary to maintain remission.

B) Discuss gradual withdrawal of the medication with the provider.

C) Stop the drug while remaining alert for the return of symptoms.

D) Take a drug holiday to see whether symptoms recur.

Q2) A patient is brought to the emergency department after taking a handful of TCA pills. The nurse will expect to provide what when caring for this patient? (Select all that apply.)

A) Cardiac monitoring

B) Cholinesterase inhibitors

C) Gastric lavage and activated charcoal

D) Sedative medications

E) Procainamide

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Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with bipolar disorder who is taking divalproex sodium [Valproate] has just been admitted to the hospital. During the admission assessment,the patient tells the nurse about recent suicidal ideation. The nurse observes several areas of bruising over soft tissue areas and notes a weight gain of 10 pounds since the last admission 1 year ago. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient whether the bruises are self-inflicted.

B) Contact the provider to report these findings.

C) Give the patient information about weight loss.

D) Request an order for an increased dose to help with depressive symptoms.

Q2) A patient with bipolar disorder is admitted to the hospital. The patient has been taking lithium [Lithobid] for several years and has not been evaluated by a provider for over a year. Besides obtaining a lithium level,the nurse caring for this patient will anticipate orders for which laboratory tests? (Select all that apply.)

A) Calcium level

B) Complete blood count with differential

C) Liver function tests

D) Renal function tests

E) Serum potassium

F) Thyroid function tests

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Page 35

Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a new-onset seizure disorder receives a prescription for phenobarbital. The patient reports being concerned about the sedative side effects of this drug. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Phenobarbital doses for seizures are nonsedating."

B) "This is a short-acting barbiturate, so sedation wears off quickly."

C) "Tolerance to the sedative effects will develop in a few weeks."

D) "You may actually experience paradoxical effects of euphoria."

Q2) A patient has been taking high doses of clorazepate [Tranxene] for several months for an anxiety disorder. The nurse assessing the patient observes that the patient is agitated,euphoric,and anxious. What will the nurse do?

A) Double-check the chart to make sure the last dose was given.

B) Request an order for a longer-acting benzodiazepine.

C) Suspect a possible paradoxical reaction to the clorazepate.

D) Withhold the next dose until a drug level can be drawn.

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Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)has been undergoing behavioral therapy but continues to exhibit symptoms that interfere with daily life. Which intervention will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) Alprazolam [Xanax]

B) Buspirone [Buspar]

C) Deep brain stimulation

D) Fluoxetine [Paxil]

Q2) A nurse is preparing a patient who will stop taking lorazepam [Ativan] for anxiety and begin taking buspirone [Buspar]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I can drink alcohol when taking Buspar, but not grapefruit juice."

B) "I may need to use a sedative medication if I experience insomnia."

C) "I may not feel the effects of Buspar for a few weeks."

D) "I should stop taking the Ativan when I start taking the Buspar."

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Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and

Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder

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Sample Questions

Q1) An adult patient will begin taking atomoxetine [Strattera] for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. What will the nurse teach this patient?

A) Appetite suppression does not occur, because this drug is not a stimulant.

B) Stopping the drug abruptly will cause an abstinence syndrome.

C) Suicidal thoughts may occur and should be reported to the provider.

D) Therapeutic effects may not be felt for 1 to 3 weeks after beginning therapy.

Q2) A child is diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). The prescriber orders a central nervous system stimulant. Which statement by the child's parent indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I should report insomnia and poor appetite to his provider."

B) "I will make sure he takes his medication after breakfast every day."

C) "This drug will make him less impulsive while he's at school."

D) "This medication will help my child focus so he can learn new behaviors."

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Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about drug abuse. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Patients who experience physical dependence will show compulsive drug-seeking behavior."

B) "People who are addicted to a drug do not necessarily have tolerance to that drug."

C) "Physical dependence means that abstinence syndrome will occur if a drug is withdrawn."

D) "Physical dependence often contributes to addictive behavior but does not cause it."

Q2) A patient who has been taking a medication with a side effect of drowsiness stops taking the medication after several weeks. The patient reports feeling anxious and jittery. The nurse understands that this response is due to:

A) addiction.

B) psychologic dependence.

C) tolerance.

D) withdrawal syndrome.

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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse II: Alcohol

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is obtaining an admission history on a patient who reports daily drinking for several years. When the nurse questions the patient further,the patient reports drinking up to five or six drinks each day. The patient expresses worry about liver damage. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the patient's provider to request liver function studies.

B) Explain that hepatitis, progressing to severe liver impairment, is likely.

C) Inform the patient that the history indicates that cirrhosis is likely to occur.

D) Tell the patient that stopping drinking will reverse any effects on the liver.

Q2) A patient who has undergone treatment for alcoholism several times,with relapse occurring shortly after each treatment,has just completed detoxification. The patient requests a medication to help maintain abstinence. Which drug will the nurse expect the provider to prescribe?

A) Acamprosate [Campral]

B) Chlordiazepoxide [Librium]

C) Disulfiram [Antabuse]

D) Naltrexone [ReVia]

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Chapter 39: Drug Abuse III: Nicotine and Smoking

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 4-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with symptoms of nausea and vomiting and a weak,thready pulse of 120 beats per minute after ingesting several cigarettes at home. The nurse caring for this child will expect to provide which treatment?

A) Gastric lavage

B) Hemodialysis

C) Respiratory support

D) Vasoconstrictors

Q2) A patient reports a desire to stop smoking and asks what is available without a prescription to help with smoking cessation. The nurse tells the patient that which method is best?

A) Abrupt discontinuation to shorten withdrawal effects

B) Nicotine replacement and 1-800-QUITNOW

C) Nicotine replacement products tapered over a year

D) Support groups without the use of medications

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Chapter 40: Drug Abuse IV: Major Drugs of Abuse Other

Than Alcohol and Nicotine

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of dizziness,lightheadedness,and a pulsating headache. Further assessment reveals a blood pressure of 82/60 mm Hg and palpitations. The patient's friends tell the nurse that they were experimenting with "poppers." The nurse will expect to administer which medication?

A) Diazepam [Valium]

B) Haloperidol [Haldol]

C) Methylene blue and supplemental oxygen

D) Naloxone [Narcan]

Q2) A patient who is a heroin addict is admitted to a methadone substitution program. After administering the first dose of methadone,the nurse notes that the patient shows signs of euphoria and complains of nausea. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer nalmefene [Revex].

B) Contact the provider to obtain an order for naloxone [Narcan].

C) Question the patient about heroin use that day.

D) Suspect that the patient exaggerated the amount of heroin used.

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Page 42

Chapter 41: Diuretics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with chronic congestive heart failure has repeated hospitalizations in spite of ongoing treatment with hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL] and digoxin. The prescriber has ordered spironolactone [Aldactone] to be added to this patient's drug regimen,and the nurse provides education about this medication. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I can expect improvement within a few hours after taking this drug."

B) "I need to stop taking potassium supplements."

C) "I should use salt substitutes to prevent toxic side effects."

D) "I should watch closely for dehydration."

Q2) An older adult patient with congestive heart failure develops crackles in both lungs and pitting edema of all extremities. The physician orders hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]. Before administering this medication,the nurse reviews the patient's chart. Which laboratory value causes the nurse the most concern?

A) Elevated creatinine clearance

B) Elevated serum potassium level

C) Normal blood glucose level

D) Low levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol

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Page 43

Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with congestive heart failure is admitted to the hospital. During the admission assessment,the nurse learns that the patient is taking a thiazide diuretic. The nurse notes that the admission electrolyte levels include a sodium level of 142 mEq/L,a chloride level of 95 mEq/L,and a potassium level of 3 mEq/L. The prescriber has ordered digoxin to be given immediately. What will the nurse do initially?

A) Give the digoxin and maintain close cardiac monitoring.

B) Hold the digoxin and report the laboratory values to the provider.

C) Hold the thiazide diuretic and give the digoxin.

D) Request an order for an electrocardiogram (ECG).

Q2) A patient is admitted to the hospital after several days of vomiting and diarrhea. After an initial bolus of isotonic (0.9%)sodium chloride solution,the prescriber orders dextrose 5% in \(\frac{1}{2}\) normal saline (D₅NS)with 20 mEq potassium chloride to infuse at a maintenance rate. What should the nurse review before implementing this order? (Select all that apply.)

A) Electrocardiogram

B) Arterial blood gas levels

C) Serum electrolyte levels

D) Serum glucose level

E) Urine output

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Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is taking a beta₁-adrenergic drug to improve the stroke volume of the heart. The nurse caring for this patient knows that this drug acts by increasing:

A) cardiac afterload.

B) cardiac preload.

C) myocardial contractility.

D) venous return.

Q2) A patient with hypertension is admitted to the hospital. On admission the patient's heart rate is 72 beats per minute,and the blood pressure is 140/95 mm Hg. After administering an antihypertensive medication,the nurse notes a heart rate of 85 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg. What does the nurse expect to occur?

A) A decrease in the heart rate back to baseline in 1 to 2 days

B) An increase in the blood pressure within a few days

C) An increase in potassium retention in 1 to 2 days

D) A decrease in fluid retention within a week

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Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the

Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who stops taking an ACE inhibitor because of its side effects will begin taking an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB)medication. Which side effect of ACE inhibitors will not occur with an ARB medication?

A) Angioedema

B) Cough

C) Hyperkalemia

D) Renal failure

Q2) A patient begins taking an ACE inhibitor and complains of a dry cough. What does the nurse correctly tell the patient about this symptom?

A) It indicates that a serious side effect has occurred.

B) It is a common side effect that occurs in almost all patients taking the drug.

C) It may be uncomfortable enough that the drug will need to be discontinued.

D) It occurs frequently in patients taking the drug but will subside over time.

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Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient begins taking nifedipine [Procardia],along with metoprolol,to treat hypertension. The nurse understands that metoprolol is used to:

A) reduce flushing.

B) minimize gingival hyperplasia.

C) prevent constipation.

D) prevent reflex tachycardia.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who will begin taking verapamil [Calan] for hypertension about the drug's side effects. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I may become constipated, so I should increase fluids and fiber."

B) "I may experience a rapid heart rate as a result of taking this drug."

C) "I may have swelling of my hands and feet, but this will subside."

D) "I may need to increase my digoxin dose while taking this drug."

Q3) Which are therapeutic uses for verapamil? (Select all that apply.)

A) Angina of effort

B) Cardiac dysrhythmias

C) Essential hypertension

D) Sick sinus syndrome

E) Suppression of preterm labor

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Page 47

Chapter 46: Vasodilators

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is administering a vasodilator that dilates resistance vessels. The nurse understands that this drug will have which effect on the patient?

A) Decreased cardiac preload

B) Decreased cardiac output

C) Increased tissue perfusion

D) Increased ventricular contraction

Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who will begin taking hydralazine to treat hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the nurse's teaching about this drug?

A) "I will need to ask for assistance when getting up out of a chair."

B) "I will also take a beta blocker medication with this drug to prevent rapid heart rate."

C) "I may develop joint pain, but this side effect will decrease over time."

D) "This drug may cause excessive hair growth on my face, arms, and back."

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Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 5-year-old patient seen in an outpatient clinic is noted to have hypertension on three separate visits. Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring confirms that the child has hypertension. As an initial intervention with the child's parents,the nurse will expect to:

A) perform a detailed health history on the child.

B) provide teaching about antihypertensive medications.

C) reassure the parents that their child may outgrow this condition.

D) teach the parents about lifestyle changes and a special diet.

Q2) A patient who does not consume alcohol or nicotine products reports a strong family history of hypertension and cardiovascular disease. The patient has a blood pressure of 126/82 and a normal weight and body mass index for height and age. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about:

A) ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blocker medications.

B) the DASH diet, sodium restriction, and exercise.

C) increased calcium and potassium supplements.

D) thiazide diuretics and lifestyle changes.

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Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin [Lanoxin] to a patient. The patient's heart rate is 62 beats per minute,and the blood pressure is 120/60 mm Hg. The last serum electrolyte value showed a potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the provider to request an increased dose of digoxin.

B) Give the dose of digoxin and notify the provider of the potassium level.

C) Request an order for a diuretic.

D) Withhold the dose and notify the provider of the heart rate.

Q2) The potassium-sparing diuretic spironolactone [Aldactone] prolongs survival and improves heart failure symptoms by which mechanism?

A) Blocking aldosterone receptors

B) Increasing diuresis

C) Reducing venous pressure

D) Reducing afterload

Q3) Which are expected effects of cardiac glycosides? (Select all that apply.)

A) Decreased cardiac output

B) Decreased force of contraction

C) Decreased heart rate

D) Modulation of neurohormonal systems

E) Positive inotropic effects

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Page 50

Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about dofetilide [Tikosyn] to treat dysrhythmias. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Dofetilide is a first-line medication to treat atrial flutter or atrial fibrillation."

B) "Dofetilide carries a lower risk of causing torsades de pointes than other drugs."

C) "Dofetilide is used for patients with severe symptoms of atrial dysrhythmias."

D) "Dofetilide may be safely used as outpatient therapy to treat atrial fibrillation."

Q2) The nurse educator is providing patient education about the Cardiac Arrhythmia Suppression Trial (CAST). The nurse correctly explains that the trial demonstrated what effect from the pharmacologic suppression of dysrhythmias?

A) It reduced mortality by 50% but increased morbidity.

B) It significantly reduced the risk of a second myocardial infarction (MI).

C) It doubled the risk of a second MI.

D) It should be used in all patients who have had an MI, regardless of rhythm.

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Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease:

Drugs That Help Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which is a possible benefit of taking fish-oil supplements?

A) A decrease in low-density lipoprotein and triglyceride levels

B) Decreased risk of thrombotic stroke

C) Prevention of heart disease in high-risk patients

D) Reduced risk of dysrhythmia in patients after myocardial infarction

Q2) While giving discharge instructions to a patient who will be taking cholestyramine [Questran],the nurse wants to assess the patient's understanding of the treatment. Which statement made by the patient best demonstrates a need for additional teaching?

A) "I will take cholestyramine [Questran] 1 hour before my other medications."

B) "I will increase fluids and fiber in my diet."

C) "I will weigh myself weekly."

D) "I will have my blood pressure checked weekly."

Q3) A nurse is providing discharge teaching instructions for a patient taking cholestyramine [Questran]. Which statement made by the patient demonstrates a need for further teaching?

A) "I will take warfarin [Coumadin] 1 hour before my medicine."

B) "I will increase the fluids and fiber in my diet."

C) "I can take cholestyramine with my hydrochlorothiazide."

D) "I will take digoxin 4 hours after taking the cholestyramine." Page 52

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Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with angina who is taking ranolazine [Ranexa] has developed a respiratory infection and a dysrhythmia. The provider has ordered azithromycin [Zithromax] for the infection and amlodipine for the dysrhythmia. A nursing student caring for this patient tells the nurse that the patient's heart rate is 70 beats per minute,and the blood pressure is 128/80 mm Hg. The nurse asks the student to discuss the plan for this patient's care. Which action is correct?

A) Observe the patient closely for signs of respiratory toxicity.

B) Question the order for azithromycin [Zithromax].

C) Report the patient's increase in blood pressure to the provider.

D) Request an order for a different calcium channel blocker.

Q2) A patient who has begun using transdermal nitroglycerin for angina reports occasional periods of tachycardia. The nurse will expect the prescriber to order:

A) digoxin [Lanoxin] to slow the heart rate.

B) immediate discontinuation of the nitroglycerin.

C) periods of rest when the heart rate increases.

D) verapamil as an adjunct to nitroglycerin therapy.

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Sample Questions

Q1) A postoperative patient reports pain in the left lower extremity. The nurse notes swelling in the lower leg,which feels warm to the touch. The nurse will anticipate giving which medication?

A) Aspirin

B) Clopidogrel [Plavix]

C) Enoxaparin [Lovenox]

D) Warfarin [Coumadin]

Q2) A patient is admitted to the emergency department with chest pain. An electrocardiogram shows changes consistent with an evolving myocardial infarction. The patient's cardiac enzymes are pending. The nurse caring for this patient will expect to:

A) administer aspirin when cardiac enzymes are completed.

B) give alteplase [Activase] within 2 hours.

C) give tenecteplase [TNKase] immediately.

D) obtain an order for an INR.

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Chapter 53: Management of ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is evaluating a patient admitted to the emergency department with an evolving STEMI for possible administration of thrombolytic therapy. Which information,identified during history taking,would contraindicate this type of therapy?

A) The patient just completed her last menstrual cycle.

B) The patient states that the chest pain started 1 hour ago.

C) The patient has a history of a small cerebral aneurysm.

D) The patient has hypertension that is well controlled by diuretic therapy.

Q2) A nurse is discussing fibrinolytic therapy for the acute phase of STEMI management with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of this therapy?

A) "Fibrinolytics are effective when the first dose is given up to 24 hours after symptom onset."

B) "Fibrinolytics should be given once cardiac troponins reveal the presence of STEMI."

C) "Fibrinolytics should be used with caution in patients with a history of cerebrovascular accident."

D) "Patients should receive either an anticoagulant or an antiplatelet agent with a fibrinolytic drug."

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 56

Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8447

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with hemophilia B is admitted to the hospital for surgery. The patient's history reveals long-term use of factor replacement as prophylaxis for bleeding episodes. The nurse anticipates that the provider will order which medication to prevent excessive perioperative bleeding?

A) Desmopressin

B) Factor VIII

C) Ibuprofen

D) Tranexamic acid

Q2) A child with severe hemophilia A receives factor VIII. The nurse expects this drug to be given:

A) on demand when bleeding occurs.

B) on demand when plasma factor VIII activity is less than 1% above normal.

C) prophylactically once weekly to maintain normal factor VIII activity.

D) prophylactically three times weekly to maintain factor VIII activity above 1% of normal.

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Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias

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15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is diagnosed with moderate vitamin B₁₂ deficiency. The nurse reviews the laboratory work and notes that the plasma B₁₂ is low; also,a Schilling test reveals B₁₂ malabsorption. The provider orders oral cyanocobalamin 500 mcg per day. The nurse will contact the provider to:

A) discuss IM dosing.

B) request an order for folic acid.

C) suggest an increased dose.

D) suggest platelet transfusion therapy.

Q2) A patient who has recently immigrated to the United States from an impoverished country appears malnourished. The patient's folic acid levels are low,and the vitamin B₁₂ levels are normal. The nurse expects this patient's treatment to include:

A) a diet high in folic acid.

B) intramuscular folic acid.

C) oral folic acid and vitamin B_12.

D) oral folic acid supplements.

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Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents

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11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8449

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who begins to complain of shortness of breath. The nurse assesses the patient and notes 3+ pitting edema bilaterally in the lower extremities. Which medication taken by the patient causes the most concern?

A) Epoetin alfa

B) Filgrastim (granulocyte colony-stimulating factor)

C) Oprelvekin (interleukin-11)

D) Sargramostim (granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor)

Q2) A patient with chronic renal failure who is on dialysis receives an ESA. The nurse caring for this patient during dialysis notes that the patient's hemoglobin is 10.9 gm/dL,up from the 10.2 gm/dL recorded 2 weeks ago. The patient's blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to suggest:

A) adding an antihypertensive drug.

B) discontinuing the ESA.

C) giving heparin.

D) increasing the dose of the ESA.

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Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8450

Sample Questions

Q1) An adolescent patient recently attended a health fair and had a serum glucose test. The patient telephones the nurse and says,"My level was 125 mg/dL. Does that mean I have diabetes?" What is the nurse's most accurate response?

A) "Unless you were fasting for longer than 8 hours, this does not necessarily mean you have diabetes."

B) "At this level, you probably have diabetes. You will need an oral glucose tolerance test this week."

C) "This level is conclusive evidence that you have diabetes."

D) "This level is conclusive evidence that you do not have diabetes."

Q2) A patient with type 1 diabetes is eating breakfast at 7:30 AM. Blood sugars are on a sliding scale and are ordered before a meal and at bedtime. The patient's blood sugar level is 317 mg/dL. Which formulation of insulin should the nurse prepare to administer?

A) No insulin should be administered.

B) NPH

C) 70/30 mix

D) Lispro [Humalog]

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Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders

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14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8451

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse obtaining an admission history on an adult patient notes that the patient has a heart rate of 62 beats per minute,a blood pressure of 105/62 mm Hg,and a temperature of 96.2°F. The patient appears pale and complains of always feeling cold and tired. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss tests for which condition?

A) Cretinism

B) Graves' disease

C) Hypothyroidism

D) Plummer's disease

Q2) The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient recently diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The patient tells the nurse she does not want to take medications while she is pregnant. What will the nurse explain to this patient?

A) Hypothyroidism is a normal effect of pregnancy and usually is of no consequence.

B) Neuropsychologic deficits in the fetus can occur if the condition is not treated.

C) No danger to the fetus exists until the third trimester.

D) Treatment is required only if the patient is experiencing symptoms.

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Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) A clinic patient who has cirrhosis of the liver develops hypervolemic hypernatremia. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order?

A) Conivaptan [Vaprisol]

B) Desmopressin [DDAVP]

C) Tolvaptan [Samsca]

D) Vasopressin [Pitressin]

Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of growth hormone and reconstitutes the medication. After adding the diluent,the nurse notices that the preparation is cloudy. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the drug as ordered.

B) Discard the drug and prepare another dose.

C) Notify the prescriber.

D) Shake the drug to dissipate the particles.

Q3) What are the effects of prolactin secretion in males? (Select all that apply.)

A) Breast development

B) Decreased libido

C) Delayed puberty

D) Galactorrhea

E) Infertility

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Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is given 1 mg of dexamethasone at 11:00 PM; a plasma cortisol level recorded at 8:00 PM the next day is normal. The nurse knows that this is an indication that the patient has what condition?

A) Addison's disease

B) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

C) Cushing's syndrome

D) Secondary adrenal insufficiency

Q2) A patient is admitted with nausea,vomiting,diarrhea,and abdominal pain. The patient appears emaciated and complains of feeling weak. The nurse notes a heart rate of 98 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 88/54 mm Hg. The nurse reviews the chart and notes an increased serum potassium level and a decreased serum sodium level. The nurse expects the provider to order which medication initially?

A) Cosyntropin [Cortrosyn]

B) Dexamethasone

C) Fludrocortisone [Florinef]

D) Hydrocortisone

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63

Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and

Noncontraceptive Applications

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8454

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is providing patient education about the application of transdermal estrogen spray. Which statement made by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the application of this medication? "I should apply this medication to my:

A) waistline and shoulders."

B) abdomen and arms."

C) breasts and abdomen."

D) thighs and calves."

Q2) A nurse provides teaching to a patient who has had a hysterectomy and is about to begin hormone therapy to manage menopausal symptoms. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Because I am not at risk for uterine cancer, I can take hormones indefinitely."

B) "I can take estrogen to reduce my risk of cardiovascular disease."

C) "I should take the lowest effective dose for the shortest time needed."

D) "I will need a progestin/estrogen combination since I have had a hysterectomy."

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64

Chapter 62: Birth Control

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17 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has just purchased a 1-year supply of 28-day-cycle oral contraceptives. She tells the nurse she wishes she had planned things better,because she has calculated that her period will begin during her upcoming honeymoon. What will the nurse suggest?

A) She should discard the inert pills and start a new pack during the honeymoon.

B) She should discontinue the oral contraceptives and use an alternative form of birth control.

C) She should discuss a prescription for an extended-cycle product with her provider.

D) She should discuss DMPA (Depo-Provera) injections in addition to the OC with her provider.

Q2) A patient at increased risk for thromboembolic disorders will begin taking a progestin-only oral contraceptive. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of how this oral contraceptive works?

A) "I will need to use backup contraception if I miss a pill."

B) "Irregular bleeding is an indication that I should stop using this drug."

C) "The mini-pill is safer than combination OCs and is just as effective."

D) "The progestin-only mini-pill will prevent me from ovulating."

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Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8456

Sample Questions

Q1) An infertile patient has received two 5-day courses of clomiphene [Clomid] to help her conceive. An ultrasound 1 week after the last dose reveals that follicular maturation has occurred without ovulation. The nurse expects the next step for this patient to be:

A) administration of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).

B) an order for cabergoline to be given twice weekly.

C) evaluation of ovarian and pituitary function.

D) repeating clomiphene once daily for 5 days.

Q2) A patient with infertility will begin taking menotropins [Repronex]. The nurse will evaluate this patient's history to determine whether the:

A) patient has a history of hyperinsulinemia.

B) patient has excessive prolactin secretion.

C) patient's pituitary can produce LH and FSH.

D) patient's ovaries are capable of responding to gonadotropins.

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Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function

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12 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has experienced preterm births with her previous two pregnancies will begin receiving hydroxyprogesterone caproate [Makena] to prevent preterm delivery with her current pregnancy. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about this drug?

A) "I should report any calf pain immediately."

B) "I will eventually learn to administer the injections of this drug myself."

C) "This drug may cause fluid retention and glucose intolerance."

D) "This medication must be given once a week until 37 weeks' gestation."

Q2) A pregnant patient is being induced with oxytocin,which has been infusing for 1 hour. The initial rate was 6 milliunits/min,and the rate now is 18 milliunits/min. The nurse notes regular contractions occurring every 3 minutes,each lasting 35 seconds. The nurse will:

A) increase the rate of infusion by 1 to 2 milliunits/min every 15 to 40 minutes.

B) increase the rate of infusion by 3 to 6 milliunits/min every 15 to 40 minutes.

C) interrupt the infusion and continue to monitor the patient before restarting.

D) interrupt the infusion and notify the provider of potential oxytocin toxicity.

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Chapter 65: Androgens

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12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8458

Sample Questions

Q1) A female patient who swims competitively admits to using anabolic steroids to increase her muscle mass and improve her performance. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) Anabolic steroids may actually regulate her periods.

B) Breast size may increase as a result of this drug use.

C) The risk of liver disease will increase.

D) Voice changes and facial hair will reverse when she stops the drug.

Q2) A 14-year-old male patient who plays football is admitted to the hospital. The nurse notes that the patient has short stature for his age according to a standard growth chart. The patient is muscular,has a deep voice,and needs to shave. The nurse notifies the provider of these findings. Which test will the nurse expect the provider to order?

A) Coagulation studies

B) Complete blood count (CBC) with differential

C) Liver function tests and serum cholesterol

D) Serum glucose and hemoglobin A_1c

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68

Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign

Prostatic Hyperplasia

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8459

Sample Questions

Q1) A male patient is being treated for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)by another provider but cannot remember which drug he is taking. He comes to the clinic seeking treatment for erectile dysfunction and receives a prescription for sildenafil [Viagra]. What will the nurse teach this patient?

A) "Sildenafil is not safe to take in conjunction with finasteride [Proscar]."

B) "Sildenafil is safe with any medication for benign prostatic hyperplasia."

C) "To be safe, you should have a transurethral resection before starting sildenafil."

D) "You should not take sildenafil if you are taking silodosin [Rapaflo]."

Q2) A patient who has erectile dysfunction asks a nurse whether sildenafil [Viagra] would be a good medication for him to take. Which aspect of this patient's history would be of most concern?

A) Benign prostatic hypertrophy

B) Mild hypertension

C) Occasional use of nitroglycerin

D) Taking finasteride

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69

Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System

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11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8460

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which finding would most concern the nurse?

A) High level of macrophages

B) Low neutrophil count

C) Low red blood cell (RBC) count

D) Very low helper T lymphocyte count

Q2) A patient has a Type IV hypersensitivity (delayed-type hypersensitivity)response to an infection. The nurse understands that which two types of cells are necessary for this response?

A) Antigen-presenting cells and mast cells

B) Cytolytic T lymphocytes and target cells

C) Immunoglobulin cells and dendritic cells

D) Infected macrophages and CD4 helper T cells

Q3) Which statement is true about helper T cells?

A) They are useful but are not essential to immune responses.

B) They do not play a role in antibody production.

C) They have highly specific receptors to antigens on their surface.

D) They prevent CD4 molecules from attaching to antigens.

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Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8461

Sample Questions

Q1) A 3-year-old child who has asthma is in the clinic for a well-child checkup. The nurse notes that the child is up-to-date for the DTaP,Hepatitis A,Hepatitis B,and the MMR vaccines but has only had one each of the Hib,the Rotavirus,and the PCV13 vaccines. Which vaccine(s)will the nurse anticipate administering to this child?

A) Hib and Rotavirus vaccines

B) PCV13

C) PCV13 and Hib

D) Rotavirus

Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer vaccines to a 1-year-old child. The parents ask the nurse to give the child acetaminophen before administering the vaccine to reduce the pain. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Children don't remember pain, so it isn't necessary to give acetaminophen."

B) "The small needles used to inject the vaccines cause hardly any discomfort."

C) "You can apply a topical anesthetic when you get home to reduce pain from the injection."

D) "Your child's immune response may not be as effective if I give acetaminophen before the vaccine."

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Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8462

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a liver transplant has been receiving cyclosporine [Sandimmune] for 6 months. The nurse reviews this patient's laboratory results and notes a sharp increase in the blood urea nitrogen (BUN)and serum creatinine. Vital signs are normal,and the patient reports no discomfort. What does the nurse suspect?

A) Hepatotoxicity

B) Infection

C) Organ rejection

D) Nephrotoxicity

Q2) A nurse provides teaching to a patient who has undergone kidney transplantation and will begin taking cyclosporine [Sandimmune],a glucocorticoid,and sirolimus [Rapamune]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I should take sirolimus at the same time as the cyclosporine."

B) "I will need to have my blood sugar checked regularly."

C) "I will need to take an antibiotic to prevent lung infections."

D) "Taking this combination of drugs lowers my risk of kidney damage."

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72

Chapter 70: Antihistamines

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Sample Questions

Q1) A prescriber orders hydroxyzine [Vistaril] for a patient with acute urticaria. The nurse will include which information when teaching the patient about this drug?

A) The drug will reduce redness and itching but not edema.

B) This antihistamine is not likely to cause sedation.

C) The patient should avoid drinking alcohol while taking the drug.

D) The patient should report shortness of breath while taking the drug.

Q2) A patient is brought to the emergency department after ingesting a handful of diphenhydramine [Benadryl] tablets. The patient has dilated pupils,a flushed face,and tremors. The patient is agitated and has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute. The nurse may anticipate administering which agents? (Select all that apply.)

A) Activated charcoal

B) Atropine

C) Cathartics

D) Lorazepam

E) Second-generation H₁ antagonists

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Chapter 71: Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors: Nonsteroidal

Anti-inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen

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Sample Questions

Q1) A woman who has arthritis is breast-feeding her infant and asks the nurse if it is safe to take NSAIDs while nursing. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) NSAIDs are safe to take while breast-feeding.

B) NSAIDs are not safe, even in small amounts.

C) She should take only COX-2 inhibitors while breast-feeding.

D) She should request a prescription for narcotic analgesics.

Q2) An adolescent is brought to the emergency department by a parent who reports that the patient took a whole bottle of extended-release acetaminophen tablets somewhere between 8 and 10 hours ago. The nurse will anticipate administering which of the following?

A) Acetylcysteine [Mucomyst]

B) Activated charcoal

C) Hemodialysis

D) Respiratory support

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Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient taking high doses of a glucocorticoid develops weakness in the muscles of the upper arms and in the legs. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the provider to ask about reducing the dose.

B) Encourage the patient to restrict sodium intake.

C) Reassure the patient that this is an expected side effect.

D) Tell the patient to stop taking the drug.

Q2) A patient who has been taking a glucocorticoid for several months arrives in the clinic. The nurse notes that the patient's cheeks appear full and that a prominent hump of fat is present on the upper back. The nurse will ask the provider to order which test(s)?

A) Liver function tests

B) Serum electrolytes

C) Tuberculin skin test

D) Vitamin D levels

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Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient about to begin therapy with etanercept has a positive tuberculin skin test. A chest radiograph is negative. The nurse will expect this patient to:

A) begin taking antituberculosis drugs at the beginning of treatment with etanercept. B) have periodic chest radiographs during treatment with etanercept.

C) have regular monitoring of symptoms to detect active tuberculosis. D) undergo tuberculosis treatment prior to beginning etanercept treatment.

Q2) A patient will begin taking etanercept [Enbrel] for severe rheumatoid arthritis. The patient has been taking methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The patient asks if the etanercept is stronger than the methotrexate. The nurse will tell the patient that etanercept ____ methotrexate.

A) has synergistic effects with B) helps reduce adverse effects associated with C) is better at delaying progression of joint damage than D) has fewer adverse effects than

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Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is admitted for treatment of gout that has been refractory to treatment with allopurinol and probenecid. The patient is taking colchicine,and the prescriber orders pegloticase [Krystexxa]. Before administering this drug,the nurse will expect to:

A) administer an antihistamine and a glucocorticoid.

B) discontinue the colchicine.

C) increase the dose of colchicine.

D) prepare to administer a bronchodilator if needed.

Q2) A patient with chronic gout has an acute gouty episode and is admitted to the hospital. The patient has been taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for several months. The prescriber plans to begin therapy with probenecid. What will the nurse do?

A) Give the medication as ordered and observe the patient closely for gastrointestinal side effects.

B) Request an order to lower the dose of the nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug.

C) Restrict the patient's fluid intake to minimize the risk of renal injury.

D) Suggest delaying the probenecid therapy until the acute episode has subsided.

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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone

Mineralization

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with severe glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis will start therapy with teriparatide [Forteo]. What will the nurse expect to administer?

A) 20 mcg once daily subQ

B) 20 mcg twice daily subQ

C) 10 mcg once daily subQ

D) 10 mcg twice daily subQ

Q2) A nurse provides teaching for a woman who will begin taking supplemental calcium. Which statement by the woman indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Chewable calcium tablets are not absorbed well and are not recommended."

B) "I should not take more than 600 mg of calcium at one time."

C) "I should take enough supplemental calcium to provide my total daily requirements."

D) "If I take calcium with green, leafy vegetables, it will increase absorption."

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Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has been newly diagnosed with asthma is referred to an asthma clinic. The patient reports daily symptoms requiring short-acting beta₂-agonist treatments for relief. The patient has used oral glucocorticoids three times in the past 3 months and reports awakening at night with symptoms about once a week. The patient's forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV₁)is 75% of predicted values. The nurse will expect this patient to be started on which regimen?

A) Daily low-dose inhaled glucocorticoid/LABA with a SABA as needed

B) Daily low-dose inhaled glucocorticoid and a SABA as needed

C) Daily medium-dose inhaled glucocorticoid/LABA combination

D) No daily medications; just a SABA as needed

Q2) A 7-year-old child with asthma uses a daily inhaled glucocorticoid and an albuterol MDI as needed. The provider has added montelukast [Singulair] to the child's regimen. Which statement by the child's parent indicates understanding of this medication?

A) "I may notice mood changes in my child."

B) "I should give this medication twice daily."

C) "I will give my child one 4-mg chewable tablet daily."

D) "This drug can alleviate symptoms during an acute attack."

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Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with allergic rhinitis is taking a compound product of loratadine/pseudoephedrine [Claritin-D] every 12 hours. The patient complains of insomnia. The nurse notes that the patient is restless and anxious. The patient's heart rate is 90 beats per minute,and the blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to:

A) discuss using an intranasal glucocorticoid and loratadine [Claritin].

B) report acute toxicity caused by pseudoephedrine.

C) suggest using an agent with a sympathomimetic drug only.

D) suggest using a topical decongestant to minimize systemic symptoms.

Q2) A patient who has a viral upper respiratory infection reports having a runny nose and a cough that prevents sleep and asks the nurse to recommend an over-the-counter medication. Which medication will the nurse recommend?

A) Diphenhydramine [Benadryl]

B) Fexofenadine/pseudoephedrine [Allegra-D]

C) Guaifenesin [Mucinex]

D) Phenylephrine drops

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Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) An older adult patient with severe gastroesophageal reflux disease ( GERD )has had only minimal relief using a histamine₂-receptor antagonist ( H₂RA ). The patient is to begin taking omeprazole [Prilosec]. What will the nurse teach this patient?

A) A complete cure is expected with this medication.

B) Lifestyle changes can be as effective as medication therapy.

C) Long-term therapy may be needed.

D) The medication will be used until surgery can be performed.

Q2) A patient who takes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)for arthritis asks a nurse what can be done to prevent ulcers. The nurse will recommend asking the provider about using which medication?

A) Antibiotics

B) Histamine-2 receptor antagonists

C) Proton pump inhibitors

D) Mucosal protectants

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Chapter 79: Laxatives

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient reports taking an oral bisacodyl laxative [Dulcolax] for several years. The provider has suggested discontinuing the laxative,but the patient is unsure how to do this. The nurse will tell the patient to:

A) stop taking the oral laxative and use a suppository until normal motility resumes.

B) stop taking the laxative immediately and expect no stool for several days.

C) switch to a bulk-forming laxative, such as methylcellulose [Metamucil].

D) withdraw from the laxative slowly to avoid a rebound constipation effect.

Q2) A patient has been taking senna [Senokot] for several days,and the nurse notes that the urine is yellowish-brown. What does the nurse know about this symptom?

A) It indicates that renal failure has occurred.

B) It is caused by dehydration, which is a laxative side effect.

C) It is a sign of toxicity, indicating immediate withdrawal of the drug.

D) It is an expected, harmless effect of senna.

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Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8473

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is receiving intravenous promethazine [Phenergan] 25 mg for postoperative nausea and vomiting. What is an important nursing action when giving this drug?

A) Giving the dose as an IV push over 3 to 5 minutes

B) Infusing the dose with microbore tubing and an infusion pump

C) Observing the IV insertion site frequently for patency

D) Telling the patient to report dry mouth and sedation

Q2) A patient who experiences motion sickness is about to go on a cruise. The prescriber orders transdermal scopolamine [Transderm Scop]. The patient asks the nurse why an oral agent is not ordered. The nurse will explain that the transdermal preparation:

A) can be applied as needed at the first sign of nausea.

B) has less intense anticholinergic effects than the oral form.

C) is less sedating than the oral preparation.

D) provides direct effects, because it is placed close to the vestibular apparatus of the ear.

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Chapter 81: Vitamins

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8474

Sample Questions

Q1) Which B vitamin deficiency is associated with cheilosis,glossitis,vascularization of the cornea,and itchy dermatitis of the scrotum and vulva?

A) Niacin (nicotinic acid)

B) Pyridoxine (vitamin B₆)

C) Riboflavin (vitamin B₂)

D) Thiamine (vitamin B₁)

Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient who is malnourished and has a history of poor nutrition. The patient reports difficulty seeing at night. This patient is likely to be deficient in which fat-soluble vitamin?

A) A (retinol)

B) D

C) E (alpha-tocopherol)

D) K

Q3) A child is diagnosed with rickets. The nurse knows that this child is most likely deficient in which vitamin?

A) Niacin (nicotinic acid)

B) Thiamin (vitamin B₁)

C) Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)

D) Vitamin D

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Page 84

Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 50-year-old patient with a body mass index (BMI)of 26 and a waist circumference (WC)of 37 who smokes asks a nurse about drugs for weight loss. She tells the nurse,"I keep trying to eat less,but it doesn't work." What will the nurse do?

A) Ask her to begin keeping a log of her food intake and activities.

B) Counsel her to quit smoking to reduce her health risk.

C) Suggest she begin walking every day to increase the number of calories burned.

D) Tell her she is a candidate for drug therapy and suggest she contact her provider.

Q2) A patient has been taking phentermine and topiramate [Osymia] for 6 months for weight loss. The nurse weighs the patient and notes a 3% weight loss since beginning the drug. The nurse will expect the prescriber to:

A) continue the current dosage for 4 more weeks.

B) discontinue the drug.

C) increase the drug dosage.

D) switch to another nonamphetamine agent.

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85

Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

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13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has a viral sinus infection,and the provider tells the patient that antibiotics will not be prescribed. The patient wants to take an antibiotic and asks the nurse what possible harm could occur by taking an antibiotic. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Antibiotics are mutagenic and can produce changes that cause resistance."

B) "Even normal flora can develop resistance and transfer this to pathogens."

C) "Host cells become resistant to antibiotics with repeated use."

D) "Patients who overuse antibiotics are more likely to have nosocomial infections."

Q2) An older adult patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)develops bronchitis. The patient has a temperature of 39.5°C. The nurse will expect the provider to: A) obtain a sputum culture and wait for the results before prescribing an antibiotic. B) order empiric antibiotics while waiting for sputum culture results.

C) treat symptomatically, because antibiotics are usually ineffective against bronchitis. D) treat the patient with more than one antibiotic without obtaining cultures.

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86

Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I:

Penicillins

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The parent of an infant with otitis media asks the nurse why the prescriber has ordered amoxicillin [Amoxil] and not ampicillin [Unasyn]. What will the nurse tell the parent?

A) Amoxicillin is a broader spectrum antibiotic than ampicillin.

B) Amoxicillin is not inactivated by beta-lactamases.

C) Ampicillin is associated with more allergic reactions.

D) Ampicillin is not as acid stable as amoxicillin.

Q2) Which organisms can be treated with penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin)? (Select all that apply.)

A) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

B) Neisseria meningitidis

C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D) Streptococcus pyogenes

E) Treponema pallidum

Q3) A child with an ear infection is not responding to treatment with amoxicillin [Amoxil]. The nurse will expect the provider to order:

A) amoxicillin-clavulanic acid [Augmentin].

B) ampicillin.

C) nafcillin.

D) penicillin G [Benzylpenicillin].

Page 87

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Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall II:

Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, and Fosfomycin

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13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which cephalosporin may be used to treat meningitis?

A) Cefaclor

B) Cefazolin

C) Cefoxitin

D) Cefotaxime

Q2) A patient is to undergo orthopedic surgery,and the prescriber will order a cephalosporin to be given preoperatively as prophylaxis against infection. The nurse expects the provider to order which cephalosporin?

A) First-generation cephalosporin

B) Second-generation cephalosporin

C) Third-generation cephalosporin

D) Fourth-generation cephalosporin

Q3) A patient who is receiving a final dose of intravenous (IV)cephalosporin begins to complain of pain and irritation at the infusion site. The nurse observes signs of redness at the IV insertion site and along the vein. What is the nurse's priority action?

A) Apply warm packs to the arm, and infuse the medication at a slower rate.

B) Continue the infusion while elevating the arm.

C) Select an alternate intravenous site and administer the infusion more slowly.

D) Request central venous access.

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Chapter 86: Bacteriostatic Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis:

Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient develops CDAD. Which antibiotic is recommended for treating this infection?

A) Chloramphenicol

B) Clindamycin [Cleocin]

C) Linezolid [Zyvox]

D) Vancomycin

Q2) A nurse is providing teaching for a patient who will begin taking clarithromycin ER [Biaxin XL] to treat an Helicobacter pylori infection. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I may experience distorted taste when taking this medication."

B) "I should take 1 tablet twice daily for 10 days."

C) "I should take this medication on an empty stomach."

D) "This medication does not interact with other drugs."

Q3) A patient with severe community-acquired pneumonia has been prescribed telithromycin [Ketek]. Which aspect of the patient's medical history is of concern to the nurse?

A) Anemia

B) Myasthenia gravis

C) Renal disease

D) Strep. pneumoniae infection

Page 89

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Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis

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18 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is diagnosed with an infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus,and the prescriber orders intravenous gentamicin and penicillin (PCN). Both drugs will be given twice daily. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer gentamicin, flush the line, and then give the penicillin.

B) Give the gentamicin intravenously and the penicillin intramuscularly.

C) Infuse the gentamicin and the penicillin together to prevent fluid overload.

D) Request an order to change the penicillin to vancomycin.

Q2) A patient shows signs and symptoms of conjunctivitis. Which aminoglycoside would the nurse expect to be ordered?

A) Amikacin [Amikin]

B) Kanamycin [Kantrex]

C) Neomycin [Neomycin]

D) Paromomycin [Humatin]

Q3) A patient who has been taking gentamicin for 5 days reports a headache and dizziness. What will the nurse do?

A) Request an order for a gentamicin peak level.

B) Suspect ototoxicity and notify the prescriber.

C) Tell the patient to ask for help with ambulation.

D) Tell the patient to report any tinnitus.

Page 90

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Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will be discharged from the hospital with a prescription for TMP/SMZ [Bactrim]. When providing teaching for this patient,the nurse will tell the patient that it will be important to:

A) drink 8 to 10 glasses of water each day.

B) eat foods that are high in potassium.

C) take the medication with food.

D) take folic acid supplements.

Q2) A nurse is discussing microbial resistance among sulfonamides and trimethoprim with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Bacterial resistance to trimethoprim is relatively uncommon."

B) "Resistance among gonococci, streptococci, and meningococci to sulfonamides is high."

C) "Resistance to both agents can occur by spontaneous mutation of organisms."

D) "Resistance to sulfonamides is less than resistance to trimethoprim."

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Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is taking nitrofurantoin calls the nurse to report several side effects. Which side effect of this drug causes the most concern and would require discontinuation of the medication?

A) Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting

B) Brown-colored urine

C) Drowsiness

D) Tingling of the fingers

Q2) A patient with a history of renal calculi has fever,flank pain,and bacteriuria. The nurse caring for this patient understands that it is important for the provider to:

A) begin antibiotic therapy after urine culture and sensitivity results are available.

B) give prophylactic antibiotics for 6 weeks after the acute infection has cleared.

C) initiate immediate treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics.

D) refer the patient for intravenous antibiotics and hospitalization.

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Chapter 90: Antimycobacterial Agents: Drugs for

Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium avium Complex

Infection

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8483

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has drug-sensitive tuberculosis has completed 2 months of the standard four-drug therapy and asks the nurse how long he will have to take medication. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "As long as you remain symptomatic, you will not have to take more medication."

B) "The four-drug regimen will continue for 3 more months."

C) "You will have to take maintenance drugs indefinitely."

D) "You will need to take only two drugs for the next 4 months."

Q2) A patient is about to begin treatment for latent tuberculosis. The patient is an alcoholic,has difficulty complying with drug regimens,and has mild liver damage. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) "You must stop drinking before adequate treatment can begin."

B) "You must take isoniazid with close monitoring of hepatic function."

C) "You must take rifampin daily for 4 months."

D) "You will begin a regimen of isoniazid and rifampin."

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Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:

Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins

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11 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will receive oral ciprofloxacin [Cipro] to treat a urinary tract infection. The nurse provides teaching for this patient. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I may have abdominal pain and nausea, but these are usually mild."

B) "I should take this medication with food or milk to improve absorption."

C) "I should stop taking the medication immediately if I experience heel pain."

D) "I will need to use sunscreen every time I go outdoors."

Q2) Which fluoroquinolone antibiotics may be administered to children? (Select all that apply.)

A) Ciprofloxacin [Cipro]

B) Levofloxacin [Levaquin]

C) Moxifloxacin [Avelox]

D) Norfloxacin [Noroxin]

E) Ofloxacin

Q3) Which antibiotics may be administered topically? (Select all that apply.)

A) Bacitracin

B) Daptomycin

C) Ofloxacin

D) Polymyxin B

E) Rifampin

Page 94

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Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with histoplasmosis is being treated with itraconazole [Sporanox]. The nurse will teach this patient to report which symptoms?

A) Gynecomastia and decreased libido

B) Headache and rash

C) Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia

D) Visual disturbances

Q2) A patient will begin taking an immunosuppressant medication. The nurse learns that the patient has a history of frequent candidal infections. The nurse will expect the provider to order which drug as prophylaxis?

A) Fluconazole [Diflucan]

B) Ketoconazole

C) Posaconazole [Noxafil]

D) Voriconazole [Vfend]

Q3) A patient who is taking ketoconazole tells the nurse that her periods have become irregular. What will the nurse tell her?

A) This indicates that she should begin taking oral contraceptives.

B) This is caused by a reversible effect on estradiol synthesis.

C) This is a serious side effect that warrants discontinuation of the drug.

D) This is a sign of hepatic toxicity, and the drug dose should be lowered.

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Page 96

Chapter 93: Antiviral Agents I: Drugs for Non-HIV Viral

Infections

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) An immunocompromised child is exposed to chickenpox and the provider orders valacyclovir [Valtrex] to be given orally three times daily. The nurse will contact the provider to change this order for which reason?

A) Valacyclovir is not used as varicella prophylaxis.

B) The dosage is too high for this indication.

C) The drug may cause serious adverse effects in immunocompromised patients.

D) Valacyclovir is not approved for use in children.

Q2) A patient has a positive test for influenza type A and tells the nurse that symptoms began 5 days before being tested. The prescriber has ordered oseltamivir [Tamiflu]. The nurse will tell the patient that oseltamivir:

A) may decrease symptom duration by 2 or 3 days.

B) may not be effective because of the delay in starting treatment.

C) may reduce the severity but not the duration of symptoms.

D) will alleviate symptoms within 24 hours of the start of therapy.

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97

Chapter

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is preparing to discharge a patient with HIV who will continue to take enfuvirtide [Fuzeon] at home. The nurse is providing patient education about the medication. What information about the administration of enfuvirtide is most appropriate for the patient?

A) The importance of injecting the drug into two alternating sites daily

B) How to reconstitute and self-administer a subcutaneous injection

C) The importance of taking the drug with high doses of vitamin E

D) Likely drug interactions between enfuvirtide and other antiretroviral drugs

Q2) The nurse asks a graduate nurse,"When a patient in the initial phase of HIV infection is assessed,which findings would you expect to see?" The graduate nurse would be correct to respond with which conditions? (Select all that apply.)

A) Respiratory distress

B) Fever

C) Myalgia

D) Lymphadenopathy

E) Insomnia

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98

Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8488

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient complains of painful urination. A physical examination reveals vesicles on her labia,vagina,and the foreskin of her clitoris. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about which medication?

A) Acyclovir [Zovirax]

B) Azithromycin [Zithromax]

C) Metronidazole [Flagyl]

D) Tinidazole [Tindamax]

Q2) A patient admitted to the hospital is using metronidazole [Flagyl] 0.75% gel. The nurse understands that this agent is used to treat which condition?

A) Chlamydia trachomatis

B) Gardnerella vaginalis

C) Haemophilus ducreyi

D) Trichomonas vaginalis

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Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has an abrasion,and the nurse is preparing to cleanse the area with iodine. Which preparation will the nurse use?

A) Free elemental iodine

B) Iodine solution

C) Iodine tincture

D) Povidone iodine

Q2) Which compound can be used to treat localized skin infections and to irrigate wounds?

A) Benzalkonium chloride (BAC)

B) Hexachlorophene (pHisoHex)

C) Oxychlorosene sodium (Clorpactin WCS90)

D) Sodium hypochlorite

Q3) A nurse is caring for a patient with an infection caused by Bacillus anthracis. What action is most important for reducing the transmission of this disease?

A) Disinfecting the bedpan with an antiseptic solution

B) Using antibacterial hand soap when washing the hands

C) Using an alcohol-based hand rub after each patient contact

D) Wearing gloves while caring for the patient

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Chapter 97: Anthelmintics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A child has been diagnosed with enterobiasis,and the prescriber orders mebendazole [Vermox] to treat the infestation. When teaching this child's parents about the treatment,the nurse will include which statement?

A) "A single dose of mebendazole will eradicate the infestation."

B) "Everyone in the household should be treated with mebendazole."

C) "Serious complications of this type of infestation are common."

D) "Treatment should be limited to family members with symptoms."

Q2) A patient is being treated for trichinosis. The patient asks the nurse why the provider has ordered prednisone in addition to the anthelmintic medication. The nurse will tell this patient that this is ordered to:

A) prevent swelling of the legs caused by larval infestation of lymphatics.

B) reduce the inflammation that occurs during larval migration.

C) suppress the patient's allergic response to the anthelmintic agent.

D) suppress dermatologic symptoms that occur with heavy infestation.

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Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has severe P. falciparum malaria and is unable to tolerate oral medications. Which regimen is the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved treatment of choice for this patient?

A) Intravenous quinidine gluconate plus intravenous doxycycline [Vibramycin]

B) Intravenous artesunate followed by atovaquone/proguanil [Malarone]

C) Intravenous quinine [Qualaquin] plus intravenous clindamycin

D) Intravenous mefloquine plus intravenous primaquine

Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who is preparing to travel for a month-long missionary trip to Africa. The provider has ordered chloroquine [Aralen Phosphate] as suppressive therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I should continue taking the drug for 2 weeks after returning home."

B) "I should take 500 mg of this drug once each week."

C) "I should take the first dose 1 week before leaving for Africa."

D) "I should take this drug with meals."

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Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs II: Miscellaneous Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A family has just returned from a camping trip,and all family members have diarrhea and colicky abdominal pain after eating. The parents report that they drank water from a well while on the camping trip. While awaiting stool cultures,the nurse will expect the provider to order which agent empirically?

A) Iodoquinol [Yodoxin]

B) Metronidazole [Flagyl]

C) Miltefosine [Impavido]

D) Sodium stibogluconate [Pentostam]

Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with severe symptomatic intestinal amebiasis who has just completed a 10-day course of metronidazole [Flagyl]. Which medication would the nurse expect to be ordered for the patient?

A) Atovaquone [Mepron]

B) Iodoquinol [Yodoxin]

C) Nitazoxanide [Alinia]

D) Pentamidine [Pentam]

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103

Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides

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13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A child is seen in a clinic with a chief complaint of itching,especially at night. The nurse observes small ridges and dotted lines of erythema on the child's neck and buttocks. The nurse will expect the provider to order which medication initially?

A) Benzyl alcohol [Ulesfia]

B) Ivermectin [Stromectol]

C) Malathion [Ovide]

D) Permethrin [Elimite]

Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with head lice. The nurse practitioner orders malathion [Ovide] for treatment. What information should be provided to the patient?

(Select all that apply.)

A) "Scalp irritation could occur."

B) "The drug has a bad odor."

C) "The lotion contains alcohol; use caution around fire."

D) "Significant drug interactions can occur."

E) "After applying the lotion to the scalp and hair, allow it to dry naturally."

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104

Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy

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16 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has just been diagnosed with cancer and will begin chemotherapy. The patient asks the nurse about the possibility of nausea and vomiting. The nurse will tell the patient that:

A) nausea and vomiting can be avoided by having a snack before chemotherapy.

B) nausea and vomiting are common side effects and will abate over time.

C) nausea and vomiting are common and will be treated with antiemetics when they occur.

D) the provider will order drugs to help prevent nausea and vomiting before each dose.

Q2) A hospitalized patient with cancer is receiving chemotherapy and reports oral pain. Inspection of this patient's oral mucosa reveals erythema and inflammation without denudation or ulceration. The nurse understands that:

A) chemotherapy will have to be stopped until healing of the oral mucosa occurs.

B) the patient can use a mouthwash with a topical anesthetic to control pain.

C) the patient will need an antifungal agent to treat Candida albicans.

D) the patient will need systemic opioids to control discomfort.

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105

Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents

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18 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is discussing the care of a patient with cancer with a nursing student. The patient is about to begin chemotherapy with a bifunctional alkylating agent. Which statement by the student indicates an understanding of this chemotherapeutic agent?

A) "Alkylating agents are toxic to tissues that have rapidly dividing cells."

B) "Bifunctional alkylating agents cannot form cross-links in DNA."

C) "Resistance to alkylating agents is rare."

D) "This drug needs to be given as a prolonged infusion."

Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer medication to a patient receiving cyclophosphamide [Cytoxan]. To protect against the side effect of hemorrhagic cystitis,the nurse would expect to administer which drug?

A) Decadron

B) Diphenhydramine [Benadryl]

C) Leucovorin

D) Mesna [Mesnex]

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Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs II: Hormonal Agents,

Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with advanced cancer of the prostate begins treatment with leuprolide [Lupron Depot] injections and will receive 7.5 mg IM once per month. After the first injection,the patient experiences an increase in cancer symptoms. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) Desensitization to the drug over time will result in a decrease in these symptoms.

B) The dose of leuprolide may have to be increased to 22.5 mg per month.

C) These symptoms indicate a need for surgical castration to treat the cancer.

D) This is a sign that the patient's cancer is getting worse.

Q2) A 43-year-old patient with a strong family history of breast cancer considers taking tamoxifen [Nolvadex] for cancer prevention. Which assessment finding is a possible contraindication?

A) History of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

B) History of osteoporosis

C) Hyperlipidemia

D) Prior hysterectomy

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Page 107

Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been using latanoprost [Xalatan] ophthalmic drops. The patient tells the nurse,"My eyes used to be greenish-brown,but now they're brown." What will the nurse do?

A) Reassure the patient that this is a harmless side effect.

B) Report this toxic effect to the patient's provider.

C) Tell the patient that this indicates an increased risk of migraine headaches.

D) Tell the patient that this effect will reverse when the medication is withdrawn.

Q2) A patient begins using timolol [Timoptic] to treat primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG). The nurse gives a dose and notes that the patient develops shortness of breath. The nurse assesses the patient and auscultates wheezes in both lungs. The nurse will ask this patient about a history of which condition?

A) Asthma

B) Atrioventricular heart block

C) Pulmonary hypertension

D) Sinus bradycardia

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108

Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 50-year-old patient receives botulinum toxin type A [Botox] injections for the first time on her forehead and around her eyes. One week later,she calls the clinic to report that she is experiencing droopy eyelids. The nurse will tell the patient that this effect:

A) is normal and will resolve in a few days.

B) may persist for 3 to 6 months but will resolve.

C) may progress to cause drooling and dysphagia.

D) represents an adverse effect that may be permanent.

Q2) An adolescent patient with moderate acne has begun a regimen consisting of combination clindamycin/benzoyl peroxide [BenzaClin] and tretinoin [Retin-A]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this medication regimen?

A) "I should apply the Retin-A immediately after bathing."

B) "I should apply the Retin-A twice daily."

C) "I should augment this therapy with an abrasive soap."

D) "I should use sunscreen every day."

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109

Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8499

Sample Questions

Q1) A child has been diagnosed with otitis media with effusion (OME),and the child's parent asks the nurse what this means. The nurse will explain that OME is:

A) a condition with a heightened risk of acute otitis media.

B) an acute ear infection with fluid in the middle ear.

C) an infection of the skin and tissues of the outer ear.

D) fluid in the middle ear without localized or systemic infection.

Q2) An 18-month-old child is seen in the clinic with a temperature of 40°C. The child's parents tell the nurse that the child developed the fever the previous evening and was inconsolable during the night. The provider examines the child and notes a bulging,erythematous tympanic membrane. The nurse will expect to:

A) ask the parent to return to the clinic in 2 days to see whether antibiotics need to be started.

B) discuss a referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for follow-up treatment.

C) teach the parent to give analgesics for 3 days while observing for worsening symptoms.

D) tell the parent to administer amoxicillin at 45 mg/kg/dose twice daily.

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Chapter 107: Additional Noteworthy Drugs

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8500

Sample Questions

Q1) A pregnant patient begins active labor at 30 weeks' gestation. The provider orders dexamethasone 6 mg intramuscularly to be given twice daily for 4 doses. The patient asks the nurse what effect this drug will have on the fetus. The nurse will tell her that the dexamethasone is given to:

A) improve cognitive function in the fetus.

B) improve fetal neuromotor development.

C) increase fetal weight and length.

D) increase lung development in the fetus.

Q2) A nurse is quizzing a nursing student who is preparing to care for a patient with cystic fibrosis. The patient uses inhaled tobramycin [TOBI],dornase alfa [Pulmozyme],ibuprofen,and salmeterol [Serevent Diskus]. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of this patient's drug regimen?

A) "Dornase alfa is used as needed to decrease viscosity of sputum."

B) "Ibuprofen is used to minimize pleuritic pain associated with coughing."

C) "Salmeterol acts by causing bronchodilation and improving ciliary function."

D) "Tobramycin is given via a metered-dose inhaler to avoid systemic side effects."

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Chapter 108: Dietary Supplements

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8501

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will begin taking immunosuppressant drugs for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse will caution this patient to avoid which dietary supplement?

A) Black cohosh

B) Echinacea

C) Feverfew

D) Glucosamine

Q2) A patient admitted to the emergency department with abdominal pain tells the nurse he has been taking kava. Which action is the nurse's priority at this time?

A) Review liver function studies.

B) Assess breath sounds and respiratory effort.

C) Monitor cardiovascular status.

D) Review complete blood count results.

Q3) Which claim may be made by manufacturers of dietary supplements? (Select all that apply.)

A) "Energizes and rejuvenates"

B) "Promotes pulmonary health"

C) "Reduces pain and stiffness from arthritis"

D) "Reduces stress"

E) "Relieves hot flashes associated with menopause"

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Page 112

Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8502

Sample Questions

Q1) A child is admitted to the hospital after a routine lead screen reveals an elevated serum lead level. The prescriber has ordered edetate calcium disodium (calcium EDTA)as a chelating agent. During this drug treatment,the nurse will expect to:

A) collect a daily urine specimen.

B) give the medication on an empty stomach.

C) monitor the child's heart rate and blood pressure.

D) request orders for liver function tests.

Q2) A patient is brought to the emergency department after ingestion of an unknown substance. The patient has been vomiting and complains of abdominal pain. The nurse observes that the patient's oral mucous membranes are dry,the heart rate is 88 beats per minute,and the blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. The nurse will prepare to initially:

A) administer an antiemetic.

B) give activated charcoal.

C) infuse normal saline as an IV bolus.

D) obtain blood for toxicology testing.

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113

Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8503

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a course in bioterrorism to a group of military nurses. Which statement by a military nurse indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Although smallpox has been eradicated, it remains a threat."

B) "Anthrax is spread rapidly from person to person."

C) "Pneumonic plague is not transmitted from person to person."

D) "Terrorists spreading tularemia would most likely put it in the water supply."

Q2) A nurse responds when a patient asks why the smallpox vaccine is no longer given. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "The smallpox vaccine can cause serious side effects."

B) "The smallpox vaccine can confer protection when given after exposure."

C) "The smallpox vaccine is too expensive to give routinely."

D) "The smallpox vaccine may cause live virus to spread to others."

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